Question 1

Which of the following was not an original objective behind constructing the Farakka Barrage on the Ganga river?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question deals with Indian geography and river valley projects, focusing on the strategic objectives of the Farakka Barrage on the Ganga river. Understanding why such a barrage was built helps learners connect physical geography, river management, and economic needs such as port maintenance and navigation. Examinations often ask about the true objectives of major projects and also about statements that look plausible but were not the officially stated aims. Given Data / Assumptions: • The project mentioned is the Farakka Barrage on the Ganga river. • Four possible purposes are listed as options. • We must identify which option was not a purpose for constructing the barrage. Concept / Approach: The Farakka Barrage was mainly built to improve the navigability of the Bhagirathi Hooghly river system and to reduce silting at Kolkata Port by diverting additional water into its channel. It also had related objectives such as protecting the river bank and aiding navigation. Although river flow into what is now Bangladesh became a political issue later, restricting water to Bangladesh was not an officially declared objective of the barrage when it was conceived and built. The approach is to recall these documented aims and eliminate the option that reflects a political consequence rather than a stated purpose. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Kolkata Port had been suffering from heavy silting and reduced navigability in the Hooghly channel. Step 2: Remember that the Farakka Barrage was designed to divert part of the Ganga flow into the Hooghly to flush out silt and improve the functioning of Kolkata Port. Step 3: Note that improving navigation in the Ganga and Hooghly system and reducing bank erosion were associated technical objectives. Step 4: Observe that checking water flowing into Bangladesh reflects a later interstate and international water sharing dispute, not a formally stated engineering purpose of the project. Step 5: Conclude that checking water flowing into Bangladesh was not an original declared purpose of building the barrage. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative way to verify is to group the options conceptually. Options dealing with port silt, port erosion, and river navigation are all technical and economic aims that fit with the design of a barrage near a major port. Only the idea of restricting water to another country appears political rather than engineering oriented. Project documents and standard textbooks consistently emphasise port preservation and navigation rather than deliberately checking flow into Bangladesh, confirming the choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Checking silting of Kolkata Port: This was a major objective because excessive silt threatened the viability of the port, and additional water was needed to flush out sediments. Preventing erosion of Kolkata Port: Reducing erosive effects and protecting river banks and port infrastructure was naturally linked to the hydrological regulation provided by the barrage. Facilitating navigation in Ganga river: Improving navigability for vessels in the Ganga and Hooghly system was one of the functional goals of the project. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes confuse the later political disputes between India and Bangladesh over water sharing with the original engineered objectives of the project. Another mistake is to think that any effect of a project automatically counts as a planned purpose. Examinations often test this distinction by including one politically sounding option among technical objectives. Carefully focusing on stated aims rather than later controversies helps avoid such errors. Final Answer: The correct answer is Checking water flowing into Bangladesh.

Question 2

The Group of Twenty (G 20) brings together the twenty largest economies of the world and they are represented at its meetings by which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This item checks awareness of key international economic groupings. The Group of Twenty, commonly called G 20, plays an important role in global economic coordination and financial stability. Knowing who officially represents member economies at G 20 meetings is a standard general awareness requirement in many competitive exams, especially those that include international organisations and economic institutions as a topic. Given Data / Assumptions: • The organisation in focus is the Group of Twenty (G 20). • The question asks who represents the member economies in this forum. • The options contrast prime ministers, finance ministers, central bank governors, and heads of states. Concept / Approach: The core idea is that the G 20 originally evolved as a meeting of finance ministers and central bank governors from the world's major economies. While there are now G 20 summits where heads of state or government also meet, the basic institutional description used in exam oriented material highlights the finance ministers and central bank governors as the official representatives of the member economies in the group. Therefore, we must choose the option that includes both these roles. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the full form of G 20, which stands for Group of Twenty major economies. Step 2: Remember that the group emerged from meetings of finance ministers and central bank governors to discuss international financial and economic issues. Step 3: Note that although heads of state attend high level summits, the classical exam definition emphasises finance ministers and central bank governors as the core representatives. Step 4: Compare the options and locate the one that explicitly mentions both finance ministers and central bank governors. Step 5: Select the option stating finance ministers and central bank governors as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: A quick verification method is to recall typical headings used in news reports, such as G 20 meeting of finance ministers and central bank governors. These headlines are common whenever the group discusses global growth, financial regulation, or crisis responses. References to a prime ministers only or heads of states only forum do not match the classic description. This mental cross check helps confirm the correct option. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Prime Ministers only: G 20 is not limited to prime ministers and includes presidents and other forms of heads of government, so this wording is inaccurate. Finance Ministers only: Central bank governors also participate in G 20 economic and financial discussions, so this option is incomplete. Heads of States: Heads of state or government may attend G 20 summits, but the institutional definition used in most textbooks emphasises finance ministers and central bank governors. Common Pitfalls: Learners often focus only on summit level news where presidents or prime ministers appear prominently and therefore assume that heads of state are the formal representatives. Another confusion arises between a political leaders summit and the ongoing institutional work of finance ministries and central banks. Carefully remembering the original purpose of the G 20 as a financial policy forum helps avoid these errors. Final Answer: The correct answer is Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors.

Question 3

According to the 2016 Human Development Index report published by the United Nations Development Programme, what was the rank of the United States of America?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question belongs to the topic of human development indicators and international rankings. The Human Development Index, or HDI, is compiled by the United Nations Development Programme to capture overall development through health, education, and income indicators. Competitive exams frequently ask about the rank of major countries like the United States in landmark HDI reports, especially when a specific year such as 2016 is mentioned. Given Data / Assumptions: • The reference is the Human Development Index report for the year 2016. • The country under consideration is the United States of America. • The options for rank are 1, 10, 100, and 200. Concept / Approach: The Human Development Index ranks countries based on a composite score involving life expectancy, education level, and per capita income. Highly developed countries such as Norway, Australia, Switzerland, and others usually occupy the very top positions. The United States, although highly developed, is not ranked number one but still appears within the top group. For the 2016 report, the United States is recorded around the tenth position, so the correct answer must reflect this top ten but not number one placement. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the HDI top position is frequently held by a small highly developed country such as Norway, not by the United States. Step 2: Recognise that the United States has high standards of living and thus must be ranked in the very high human development category. Step 3: Remember that in the 2016 HDI table, the United States appeared within the first ten positions but not at number one. Step 4: Eliminate extremely low rank options like 100 and 200, which would not match a very high human development country. Step 5: Choose 10 as the rank that accurately matches the 2016 HDI listing for the United States. Verification / Alternative check: As a quick check, think of the approximate ranking clusters. Countries at around rank 100 are generally middle income developing nations, while rank 200 would belong to very low ranked countries and territories if listed. The United States is clearly not in these groups. It is also widely known that Scandinavian countries such as Norway often rank higher than the United States on HDI, which rules out rank 1 for the United States. The remaining plausible option is rank 10, confirming the choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 1: This would suggest that the United States is the top ranked country, which contradicts standard HDI tables where another country holds this position. 100: This rank would place the United States in the middle of the table alongside developing countries, which is inconsistent with its very high development status. 200: Most HDI lists do not even extend to rank 200 for sovereign states, and such a position would clearly not match the development level of the United States. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates guess rank 1 because they associate the United States with economic and military power, assuming it must also be first in human development. Others may not differentiate among top ten positions and may misremember the exact rank. The best practice is to learn approximate positions of major countries and to recall that the United States typically appears within but not at the top of the first ten ranks in HDI. Final Answer: The correct answer is 10.

