Question 1

With which global digital technology and cloud computing company has Paytm partnered to launch its artificial intelligence based cloud computing platform called Paytm AI Cloud in India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Paytm is one of the leading digital payments and financial services companies in India. To strengthen its technology backbone, it launched an artificial intelligence based cloud computing platform called Paytm AI Cloud. This question tests awareness of important business collaborations in the Indian fintech and cloud computing ecosystem by asking which global technology company partnered with Paytm for this platform. Given Data / Assumptions: - The platform is named Paytm AI Cloud. - It is an artificial intelligence based cloud computing platform aimed at businesses in India. - The question asks for the global digital technology and cloud computing company that partnered with Paytm for this initiative. - Only one option represents the correct technology partner, while the others are plausible but incorrect companies active in technology or commerce. Concept / Approach: To answer this general knowledge question, a candidate should recall business news related to Paytm and its technology partnerships. Around the time Paytm AI Cloud was announced, news reports highlighted that Paytm chose Alibaba Cloud, the cloud computing arm of China based Alibaba Group, as the backbone for its artificial intelligence and cloud services. Other names like Google Cloud, Infosys, and Flipkart are included as distractors because they are well known in technology or e commerce but were not the partner for this particular platform. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify the product mentioned in the question, which is Paytm AI Cloud, an artificial intelligence based cloud computing platform launched for Indian enterprises. Step 2: Recall from business and technology news which global company provided the underlying cloud infrastructure and partnered with Paytm for this platform. Step 3: Note that Paytm has long standing strategic and investment ties with Alibaba Group and has used Alibaba Cloud for several backend services. Step 4: Match this recollection with the options. The only option that directly refers to Alibaba and its cloud arm is "Alibaba Group (Alibaba Cloud)". Step 5: Conclude that "Alibaba Group (Alibaba Cloud)" is the correct answer and the other options are distractors. Verification / Alternative check: A quick mental cross check is to remember that Flipkart is an e commerce competitor, not a cloud infrastructure provider, Infosys is a large Indian IT services company but not Paytm cloud partner, and Google Cloud, although a major global cloud provider, was not the one announced in news reports about Paytm AI Cloud. The strong business relationship between Paytm and Alibaba Group makes the Alibaba Cloud partnership the most logical and historically accurate answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Google Cloud: Google provides robust cloud services, but there was no widely reported announcement that Paytm AI Cloud was built in partnership with Google Cloud. Infosys: Infosys is an Indian IT services firm and consulting company, not a primary cloud infrastructure provider chosen for Paytm AI Cloud. Flipkart: Flipkart is an e commerce platform and a competitor in the Indian online marketplace space, not a cloud technology partner for Paytm. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to assume that because Google Cloud is very famous, every new cloud initiative must involve Google. Another error is to focus only on Indian companies and overlook the fact that Paytm has strong international investors and technology partners. Candidates should remember that business relationships often influence such technology choices, and Paytm had a well known association with Alibaba Group at the time this platform was launched. Final Answer: Hence, the correct partner for launching Paytm AI Cloud is Alibaba Group (Alibaba Cloud).

