Question 1

In medical diagnostics the ELISA test enzyme linked immunosorbent assay is commonly employed for the detection of which serious viral infection in human beings

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: ELISA enzyme linked immunosorbent assay is a laboratory technique used to detect the presence of specific antigens or antibodies in a sample. It plays a crucial role in diagnosing several infectious diseases. In the context of public health awareness and competitive exams ELISA is most frequently associated with screening for a particular viral infection that attacks the human immune system. Given Data / Assumptions: The test mentioned is ELISA enzyme linked immunosorbent assay. The question asks which disease it is commonly used to diagnose. Options include HIV Cancer Tuberculosis and Polio. We assume basic awareness that some diseases are caused by viruses and some by bacteria or abnormal cell growth. Concept / Approach: ELISA detects antibodies or antigens in blood serum. For HIV human immunodeficiency virus infection screening is commonly done using ELISA to look for antibodies produced by the body in response to the virus. Although ELISA techniques can be adapted for other conditions the association most emphasised in general knowledge exams is between ELISA and HIV diagnosis. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall what ELISA stands for enzyme linked immunosorbent assay. Step 2: Understand that it measures antigen antibody interactions making it suitable for detecting viral infections. Step 3: HIV infection is routinely screened using ELISA to detect antibodies against the virus in blood samples. Step 4: Cancer is not a single infection and while some tumour markers can be measured by immunoassays ELISA in general knowledge exams is not primarily linked with cancer screening. Step 5: Tuberculosis is mainly diagnosed through sputum tests skin tests and imaging while polio has its own virological methods. Therefore HIV is the best match. Verification / Alternative check: Verification can be done by remembering public health campaigns that mention HIV test and counelling centres where ELISA or related rapid antibody tests are used to screen large numbers of individuals. Detailed medical texts also describe ELISA as the first line screening tool for HIV with additional confirmatory tests such as Western Blot or PCR when needed. This consistency across sources strengthens the conclusion. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Cancer involves uncontrolled growth of body cells and though immunoassays can detect some markers ELISA is not famously known in exams as a standard cancer test. Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis and common diagnostic methods involve sputum microscopy culture chest X ray and specific blood tests distinct from ELISA in popular exam context. Polio diagnosis relies on virus isolation from stool or throat samples and is not primarily based on ELISA in common exam material. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is thinking that ELISA is a general test for many diseases and randomly selecting any option. Another pitfall is assuming that because cancer is serious ELISA must be mainly associated with it. Understanding that ELISA is highlighted in exam books especially for HIV screening helps you answer correctly. Final Answer: The ELISA test is most commonly employed for diagnosing HIV infection.

Question 2

Which of the following is recognised as the largest gulf in the world in terms of area among the options given

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: World geography often includes questions about major physical features such as seas bays gulfs and straits. Gulfs are large coastal indentations of oceans or seas partly surrounded by land. Knowing which gulf is the largest by area helps in answering many static general knowledge questions. This question asks you to identify the world largest gulf among the options provided. Given Data / Assumptions: The term largest gulf refers to surface area. Four gulfs are listed Persian Gulf Gulf of Mannar Gulf of Mexico and Gulf of Carpentaria. We assume standard geographical definitions as used in school level atlases. Concept / Approach: The key is to recall relative sizes of famous gulfs. The Gulf of Mexico bordered by the United States Mexico and Cuba is widely known as one of the largest gulfs in the world. In contrast the Persian Gulf the Gulf of Mannar and the Gulf of Carpentaria are relatively smaller. Therefore using comparative knowledge of world maps and areas leads to the correct selection. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Visualise the world map and locate each gulf. Step 2: The Gulf of Mexico covers a vast area of the Atlantic Ocean basin enclosed by North America and is much larger than the other gulfs listed. Step 3: The Persian Gulf lies between the Arabian Peninsula and Iran and although important for oil trade it is smaller in area than the Gulf of Mexico. Step 4: The Gulf of Mannar is a comparatively small body of water between India and Sri Lanka. Step 5: The Gulf of Carpentaria off northern Australia is also large regionally but not as extensive as the Gulf of Mexico. Therefore Gulf of Mexico is the largest. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify by checking approximate area figures from reliable geography resources. The Gulf of Mexico covers more than one point five million square kilometres while the Persian Gulf and others are significantly smaller. This numeric comparison supports the intuitive map based reasoning that identifies the Gulf of Mexico as the largest among the options. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Persian Gulf though economically significant is smaller in area than the Gulf of Mexico. Gulf of Mannar is a narrow gulf near India and Sri Lanka and is much smaller than global giants like the Gulf of Mexico. Gulf of Carpentaria has a notable size but still does not reach the area extent of the Gulf of Mexico. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may confuse importance with size and choose the Persian Gulf because of its association with oil and geopolitics. Others may be influenced by familiarity with nearby Indian waters such as the Gulf of Mannar. Remember that the question asks specifically about area and not about economic or strategic importance. Final Answer: Among the gulfs listed the largest by area is the Gulf of Mexico.