Question 4

The Delhi – Lahore international bus service between India and Pakistan is officially known by which of the following names?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question covers international relations and transport links between India and its neighbours. The Delhi – Lahore bus service symbolises a people to people contact initiative between India and Pakistan. Examinations frequently ask for the officially designated names of such cross border bus or train services, so it is important to distinguish among similarly named services linking different countries or cities. Given Data / Assumptions: • The service described is the bus route between Delhi and Lahore. • Four names are offered as options: Sada e Sarhad, Maitree bus, Yaad e Shaheed, and Dosti bus. • We assume that each name is associated with some bilateral transport or commemorative service in South Asia. Concept / Approach: The method is to correctly match official names with the routes or purposes they represent. The Delhi – Lahore bus service is officially called Sada e Sarhad, which means Call of the Frontier. The name Maitree generally refers to a friendship train or bus between India and Bangladesh, while Dosti bus has been associated with links such as the Delhi – Lahore bus in older informal references but is not the formal current name. Yaad e Shaheed is more of a commemorative phrase than the official title of this particular route. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that the route connects Delhi in India with Lahore in Pakistan. Step 2: Recall that India has various named services such as Samjhauta Express, Maitree Express, and different buses under friendship initiatives. Step 3: Remember that the official name assigned to the Delhi – Lahore bus service is Sada e Sarhad. Step 4: Compare this recollection with the options provided. Step 5: Select Sada e Sarhad as the correct official name of the bus service. Verification / Alternative check: As an additional check, consider the association of the word Maitree, which is often linked with India–Bangladesh friendship services, such as the Maitree Express train connecting Kolkata and Dhaka. The word Dosti may generically mean friendship, but exam focused sources repeatedly mention Sada e Sarhad as the formal title of the Delhi – Lahore bus route. This comparison of names and contexts confirms that Sada e Sarhad is the correct option. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Maitree bus: The term Maitree is more closely associated with India–Bangladesh links and is not the official name of the Delhi – Lahore service. Yaad-e-Shaheed: This sounds like a commemorative phrase related to martyrs and is not the designated name of the regular cross border bus between Delhi and Lahore. Dosti bus: Although the phrase friendship bus is sometimes used informally, the formal name of the Delhi – Lahore bus service is Sada e Sarhad, not Dosti bus. Common Pitfalls: Students may confuse the names of different cross border services, especially when they all convey themes of friendship or remembrance. Another common error is to rely on casual media phrases instead of memorising the official designations used in exam syllabi. To avoid such issues, it is helpful to prepare a small list of named international bus and train services and revise them periodically. Final Answer: The correct answer is Sada-e-Sarhad.

Question 5

As per the 2016 Human Development Index report of the United Nations Development Programme, what was the rank of Australia among world countries?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question examines knowledge of the relative position of developed countries in the Human Development Index rankings. Australia consistently appears near the top of HDI lists due to strong performance in health, education, and income indicators. Knowing its approximate rank in a specific year, such as 2016, demonstrates a more detailed understanding of global development patterns rather than only knowing which country is number one. Given Data / Assumptions: • The ranking system referenced is the 2016 Human Development Index of UNDP. • The country under consideration is Australia. • The possible ranks are 2, 20, 100, and 200. Concept / Approach: Australia is widely recognised as a highly developed country with excellent levels of human development. In multiple HDI reports, it appears within the top few positions, often just behind the very top ranked country such as Norway. A rank of 20 or lower would understate its development level, while a rank of 100 or 200 would be completely inconsistent with its status. For the 2016 report, Australia is listed around the second position, so we must choose the option that reflects this near top ranking. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that HDI rankings are ordered such that higher scores correspond to smaller rank numbers. Step 2: Note that Australia is a high income country with strong health and education indicators, so it must be in the very high human development group. Step 3: Recognise that many exam summaries state that Australia secured a position close to the top, often around rank 2 or 3, in the 2016 HDI report. Step 4: Eliminate ranks 100 and 200 as they correspond to countries with far lower development levels. Step 5: Between 2 and 20, select 2 because it matches the commonly cited second rank for Australia in that year. Verification / Alternative check: A cross check can be done by remembering that usually a Nordic or European country, such as Norway, holds the first position, with Australia often following closely. Many exam oriented notes explicitly mention that Australia ranked second in the 2016 HDI, reinforcing this memory. Comparing this with the options confirms that 2 is the only value that fits the description of a top ranked very high human development country like Australia. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 20: A twentieth rank would still indicate high development but would not reflect Australia's typical listing in the very top cluster of HDI rankings. 100: This rank suggests a middle position in the table, appropriate for developing nations, not for a country like Australia. 200: A rank this low would imply very poor human development and is clearly incompatible with Australia's socioeconomic status. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse the exact positions of several high HDI countries. They may remember that Australia is highly ranked but may guess a broader range such as within the top twenty rather than pinpointing the second place. Systematically revising a small list of key rankings for a given year helps prevent such errors. It is also useful to remember that Australia is often cited immediately after the first ranked country in summary tables. Final Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Question 6

