Question 1

Which neighbouring country of India is also referred to as "Druk Yul", meaning Land of the Thunder Dragon?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Druk Yul is a traditional name that often appears in general knowledge and geography questions related to India and its neighbouring countries. The phrase is closely linked to the culture, identity and geography of a particular Himalayan kingdom. Examinations frequently ask about such alternative names or endonyms, so knowing which country is called Druk Yul helps in map-based questions, current affairs, and international relations topics. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question clearly states that Druk Yul is a name for a neighbouring country of India. - The options include several countries in and around South Asia: Myanmar, Maldives, Bhutan, Afghanistan and Sri Lanka. - No additional numerical data or assumptions are required; it is a pure fact-based identification question. Concept / Approach: The approach is to recall the traditional names and titles associated with South Asian countries. Druk Yul means Land of the Thunder Dragon in the local language. This name is strongly associated with the Himalayan Buddhist kingdom that lies to the north of India. Awareness of such cultural terms is a part of static general knowledge connected to geography and international affairs. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Note that the country must share a border with India, so Maldives can be excluded as it is an island nation in the Indian Ocean and does not share a land border. Step 2: Among the remaining options, Myanmar, Bhutan and Afghanistan do share borders with India, while Sri Lanka is separated by sea, so only three strong candidates remain. Step 3: Recall that Bhutan uses the thunder dragon symbol on its national flag and is widely called the Land of the Thunder Dragon. Step 4: Connect this symbolism with the local name Druk Yul, which literally translates to Land of the Thunder Dragon. Step 5: Conclude that Druk Yul refers to Bhutan, making Bhutan the only correct option among the choices. Verification / Alternative check: A quick verification method is to remember the flags and emblems of South Asian countries. Bhutan has a dragon on its flag, while Myanmar, Afghanistan, Maldives and Sri Lanka do not use a thunder dragon as a national symbol. This visual association confirms that Bhutan corresponds to Druk Yul, reinforcing the accuracy of the answer without needing any numerical calculation. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Myanmar: Although it borders India, it is not known by the name Druk Yul and does not use the thunder dragon symbol. Maldives: It does not share a land border with India and is not associated with the name Druk Yul. Afghanistan: This country has a very different cultural and linguistic background and no link to the Land of the Thunder Dragon phrase. Sri Lanka: It is a neighbouring island state but is known by names connected to Lanka or Ceylon, not Druk Yul. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse various poetic or traditional names of countries, especially when multiple Himalayan nations are involved. Another pitfall is ignoring the border condition and mistakenly focusing on any Asian country. Some examinees may also overthink the question and suspect that Myanmar or Nepal have similar titles, even though that is not correct. Focusing on the association between the thunder dragon symbol and Bhutan helps avoid such confusion. Final Answer: The neighbouring country of India that is also referred to as Druk Yul, meaning Land of the Thunder Dragon, is Bhutan.

Question 2

In India, who serves as the Chairman of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) that oversees disaster management at the national level?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The National Disaster Management Authority, commonly known as NDMA, is the apex body responsible for disaster management in India. Many competitive examinations in India test knowledge of the institutional framework for disaster management, including which authority heads NDMA. Knowing who chairs NDMA gives insight into the level of political importance attached to disaster preparedness and response. Given Data / Assumptions: - The body in question is the National Disaster Management Authority of India. - The problem asks specifically about the position that serves as the Chairman of this authority. - The options list several high offices such as the National Security Advisor, Prime Minister, Home Minister, President and a senior scientific post. Concept / Approach: The NDMA was created under the Disaster Management Act to provide overall direction and guidance for disaster management policies and plans. Because disasters affect the entire nation and require coordinated action across ministries and states, the leadership is placed at the highest political level. The key concept is that the Chair of NDMA is not a bureaucrat or a technical expert, but the head of the government at the Union level. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the basic structure of NDMA as created by the Disaster Management Act. Step 2: Remember that NDMA is an apex body with responsibility across ministries, states and sectors, which suggests that a very senior national authority heads it. Step 3: Eliminate positions that are advisory or confined to specific domains, such as the National Security Advisor or the Chief of Defence Research and Development Organisation. Step 4: Compare remaining options, noting that the Home Minister and President hold important roles but the Disaster Management Act specifically designates the Prime Minister as the Chairperson. Step 5: Conclude that the Chairman of NDMA is the Prime Minister of India. Verification / Alternative check: If you check official NDMA documents or the text of the Disaster Management Act, you will see that the authority is described as being chaired by the Prime Minister, with other members and a Vice Chairperson supporting the work. Remembering this legal backing confirms that the answer is not based on guesswork but on statutory provisions. Why Other Options Are Wrong: National Security Advisor: This role advises on security and strategic issues but does not chair NDMA. Chief of Defence Research and Development Organisation: This is a technical and defence research role, not the head of disaster management policy. Home Minister of India: Important in internal security and disaster response, but does not formally chair NDMA. President of India: The President is the head of state but not the chair of NDMA, which is a role defined for the head of government. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to assume that the Home Minister heads every internal security and disaster related organisation, or to suppose that a specialised technical head would lead such an authority. Another pitfall is not differentiating between ceremonial and executive roles, which may lead some candidates to choose the President. Carefully reading the Disaster Management Act or remembering static polity facts avoids this confusion. Final Answer: In India, the Chairman of the National Disaster Management Authority is the Prime Minister of India.