Question 3

Considering the total number of internationally recognised sovereign states which continent has the largest number of countries

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Continents differ not only in size and population but also in the number of sovereign countries they contain. Many competitive exams include questions on such comparative facts. This question focuses on identifying which continent has the highest count of recognised independent countries. Given Data / Assumptions: The question is about the number of countries not population or area. The continents listed are Asia Africa Antarctica and Europe. We assume the standard list of recognised sovereign states as used in school geography sources. Concept / Approach: Africa is known for its large number of independent countries many of which gained independence in the twentieth century. Although Asia is larger in land area and population it has fewer sovereign states than Africa. Antarctica has no recognised sovereign country and Europe while diverse still has fewer countries than Africa. Recognising these broad facts enables quick elimination and correct selection. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Africa consists of more than fifty recognised countries. Step 2: Asia has many large countries such as India China Russia and others but the total is still lower than the African count. Step 3: Antarctica has research stations but no sovereign countries as it is governed by international treaties. Step 4: Europe includes several states but fewer than Africa. Step 5: Therefore among the options Africa clearly has the most countries. Verification / Alternative check: To verify you can recall approximate numbers Africa has around fifty four to fifty five recognised countries depending on certain classifications while Asia has around forty eight and Europe around fifty. Antarctica has none. These approximate counts confirm that Africa leads in the number of independent states among the continents listed. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Asia though largest in area and population does not surpass Africa in the count of sovereign countries. Antarctica has no independent country because it is a continent dedicated to scientific research under the Antarctic Treaty System. Europe has several countries but still a lower count compared with the many nations in Africa. Common Pitfalls: Many aspirants mistakenly choose Asia because they equate size and population with number of countries. Others may be misled by the visibility of European countries in global politics. Remember that the key is the count of recognised states not how often those states appear in news or how large they are. Final Answer: The continent that has the largest number of countries is Africa.

Question 4

The influence of Greek and Roman artistic style is most clearly seen in which school or regional form of ancient Indian art

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Ancient Indian art developed through interaction between indigenous traditions and foreign influences. After the conquests of Alexander and subsequent contacts with the Hellenistic world certain regions of north west India displayed a distinct blend of Greek Roman and Indian artistic features. This fusion is especially important in the study of Buddhist sculpture and is a favourite topic in history and art related examinations. Given Data / Assumptions: The question asks where Greek Roman art has found a place within Indian artistic traditions. Options include Buddhist Art in general Ellora Kalinga and Gandhara. We assume familiarity with major schools of sculpture such as Gandhara and Mathura. Concept / Approach: The key concept is Gandhara art also called Greco Buddhist art. It developed in regions corresponding to present day north west Pakistan and eastern Afghanistan. Gandhara sculptures of the Buddha show realistic drapery curly hair and facial features influenced by Greek and Roman classical art combined with Buddhist iconography. Recognising this characteristic mix allows quick identification of the correct option. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Gandhara school of art flourished under Kushan rule especially during the time of Kanishka. Step 2: This region had strong cultural contacts with the Hellenistic world after the campaigns of Alexander and later Indo Greek rulers. Step 3: Artists used techniques such as realistic body proportions wavy hair and intricate folds of garments that strongly resembled Greek and Roman sculptures. Step 4: These features are not prominent in Ellora caves or in the traditional Kalinga style which developed mainly in eastern India. Step 5: Therefore the correct answer is Gandhara. Verification / Alternative check: Verification can be done by recalling textbook images that compare Gandhara and Mathura Buddhas. Gandhara images often show the Buddha with a toga like robe and Mediterranean facial features while Mathura versions appear more indigenous in style. History books explicitly describe Gandhara art as influenced by Greco Roman traditions which confirms that this is the school where Greek Roman art found a place. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Buddhist Art as a general term is too broad since not all Buddhist art shows Greek Roman influence. Only specific regional schools such as Gandhara do so clearly. Ellora is famous for rock cut caves representing Hindu Jain and Buddhist themes but its style is primarily Indian rather than Greco Roman. Kalinga refers to the art and architecture of ancient Odisha such as the famous Sun Temple at Konark and does not show dominant Greek Roman features. Common Pitfalls: Some students choose Buddhist Art in general because Gandhara is known for Buddhist sculptures. However the question specifically asks about Greek Roman influence and that is most strongly and famously associated with Gandhara. Another pitfall is confusing Gandhara with Ellora because both involve sculptures and cave temples. Careful reading of the key words Greek Roman will guide you correctly. Final Answer: Greek and Roman artistic influence in ancient Indian art is most clearly seen in the Gandhara school of art.

Question 5

In world geography, which canal is regarded as the largest man-made canal in the world, playing a major role in international trade and navigation?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This basic general knowledge question tests your awareness of major man-made waterways that influence international trade. Competitive exams frequently ask about the largest, longest, or most important canals in the world, so it is useful to know not only their names but also their locations and functions in global shipping routes. Given Data / Assumptions: The question asks for the largest man-made canal in the world. Four options are provided, all of which are well-known canals: The Grand Canal, Suez Canal, Panama Canal, and Rhine Canal. We interpret “largest” in the commonly used exam sense of most significant and major sea-level ship canal. Concept / Approach: To answer this question, we recall important canals and their common descriptions in standard general knowledge sources. The Suez Canal in Egypt is widely described in school and competitive exam material as the largest man-made canal in the world because of its great length, economic importance, and role as a sea-level canal linking two major seas. While other canals are long and important, the Suez Canal is the classic textbook answer for this phrasing. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: List the main canals mentioned in the options and recall where each is located.Step 2: Remember that the Suez Canal connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea through Egypt.Step 3: Recall that exam-oriented general knowledge books typically refer to the Suez Canal as the largest man-made canal in the world.Step 4: Compare this with other options such as the Grand Canal in China and the Panama Canal in Central America, noting that these are important but not usually given as the standard answer to this particular question.Step 5: Conclude that the correct answer, according to common GK references, is the Suez Canal. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by checking multiple GK compilations and geography question banks, where the item “largest man-made canal in the world” is regularly matched with the Suez Canal. These sources emphasise its strategic importance, continuous sea-level nature, and heavy traffic of oil and container ships. Cross-checking at least two or three such references is a good habit to confirm that the standard exam key points to the Suez Canal. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The Grand Canal: Although extremely long and historically important in China, it is not the conventional exam answer to this particular question.Panama Canal: Very important for connecting the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans, but not cited as the largest in this common GK item.Rhine Canal: The Rhine is a major European river with canalised stretches, but it is not considered the largest man-made canal globally. Common Pitfalls: Many learners confuse “largest” with “longest” and assume that a different canal might be correct. Another common mistake is to select the Panama Canal because it is so famous in world history and trade. In GK exams, it is important to focus on how standard books phrase such superlative facts rather than relying only on what seems intuitively famous. Reading questions and their answer keys from multiple sources helps build accurate recall. Final Answer: The largest man-made canal in the world, as commonly cited in general knowledge references, is the Suez Canal.