Under the revised Muktijodha Scholarship scheme, India granted about Rs 35 crore for the children of freedom fighters of which neighbouring country?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question links current affairs with India's foreign relations and welfare schemes. The Muktijodha Scholarship scheme is part of India's recognition of the contribution of freedom fighters from a neighbouring country in its own liberation struggle. Candidates are expected to know not only the scheme name but also the partner country with which this sentimental and diplomatic gesture is associated. Given Data / Assumptions: • The scheme is named Muktijodha Scholarship. • India has allocated around Rs 35 crore under the revised scheme. • The money is for children of freedom fighters from a neighbouring country. • The options are Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh, and Sri Lanka. Concept / Approach: The key is to recall that the word Muktijodha refers to freedom fighters of the Bangladesh Liberation War of 1971. India supported Bangladesh during that war, and over time several schemes have been launched to honour Bangladeshi Muktijoddhas and their families. Therefore, any scholarship or welfare programme that uses the term Muktijodha in its title is strongly associated with Bangladesh rather than with Nepal, Bhutan, or Sri Lanka. Recognising this linguistic and historical connection leads directly to the correct answer. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Notice the word Muktijodha in the scholarship scheme. Step 2: Recall that Muktijoddha or Muktijodha is widely used for the freedom fighters of Bangladesh who fought in the 1971 liberation struggle. Step 3: Connect this with India's long standing policy of honouring Bangladeshi freedom fighters through various gestures, including scholarships for their descendants. Step 4: Examine the options and identify Bangladesh as the only country whose freedom fighters are commonly called Muktijoddhas. Step 5: Select Bangladesh as the correct beneficiary country for the Muktijodha Scholarship scheme. Verification / Alternative check: As a check, consider the national languages and freedom struggles of the other options. Nepal, Bhutan, and Sri Lanka do not usually use the Bengali term Muktijoddha for their freedom fighters. Bangladesh, on the other hand, uses this term widely in its commemorations and official narratives about the 1971 war. News reports describing India's outreach to Bangladeshi freedom fighters consistently mention Muktijodha scholarships for Bangladeshi students, which confirms this match. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Nepal: Although Nepal is a close neighbour, there is no major Indian scheme known as Muktijodha Scholarship targeted at Nepali freedom fighters. Bhutan: Bhutan enjoys friendly relations with India, but its history and terminology for freedom struggles differ and are not reflected in the term Muktijodha. Sri Lanka: Sri Lankan history has its own independence and conflict narratives, and Indian assistance there is structured through different channels, not through a Muktijodha themed scholarship. Common Pitfalls: Candidates who have not associated the term Muktijodha with Bangladesh may guess among neighbouring countries randomly. Another issue is ignoring the cultural and linguistic cues in the scheme name, which often provide strong hints in such questions. To avoid mistakes, learners should link key scheme titles with their thematic or historical contexts, especially when words from local languages are used. Final Answer: The correct answer is Bangladesh.

Question 7

Which one of the following countries is not a member of the South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA) agreement?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question relates to regional economic groupings in South Asia. The South Asian Free Trade Area, or SAFTA, is an agreement among members of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation to promote trade liberalisation in the region. Exams often test who is and who is not a member, because it reflects both geography and regional economic cooperation patterns. Given Data / Assumptions: • The agreement mentioned is SAFTA. • The options are China, Sri Lanka, Bhutan, and India. • SAFTA membership is based on SAARC membership. Concept / Approach: SAFTA is essentially a trade agreement among SAARC countries. The core SAARC members include India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Bhutan, Maldives, and later Afghanistan. China does not belong to SAARC and therefore is not part of SAFTA. Sri Lanka, Bhutan, and India all are SAARC members and thus fall within the SAFTA framework. The approach is to recall this membership list and identify the outsider country among the options. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Remember that SAFTA is an agreement among SAARC member states for regional trade liberalisation. Step 2: List the SAARC members mentally, including India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Bhutan, Maldives, and Afghanistan. Step 3: Check each option against the SAARC list. Step 4: Confirm that Sri Lanka, Bhutan, and India are indeed SAARC members and therefore SAFTA members. Step 5: Recognise that China is not a SAARC member and hence not a party to SAFTA, making it the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: A quick cross check is to recall broader regional groupings. China participates in other regional forums such as the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation and is a major power in East Asia, but it is not a member of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation. Also, most exam summaries of SAFTA explicitly list the eight South Asian signatories and none of them is China. This confirms that China is outside SAFTA membership. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Sri Lanka: It is a founding member of SAARC and a participant in SAFTA, so it is not the correct choice. Bhutan: Bhutan is also a SAARC member and thereby a SAFTA member, so it cannot be the country that is not part of SAFTA. India: India is a key SAARC founder and a main participant in SAFTA, and therefore it is clearly within the agreement. Common Pitfalls: Some students may overthink and suspect that a smaller South Asian country like Bhutan is excluded, simply because they are less familiar with its role in regional groupings. Others may mix up SAFTA with wider Asia Pacific trade agreements where China is a participant. To avoid such confusion, it is important to tie SAFTA tightly to SAARC membership in one's memory and to remember that all SAARC states are part of SAFTA. Final Answer: The correct answer is China.

Question 8

Taoism is an ancient philosophical and religious tradition that is deeply rooted in the customs and world view of which country?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question belongs to the area of world religions and philosophies. Taoism, also spelled Daoism, is a major religious and philosophical tradition that has shaped culture, ethics, and spirituality in East Asia. Exams often test whether candidates can associate a religion or philosophical system with its country of origin and cultural background, which reveals basic cultural literacy and awareness of global civilisations. Given Data / Assumptions: • The focus is on Taoism as a tradition. • The question asks in which country's custom and world view Taoism is deeply rooted. • The options are Taiwan, China, Japan, and Vietnam. Concept / Approach: Taoism originated in ancient China and is associated with classical Chinese texts such as the Tao Te Ching and the writings attributed to Laozi and Zhuangzi. It strongly influences Chinese ideas about harmony with nature, balance, and the concept of the Tao or the Way. While Taoism has spread to other East Asian regions, its roots, primary development, and cultural embedding are clearly Chinese. Therefore, the answer must identify Chinese custom and world view as the base. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Taoism or Daoism is one of the three major traditional systems in China, along with Confucianism and Buddhism. Step 2: Remember that classical Taoist texts and early Taoist thinkers lived and wrote in ancient China. Step 3: Note that China has centuries of Taoist temples, rituals, and folk practices influenced by Taoist philosophy. Step 4: Compare this with Japan, Vietnam, and Taiwan, where Chinese cultural influence exists but which did not originate the tradition. Step 5: Choose Chinese custom and world view as the correct description of where Taoism is deeply rooted. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative check is to think of the Chinese concept of yin and yang, qi, and the Tao, which are all central ideas in Taoist thought. These concepts have been integrated into Chinese traditional medicine, martial arts, and daily life philosophies. While Taiwan has many followers of Taoism and is culturally Chinese, the question asks about the origin and deep rooting of Taoism as a tradition, which clearly points to the broader Chinese civilisation rather than to Taiwan as a separate modern state. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Taiwanese custom and world view: Although Taoism is widely practiced in Taiwan, its roots are Chinese, and Taiwan itself draws much of its traditional culture from Chinese civilisation. Japanese custom and world view: Japan has its own primary religious traditions such as Shinto and Japanese forms of Buddhism. Taoist influence is present but secondary. Vietnamese custom and world view: Vietnam has Confucian and Buddhist influences, and some Taoist elements, but Taoism did not originate in Vietnamese culture. Common Pitfalls: Some learners may be misled by modern political boundaries and assume that because Taoism is practiced in Taiwan, the answer must be Taiwanese custom. Others may mix up East Asian countries when recalling the origins of religious traditions. To avoid such errors, it helps to remember that Taoism and Confucianism are firmly linked with Chinese civilisation, while Shinto is linked to Japan and Hinduism to India. Final Answer: The correct answer is Chinese custom and world view.