Question 3

Which of the following countries is well known for having blocked the social networking site Facebook at the national level through strict internet control policies?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Social media platforms such as Facebook play an important role in communication, business and politics. However, some countries exercise tight control over internet access and either block or severely restrict major platforms. General knowledge questions often ask about countries that maintain strong internet censorship, and Facebook is one of the most recognisable examples in this context. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question refers to a country that has banned or blocked Facebook at the national level. - The options include China, Bhutan, Nepal, Pakistan and Iran. - We assume the question refers to long term, system wide blocking rather than a short, temporary interruption. Concept / Approach: The key concept is internet censorship by governments. Some states maintain a national firewall that filters or blocks foreign websites. China is widely known for operating a system popularly called the Great Firewall, which restricts access to platforms such as Facebook, Twitter and Google services. Recognising this association makes the question straightforward if you are familiar with world affairs and technology news. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall which countries are famous for very strict control over foreign social media platforms. Step 2: Note that China maintains comprehensive internet filtering that blocks Facebook and many other global platforms. Step 3: Consider Bhutan and Nepal. Both are small neighbouring countries of India and do not have a reputation for systematic blocking of Facebook for the entire population. Step 4: Think about Pakistan and Iran. These countries have occasionally imposed temporary bans or restrictions, but the longest running and most widely known national level block on Facebook is associated with China. Step 5: Based on this comparison, select China as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: News reports and technology coverage consistently mention that Facebook has been inaccessible in mainland China for many years because of government policy. Most users there rely on domestic alternatives such as WeChat and other local platforms. In contrast, residents of Bhutan, Nepal and Pakistan generally have access to Facebook, except for short lived blockages in specific circumstances, which confirms that China is the most accurate answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Bhutan: This country does not impose a long term nationwide ban on Facebook and is not known for severe internet censorship. Nepal: Facebook is widely used in Nepal and the country does not maintain a permanent ban. Pakistan: Authorities have at times restricted some platforms, but there is no continuous, permanent national level blocking comparable to China. Iran: While Iran has restricted various platforms, the question typically refers to the most famous and widely cited example, which is China with its Great Firewall. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to think that every country with occasional internet restrictions fully bans Facebook. Another pitfall is mixing short term political decisions with long term policy. Candidates may also incorrectly assume that any country with internal conflict restricts all major websites. Focusing on the widely known and long standing example of systematic blocking helps avoid these errors. Final Answer: The country well known for having blocked Facebook nationwide through strict internet control policies is China.

Question 4

For the purpose of Census 2011 in India, which one of the following statements correctly defines who is treated as a literate person?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Census of India uses a precise definition of literacy that is applied uniformly throughout the country. Many examination questions test this definition, including the minimum age considered and the requirement that a person should read and write with understanding. Knowing the exact wording used for Census 2011 is important for aspirants of government exams, since slight changes in age or conditions can make an option incorrect. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question refers specifically to Census 2011 in India. - It asks which statement correctly defines a literate person. - All options describe age thresholds combined with the ability to read and write with understanding, plus one option that only mentions signing. Concept / Approach: As per the Census, literacy is not merely the ability to sign or recognise letters; it is defined as the ability of a person to read and write with understanding in any language. Additionally, the Census sets a minimum age for counting literacy to exclude very small children. The official minimum age used in Census 2011 is seven years. Therefore, any statement that alters this age or weakens the reading and writing requirement is incorrect. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the standard Census definition: a person aged seven years and above who can both read and write with understanding in any language is treated as literate. Step 2: Compare this definition with each option and pay close attention to the age mentioned. Step 3: Option A uses age seven and includes the phrase read and write with understanding in any language, which matches the official definition. Step 4: Options B, C and D use ages eight, nine and ten respectively, which do not align with the actual threshold of seven years. Step 5: Option E talks only about the ability to sign, which is clearly weaker than reading and writing with understanding, and therefore does not satisfy the Census definition. Verification / Alternative check: Standard reference books on Indian polity and economy, as well as the official Census 2011 documentation, clearly mention that literacy is counted only from age seven onwards and requires both reading and writing with understanding. Many solved papers repeat the same wording in their explanations. Cross checking these sources confirms that Option A alone is correct. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option B: Uses age eight instead of seven, which shifts the threshold and therefore does not match the official definition. Option C: Uses age nine, which is also incorrect because literacy is counted earlier from age seven. Option D: Uses age ten, which further departs from the correct minimum age and is not consistent with Census documents. Option E: Treats the ability to sign as literacy, which is explicitly rejected by the Census definition that demands reading and writing with understanding. Common Pitfalls: Many candidates remember the phrase read and write with understanding but forget the exact age linked to the definition, leading to confusion between seven and later ages. Some also mistakenly believe that merely being able to sign is sufficient, which was never the Census guideline. To avoid these errors, memorise both parts of the definition together: minimum age seven and the combined ability to read and write with understanding in any language. Final Answer: For Census 2011 in India, a literate person is defined as a person aged seven years and above who can both read and write with understanding in any language.

Question 5

Which play by William Shakespeare has been claimed by some researchers to have been dated wrongly in terms of its year of composition?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: William Shakespeare is one of the most studied authors in world literature, and scholars frequently revisit the dating of his plays. New research sometimes suggests that a particular play may have been written earlier or later than previously believed. General knowledge and literature based exams occasionally ask which Shakespeare play has recently been claimed to have been dated wrongly, so candidates should know this scholarly debate in brief. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question focuses on one play whose established date of composition has been challenged by some researchers. - The options include four very famous tragedies and one additional play: Macbeth, Othello, Hamlet, Romeo and Juliet and The Tempest. - No additional dates or years are given, so the answer must rely on external literary knowledge rather than calculation. Concept / Approach: The approach is to recall recent scholarship that argued for revising the traditional date of one of Shakespeare most famous tragedies. Various studies in Shakespearean scholarship have suggested that Hamlet, traditionally dated to around the early seventeenth century, might belong to a different period than previously thought. This specific claim about misdating is associated more strongly with Hamlet than with the other plays listed. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: List the plays in the options and recall any discussions about their dating from literary history notes or articles. Step 2: Notice that Romeo and Juliet and The Tempest have fairly well established approximate dates and are not usually at the centre of recent misdating debates. Step 3: Macbeth and Othello also have scholarly discussions but are less central in recent popular news about misdating. Step 4: Remember that Hamlet has been the focus of newer arguments suggesting its date of composition might be earlier than the widely accepted timeframe. Step 5: Conclude that Hamlet is the play that has been claimed to be dated wrongly. Verification / Alternative check: Literature news articles and academic summaries sometimes highlight research that reexamines the date of Hamlet and its sources. These pieces frequently mention that some scholars now believe that the play may have been written earlier than the traditional date, or that previous chronologies require revision. This repeated association between misdating and Hamlet supports the selection of this play as the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Macbeth: While scholars debate various details, there has not been the same level of recent attention on wholesale misdating as in the case of Hamlet. Othello: It has contested aspects of staging and sources, but is not the central example of a recently misdated play in popular reports. Romeo and Juliet: Its approximate period is widely accepted, with no major new claim dominating exam level general knowledge. The Tempest: This late romance is also relatively secure in the traditional chronology and has not been the subject of widely publicised misdating claims in the same way. Common Pitfalls: Candidates may guess based on how famous a play is without recalling specific scholarly news. Another pitfall is confusing debates about authorship or collaborations with debates about dating, which are conceptually different. It is important to connect this question directly to the reported research on changing the date of Hamlet rather than general rumours about Shakespeare plays. Final Answer: The Shakespeare play that has been claimed by some researchers to have been dated wrongly is Hamlet.