Question 6

In basic music knowledge, which musical instrument among the following has a combination of keys, pedals, and strings used together to produce sound?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question checks your awareness of common musical instruments and their construction. In many competitive exams, simple questions are asked about the physical features of instruments, such as whether they have strings, keys, or pedals. Knowing the basic structure of popular instruments helps you answer these quickly and confidently. Given Data / Assumptions: We are asked to identify an instrument that has keys, pedals, and strings together. The options are Piano, Guitar, Violin, and Tumbra. We assume these refer to standard versions of these instruments as commonly used in classical and popular music. Concept / Approach: To solve the question, we recall the basic design of each instrument. A piano is a large keyboard instrument in which pressing keys causes internal hammers to strike strings, and pedals are used to sustain or soften the sound. A guitar and a violin are string instruments played by plucking or bowing and do not have keys and pedals in the standard form. Tumbra is another stringed instrument but again lacks the typical combination of piano-style keys and foot pedals. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that a piano has a long row of keys on the keyboard.Step 2: Remember that inside the piano there are many tightly stretched strings which vibrate when struck by hammers.Step 3: Note that a piano usually has at least two or three pedals at the bottom, controlled by the feet, to change sustain and tone.Step 4: Compare this with a guitar, violin, and tumbra, which may have strings and sometimes additional mechanisms, but do not normally involve a full keyboard plus multiple pedals.Step 5: Conclude that the only instrument that clearly fits all three features together is the piano. Verification / Alternative check: Looking at any diagram or description of a piano confirms the presence of keys, internal strings, and pedals. Beginners learning piano are usually taught how the keys trigger hammers and how pedals such as the sustain pedal affect the sound. This makes the piano a classic example of a keyboard-string instrument with pedals and leaves no doubt about the answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Guitar: It has strings and sometimes electronic controls but no full set of keys and no standard pedals as part of the instrument body.Violin: It is a bowed string instrument without keys or pedals.Tumbra: Also a string instrument, usually plucked, with no keyboard or pedal setup like a piano. Common Pitfalls: Some students may think of electronic guitars with effect pedals or keyboard-like instruments, but the question is about the instrument itself, not external equipment. Always focus on the basic physical design of the instrument rather than accessories connected to it. Paying attention to such details prevents confusion in similar questions. Final Answer: The musical instrument that has keys, pedals, and strings together is the Piano.

Question 7

According to wildlife and conservation statistics, which country currently has the highest population of tigers in the world?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This general knowledge question is about wildlife conservation and focuses on tigers, one of the most iconic big cats. Many exams ask about which country leads in tiger population because it reflects conservation success and the presence of suitable forest habitats. Knowing this fact also helps in understanding global efforts to protect endangered species. Given Data / Assumptions: We are asked which country has the highest population of tigers. The options are Russia, India, USA, and Nepal. We assume the question refers to data from recent tiger census reports and international conservation sources. Concept / Approach: Tigers are primarily found in Asian countries. India has long been recognised as the country with the largest number of wild tigers, thanks to large reserves and conservation initiatives such as Project Tiger. Russia, Nepal, and a few other countries also have wild tiger populations, but these are significantly smaller. The USA has many tigers in captivity, but the question focuses on overall tiger population as understood in wildlife context, where India clearly leads. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that natural tiger habitats are mainly in Asia, not in North America.Step 2: Remember that India has many tiger reserves, including famous ones like Corbett, Ranthambore, and Bandipur.Step 3: Note that international reports and India’s own tiger census data highlight India as having the largest wild tiger population in the world.Step 4: Compare this with Russia, Nepal, and the USA, all of which have smaller or mainly captive populations.Step 5: Conclude that India is the country with the highest tiger population. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this fact through official tiger census reports of India and global conservation organisations. These documents repeatedly emphasise that India holds the majority of the world’s remaining wild tigers. The repeated mention of India in international news for tiger population recovery further supports this answer. Cross-referencing at least two reliable sources is a good habit when preparing for competitive exams. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Russia: Known for Siberian tigers but has a much smaller population than India.USA: Tigers in the USA are mostly in zoos or private facilities; it is not a natural tiger range country.Nepal: Has an important tiger population, but the numbers are lower than India’s total. Common Pitfalls: Some aspirants may confuse total tiger numbers with per-area density or may focus on headlines about individual countries suddenly increasing their tiger counts. It is important to remember that India started from a larger base and continues to hold the largest share of wild tigers globally. Reading questions carefully and not mixing up “largest population” with “fastest growth” helps avoid mistakes. Final Answer: The country that has the largest population of tigers in the world is India.