Question 9

Which of the following is the first indigenously developed commercial civilian aircraft of India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question focuses on Indian science and technology, specifically the development of indigenous aircraft. It is important for aspirants to know which aircraft are designed for defence roles and which are targeted at civilian or commercial use. Saras is a significant milestone because it represents an attempt to design and build a multi role civilian aircraft within India rather than importing such technology. Given Data / Assumptions: • The question asks for the first commercial civilian aircraft developed by India. • Options include Pawan Hans, Tejas, Gajraj, and Saras. • We assume standard classifications of aircraft as civilian or military and indigenous or imported. Concept / Approach: Saras is a twin turboprop light transport aircraft developed by the National Aerospace Laboratories in India for civilian and multi role use. Pawan Hans is primarily the name of a helicopter service company, Tejas is a light combat aircraft used by the Indian Air Force, and Gajraj is a transport aircraft designation for the Ilyushin IL 76, which is of Russian origin. Among the given options, only Saras qualifies as the first indigenously developed civilian passenger aircraft. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify which options refer to aircraft and which refer to organisations or imported platforms. Step 2: Recall that Tejas is a light combat aircraft designed primarily for military fighter roles. Step 3: Remember that Gajraj is the name used for the IL 76 transport aircraft acquired from Russia, not an indigenous civilian design. Step 4: Note that Pawan Hans is mainly a government owned helicopter service company, not a specific indigenous civilian aircraft model. Step 5: Recognise Saras as the indigenous light transport aircraft developed in India for commercial and civilian use and choose Saras as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: A useful check is to categorise each option by role. Tejas is clearly associated with fighter squadrons, Gajraj with heavy military airlift, and Pawan Hans with helicopter services, all of which are either military or service operator names. Saras stands out as a specifically named indigenous aircraft project aimed at civilian applications, including regional connectivity and utility roles. This categorisation confirms Saras as the correct response. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Pawan Hans: This is a helicopter service company that operates helicopters, not the name of an indigenous commercial airplane designed by Indian aerospace laboratories. Tejas: Tejas is an indigenously developed light combat aircraft designed for the Indian Air Force and is primarily a military platform, not a commercial civilian aircraft. Gajraj: Gajraj is the Indian name for the IL 76 heavy transport aircraft, which is imported from Russia and is used mainly for military logistics. Common Pitfalls: Many students see familiar aviation related names and choose Tejas or Pawan Hans without carefully distinguishing between companies, imported aircraft, and indigenous civilian designs. Another pitfall is assuming that any indigenous aircraft, such as Tejas, qualifies automatically as civilian, which is not correct. A good practice is to associate each name with its primary role, such as fighter, transport, helicopter service, or civilian passenger aircraft. Final Answer: The correct answer is Saras.

Question 10

In September 2017, which Union minister formally launched the Pradhan Mantri LPG Panchayat Yojana to promote clean cooking fuel?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question falls under Indian government schemes and current affairs. The Pradhan Mantri LPG Panchayat Yojana is an outreach initiative related to the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana, which focuses on providing clean cooking fuel to rural households. Knowing which minister launched the scheme in a particular year reflects awareness of both the scheme and the ministerial portfolio at that time. Given Data / Assumptions: • The scheme is Pradhan Mantri LPG Panchayat Yojana. • The launch took place in September 2017. • The options are Narendra Modi, Dharmendra Pradhan, Piyush Goyal, and R.K. Singh. Concept / Approach: During the period when LPG related schemes such as Ujjwala Yojana and LPG Panchayat Yojana were active, Dharmendra Pradhan served as the Minister of Petroleum and Natural Gas. Although the Prime Minister gives broader direction and sometimes inaugurates flagship schemes, the day to day launch events and programme expansions are often done by the concerned Union minister. Therefore, it is logical and factually correct that Dharmendra Pradhan launched the LPG Panchayat Yojana in September 2017. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that LPG Panchayat Yojana is directly related to LPG connections and clean cooking fuel. Step 2: Recall which ministry handles petroleum and natural gas, including LPG distribution. Step 3: Remember that Dharmendra Pradhan was the Minister of Petroleum and Natural Gas around 2017, and he frequently appeared in news about LPG schemes. Step 4: Compare this with other options, such as Piyush Goyal who handled power and railway portfolios or R.K. Singh who is associated with power and new and renewable energy. Step 5: Select Dharmendra Pradhan as the minister who launched the Pradhan Mantri LPG Panchayat Yojana in September 2017. Verification / Alternative check: As a verification step, recall that newspaper articles about LPG Panchayats often quoted Dharmendra Pradhan addressing rural women, discussing safety, and explaining benefits of LPG connections under Ujjwala. The Prime Minister is usually associated with announcing the main vision, while the specialised minister carries out specific programme launches. This memory pattern supports Dharmendra Pradhan rather than the other names listed. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Narendra Modi: Although he is the Prime Minister under whose leadership Ujjwala and associated schemes were launched, the specific event of LPG Panchayat Yojana launch in September 2017 was carried out by the Petroleum Minister. Piyush Goyal: He has held portfolios such as power, coal, and railways, but LPG related schemes fall primarily under the petroleum ministry. R.K. Singh: He is known for roles in power and renewable energy sectors and is not associated with leading LPG Panchayat launch events. Common Pitfalls: Many students may quickly choose the Prime Minister's name whenever a scheme begins with Pradhan Mantri, without checking which minister actually launched a particular programme extension. Another mistake is mixing up ministers with overlapping energy related portfolios. To avoid such errors, associate specific scheme launches with the ministers who handle the relevant ministries at the time. Final Answer: The correct answer is Dharmendra Pradhan.