Question 2

Which Indian Navy aircraft carrier, currently the only operational aircraft carrier of India, was fitted for the first time with a marine hydraulic system to boost air operations on the ship?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Aircraft carriers are key assets for any blue water navy, and the Indian Navy relies on its sole operational aircraft carrier to project air power at sea. This question checks knowledge of current affairs and defence infrastructure by asking which Indian Navy aircraft carrier received a marine hydraulic system to enhance air operations for the first time. Recognising the correct ship helps students connect defence news with broader strategic capabilities of India. Given Data / Assumptions: - India had only one operational aircraft carrier at the time referred to in the question. - A marine hydraulic system was installed on this ship to improve air operations such as aircraft launch and recovery support systems. - The options include several well known Indian naval vessels, but only one matches the description of the then operational aircraft carrier. Concept / Approach: The concept tested is simple factual recall of defence related current affairs. After the decommissioning of INS Viraat, India operated INS Vikramaditya as its only active aircraft carrier. INS Vikrant was still undergoing trials or under construction at the time, while INS Tarini is a sailing vessel and not an aircraft carrier. Therefore, the candidate should recall that INS Vikramaditya, a modified Kiev class carrier acquired from Russia, was the ship on which the new marine hydraulic system was installed to support more efficient aircraft handling and deck operations. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall which ship was the sole operational aircraft carrier of India during the period referenced. That ship was INS Vikramaditya. Step 2: Remember defence news where a marine hydraulic system was mentioned as being fitted to improve air operations and deck equipment on the carrier. Step 3: Examine the options. INS Vikrant was under construction or trials, INS Tarini is a sail training boat, and INS Viraat had been decommissioned. Step 4: Conclude that only INS Vikramaditya fits the description given in the question. Verification / Alternative check: An additional check is to match each name with its type. INS Viraat was a carrier but retired, INS Vikrant in its modern form was not fully in service at that time, and INS Tarini is known for all women circumnavigation missions, not for carrier operations. Because the question clearly says "only operational aircraft carrier", INS Vikramaditya is the only consistent answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: INS Vikrant: A modern indigenous carrier, but it was not yet fully operational as the only carrier at the time of this news, so it does not match the description. INS Tarini: A sailing vessel used for training and expeditions, not an aircraft carrier, so the marine hydraulic system for air operations does not apply here. INS Viraat: This was an earlier aircraft carrier, but it was decommissioned, so it could not be the only operational carrier mentioned in the question. Common Pitfalls: Learners may confuse INS Vikrant and INS Vikramaditya due to similar sounding names or may not track the service status of each vessel. Another common error is to select decommissioned ships because they remember them from older textbooks. It is important to update defence knowledge with recent developments, especially about major platforms like aircraft carriers. Final Answer: Therefore, the Indian Navy carrier fitted with the marine hydraulic system is INS Vikramaditya.

Question 3

The headquarters of Ujjivan Small Finance Bank Limited is located in which Indian city?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Small finance banks in India play a crucial role in promoting financial inclusion by providing basic banking services to underserved segments. Ujjivan Small Finance Bank Limited is one of the prominent small finance banks licensed by the Reserve Bank of India. This question checks basic banking awareness by asking about the city where the bank has its corporate headquarters. Given Data / Assumptions: - The bank in question is Ujjivan Small Finance Bank Limited. - The task is to identify the city that hosts its main head office. - Four well known Indian cities are provided as options: Hyderabad, Ahmedabad, Bengaluru, and Kolkata. - Only one of these cities correctly matches the registered and operational headquarters of the bank. Concept / Approach: The concept here is straightforward factual recall related to the Indian banking sector. Ujjivan began as a microfinance institution and later became a small finance bank. It has strong roots in the southern part of India and particularly in Karnataka. Its head office and key management operations are based in Bengaluru, which is a major hub for finance and technology companies. Awareness of basic facts such as the headquarters of major banks is common in competitive examinations. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that the question is about the headquarters, not about branch network or area of operation. Step 2: Recall that Ujjivan Small Finance Bank has its origins and primary offices in Karnataka, India. Step 3: From the options, the Karnataka based metropolitan city is Bengaluru. Step 4: Confirm that Ujjivan Small Finance Bank lists Bengaluru as its registered corporate and administrative headquarters. Step 5: Select Bengaluru as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: If a student is unsure, they can also use elimination. Ahmedabad is in Gujarat and is not generally associated with Ujjivan brand origin stories. Kolkata is known more for several public sector banks and regional institutions, whereas Hyderabad is a major city in Telangana with its own local banks and technology companies. Bengaluru, however, is strongly linked with Ujjivan and many other fintech and microfinance institutions. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Hyderabad: A major city but not the head office location for Ujjivan Small Finance Bank, which is centred in Karnataka. Ahmedabad: A key financial city of Gujarat, yet it is not where Ujjivan Small Finance Bank is headquartered. Kolkata: An important financial and cultural centre in eastern India, but it is not the home city of Ujjivan headquarters. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes assume that any large Indian city might host the headquarters of a bank, especially if they focus only on where branches are visible. Another pitfall is confusing Ujjivan with other financial institutions that might be based in cities like Hyderabad or Ahmedabad. Keeping a small list of bank headquarters for exam preparation can help avoid such confusion. Final Answer: Thus, the headquarters of Ujjivan Small Finance Bank Limited is in Bengaluru.