Question 8

In Indian defence and science, what is the correct full form of the abbreviation DRDO, a key organisation responsible for research and development of defence technologies?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question tests your knowledge of important Indian defence and scientific institutions. Abbreviations such as DRDO frequently appear in newspapers and competitive exams. Knowing their full forms and functions helps you understand defence news and government initiatives more clearly. Given Data / Assumptions: We have the abbreviation DRDO. The options offer four different expansions related to defence, research, or development. We assume the question refers to the well-known Indian government institution that develops defence technologies. Concept / Approach: DRDO is a major organisation under the Ministry of Defence in India. It is responsible for research and development of advanced defence systems, including missiles, radars, and electronic warfare systems. The correct expansion reflects both defence and research and development aspects. Therefore, you need to identify the option that mentions “Defence Research and Development Organisation” accurately and completely. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Observe that two options mention “Defence” and two mention “Delhi”. DRDO is associated with defence, not specifically with the city.Step 2: Among the defence-related options, focus on the ones including “Research and Development”.Step 3: Note that the standard and official expansion of DRDO in India is “Defence Research and Development Organisation”.Step 4: Reject options that replace “Development Organisation” with “Deployment” or that associate DRDO with Delhi in a rail context.Step 5: Select “Defence Research and Development Organisation” as the correct full form. Verification / Alternative check: The official website and government publications consistently expand DRDO as Defence Research and Development Organisation. Exam guides on Indian polity and science also use the same full form. You can verify this through any standard source on Indian defence institutions, which will mention DRDO in this exact way, often alongside its logo and key projects. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Delhi Research and Development Organisation: Incorrect because DRDO is not restricted to Delhi and is not known by this name.Defence Research and Deployment: This changes the last word and does not reflect the core idea of research and development.Delhi Rail Development Organisation: This suggests a railway-related body based in Delhi, which does not match the defence context. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes misread abbreviations and select an option just because it sounds official. Another common mistake is to ignore the word “Development” and pick a similar-sounding phrase. When dealing with abbreviations, always match each letter carefully and confirm that the expansion reflects the known role of the organisation in context. Final Answer: The correct full form of DRDO is Defence Research and Development Organisation.

Question 9

In popular books and Indian legal literature, who is the author of the famous book titled "We the People"?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question targets your knowledge of important authors and books, which is a very common area in general knowledge and competitive exams. The title "We the People" is strongly associated with legal and constitutional discussions in India, so recognising its author is useful for aspirants preparing for exams in law, civics, and general awareness. Given Data / Assumptions: The book title given is "We the People". Four names are provided as options: Morarji Desai, Khushwant Singh, Arun Gandhi, and Nani Palkhivala. We assume the question refers to the well-known non-fiction work on the Indian Constitution and public affairs. Concept / Approach: Nani Palkhivala was a renowned Indian jurist, constitutional expert, and economist. He authored "We the People", a collection of essays and speeches on the Constitution, democracy, and economic policies. The other names listed are important personalities but are not associated with this particular book. The key is to recall which author connects most strongly with constitutional commentary in India. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify the theme suggested by the title "We the People", which hints at constitutional and democratic issues.Step 2: Recall that Nani Palkhivala is famous for his writings and arguments on the Indian Constitution and civil liberties.Step 3: Recognise that he wrote "We the People" as a thoughtful commentary on constitutional provisions and governance in India.Step 4: Check the other options: Morarji Desai as a former Prime Minister, Khushwant Singh as a novelist and columnist, and Arun Gandhi as a writer and activist, none widely linked with this particular title.Step 5: Select Nani Palkhivala as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this fact through library catalogues, book seller listings, or standard GK books. Each will list "We the People" under Nani Palkhivala. His reputation as a leading commentator on constitutional matters makes this association reliable and frequently tested in exams that touch law and governance topics. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Morarji Desai: Known for his role in Indian politics and as Prime Minister, not as the author of this book.Khushwant Singh: A famous writer but associated with novels, short stories, and essays of a different nature.Arun Gandhi: Known as a writer and peace activist, but not the author of "We the People". Common Pitfalls: Candidates may guess based on familiarity with names and choose a well-known literary figure like Khushwant Singh. However, the subject matter of the book should guide you toward a legal and constitutional expert. Relating the title to the field of the author is an effective strategy for such questions. Final Answer: The book "We the People" was written by Nani Palkhivala.

Question 10

In the context of economic development in North Eastern India, the first Special Economic Zone (SEZ) in the North Eastern states was planned to be set up in which state?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question checks your awareness of regional economic development measures in India, specifically in the North Eastern region. Special Economic Zones, or SEZs, are designated areas that offer tax and regulatory incentives to promote investment and exports. Knowing where key SEZs were first planned or set up is a frequent theme in general awareness sections of competitive exams. Given Data / Assumptions: The question is about the first SEZ in the North Eastern states of India. The options are Manipur, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, and Mizoram. We assume this refers to official government announcements about setting up the very first SEZ in that region. Concept / Approach: SEZs are critical tools for attracting investment to less developed regions. The North Eastern states were identified for special focus, and the first SEZ for this region was planned in Mizoram. By recalling press releases, government documents, or exam prep material that highlighted Mizoram in this context, we can identify the correct option. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the central government decided to set up an SEZ specifically for the North Eastern region.Step 2: Remember that among the North Eastern states, Mizoram was chosen for the first such SEZ project.Step 3: Compare this with options such as Manipur, Arunachal Pradesh, and Nagaland, which have important projects but were not selected for this first SEZ.Step 4: Associate Mizoram with early policy announcements about SEZs in the region.Step 5: Choose Mizoram as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: This fact can be verified from economic survey notes, regional development reports, and government press releases that discuss special measures for the North Eastern states. Coaching material for competitive exams often summarises such points under headings like “First SEZ in North Eastern region”, clearly mentioning Mizoram as the selected state. Cross-checking across two or more such sources builds confidence in the answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Manipur: An important North Eastern state but not the one chosen for the first SEZ.Arunachal Pradesh: Strategically significant but not associated with the first SEZ in this context.Nagaland: Also part of the region but not the state identified for the first SEZ project. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes guess based on which state they think is more developed or more frequently in the news. However, economic policy announcements are specific, and relying only on guesswork can be risky. It is better to prepare a list of “first in India” facts, especially those linked with different regions, so that such questions are answered accurately rather than intuitively. Final Answer: The first Special Economic Zone (SEZ) in the North Eastern states was planned to be set up in Mizoram.