Question 11

Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) in India are set up with sponsorship support from which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question belongs to Indian banking structure and rural credit institutions. Regional Rural Banks were created to extend banking services and credit to rural and agricultural sectors, especially small and marginal farmers and rural artisans. Understanding who sponsors these banks is crucial, because the sponsor institution provides managerial, financial, and training support in the initial years of an RRB's operation. Given Data / Assumptions: • The subject is Regional Rural Banks in India. • The question asks who sponsors these banks. • The options include a nationalised commercial bank, the Reserve Bank of India, the State Bank of India, and the Government of India. Concept / Approach: RRBs are established under a tripartite arrangement involving the Government of India, the concerned state government, and a sponsor bank. The sponsor bank is a public sector or nationalised commercial bank that provides initial capital, managerial assistance, and training. While State Bank of India is itself a large public sector bank and may sponsor some RRBs, the generic description used in exam questions is that RRBs are sponsored by nationalised commercial banks rather than directly by the Reserve Bank of India or the central government alone. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that RRBs are created to serve rural credit needs with support from an established bank. Step 2: Remember that this supporting institution is referred to as the sponsor bank. Step 3: Know that sponsor banks are public sector or nationalised commercial banks that hold a share of the RRB's capital and provide staff and systems. Step 4: Observe that the Reserve Bank of India is the regulator of banks but does not act as the sponsor for individual RRBs. Step 5: Choose nationalised commercial bank as the correct generic category that sponsors Regional Rural Banks. Verification / Alternative check: A verification step is to recall specific examples, such as an RRB sponsored by Punjab National Bank, Bank of Baroda, or State Bank of India. All of these are public sector or nationalised commercial banks. RBI issues guidelines and supervises, while the Government of India and state governments provide policy backing and part of the capital. The term sponsorship, however, is clearly associated with a nationalised commercial bank that actively supports the RRB's operations, confirming the answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Reserve Bank of India: RBI is the central bank and regulator, but it does not act as the sponsor bank that directly sets up and manages RRBs. State Bank of India: SBI is indeed a sponsor bank for some RRBs, but it is just one example within the broader category of nationalised commercial banks. The question seeks the generic category. Government of India: The central government is a shareholder and policy maker in RRBs but is not described as the sponsor bank that provides operational support. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes confuse the roles of regulator, owner, and sponsor. They may choose RBI simply because it is the apex banking authority or choose Government of India because it owns a stake. Another trap is to select State Bank of India since it is well known as a sponsor for some RRBs. To avoid these errors, focus on the general rule that RRBs are sponsored by nationalised commercial banks, of which SBI is only one example. Final Answer: The correct answer is Nationalised Commercial Bank.

Question 12

In the process of photosynthesis, which colour of visible light is least effective for most green plants?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This science question tests basic knowledge of photosynthesis and the light absorption properties of plant pigments. Chlorophyll, the main pigment in green plants, absorbs certain wavelengths more efficiently than others. Competitive exams often ask which colour of light is least effective in driving photosynthesis, because it connects the observable green appearance of leaves with underlying absorption and reflection patterns. Given Data / Assumptions: • The process discussed is photosynthesis in green plants. • The options are blue light, green light, red light, and sunlight. • We assume normal white sunlight contains all visible colours. Concept / Approach: Chlorophyll pigments absorb light most strongly in the blue and red regions of the spectrum and reflect most of the green region. That is why leaves look green to our eyes. Because green wavelengths are largely reflected or transmitted rather than absorbed, they contribute the least to photosynthetic energy capture. Therefore, green light is the least effective colour for photosynthesis, whereas blue and red light are comparatively more effective. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that chlorophyll is the primary pigment in green plants. Step 2: Remember that chlorophyll strongly absorbs red and blue wavelengths of light and reflects green wavelengths. Step 3: Understand that reflected light is not used efficiently for photosynthesis because little of its energy is captured by the pigment. Step 4: Conclude that the colour of light reflected by leaves, namely green, must be the least effective in driving photosynthesis. Step 5: Choose green light as the correct option. Verification / Alternative check: A quick verification is to think about experiments where plants are grown under different coloured lights. Plants under red and blue light generally grow better than those under purely green light. In addition, absorption spectra of chlorophyll show high absorption peaks in blue and red regions and low absorption in the green region. Both lines of reasoning agree that green light is relatively ineffective for photosynthesis in typical green plants. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Blue light: Chlorophyll absorbs blue wavelengths strongly, and blue light is actually very effective in driving photosynthesis and regulating plant growth. Red light: Red light is another major absorption region for chlorophyll and is highly effective in photosynthetic energy capture. Sunlight: Sunlight is a mixture of all visible wavelengths and is the natural source of light for plants; it is certainly not the least effective overall. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates misinterpret the question and think that because leaves appear green, green light must be the most useful, whereas it is actually the most reflected and least absorbed. Others confuse the term least effective with least abundant. To avoid this, always connect the green colour of leaves with reflection, not absorption. Once that link is clear, it becomes intuitive that green light contributes the least to photosynthesis. Final Answer: The correct answer is Green light.

Question 13

Which of the following types of foreign investment is generally considered comparatively unsafe because it can be withdrawn quickly?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question relates to international capital flows and macroeconomic stability. Different forms of foreign investment have different risk levels for the host economy. Policy makers are particularly cautious about flows that can be reversed suddenly, causing volatility in exchange rates and stock markets. Understanding why portfolio investment is considered relatively unsafe compared to more stable forms of capital is important for exams on economics and public policy. Given Data / Assumptions: • The question asks which type of foreign investment is considered unsafe. • The options are FDI, portfolio investment, NRI deposits, and external commercial borrowing. • Unsafe here means volatile and prone to sudden withdrawal rather than illegal. Concept / Approach: Foreign Direct Investment involves long term investment in productive assets such as factories and infrastructure and is relatively stable. Portfolio investment, on the other hand, involves foreign investors buying financial assets such as shares and bonds without taking managerial control. These investors can move their funds quickly across borders in response to interest rates, exchange rates, or market sentiment, leading to sudden inflows and outflows known as hot money. Because of this high mobility and volatility, portfolio investment is considered comparatively unsafe from the macroeconomic stability perspective. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the definition of foreign direct investment as long term investment with some degree of management control. Step 2: Recall that portfolio investment refers to foreign capital invested in equity and debt securities without direct control of firms. Step 3: Understand that portfolio investors can quickly sell their holdings and withdraw funds when market conditions change. Step 4: Compare this with NRI deposits and external commercial borrowing, which are usually governed by contractual terms and are not as instantly reversible as portfolio flows. Step 5: Conclude that portfolio investment is relatively unsafe because of its hot money nature and select it as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative check is to think of financial crises where sudden exits of foreign institutional investors from stock markets and bond markets have created sharp falls in asset prices and currency values. These episodes are described as capital flight or portfolio outflows. In contrast, FDI tends to remain even during turbulence because it is tied to physical projects. This association of volatility with portfolio flows confirms that portfolio investment is considered more unsafe. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Foreign Direct Investment (FDI): It usually represents stable, long term commitment to the host country and is therefore regarded as relatively safe and desirable. NRI deposits: These are deposits by non resident Indians in domestic banks and are governed by maturity periods and regulations, making them less instantly volatile than portfolio flows. External commercial borrowing: These are loans raised abroad by firms or the government. While they carry repayment and currency risks, they are not as quickly reversible as portfolio investments in securities. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates think of external commercial borrowing as unsafe because of debt repayment risks and therefore choose it. Others may see the word deposits and incorrectly assume that NRI deposits are risky. The key is to focus on the speed and ease with which funds can move in and out. Portfolio investment stands out as the form of capital that can be withdrawn very quickly, making it the comparatively unsafe option in this context. Final Answer: The correct answer is Portfolio investment.