Question 6

Which of the following countries co-sponsors the annual multilateral military exercise "Cobra Gold" along with Thailand?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Cobra Gold is one of the largest and longest running multilateral military exercises in the Asia Pacific region. It is regularly mentioned in defence news and international relations discussions. Many competitive examinations include questions on important military exercises and their participating countries, so it is useful to know who co-sponsors Cobra Gold with Thailand. Given Data / Assumptions: - The exercise named in the question is Cobra Gold. - Thailand is already mentioned in the question as one of the organisers. - The options list India, Indonesia, the United States of America, China and Japan as possible co-sponsors. Concept / Approach: Cobra Gold is closely linked with defence cooperation between Thailand and the United States, and it has grown into a major multilateral exercise involving several regional partners and observers. The key concept here is to identify the long term principal partner of Thailand in organising this exercise. Recognising that the United States is heavily involved in Asia Pacific defence exercises allows us to choose the correct option confidently. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Cobra Gold is conducted in Thailand and is primarily associated with the Thai and United States armed forces. Step 2: Examine the options. India, Indonesia, China and Japan may participate in various regional exercises, but they are not traditionally recognised as co-sponsors of Cobra Gold. Step 3: Note that the United States has a long standing defence partnership with Thailand and plays a central role in this exercise. Step 4: Use this knowledge to identify the United States of America as the correct co-sponsoring country. Step 5: Confirm that no other option fits the specific co-sponsor role as accurately as the United States. Verification / Alternative check: Reports on defence cooperation in the region consistently describe Cobra Gold as a joint Thai United States exercise that later expanded to include multiple nations. Official communication from the United States Department of Defense and Thai military sources list both countries as key organisers. This cross checking confirms that the United States is the co-sponsor mentioned in the question. Why Other Options Are Wrong: India: India participates in other exercises such as Malabar and has joined some editions of Cobra Gold, but it is not a co-sponsor of the exercise. Indonesia: This country may take part in regional drills but does not co-sponsor Cobra Gold with Thailand. China: It is not the long term co-organiser of Cobra Gold and has had a different pattern of participation and relations in the region. Japan: While Japan is involved in several joint exercises, it does not act as the primary co-sponsor for Cobra Gold. Common Pitfalls: A frequent error is to confuse participation with sponsorship. Many countries join multinational exercises as participants or observers, but that does not make them co-organisers. Another pitfall is mixing up various Asia Pacific exercises, such as Malabar, RIMPAC and others, and assigning the wrong partner country to the wrong exercise. Keeping a small list of key exercises and their main organisers helps avoid this confusion. Final Answer: The country that co-sponsors the multilateral military exercise Cobra Gold along with Thailand is the United States of America.

Question 7

Which country signed a Memorandum of Understanding with India in July 2016 to promote the production of pigeon peas (tur) and other pulses?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: India is one of the largest consumers of pulses in the world and often faces shortages of important pulses such as pigeon peas, also known as tur or arhar. To improve availability and price stability, India has signed agreements with other countries to encourage the cultivation of pulses abroad. One such agreement in July 2016 involved pigeon peas and became a frequently asked topic in current affairs and general knowledge examinations. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question refers specifically to an MoU signed in July 2016. - The agreement relates to promoting production of pigeon peas and other pulses for India needs. - The options list South Africa, Syria, Egypt, Mozambique and Kenya as possible partner countries. Concept / Approach: India engages with several African countries for agricultural cooperation because these nations often have suitable land and climate for pulse cultivation. The key concept is to remember that Mozambique, located in southeastern Africa, was highlighted in news reports as a partner in a long term agreement to increase production and export of pigeon peas to India. This makes Mozambique the correct choice among the given options. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the 2016 news related to India signing an MoU to promote pulse production abroad, especially pigeon peas. Step 2: Identify that this agreement was signed with an African nation rather than countries in West Asia or North Africa. Step 3: Among the options, Syria and Egypt are in West Asia and North Africa respectively, while South Africa, Mozambique and Kenya are in the African continent. Step 4: Remember that Mozambique was specifically mentioned as the country with which India signed a long term agreement on pigeon pea production in July 2016. Step 5: Conclude that Mozambique is the correct partner country for this MoU. Verification / Alternative check: If you cross check with governmental press releases and economic news from mid 2016, you will find mention of India and Mozambique signing an MoU that focused on pulses, especially pigeon peas. The agreement was often cited as part of India strategy to secure food supplies and stabilise pulse prices. This repetition in news and exam oriented study material confirms Mozambique as the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: South Africa: Though India has trade relations with South Africa, it was not the country associated with the pigeon pea MoU in July 2016. Syria: Owing to conflict and instability, Syria was not a partner in this agricultural cooperation for pulses. Egypt: Better known for cooperation in other sectors, Egypt was not highlighted as a key partner in pigeon pea production for India during that period. Kenya: While Kenya grows various crops and has trade links with India, it was not the country involved in the specific 2016 MoU on pigeon peas mentioned in the question. Common Pitfalls: A common pitfall is to assume that any African country listed must be correct without recalling which specific state signed the MoU. Another mistake is confusing this agreement with other trade or agricultural arrangements that India has with African nations. To avoid such confusion, it helps to associate pigeon peas with Mozambique and to link this memory to the July 2016 timeline. Final Answer: The country that signed an MoU with India in July 2016 to promote the production of pigeon peas and other pulses is Mozambique.