Question 11

In basic astronomy, which planet in our solar system is located nearest to the Sun and therefore completes its orbit in the shortest time?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question belongs to elementary astronomy, a common area in school-level science and competitive exams. Knowledge of the order of planets in the solar system and their basic characteristics, such as distance from the Sun, is essential. Here, you are asked to recall which planet orbits closest to the Sun. Given Data / Assumptions: The question asks for the planet nearest to the Sun. The options are Venus, Mercury, Jupiter, and Saturn. We assume the standard model of the solar system with the Sun at the centre and planets arranged in their usual order. Concept / Approach: The order of planets from the Sun outward is: Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune. Therefore, Mercury is the closest planet to the Sun. Remembering this basic sequence enables you to answer many questions on planetary distances, orbital periods, and temperatures. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the sequence of planets from the Sun: Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune.Step 2: Identify the first planet in this list, which is Mercury.Step 3: Confirm that Mercury is indeed closest to the Sun and completes its orbit in a very short period compared to other planets.Step 4: Compare Mercury with other options like Venus, Jupiter, and Saturn, which lie further away.Step 5: Select Mercury as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Any standard school textbook or basic astronomy reference will show a diagram of the solar system. In that diagram, Mercury is always placed closest to the Sun. This is consistent across educational materials, so verification is straightforward. Such diagrams are useful for quickly revising the order of planets before an exam. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Venus: Second planet from the Sun, not the nearest.Jupiter: Fifth planet from the Sun and the largest planet, but located far beyond the inner planets.Saturn: Sixth planet from the Sun and known for its rings, not for being closest to the Sun. Common Pitfalls: Some learners confuse Venus and Mercury because Venus is sometimes called Earth’s sister planet and is very bright in the sky. However, brightness does not mean closeness to the Sun. Always rely on the correct order of planets instead of visual impressions from the night sky. Creating mnemonics to remember planetary order can be very helpful. Final Answer: The planet that is nearest to the Sun in our solar system is Mercury.

Question 12

The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) in India was set up in which year as a statutory body to address issues related to socially and educationally backward classes?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question focuses on Indian polity and social justice. The National Commission for Backward Classes, often abbreviated as NCBC, is an important institution concerned with the welfare of socially and educationally backward classes. Knowing the year in which such commissions were set up is a frequent requirement for civil services and other competitive exams. Given Data / Assumptions: The question asks specifically for the year in which NCBC was set up. The options are 1991, 1992, 1993, and 1994. We assume it refers to the statutory commission formed by an Act of Parliament following recommendations after the Mandal Commission period. Concept / Approach: The National Commission for Backward Classes was established in the early 1990s. It came into existence in 1993 to deal with the inclusion and exclusion of communities in the list of backward classes and to advise on related policies. Remembering such dates is easier when you connect them to larger events like reservation policy debates and Mandal Commission implementation in India. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Mandal Commission recommendations began to be implemented around 1990.Step 2: Recognise that institutional mechanisms like NCBC followed soon after to handle ongoing issues related to backward classes.Step 3: Among the early 1990s options, 1993 is the year directly associated with the formal establishment of NCBC.Step 4: Confirm that 1991 and 1992 are too early for the commission in its final statutory form and 1994 is later than the known date.Step 5: Choose 1993 as the correct year. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this from standard polity textbooks, government documents, or official NCBC information, which clearly state that the commission was set up in 1993. Exam coaching material summarising constitutional and statutory bodies will typically include NCBC with its year of establishment for quick reference. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 1991: Precedes the formal establishment of NCBC.1992: Important year for reservation-related judgments but not the year NCBC was constituted.1994: Comes after the actual date and therefore is not correct. Common Pitfalls: Students often confuse years connected to major judgments, commission reports, and implementation dates. A useful approach is to maintain a concise list of key bodies and their establishment years. Regular revision of this list helps avoid mixing up close but incorrect options. Final Answer: The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was set up in the year 1993.