Question 14

On a weather map, isolines that join places receiving equal amounts of rainfall are known as what?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question tests basic geographical terminology related to weather maps and climatic data. Isolines are lines drawn on maps to connect points with equal values of a particular variable, such as temperature, pressure, or rainfall. Knowing the specific name for isolines of rainfall helps students interpret meteorological charts and understand patterns of precipitation distribution. Given Data / Assumptions: • The variable being mapped is rainfall. • The question asks for the name of isolines joining places with equal rainfall. • Options include isohyets, isotherms, isobars, and contours. Concept / Approach: Different isoline names correspond to different measured quantities. Isotherms connect points of equal temperature, isobars connect points of equal atmospheric pressure, and isohyets connect points of equal rainfall. Contours generally refer to lines joining points of equal elevation on a topographic map. By matching rainfall with the correct technical term, we identify isohyets as the appropriate answer. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the prefix iso means equal. Step 2: Connect therm with temperature, so isotherms must be lines of equal temperature. Step 3: Connect bar with barometric pressure, so isobars are lines of equal pressure. Step 4: Remember that hyet relates to rainfall, so isohyets are lines joining points of equal precipitation. Step 5: Recognise that contours refer to elevation, not rainfall, and therefore choose isohyets as the correct term. Verification / Alternative check: A verification approach is to think of example sentences: meteorologists may speak of isotherms on a temperature chart or isobars on a pressure chart, but rainfall maps in climatology often show isohyets. Geography textbooks explicitly define isohyets as lines of equal rainfall. Contours are familiar from topographic maps that show hills and valleys, clearly unrelated to rainfall amounts. This semantic check confirms that isohyets is the correct response. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Isotherms: These are lines joining places with equal temperature, not equal rainfall. Isobars: These lines join points with equal atmospheric pressure, commonly seen on weather charts of pressure systems. Contours: Contour lines show equal elevation or height above sea level on physical maps, not rainfall distribution. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes mix up the different isoline names because they all start with iso. Another common confusion is between isobars and isohyets, since both frequently appear on weather related maps. To reduce mistakes, it is helpful to learn the root words: therm for temperature, bar for pressure, hyet for rainfall, and contour for shape or elevation. Matching these roots with the correct variable ensures accurate recall in exams. Final Answer: The correct answer is isohyets.

Question 15

Which of the following international financial institutions is commonly referred to as the World Bank?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question focuses on global financial institutions and their commonly used names. The term World Bank is widely used in news and economic discussions, but it has a specific institutional meaning. Many exams check whether candidates can connect the popular name World Bank with the formal name International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, and distinguish it from other bodies like the International Monetary Fund or UNICEF. Given Data / Assumptions: • The question asks which institution is also called the World Bank. • Options include the International Bank of Reconstruction and Development, the International Monetary Fund, UNICEF, and IFC. • We assume standard textbook terminology for Bretton Woods institutions. Concept / Approach: The World Bank Group consists of several institutions, of which the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development is the original core institution. In many exam oriented references, the term World Bank is used synonymously with IBRD, especially when contrasted with the International Monetary Fund. While IFC is also part of the World Bank Group, the question usually expects the answer that directly matches the formal name associated with the term World Bank, namely IBRD. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that after the Second World War, two main Bretton Woods institutions were created: the International Monetary Fund and the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development. Step 2: Remember that the latter came to be popularly known as the World Bank because it provides long term loans for development and reconstruction. Step 3: Note that UNICEF is a United Nations children's fund and is not a financial institution like the World Bank or IMF. Step 4: Recognise that IFC, or International Finance Corporation, is part of the World Bank Group but is not itself generally labelled as the World Bank in exams. Step 5: Choose International Bank of Reconstruction and Development as the institution also called the World Bank. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, recall that the standard pairing in textbooks is IMF and World Bank, with IMF handling short term balance of payments support and World Bank providing long term development finance through IBRD and IDA. Whenever the formal name behind World Bank is mentioned, it is IBRD. This pairing appears repeatedly in exam preparatory materials and helps confirm which option is correct. Why Other Options Are Wrong: International Monetary Fund: IMF is a separate institution that provides short term financial assistance and oversees global monetary cooperation; it is not called the World Bank. UNICEF: This is the United Nations Children's Fund focused on child welfare and humanitarian projects, not a development bank. IFC: International Finance Corporation is a member of the World Bank Group that supports private sector development, but the term World Bank in exam language refers primarily to IBRD. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates mistakenly choose IMF because they frequently see IMF and World Bank mentioned together and assume they are the same organisation. Others may pick IFC due to the word finance in its name. To avoid such mistakes, it is important to memorise the full forms and roles of each Bretton Woods institution and to remember that IBRD is the formal name usually associated directly with the term World Bank. Final Answer: The correct answer is International Bank of Reconstruction and Development.