Question 8

With which neighbouring country of India has the Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project been undertaken to improve connectivity and trade?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project is a major connectivity initiative aimed at improving links between India and one of its neighbours by combining sea, river and road routes. It is a popular topic in general knowledge and international relations questions, especially in the context of India Act East policy and efforts to improve connectivity with Southeast Asia. Given Data / Assumptions: - The project named is the Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project. - The question asks which neighbouring country of India is involved in this project. - The options include China, Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar and Sri Lanka. Concept / Approach: The Kaladan project aims to connect the eastern Indian state of Mizoram with a port in a neighbouring country using a combination of sea, river and road transport. The port involved is Sittwe, located in a neighbouring country to the east of India. Knowing basic geography and India connectivity projects immediately points to Myanmar as that country, since Sittwe is a port there and Kaladan is a river in that region. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Kaladan project is designed to provide an alternative route to India northeastern states, bypassing the narrow Siliguri corridor. Step 2: Remember that the project includes development of Sittwe port, inland water transport on the Kaladan River, and road connectivity to India. Step 3: Identify the country where Sittwe port and the Kaladan River are located. Both are in Myanmar. Step 4: Review the options: China, Nepal, Bhutan and Sri Lanka do not contain Sittwe port or the Kaladan River. Step 5: Conclude that the neighbouring country associated with the Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project is Myanmar. Verification / Alternative check: Official communications from the Government of India and project descriptions in reports on Act East policy consistently mention that the Kaladan project links India with Myanmar. The name of the river and the location of Sittwe port are both identified within Myanmar territory. These repeated references verify that Myanmar is the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: China: India has other connectivity projects and border issues with China, but the Kaladan project is not one of them. Nepal: This is a landlocked country to the north of India and does not have the Kaladan River or Sittwe port. Bhutan: Another landlocked country with separate connectivity initiatives; it is not part of the Kaladan scheme. Sri Lanka: It is an island nation to the south of India; no component of the Kaladan project is located there. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates confuse various regional connectivity projects, such as the India Myanmar Thailand trilateral highway, the Chabahar port project in Iran or other corridor initiatives. Another pitfall is to assume that any connectivity project in the east must involve China, which is not true. Linking the word Kaladan to Myanmar geography and the Sittwe port helps fix the correct association in memory. Final Answer: The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project has been undertaken between India and Myanmar.

Question 9

Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited (MTNL) in India falls under which category of Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs)?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: In India, Central Public Sector Enterprises are classified into various categories such as Maharatna, Navratna and Miniratna based on their size, performance and strategic importance. Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited, known as MTNL, is a well known public sector telecom company. Questions about its category within this classification are common in banking, SSC and other competitive examinations. Given Data / Assumptions: - The enterprise in question is Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited (MTNL). - The options include categories Maharatna, Navratna, Miniratna Category I and II, and a distractor regarding sick status. - No numerical data or year is provided, so the classification is treated as the standard, widely known one used in static general knowledge. Concept / Approach: The concept here is the classification system used by the Government of India for CPSEs. Maharatna status is reserved for the largest and most globally significant enterprises. Navratna status is for large and fairly autonomous CPSEs that meet certain financial and performance criteria. Miniratna Category I and II are given to smaller, but still profitable, enterprises. MTNL has been recognised as a Navratna company rather than a Maharatna or Miniratna, which is the key fact tested in this question. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the basic definitions of Maharatna, Navratna and Miniratna categories. Step 2: Remember that only a limited number of very large enterprises, such as certain energy or resource giants, are Maharatna companies, and MTNL is not in that exclusive list. Step 3: Identify MTNL as a major telecom CPSE that has historically been given Navratna status for greater financial freedom and autonomy. Step 4: Eliminate Miniratna Category I and Category II options, because MTNL is larger and more significant than typical Miniratna enterprises. Step 5: Conclude that MTNL is classified as a Navratna company. Verification / Alternative check: Official lists of Maharatna, Navratna and Miniratna CPSEs published by the Department of Public Enterprises list MTNL among the Navratna companies. This classification is also reproduced in many static GK compilations and exam preparation books. Checking any such recent and reliable list confirms that MTNL is a Navratna enterprise. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Maharatna company: This category is reserved for very large enterprises, often in energy and natural resources, and does not include MTNL. Miniratna Category I company: These are profitable but smaller enterprises; MTNL is ranked higher than this category in the traditional classification. Miniratna Category II company: This is an even lower category in terms of autonomy; MTNL does not fall under it. Notified as a sick public sector enterprise: While MTNL has faced financial stress, this is not the formal category referred to when discussing CPSE classification into Maharatna, Navratna, and Miniratna groups. Common Pitfalls: One pitfall is confusing financial health with formal category labels, leading candidates to think that any company with losses cannot be a Navratna. Another mistake is assuming that all big names must be Maharatna, which is not true. Keeping a short memorised list of Maharatna and Navratna companies helps avoid such confusion in objective questions. Final Answer: Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited is classified as a Navratna company among Central Public Sector Enterprises in India.

Question 10

Which of the following is recognised as the national aquatic (water) animal of India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: India has adopted several national symbols to represent its natural heritage and cultural identity, such as a national flag, national animal, national bird and national aquatic animal. Knowing these symbols is a key part of static general knowledge. The national aquatic or water animal recognises the importance of conserving river ecosystems and endangered species in the country. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question asks specifically for the national aquatic or water animal of India. - The options include Crocodile, Turtle, Alligator, Gangetic dolphin and River shark. - No year is mentioned, so the standard and widely accepted designation is assumed. Concept / Approach: The Government of India declared the Ganges river dolphin, also called Gangetic dolphin, as the national aquatic animal to draw attention to the fragile condition of river ecosystems, especially the Ganga system. The concept behind the question is that the national aquatic animal is not a general marine creature like a shark but a specific endangered freshwater dolphin found in Indian rivers. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that India has designated the Ganges river dolphin as its national aquatic animal. Step 2: Match this information to the given options and identify which option describes that animal. Step 3: Crocodile, Turtle, Alligator and River shark are not the ones declared as national aquatic animal, although some may be found in Indian waters. Step 4: Recognise that Gangetic dolphin refers to the same species as the Ganges river dolphin. Step 5: Select Gangetic dolphin as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Official announcements by the Government of India and material from the Ministry of Environment and Forests state that the Ganges river dolphin has been given the status of national aquatic animal. Exam oriented books and environmental awareness campaigns also highlight this fact. Seeing the term Gangetic dolphin used as an alternative name confirms that option D is correct. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Crocodile: Although crocodiles live in Indian rivers and lakes, they have not been declared the national aquatic animal. Turtle: Certain turtles are protected species, but turtle is not the symbol chosen as national aquatic animal. Alligator: Alligators are not native to Indian rivers in the same way as the Ganges river dolphin. River shark: While some sharks may occur in rivers, this term does not refer to the national aquatic animal of India. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse the national animal (the Bengal tiger) and the national aquatic animal, or they associate crocodiles with rivers more strongly than dolphins. Another error is to think that a widely feared species such as a shark would be chosen as a national symbol, which is not the case here. Remembering that the government selected an endangered freshwater species reinforces the correct association with the Gangetic dolphin. Final Answer: The national aquatic or water animal of India is the Gangetic dolphin.