Question 13

According to data reported by the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB), which Indian state has been described as the "most corrupt state" in terms of recorded corruption cases?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question comes from the area of current affairs and Indian governance statistics. The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) publishes data on various offences, including corruption-related cases. Media and exam compilers sometimes describe the state with the highest number of such cases as the “most corrupt state”. Knowing such highlights is important for general awareness sections. Given Data / Assumptions: The question refers specifically to NCRB data on corruption cases. The options are Manipur, Maharashtra, Himachal Pradesh, and Uttarakhand. We assume the question is based on an NCRB report where one state showed the highest number of registered corruption offences. Concept / Approach: When the NCRB publishes figures on corruption cases, newspapers sometimes highlight which state recorded the most such cases in a particular year. Maharashtra, a large and populous state with significant economic activity, has been reported as topping this list in certain years. In exam-oriented GK, this leads to questions asking which state was labelled the “most corrupt state” on the basis of NCRB statistics. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that the phrase “most corrupt state” here is tied to the number of corruption cases recorded, not to a moral judgment.Step 2: Recall news coverage and GK notes that highlighted Maharashtra as having the highest count of corruption cases in the relevant NCRB report.Step 3: Note that the other options, such as Manipur, Himachal Pradesh, and Uttarakhand, are smaller states with comparatively fewer recorded cases.Step 4: Connect Maharashtra’s size and economic activity with the higher recorded number of corruption offences.Step 5: Choose Maharashtra as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: This information can be verified through the relevant NCRB report and the accompanying news articles that summarised its findings. Many competitive exam magazines and yearbooks excerpt such statistics and clearly mention Maharashtra as the state topping the corruption cases chart in the specified year, which is the basis for this question. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Manipur: A smaller North Eastern state; not highlighted by NCRB as the top state for corruption cases in this context.Himachal Pradesh: Known for high literacy and tourism, but not reported as the state with the maximum corruption cases in the discussed report.Uttarakhand: Also not identified by NCRB as leading in corruption cases for the period referenced by this general knowledge question. Common Pitfalls: Students may misinterpret the phrase “most corrupt” as a subjective label and try to guess based on perceptions instead of recorded data. The key is to remember that the question is grounded in NCRB statistics. Always pay attention to phrases like “according to NCRB” or “as per a particular report”, which indicate a data-based answer. Final Answer: According to the NCRB data referred to in this question, the state described as the “most corrupt state” is Maharashtra.

Question 14

According to revised Reserve Bank of India and government guidelines, KYC (Know Your Customer) norms for prepaid payment instruments and e-wallets were made mandatory from which date?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question relates to banking regulations and digital payments in India. With the rapid growth of e-wallets and prepaid payment instruments, the Reserve Bank of India introduced stricter KYC norms. Competitive exams often ask on what date such rules became mandatory, because this reflects important regulatory milestones in the digital payment ecosystem. Given Data / Assumptions: The question is about the date from which KYC norms became mandatory for e-wallets. Options provided are March 31, March 1, April 1, and May 1. We assume this refers to the widely reported deadline after which full KYC was compulsory to continue using wallet services without restrictions. Concept / Approach: Regulators usually give a clear deadline for implementation of KYC norms. For e-wallets, the key date widely mentioned in newspapers and notifications was March 1, from which full KYC compliance became mandatory. Many exam-oriented current affairs notes framed questions exactly like this to test whether candidates had followed the regulatory changes affecting digital payments. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that there was an initial grace period for wallet companies and users to complete KYC formalities.Step 2: Remember that after this period, a firm deadline was set, beyond which non-KYC wallets faced restrictions.Step 3: Among the given options, March 1 stands out as the widely publicised cut-off date for mandatory KYC for e-wallets.Step 4: Confirm that dates like April 1 or May 1 are not associated with this specific wallet KYC deadline in major news coverage.Step 5: Select March 1 as the correct option. Verification / Alternative check: You can cross-check this fact from RBI circulars, press releases, and financial news articles that covered the deadline for wallet KYC compliance. Current affairs magazines that summarised important economic and regulatory changes also mentioned March 1 as the date after which new rules took effect. Verifying against at least two reputable sources helps fix the date firmly in memory. Why Other Options Are Wrong: March 31: Sometimes confused as a financial year-end date but not the actual KYC enforcement date for e-wallets.April 1: Important as the start of the financial year, but not linked specifically to the wallet KYC rule in this question.May 1: Not associated with the key regulatory milestone described here. Common Pitfalls: Many aspirants mix up dates related to different regulations, such as GST changes, budget announcements, or income tax deadlines. Memorising a small timeline of recent financial and regulatory milestones can prevent confusion. Always note whether a date is tied to a policy announcement, a notification, or the start of enforcement. Final Answer: KYC norms for e-wallets and prepaid payment instruments were made mandatory from March 1.

Question 15

According to a major market survey on mobile usage, which country has become the second largest smartphone market in the world in terms of the number of users?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question is drawn from global economic and technology trends. Smartphone penetration and market size are widely discussed in business news, and many competitive exams ask which countries lead or rank high in smartphone usage. Here, the focus is on identifying the country that has become the second largest smartphone market in the world by user base. Given Data / Assumptions: The question specifically asks for the second largest smartphone market. The options given are Japan, China, India, and USA. We assume the question refers to widely reported market research findings that compare total number of smartphone users across countries. Concept / Approach: China is generally recognised as the largest smartphone market by number of users. India, with its huge and growing population, has overtaken the USA to become the second largest market. This has been reported by several research firms and highlighted in technology news. Thus, when you see a question on the second largest smartphone market, India should immediately come to mind as the correct response. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that China is the largest smartphone market in the world.Step 2: Recognise that India, with its vast population and rising smartphone adoption, has surpassed many developed countries in user numbers.Step 3: Note that multiple reports state India has become the second largest smartphone market, ahead of the USA and Japan.Step 4: Compare options and rule out China, which is first, not second.Step 5: Select India as the country that is second in this ranking. Verification / Alternative check: Market research reports from leading analytics firms and technology news platforms consistently mention that India overtook the USA to become the second largest smartphone market. Yearly summaries of global smartphone shipments and user base data also confirm this. Checking two or three independent sources ensures that this information is reliable and not based on isolated figures. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Japan: Has a significant market but is not among the top two by user base.China: Generally ranked as the largest, not second.USA: A mature and profitable market but now placed behind India in terms of total users. Common Pitfalls: Test takers sometimes assume that a more developed country like the USA must rank higher, forgetting that population size is a crucial factor. Another error is to misread the question and answer for the largest instead of the second largest market. Reading questions carefully and connecting economic data with demographic realities helps avoid such mistakes. Final Answer: The country that has become the second largest smartphone market in the world is India.