Question 16

A universal red blood cell donor typically has which ABO blood group?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This biology question relates to blood groups and transfusion compatibility. Understanding the concept of universal donor and universal recipient is fundamental in human physiology and is also important for basic health awareness. Exams often ask which blood group is considered a universal donor, especially at the ABO level, because it tests whether candidates understand how antigen presence or absence affects transfusion safety. Given Data / Assumptions: • The question focuses on the ABO blood group system. • It asks which blood group is considered a universal donor. span style="display:block;">• Options are A, B, AB, and O (without specifying Rh factor). Concept / Approach: In the ABO system, blood group O lacks A and B antigens on the red blood cells, which reduces the risk of an immune reaction in recipients of other blood groups. Specifically, O negative is called the universal donor in more detailed discussions because it lacks both A and B antigens and the Rh D antigen. However, in simplified multiple choice questions that do not mention the Rh factor, blood group O is generally taken as the universal donor. Therefore, we choose O as the correct answer in this context. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that blood group A has A antigen, B has B antigen, AB has both antigens, and O has neither A nor B antigens. Step 2: Understand that foreign antigens on donor red cells can trigger immune reactions in recipients. Step 3: Recognise that group O red cells, having no A or B antigens, are less likely to be attacked by antibodies in the recipient's plasma. Step 4: Note that AB red cells have both antigens and are safest only for recipients with AB blood group, making AB a universal recipient rather than donor. Step 5: Conclude that O is considered the universal donor group in the ABO context and select option O. Verification / Alternative check: A simple verification is to match the common memory rule that O donor can give to all groups and AB recipient can receive from all groups in the ABO system. Many textbooks and basic health guides emphasise that O negative is the universal donor and O positive is widely used for emergencies. Because the question omits the Rh factor, the simplified answer O is appropriate and is consistent with standard exam practice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: B: Blood group B carries B antigen and cannot safely donate to recipients whose plasma contains anti B antibodies, such as group A or group O individuals. AB: This group has both A and B antigens and is therefore the universal recipient rather than universal donor. AB individuals can receive from any ABO group but cannot donate to all. A: Group A has A antigen and cannot safely donate to group B or group O recipients who have anti A antibodies. Common Pitfalls: Some students mix up the concepts of universal donor and universal recipient and mistakenly choose AB as the universal donor. Another issue is confusion about Rh factor; learners may hesitate because they know that only O negative is truly universal. In exam questions where Rh is not mentioned, it is safe to treat O as the universal donor for ABO purposes, which helps answer quickly and correctly. Final Answer: The correct answer is O.

Question 17

Children, especially in high latitude Western countries who receive very little sunlight, are particularly at risk of developing which deficiency disease?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question examines basic health science and nutrition, specifically the effect of sunlight and vitamin D on bone development in children. In colder or high latitude regions, children may have less exposure to direct sunlight, which can lead to vitamin D deficiency and weak bones. Understanding which disease is primarily associated with lack of sunlight is essential for exam questions on nutrition and preventive healthcare. Given Data / Assumptions: • The group mentioned is children in Western countries with very little sunshine. • The disease must be linked to lack of sunlight and vitamin D. • Options are rickets, dermatitis, scurvy, and kwashiorkor. Concept / Approach: Rickets is a disease of growing children caused mainly by vitamin D deficiency, which leads to defective bone mineralisation, bone deformities, and delayed growth. Vitamin D is synthesised in the skin when exposed to ultraviolet rays of sunlight. Therefore, children with limited sunshine exposure are at higher risk of rickets. Dermatitis is related to skin inflammation, scurvy to vitamin C deficiency, and kwashiorkor to severe protein deficiency, none of which are primarily caused by lack of sunlight. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Link sunlight exposure with vitamin D production in human skin. Step 2: Recall that vitamin D is essential for calcium absorption and healthy bone formation. Step 3: Remember that rickets is the classic childhood disease due to vitamin D deficiency, leading to bowed legs and bone deformities. Step 4: Check other options: scurvy is linked to vitamin C deficiency, kwashiorkor to protein deficiency, and dermatitis to skin irritation or allergy. Step 5: Conclude that rickets is the disease particularly associated with lack of sunlight in children and select it as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: A verification method is to recall typical textbook examples showing children in cold, cloudy climates being more vulnerable to rickets and being advised to take vitamin D supplements or cod liver oil. Public health campaigns in such regions emphasise vitamin D fortification and safe sun exposure. No similar direct connection exists between sunlight and the other listed conditions, confirming that rickets is the correct disease. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Dermatitis: This is a general term for skin inflammation that can arise from allergies, irritants, or infections, not specifically from lack of sunshine. Scurvy: Caused by vitamin C deficiency, it leads to bleeding gums and poor wound healing, and is related to dietary intake of fruits and vegetables, not directly to sunlight exposure. Kwashiorkor: This is a severe form of protein energy malnutrition seen in children who consume diets very low in protein, not a disease primarily linked to sunshine or vitamin D. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may focus on the word Western and think of skin problems like dermatitis caused by cold dry weather. Others may confuse different vitamin deficiencies. To avoid such mistakes, associate rickets strongly with vitamin D and sunlight, scurvy with vitamin C, and kwashiorkor with lack of protein. This mapping helps quickly identify the correct disease in exam questions. Final Answer: The correct answer is rickets.

Question 18

Which of the following is not classified as a Non Banking Financial Institution (NBFI) in India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question tests understanding of the financial system in India, specifically the distinction between non banking financial institutions and commercial banks. Non banking financial institutions play an important role in providing specialised finance and development support, while commercial banks handle regular deposit and lending operations. Correctly identifying which organisation is not an NBFI shows clarity about institutional roles in the financial sector. Given Data / Assumptions: • The focus is on Non Banking Financial Institutions in India. • Options listed are EXIM, SIDBI, NABARD, and BOI. • We assume standard classifications used in Indian economic surveys and RBI documents. Concept / Approach: EXIM Bank, SIDBI, and NABARD are all examples of specialised financial institutions often grouped under the category of All India Financial Institutions or development financial institutions, and they function as non banking financial institutions. BOI stands for Bank of India, which is a government owned commercial bank that accepts public deposits and provides full banking services. Therefore, among the options, BOI is the one that is not classified as an NBFI, since it is a regular bank rather than a non banking financial institution. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that EXIM Bank is the Export Import Bank of India, created to support export and import financing. Step 2: Remember that SIDBI is the Small Industries Development Bank of India, which provides finance to micro, small, and medium enterprises as a development institution. Step 3: Recognise that NABARD is the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development, an apex development financial institution for agriculture and rural sectors. Step 4: Identify BOI as Bank of India, a nationalised commercial bank offering full banking services and accepting deposits from the public. Step 5: Conclude that EXIM, SIDBI, and NABARD are NBFIs, while BOI is a commercial bank, so BOI is not included in Non Banking Financial Institutions. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, recall that economic survey documents often list EXIM Bank, NABARD, and SIDBI together as All India Financial Institutions supervised by RBI, while Bank of India appears in the list of public sector commercial banks. Also, non banking financial institutions do not usually accept demand deposits like savings accounts in the same way commercial banks do. Bank of India operates as a typical banking institution, which confirms that it is not an NBFI. Why Other Options Are Wrong: EXIM: Export Import Bank of India is a specialised development financial institution that supports trade finance and is classified as a non banking financial institution. SIDBI: Small Industries Development Bank of India is a development financial institution for small industries and is considered an NBFI. NABARD: National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development is an apex development financial institution for rural credit, not a regular commercial bank. Common Pitfalls: Students may be confused by the word bank in NABARD, EXIM Bank, and SIDBI and assume that all such institutions are commercial banks. Another pitfall is not distinguishing between development financial institutions and deposit taking commercial banks. The key is to note that Bank of India is a typical nationalised commercial bank, while EXIM, SIDBI, and NABARD are specialised non banking or development financial institutions. Remembering this difference helps in quickly identifying BOI as the option that is not an NBFI. Final Answer: The correct answer is BOI.