Question 11

Under the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan, free health check ups and required treatment for pregnant women are provided on which fixed day of every month?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan is a national programme that aims to provide assured, comprehensive and quality antenatal care to pregnant women. One of its key features is the designation of a fixed day each month when free health check ups and required treatment are offered. This date based detail is frequently tested in general awareness sections of government exams. Given Data / Assumptions: - The scheme in question is Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan. - The question asks about the fixed day of every month on which services are provided. - The options list several possible dates: 1st, 9th, 15th, 21st and 30th of every month. Concept / Approach: The central idea is that the programme uses a memorable date to encourage pregnant women to visit health facilities for regular check ups. This date is the ninth of each month, which is also symbolically linked to the nine months of pregnancy, making it easy to recall. Remembering this symbolic association helps you choose the correct date quickly in exams. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the key design of the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan, which includes special antenatal clinics on a fixed day. Step 2: Remember the slogan and promotional materials that highlight the ninth day of every month as the day of free antenatal services. Step 3: Compare the given options and identify that only option B mentions the ninth of every month. Step 4: Verify mentally that this matches the symbolic link between nine months of pregnancy and the ninth day chosen for the campaign. Step 5: Select 9th of every month as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Official programme descriptions, government advertisements and health ministry guidelines clearly state that special antenatal clinics under this scheme are held on the ninth day of every month across facilities. This date is repeated in campaign logos and posters. Cross checking with such sources confirms the answer and reinforces the association between the number nine and maternal health under this programme. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 1st of every month: Although some schemes begin on the first day, this particular programme is specifically tied to the ninth. 15th of every month: This is the mid point of the month but has no special significance in the design of this scheme. 21st of every month: This date is not used in official branding or operational guidelines for the programme. 30th of every month: Not all months have a thirtieth day, and this date is not connected to the scheme. Common Pitfalls: Students may remember that there is a fixed day but mix it up with dates from other schemes, such as immunisation or child health days. Another pitfall is assuming that the first day of the month must be the correct one simply because it appears more natural. To avoid confusion, link the scheme to the concept of nine months of pregnancy and therefore to the ninth day of each month. Final Answer: Under the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan, free health check ups and required treatment for pregnant women are provided on the 9th of every month.

Question 12

During the financial year 2017–18, which organisation was designated to implement the Varishtha Pension Bima Yojana scheme for senior citizens?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Varishtha Pension Bima Yojana is a social security scheme targeted at senior citizens in India. It provides an assured pension based on a guaranteed return on the amount invested. Implementation details, such as which organisation runs the scheme, are common topics in banking and insurance related competitive exams, especially for the financial year 2017–18 when the scheme was relaunched. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question clearly mentions the financial year 2017–18. - It asks which organisation implemented Varishtha Pension Bima Yojana during that period. - The options list several insurance companies, both public sector and private sector. Concept / Approach: The Government of India often selects a major public sector life insurer as the implementing agency for pension schemes that offer assured returns. For Varishtha Pension Bima Yojana, the implementation responsibility was given to the Life Insurance Corporation of India, commonly known as LIC. The scheme was subsidised by the government to ensure the promised returns, but LIC handled the operational aspects such as selling policies and paying pensions. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Varishtha Pension Bima Yojana is a pension scheme specifically for senior citizens, backed by the Government of India. Step 2: Remember that LIC, being the largest public sector life insurer, frequently implements such government backed pension products. Step 3: Compare the options and identify Life Insurance Corporation of India among them. Step 4: Eliminate other companies such as National Insurance, New India Assurance, SBI Life and United India Insurance, which are either general insurers or private and not the designated implementing agency for this scheme. Step 5: Conclude that Life Insurance Corporation of India implemented the Varishtha Pension Bima Yojana during 2017–18. Verification / Alternative check: Government notifications and LIC official documents from that period clearly mention that Varishtha Pension Bima Yojana is being implemented through Life Insurance Corporation of India. The government provides subsidy to LIC to make up the difference between the guaranteed return promised and the actual market yield. Exam guides covering pension and insurance schemes also repeat this fact, confirming LIC role as the implementing agency. Why Other Options Are Wrong: National Insurance Company Limited: This is a general insurance company and not the designated implementer of this pension scheme. New India Assurance Company Limited: Another general insurer that deals mainly with non life insurance products. SBI Life Insurance Company Limited: A joint venture with a significant private component; it was not chosen to implement this government backed senior citizen pension scheme during 2017–18. United India Insurance Company Limited: Again a general insurer rather than the public sector life insurer selected for this role. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes confuse life insurance and general insurance companies, or they assume that any large public sector insurer might be involved. Another mistake is to overlook the specific year mentioned and mix up Varishtha Pension Bima Yojana with other pension schemes. Keeping a clear mental map that LIC implements most government backed life and pension schemes for individuals helps avoid confusion. Final Answer: During the financial year 2017–18, the Varishtha Pension Bima Yojana scheme was implemented by the Life Insurance Corporation of India.

Question 13

Which country became the seventh member of the South Asia Subregional Economic Cooperation (SASEC) programme on 31 March 2017?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The South Asia Subregional Economic Cooperation programme, known as SASEC, is an initiative that aims to promote regional prosperity through improved connectivity and economic cooperation among member countries. General knowledge questions often focus on membership changes in regional groupings, including which country joined and when. The addition of the seventh member in 2017 is one such fact frequently tested. Given Data / Assumptions: - The grouping in question is SASEC. - The question asks which country became its seventh member on 31 March 2017. - The options list Myanmar, Bhutan, Nepal, Maldives and Sri Lanka. Concept / Approach: Originally, SASEC included a set of South Asian countries. In 2017, the programme expanded its membership by including a Southeast Asian country that has close links to India and South Asia, particularly through connectivity and trade routes. This country is Myanmar, which lies at the junction between South Asia and Southeast Asia, making it a logical and strategic addition to SASEC. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that SASEC initially included countries like Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal and Sri Lanka. Step 2: Remember that Myanmar joined the SASEC programme in 2017, expanding the group size to seven. Step 3: Note that Bhutan and Nepal were already members before 2017, so they cannot be the new seventh member. Step 4: Maldives and Sri Lanka were also part of the earlier membership and therefore are not the new entrant asked about. Step 5: Conclude that Myanmar is the country that became the seventh SASEC member on 31 March 2017. Verification / Alternative check: Press releases from the Asian Development Bank, which supports the SASEC programme, mention that Myanmar became the seventh member on 31 March 2017. The same information appears in reports discussing India connectivity with Southeast Asia. These consistent references confirm that Myanmar is the correct answer and that it joined SASEC on that date. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Bhutan: It was among the founding or early members and therefore not the seventh member added in 2017. Nepal: It also belonged to SASEC before 2017 and cannot be the new entrant mentioned in the question. Maldives: Part of the original membership, not the country that joined in March 2017. Sri Lanka: Another early member of SASEC, not added in 2017 as the seventh member. Common Pitfalls: A common pitfall is to assume that only South Asian countries can be members of SASEC and therefore to overlook Myanmar, which is technically a Southeast Asian country. Another mistake is not remembering the original member list and thus guessing randomly among the options. A clear mental link between SASEC expansion and Myanmar role as a bridge between South Asia and Southeast Asia helps avoid this confusion. Final Answer: The country that became the seventh member of the South Asia Subregional Economic Cooperation programme on 31 March 2017 is Myanmar.