Question 16

From which approximate year did the modern Internet become widely available to the general public, moving beyond limited academic and military use?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question belongs to general science and technology history. The Internet began as a research and military network, but over time it became accessible to ordinary users. Competitive exams often ask about the approximate decade or year when the Internet became widely available to the public, signalling the start of the modern online era. Given Data / Assumptions: The question asks for the approximate year when the Internet became available to the public. The options are 1970, 1980, 1990, and 2000. We interpret this as the point when public access and commercial use started expanding noticeably, not the initial research-only phase. Concept / Approach: The earliest forms of the Internet, such as ARPANET, were operational in the late 1960s and 1970s, but they were restricted to government and academic use. The 1980s saw further development, but broad public access started around 1990, when the World Wide Web and user-friendly browsers began to appear. Therefore, 1990 is the best representation of when the Internet became available to the public in a way that resembles modern usage. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that 1970 is far too early for mass public access; this era relates more to experimental research networks.Step 2: Understand that 1980 precedes the World Wide Web and general consumer adoption.Step 3: Recall that around 1990, the web was developed and internet service providers began offering access to individuals and businesses.Step 4: Realise that by 2000 the Internet was already widely used, so 2000 would be too late as a starting point.Step 5: Conclude that 1990 is the most appropriate answer among the choices. Verification / Alternative check: You can confirm this by reading brief histories of the Internet, which typically highlight the early 1990s as the time when the World Wide Web, public dial-up services, and early browsers triggered a rapid expansion of public use. Technology timelines and encyclopaedia entries reinforce 1990 as the turning point from purely academic networks to widespread consumer access. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 1970: Refers to the early days of ARPANET and is too early for public use.1980: Still largely limited to institutions; consumer-level access was not yet common.2000: By then, the Internet was already well-established and widely used worldwide; it cannot be the starting point. Common Pitfalls: Students may confuse invention dates with popularisation dates. The Internet as a concept and network infrastructure existed earlier, but the question is clearly about when it became available to the public. Always distinguish between initial invention, experimental deployment, and mass adoption when answering such timeline questions. Final Answer: The modern Internet became widely available to the general public around the year 1990.

Question 17

In world history and engineering, who was the French engineer credited with building and supervising the construction of the Suez Canal, a major man-made waterway in Egypt?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question tests your knowledge of important figures in engineering and world history. The Suez Canal is one of the most significant man-made waterways, linking the Mediterranean Sea with the Red Sea and transforming global shipping routes. Recognising the engineer associated with its construction is a standard item in general knowledge exams. Given Data / Assumptions: The question asks for the person who built the Suez Canal. Options include Theodore Roosevelt, Ferdinand de Lesseps, Robert Mills, and James Hoban. We assume “built” here refers to the chief promoter and engineer responsible for the project’s planning and execution. Concept / Approach: Ferdinand de Lesseps was a French diplomat and engineer who promoted and oversaw the construction of the Suez Canal in the nineteenth century. The other options are important historical figures but linked to different achievements, such as United States politics or famous buildings. By recalling de Lesseps’ association with the Suez Canal, you can quickly identify the correct answer. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Suez Canal was a major French-led engineering project in Egypt.Step 2: Remember that Ferdinand de Lesseps is widely credited as the driving force behind the canal’s construction.Step 3: Check the other names: Theodore Roosevelt as a United States President, Robert Mills as an architect, and James Hoban as the designer of the White House.Step 4: None of the other options match the context of a French engineer associated with the canal.Step 5: Choose Ferdinand de Lesseps as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Any standard world history or geography reference that discusses the Suez Canal mentions Ferdinand de Lesseps by name. Timelines of the canal’s construction and articles about major world engineering projects also highlight his role. Checking a couple of reliable sources makes this association very clear and easy to remember. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Theodore Roosevelt: A United States President associated with the Panama Canal and American politics, not the Suez Canal.Robert Mills: An American architect known for designing the Washington Monument.James Hoban: Architect best known for designing the White House in Washington, not for canal construction. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates confuse the Suez Canal with the Panama Canal and may link Theodore Roosevelt with canal building in general. It is important to distinguish between different canal projects and remember that Ferdinand de Lesseps is associated with Suez, whereas Roosevelt is associated with Panama. Building a mental map of which historical figure fits with which project helps avoid such mix-ups. Final Answer: The engineer credited with building and supervising the construction of the Suez Canal is Ferdinand de Lesseps.