Question 19

Who introduced and popularised the term 'Hindu rate of growth' to describe the slow pace of economic growth in India during the decades before economic liberalisation?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The expression Hindu rate of growth became a famous phrase in discussions of India and its economic performance in the decades after independence. It referred to a long period when gross domestic product grew very slowly despite development plans and policy efforts. This question checks whether the learner knows which economist actually coined and popularised this influential term, which is widely used in economic history, public policy debates, and general knowledge exams. Given Data / Assumptions: The phrase Hindu rate of growth was used for a long period of low economic growth in India. The context is pre liberalisation decades before the economic reforms of the early 1990s. The options list several well known Indian economists and policy experts. Only one of these personalities originally introduced and popularised this phrase. Concept / Approach: To answer correctly, the learner must recall economic history facts rather than do any calculation. The approach is to connect the phrase Hindu rate of growth with the economist who studied Indias growth record in the 1950s to 1970s and criticised its slow pace. This was done by Raj Krishna, an Indian economist and professor who used the expression in his writings and lectures. Recognising the correct person is a matter of factual recall and association with this term in standard textbooks and articles on Indian planning and growth performance. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Note that the phrase relates to India and its slow economic growth before reforms.Step 2: Recall which economists are closely associated with phrases or critiques of that period.Step 3: Amartya Sen and Jagdish Bhagwati are famous for broader debates on welfare, reforms, and trade, but not for coining this specific term.Step 4: V. K. R. V. Rao and Montek Singh Ahluwalia contributed to planning and policy but are not credited with this expression.Step 5: Raj Krishna is known in economic history as the economist who introduced and repeatedly used the phrase Hindu rate of growth for Indias low growth trajectory. Verification / Alternative check: A quick way to verify is to remember how the phrase is discussed in standard macroeconomics or Indian economy books. Most such sources clearly mention that economist Raj Krishna coined the term in the context of annual growth of around 3 to 3.5 percent. Another mental check is that the other names in the options are linked with different concepts, committees, or later reform debates rather than this specific phrase. Therefore cross checking from multiple reliable learning sources confirms that Raj Krishna is the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A: Amartya Sen is a Nobel Prize winning economist known for welfare economics and capability approach, but he did not introduce this phrase.Option B: Jagdish Bhagwati is associated with trade theory and advocacy of liberalisation, not with coining Hindu rate of growth.Option D: V. K. R. V. Rao contributed to planning and national income estimation but is not credited with this term.Option E: Montek Singh Ahluwalia played a major role in later reform era planning but did not originate this expression. Common Pitfalls: Learners often assume that a very globally famous economist like Amartya Sen must have coined all popular phrases related to India and growth. Another mistake is to confuse policy architects of the reform era with critics of the earlier slow growth period. Some also guess based only on name familiarity without connecting the person to the historical time frame when the term first appeared. Avoid these traps by linking each phrase or concept to its correct historical context and specialist economist. Final Answer: The correct answer is Raj Krishna.

Question 20

Himayat is a special training cum placement programme designed to provide skills and jobs to unemployed youth in which Indian state or union territory?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Government schemes aimed at youth employment are a frequent topic in general knowledge and competitive exams. Himayat is one such initiative that focuses on skill development and job placement for unemployed young people. The question tests familiarity with which specific state or union territory implemented this programme, and helps learners connect schemes with their geographic focus and target beneficiaries. Given Data / Assumptions: Himayat is a training cum placement programme. It targets unemployed youth. The scheme is linked to a particular Indian state or union territory. The options list northern states where unemployment and skill gaps are important policy issues. Concept / Approach: The core concept here is matching the name of a scheme to the correct region. Himayat is part of an initiative supported under the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana framework, specifically tailored for youth from Jammu and Kashmir. It was designed to provide market linked skills and ensure placement, thereby addressing both unemployment and regional aspirations. Remembering such associations is vital for exam questions on government programmes and regional development policies. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Himayat is connected with a special package for youth in a conflict affected region.Step 2: Among the options, Jammu and Kashmir stands out as the state or union territory that has received focused employment and skill development initiatives.Step 3: Himayat offers skill training, counseling, and assured placement support to rural and urban unemployed youth from Jammu and Kashmir.Step 4: Other states in the list run their own schemes but are not specifically identified with the name Himayat.Step 5: Therefore the correct association is with Jammu and Kashmir. Verification / Alternative check: A quick verification method is to mentally group central and state schemes by region. Several flagship programmes for youth outside mainstream opportunities were piloted in Jammu and Kashmir to create economic inclusion and stability. Himayat is regularly described as a special initiative for that region in government documents and exam preparation materials. Cross checking with this knowledge confirms that Jammu and Kashmir is the state or union territory linked to Himayat. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A: Haryana has skill initiatives and employment exchanges but not the Himayat scheme by this name.Option B: Punjab focuses on agriculture and industry related employment but does not host Himayat.Option D: Himachal Pradesh has tourism and service based programmes, yet the scheme Himayat is not associated with it.Option E: Uttarakhand also runs skill development programmes but does not use this specific scheme title. Common Pitfalls: Candidates often guess based on geographic proximity or assume that every northern state shares the same schemes. Another error is confusing Himayat with other national level youth programmes that apply across India rather than to a particular region. To avoid such mistakes, create a mental map that links major government schemes with their exact state or sector focus. Final Answer: The correct answer is Jammu and Kashmir.

Basic General Knowledge Questions