Question 14

Which of the following countries does not have a single written Constitution compiled in one document?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Most modern states have a written constitution, a single formal document that sets out the basic principles and structure of government. However, there are a few well known exceptions. General knowledge and polity questions often ask which country does not have a single written constitution, because this feature makes that system unique in comparative constitutional studies. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question asks about a country that does not have one single written constitutional document. - The options include United Kingdom, Australia, United States of America, Bangladesh and Canada. - We assume the question refers to the traditional understanding in comparative constitutional law, where unwritten or partly written constitutions are distinguished from codified ones. Concept / Approach: The key concept is that the United Kingdom is famous for having an unwritten or rather uncodified constitution. Its constitutional rules are spread across statutes, common law, conventions and other sources, rather than contained in a single binding document titled Constitution. In contrast, countries such as the United States, Australia, Bangladesh and Canada have written constitutional documents that serve as a central reference point. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the United States has a formal written Constitution adopted in the eighteenth century, which rules it out as the answer. Step 2: Remember that Australia has a written Constitution that outlines the federal structure and powers. Step 3: Note that Bangladesh also has a written Constitution adopted after independence. Step 4: Recognise that Canada, while having some complexities due to British ties, nevertheless possesses written constitutional documents, including the Constitution Act. Step 5: Identify the United Kingdom as the country widely cited as having an uncodified constitution, which is not contained in a single written document. Verification / Alternative check: Standard polity and constitutional law textbooks clearly contrast the British system with codified constitutions elsewhere, describing the United Kingdom constitution as unwritten or uncodified. In contrast, they refer to the Constitution of the United States, the Australian Constitution, the Constitution of Bangladesh and the Canadian constitutional acts as written references. This comparative treatment confirms that the United Kingdom is the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Australia: It has a formally written Constitution, making it a classic example of a codified federal constitution. United States of America: The written Constitution is one of the oldest in the world and is central to that political system. Bangladesh: It has a written constitutional document that sets out the framework of government and rights. Canada: Although its constitutional history is complex, the core principles are codified in written acts such as the Constitution Act and Charter of Rights and Freedoms. Common Pitfalls: A frequent pitfall is confusing the idea of very old laws or multiple amendments with not having a written constitution. Another mistake is thinking that if parts of a constitution are inherited from another country, it might not be considered written. The defining feature for this question is whether there is a single codified document called the Constitution, which is absent in the case of the United Kingdom but present for the others. Final Answer: The country listed that does not have a single written Constitution compiled in one document is the United Kingdom.

Question 15

In the state of Tamil Nadu, the traditional bull taming sport Jallikattu is celebrated as part of which festival?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Jallikattu is a famous traditional bull taming event in Tamil Nadu that has been at the centre of cultural and legal debates. It is closely associated with a particular harvest festival and reflects the agrarian heritage of the region. Questions in general knowledge and state specific exams often test the link between Jallikattu and the festival with which it is celebrated. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question refers to Jallikattu as practiced in Tamil Nadu. - It asks which festival includes this bull taming sport as a traditional part of the celebrations. - The options include Onam, Pongal, Natyanjali, Hampi Utsav and Ugadi. Concept / Approach: Jallikattu is held during the harvest festival that is celebrated in mid January in Tamil Nadu. This festival is called Pongal and is similar in timing to Makar Sankranti in other parts of India. Recognising that Jallikattu is a highlight of Pongal festivities allows easy selection of the correct answer from the list of options. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Jallikattu involves young men attempting to embrace or hold on to bulls and is deeply linked to rural Tamil culture. Step 2: Remember that this event is typically organised during the harvest festival in January. Step 3: Identify Pongal as the harvest festival of Tamil Nadu celebrated in mid January, during which Jallikattu events are held in several districts. Step 4: Compare with other options: Onam is a festival of Kerala, Natyanjali is a dance festival, Hampi Utsav is associated with Karnataka, and Ugadi is a New Year festival in some southern states but not specifically linked with Jallikattu. Step 5: Conclude that Pongal is the correct festival associated with Jallikattu. Verification / Alternative check: News coverage, documentaries and cultural descriptions of Tamil Nadu repeatedly mention Jallikattu as a Pongal time event. When legal disputes about Jallikattu reached the courts, discussions also noted its association with the harvest festival of Pongal as part of the cultural argument. This consistent portrayal in multiple sources confirms the link between Jallikattu and Pongal. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Onam: This is a major festival of Kerala, not Tamil Nadu, and it does not feature Jallikattu as a traditional event. Natyanjali dance festival: This is focused on classical dance offerings, not bull taming sports. Hampi Utsav: Associated with cultural celebrations in Karnataka and not with Jallikattu in Tamil Nadu. Ugadi: New Year festival in parts of South India but not the occasion for Jallikattu in Tamil Nadu. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates mix up different South Indian festivals because they occur near the same time and share agrarian themes. Another pitfall is to associate any prominent festival with any well known cultural event without checking the specific region. By firmly linking Pongal with Tamil Nadu rural traditions and Jallikattu, candidates can avoid these mistakes. Final Answer: Jallikattu, the traditional bull taming sport of Tamil Nadu, is celebrated as part of the Pongal festival.