Question 18

Who has been elected as the first woman chairperson of the Indian Banks Association (IBA), the apex body representing banking institutions in India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question involves Indian banking sector leadership and milestones for women in top positions. The Indian Banks Association, often abbreviated as IBA, is an important representative body of banks in India. Knowing the name of the first woman to become its chairperson is a typical current affairs and banking-awareness topic. Given Data / Assumptions: The question asks for the first woman chairperson of the Indian Banks Association. The options provided are four prominent women in the financial sector: Usha Ananthasubramanian, Shikha Sharma, Kaku Nakhate, and Chanda Kochhar. We assume this refers to the first time a woman held the chair position in IBA history. Concept / Approach: Usha Ananthasubramanian, a senior Indian banker, became the first woman chairperson of the Indian Banks Association. She has served in leadership roles in several banks and is known for this particular milestone. The others listed are also notable banking and finance leaders but are not associated with this specific first in IBA history. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that all the names are associated with banking or finance, so you must recall specific roles.Step 2: Recall from banking awareness notes that Usha Ananthasubramanian was noted as the first woman to chair IBA.Step 3: Note that Shikha Sharma is best known for her role at a major private sector bank, not for heading IBA.Step 4: Remember that Chanda Kochhar and Kaku Nakhate have their own achievements but are not linked with this particular IBA milestone.Step 5: Select Usha Ananthasubramanian as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Banking awareness books, economic magazines, and IBA related press releases all highlight Usha Ananthasubramanian as the first woman to chair the Indian Banks Association. Reviewing recent appointments and “first women” lists in the banking sector is a strong way to confirm this fact while revising for exams. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Shikha Sharma: A respected banking leader, but not the first woman chairperson of IBA.Kaku Nakhate: A senior banker and country head for a global bank in India, but not linked with this IBA milestone.Chanda Kochhar: Former head of a large private bank, but again not recorded as first woman chairperson of IBA. Common Pitfalls: Because all the options are well-known names, candidates may rely on guesswork or confuse different achievements. To avoid this, maintain a short list of “first woman” milestones in Indian banking and revise it regularly. Associating each name with a specific role or institution makes recall faster and more accurate. Final Answer: The first woman to be elected as chairperson of the Indian Banks Association is Usha Ananthasubramanian.

Question 19

In basic physics and astronomy, a light year is a commonly used unit related to which physical quantity when describing distances in the universe?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question is from physics and astronomy, focusing on commonly used units. The term light year sounds like it might measure time, but in scientific usage it actually measures distance. Many exams test whether you can correctly identify what a light year represents when talking about stars and galaxies. Given Data / Assumptions: The question asks what physical quantity a light year is related to. The options are distance, acceleration, velocity, and intensity of light. We assume the standard definition used in astronomy and physics. Concept / Approach: A light year is defined as the distance that light travels in vacuum in one year. Since light has a very high speed, this distance is enormous, making the light year a convenient unit for expressing distances between stars and galaxies. Therefore, even though the word “year” appears in the term, it is a unit of distance, not time. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the definition of the speed of light, which is approximately 3 * 10^8 metres per second.Step 2: Understand that a light year multiplies this speed by the number of seconds in one year to obtain a distance.Step 3: Recognise that this result is a very large number of metres or kilometres, making it practical to treat one light year as a large distance unit.Step 4: Compare the options and see that only “distance” matches this interpretation.Step 5: Select distance as the correct physical quantity. Verification / Alternative check: Any basic physics or astronomy textbook will state that a light year is a unit of distance equal to the distance light travels in one year. Tables of scientific units and exam revision notes also list it under distance units. This consistent presentation removes any doubt about its meaning. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Acceleration: Measured in units like metre per second squared, not in light years.Velocity: Measured in metre per second or kilometre per hour, not in light years.Intensity of light: Related to luminous flux or power per unit area and has its own units, not light years. Common Pitfalls: The presence of the word “year” often misleads students into thinking it is a measure of time. Remember that the term combines speed (of light) and time (one year) to produce a distance. When you see “light year”, always think of very large distances between celestial objects rather than any time interval. Final Answer: A light year is related to the physical quantity of distance.

Question 20

As part of the Swachh Bharat cleanliness mission, which Indian state among the following was officially declared an Open Defecation Free (ODF) state, achieving full coverage of toilets and improved sanitation?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question relates to public health and sanitation under the Swachh Bharat Mission. Several Indian states have been declared Open Defecation Free after achieving near universal access to toilets and promoting behaviour change. Competitive exams often ask which states reached ODF status at different stages of the campaign. Given Data / Assumptions: The question asks which state was declared Open Defecation Free. The options are Uttarakhand, Arunachal Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Uttar Pradesh. We assume this refers to an official declaration under Swachh Bharat when the state completed targets for rural sanitation. Concept / Approach: States achieving ODF status did so after building toilets, improving waste management, and running awareness campaigns. The question focuses on Uttarakhand, which was among the early states to be declared ODF. Remembering lists of ODF states and their order of declaration helps in answering such current affairs based questions correctly. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Himalayan and North Eastern states such as Sikkim and Uttarakhand were among the earlier achievers in ODF declarations.Step 2: Remember that Uttarakhand was officially recognised as ODF after meeting sanitation targets in rural areas.Step 3: Compare this with Arunachal Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Uttar Pradesh, which had different timelines and were not the specific focus of this question.Step 4: Connect Uttarakhand with news reports and government announcements about early ODF status.Step 5: Select Uttarakhand as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Government press releases, Swachh Bharat dashboards, and PIB (Press Information Bureau) updates list states declared ODF along with dates. These sources confirm Uttarakhand’s status under this programme. Current affairs compilations summarising achievements of Swachh Bharat also list Uttarakhand among the early ODF states, making verification straightforward. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Arunachal Pradesh: A North Eastern state with its own sanitation progress, but not the one highlighted here.Maharashtra: A large state that also worked on ODF targets but is not the answer in this particular question.Uttar Pradesh: A populous state with major sanitation challenges and a different ODF timeline. Common Pitfalls: Learners may confuse which state achieved ODF first, second, or in later phases. Without a clear mental timeline, they may guess based on familiarity with state names. Preparing a simple table of important Swachh Bharat milestones and revising it regularly can prevent such confusion in the exam hall. Final Answer: The state declared Open Defecation Free as referred to in this question is Uttarakhand.

Basic General Knowledge Questions