Question 16

The Pradhan Mantri Digital Saksharta Abhiyan (PMGDISHA) aims to make six crore rural households digitally literate by which target date?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Pradhan Mantri Digital Saksharta Abhiyan, often shortened to PMGDISHA, is a flagship digital literacy programme of the Government of India. It seeks to empower rural households by teaching basic digital skills. Examination questions frequently test the scale and target dates of major schemes, so candidates should know by when the government initially aimed to make six crore rural households digitally literate under this programme. Given Data / Assumptions: - The scheme in question is Pradhan Mantri Digital Saksharta Abhiyan. - The aim mentioned is to make six crore rural households digitally literate. - The options provide several possible target dates, mostly in financial year format, such as March 2019, March 2020 and so on. Concept / Approach: Government schemes usually specify target dates aligned with financial years, commonly ending on 31 March. The digital literacy drive PMGDISHA was designed as part of the wider Digital India vision, and the original target was to achieve digital literacy for six crore rural households by March 2019. Remembering this time bound goal is essential for answering the question correctly. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that PMGDISHA replaced an earlier digital literacy mission and scaled up the target to six crore rural households. Step 2: Remember that the scheme initial target date for achieving this literacy was set as March 2019. Step 3: Look at the options and identify which ones correspond to that date. Option A clearly states March 2019. Step 4: Recognise that later dates such as March 2020, April 2021 and March 2022 do not match the original stated goal. Step 5: Select March 2019 as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Official scheme documents and Digital India programme summaries mention that PMGDISHA aims to make six crore rural households digitally literate by March 2019. Many exam preparation materials quote the same date and target together. Cross checking the target year across these sources confirms that March 2019 is the correct date to mark in objective questions. Why Other Options Are Wrong: March 2020: Although close, this was not the original cut off mentioned for the target of six crore households. April 2021: This is later than the initial scheme timeline and does not match the announced goal. March 2022: Some other schemes may run till this date, but PMGDISHA original six crore rural households target was set earlier. December 2018: This is earlier than the financial year ending and was not specified as the official target date. Common Pitfalls: Candidates often confuse target dates of various government schemes, especially when many programmes are scheduled around similar periods. Another pitfall is assuming that all major goals would naturally extend to the end of a later plan period. To avoid these issues, it is useful to memorise the key pair: PMGDISHA and the target of six crore rural households by March 2019. Final Answer: The Pradhan Mantri Digital Saksharta Abhiyan aims to make six crore rural households digitally literate by March 2019.

Question 17

Which Indian state or Union Territory hosted the three day "International Yoga Fest" held from 8th to 10th March 2017?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: International Yoga related events have become prominent in India, especially after the United Nations declared an International Day of Yoga. Various festivals, conventions and fests are organised in different parts of the country. One such event was the International Yoga Fest held in early March 2017. General awareness questions frequently ask where these major yoga events were hosted. Given Data / Assumptions: - The event is named International Yoga Fest. - The dates are 8th to 10th March 2017. - The options list several Indian states and one Union Territory: Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Delhi and Uttarakhand. Concept / Approach: Large national and international level yoga events are often organised in the national capital because of ease of access, facilities and visibility. The International Yoga Fest mentioned was held in Delhi, which is a Union Territory with the status of the National Capital Territory. Recognising that many such flagship events are hosted in the capital helps point to Delhi as the correct answer. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall reading about the International Yoga Fest held in March 2017 as a run up event to the International Day of Yoga. Step 2: Remember that it took place in the national capital, with participation from various yoga organisations and international delegates. Step 3: Look at the options. Only Delhi is the National Capital Territory known for hosting such events at major venues. Step 4: Recognise that although Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and others are important in yoga tradition, this particular event was organised in Delhi. Step 5: Select Delhi as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Ministry of AYUSH and media reports from 2017 state that the International Yoga Fest from 8 to 10 March was held in Delhi, serving as a curtain raiser for International Day of Yoga celebrations. The event venue and schedule were widely covered in national news, which confirms the location. Exam preparation books that summarise 2017 events repeat the same detail. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Uttar Pradesh: Although it has important cities like Varanasi, this particular event in March 2017 was not held there. Madhya Pradesh: Known for hosting some yoga events, but not the three day International Yoga Fest mentioned in the question. Maharashtra: Has major cities such as Mumbai and Pune, yet it was not the venue of this specific event. Uttarakhand: Home to Rishikesh, a famous yoga centre, but the International Yoga Fest 2017 highlighted here took place in the national capital. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes associate yoga events automatically with Uttarakhand or other spiritually renowned states, overlooking the fact that many official international events are held in Delhi. Another pitfall is to rely on guesswork rather than remembering the specific year and dates given. Linking International Yoga Fest March 2017 with Delhi in your notes avoids such confusion. Final Answer: The three day International Yoga Fest held from 8th to 10th March 2017 was hosted in Delhi.

Question 18

In the Constitution of India, "bankruptcy and insolvency" is included in which list of the Seventh Schedule?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Constitution of India distributes legislative powers between the Union and the States through three lists in the Seventh Schedule: Union List, State List and Concurrent List. Each subject is allocated to one of these lists. Bankruptcy and insolvency is an important subject because it affects businesses and individuals across the country, and questions on its placement in the constitutional lists are common in polity and economy sections of competitive exams. Given Data / Assumptions: - The subject named is bankruptcy and insolvency. - The question asks in which list of the Seventh Schedule it is placed. - The options include Union List, State List, a fictitious Global List, Concurrent List and Residuary subjects only. Concept / Approach: The Concurrent List contains subjects on which both Parliament and state legislatures can make laws, though central law prevails in case of conflict. Bankruptcy and insolvency, being matters that can have nationwide implications but may also involve state level concerns, are placed in this list. Specifically, they appear as an entry in the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule. Therefore, the correct approach is to identify that this subject is not exclusively Union or State but shared. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Seventh Schedule has three lists: Union, State and Concurrent. Step 2: Remember that criminal law, marriage and divorce, transfer of property, contracts and bankruptcy and insolvency are classic examples given for the Concurrent List. Step 3: Notice that there is no official Global List in the Constitution; this option is clearly a distractor. Step 4: Recognise that bankruptcy and insolvency are not exclusively under the Union or State List; they are shared subjects in the Concurrent List. Step 5: Select Concurrent List as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Reading the text of the Seventh Schedule or a standard polity textbook shows that bankruptcy and insolvency is explicitly mentioned under the Concurrent List. The entry is often listed along with subjects like contracts, criminal law and trusts. This direct reference in the constitutional text is the strongest confirmation of the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Union List: Contains subjects reserved for Parliament alone, such as defence, foreign affairs and currency, but bankruptcy and insolvency are not exclusively placed here. State List: Contains subjects like police, public order and local government; bankruptcy and insolvency are not confined to state competence alone. Global List: This is not a real constitutional category and is included only to confuse candidates. Residuary subjects only: Residuary powers refer to topics not mentioned in any list; bankruptcy and insolvency are specifically mentioned, so they are not residuary subjects. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to assume that all economic and financial subjects must lie in the Union List because of their national importance. Another pitfall is to think that the presence of new laws like the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code automatically shifts the subject to the Union List, which is not the case. Remembering the examples associated with the Concurrent List helps prevent these errors. Final Answer: In the Constitution of India, bankruptcy and insolvency are included in the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule.

Question 19

At the Union level in India, who has the authority to amend the Constitution of India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Constitution of India is a supreme legal document that can be amended only through a special procedure. Understanding who has the formal authority to amend it is a basic but very important concept in Indian polity. Many objective questions test this directly, since it reflects the distribution of powers between different organs and institutions of the state. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question asks who has the authority to amend the Constitution at the Union level. - The options include various bodies and offices such as a ministry, the Prime Minister Office, Parliament, a regulatory body and the Supreme Court. - We assume the question refers to the formal law making power, not to interpretation or judicial review. Concept / Approach: Article 368 of the Constitution of India lays down the procedure for amendment. It specifies that Parliament may amend the Constitution by passing a Constitution Amendment Bill with a special majority, and in certain cases, ratification by at least half of the state legislatures is also required. However, the institution that initiates and passes the amendment at the Union level is Parliament, not the executive or the judiciary. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall Article 368 and its statement that Parliament may amend the Constitution by way of addition, variation or repeal of any provision. Step 2: Identify Parliament as the supreme law making body at the Union level, consisting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Step 3: Note that the Prime Minister Office and ministries are part of the executive, which can propose changes but does not itself pass amendments. Step 4: Recognise that the Supreme Court interprets the Constitution and can strike down unconstitutional amendments, but it does not amend the document formally. Step 5: Select Parliament as the institution with constitutional authority to amend the Constitution. Verification / Alternative check: Standard Indian polity textbooks and the text of Article 368 make it explicit that Parliament may amend the Constitution using the procedure prescribed. Court judgements such as those on the basic structure doctrine discuss the limits of this power but still clearly state that the power itself belongs to Parliament. No provision gives amendment power to the executive or regulatory bodies, confirming that Parliament is the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Ministry of Defence: A ministry executes defence policy but does not possess constitutional amendment powers. Prime Minister Office: The Prime Minister leads the government but has no independent authority to amend the Constitution without parliamentary procedure. Securities and Exchange Board of India: This is a statutory regulator for securities markets and has no role in constitutional amendments. Supreme Court of India: It can review and interpret amendments but cannot initiate or pass them as formal law in place of Parliament. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates become confused by the influence of the executive in the legislative process and mistakenly think that the Prime Minister Office can directly amend the Constitution. Others overestimate the role of the Supreme Court in constitutional change, thinking that interpreting or striking down provisions is the same as amending them. Remembering that amendment is a legislative function, carried out through a special parliamentary procedure, helps avoid these misunderstandings. Final Answer: At the Union level, the authority to amend the Constitution of India lies with the Parliament following the procedure laid down in Article 368.

Question 20

In Indian railway infrastructure, which target year was initially set for completing the Mumbai–Ahmedabad high speed bullet train corridor that is being developed with financial and technical assistance from Japan?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The proposed Mumbai–Ahmedabad high speed rail corridor, popularly known as the bullet train project, is a flagship transport initiative being implemented in partnership with Japan. This project aims to introduce very high speed rail connectivity between Mumbai in Maharashtra and Ahmedabad in Gujarat, using Japanese Shinkansen style technology. Competitive exams often ask about the original target year that was set as a goal for completion of this project, so that candidates remain aware of major national infrastructure plans and timelines. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question refers to the Mumbai–Ahmedabad bullet train corridor in India. - The project is being implemented with significant help from Japan in terms of technology and finance. - The focus is on the target year that was initially set as the goal for completion. - Options given are four specific calendar years between 2022 and 2025. Concept / Approach: To answer this question, we need to recall factual details from government announcements and official statements made when the project was launched. Large infrastructure projects such as high speed rail corridors normally have a publicly announced target year for completion. Exam questions usually test whether students can remember that originally announced year, even if the deadline may later shift due to delays or policy changes. Thus, the task is to identify which of the four years matches that initial target set for the Mumbai–Ahmedabad bullet train line. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the foundation stone for the Mumbai–Ahmedabad bullet train project was laid in the second half of the last decade with significant Japanese cooperation. Step 2: At that time, the Government of India and the Government of Japan discussed a target completion year that was slightly after the middle of the decade, not far in the future. Step 3: Among the options 2022, 2023, 2024 and 2025, many standard general knowledge sources and exam keys mention the year 2023 as the originally stated goal for completion of the project. Step 4: Cross checking with conventional exam preparation material confirms that 2023 is treated as the correct initial completion target for this corridor. Step 5: Therefore, we select 2023 as the correct answer and reject the other options as not matching the originally announced target year. Verification / Alternative check: A quick verification method is to remember that the government wanted the first operational bullet train service in India to be completed within a few years of the project start, roughly by the early part of the decade. The year 2023 fits that window and appears repeatedly in published briefings and competitive exam explanations as the original goal. Other years like 2022, 2024 or 2025 either predate the realistic construction period or are mentioned only in later revised projections, rather than as the first announced target. This supports 2023 as the correct choice in the context of this static general knowledge question. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 2022: This year is sometimes mentioned in discussions, but standard exam material usually refers to 2023 as the target, and 2022 is generally considered either an earlier tentative idea or a confusion with other project milestones. 2024: This is a later year than the initially stated target and tends to appear only in the context of possible delays or updated timelines, not as the original goal mentioned when the project was launched. 2025: This year is too far beyond the initial plan and does not feature as the first official completion target in common government presentations and exam sources, so it is not accepted as correct in this question. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to assume that because projects often get delayed, a later year such as 2024 or 2025 must be correct. Examination questions, however, usually test the initial official announcement, not subsequent delays. Another pitfall is to confuse the target operational date of the bullet train with dates linked to land acquisition or financial closure. Some learners also mix up this project with other dedicated freight corridors or metro rail projects that have different target years. Careful reading of the question, which asks about the year set as the goal for completing this specific Mumbai–Ahmedabad high speed corridor with Japanese assistance, helps avoid such confusion. Final Answer: The originally stated target year for completing the Mumbai–Ahmedabad high speed bullet train project developed with Japanese assistance was 2023.

Basic General Knowledge Questions