Question 4

Which of the following developments took place as a direct result of the Kansas Nebraska Act of 1854 in the history of the United States of America?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Kansas Nebraska Act of 1854 is a landmark law in the political history of the United States that significantly influenced the build up to the American Civil War. It altered earlier arrangements around the expansion of slavery into new territories. This question assesses knowledge of that historical legislation by asking which development directly resulted from the Kansas Nebraska Act. Given Data / Assumptions: - The law under discussion is the Kansas Nebraska Act of 1854. - The question focuses on the main political and legal outcome introduced by this Act. - The options describe different possible consequences regarding slavery policy and territorial decision making. - Only one option correctly explains the core effect of the Act, while others present incorrect or reversed statements. Concept / Approach: The key concept is the idea of popular sovereignty and the repeal of the earlier Missouri Compromise line. The Missouri Compromise had restricted the expansion of slavery north of a certain latitude. The Kansas Nebraska Act replaced that rule by allowing settlers in the territories of Kansas and Nebraska to vote and decide whether to permit slavery. This intensified sectional tensions, leading to violent conflicts such as Bleeding Kansas. Students must identify the option that clearly mentions repeal of the Missouri Compromise and introduction of local choice through popular sovereignty. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Missouri Compromise earlier limited slavery in certain territories based on geographical lines. Step 2: Remember that the Kansas Nebraska Act explicitly repealed that compromise for the new territories of Kansas and Nebraska. Step 3: Understand that the Act introduced the concept of popular sovereignty, allowing settlers in those territories to vote on whether to allow slavery. Step 4: Read option A, which states that the Missouri Compromise was repealed and people of Kansas and Nebraska could decide on slavery, which matches historical facts. Step 5: Compare options B, C, and D, and notice that they either deny voting rights, assign exclusive power to the Federal Government, or claim slavery was abolished, none of which reflect the actual effect of the Act. Step 6: Conclude that option A correctly captures the main development caused by the Kansas Nebraska Act. Verification / Alternative check: As an additional check, students should connect this Act with the later conflict known as Bleeding Kansas, where pro slavery and anti slavery settlers clashed because the decision on slavery had been left to the people. This confirms that popular sovereignty and the repeal of the Missouri Compromise were central outcomes of the legislation, reinforcing option A as the correct choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option B: Claims that territories were denied the right to vote and that the Missouri Compromise stayed intact, which is the opposite of what happened. Option C: Suggests that only the Federal Government decided on slavery, whereas the Act actually pushed the decision down to territorial settlers through popular sovereignty. Option D: States that slavery was abolished in all new western territories, which is incorrect; the Act did not abolish slavery but allowed it to expand depending on local votes. Common Pitfalls: A frequent mistake is confusing the Kansas Nebraska Act with later Reconstruction era legislation that limited slavery. Another error is assuming that any new law passed later would automatically strengthen anti slavery rules, when in reality this Act opened new territories to potential slavery. Students should carefully distinguish between laws that restricted slavery and those that allowed its possible expansion. Final Answer: Therefore, the correct development that resulted from the Kansas Nebraska Act of 1854 is The Missouri Compromise was repealed and the people of Kansas and Nebraska were allowed to decide by popular sovereignty whether slavery would be permitted.

Question 5

In India, what is the minimum age required to obtain a permanent driving licence to drive a motor car or motorcycle with gears on public roads?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Road safety and traffic regulation depend on clear rules about who is legally allowed to drive on public roads. In India, the Motor Vehicles Act and related rules lay down a minimum age for obtaining different kinds of driving licences. This question checks general civic awareness by asking the minimum age for a permanent driving licence to operate a motor car or a motorcycle with gears. Given Data / Assumptions: - The context is the Indian legal system and its Motor Vehicles rules. - The question concerns a permanent licence for a motor car or motorcycle with gears on public roads. - Provisional or learner licences and gearless two wheelers for younger applicants are not the focus here. - Four age values are given as options, from 16 to 21 years. Concept / Approach: According to Indian traffic rules, different categories of vehicles have different minimum age requirements. For example, a person of 16 years may obtain a licence for a low power motorcycle without gears, subject to parental consent. However, to drive a private motor car or a motorcycle with gears, a person must be at least 18 years old. Higher age limits can apply to commercial or transport vehicles. Therefore, when the question asks about a licence for a motor car or geared motorcycle, the correct legal minimum age is 18 years. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that the vehicle type is a motor car or motorcycle with gears, not a gearless scooter or commercial vehicle. Step 2: Recall the Motor Vehicles rules that set the minimum age for such private geared vehicles. Step 3: Note that 16 years applies only to certain low power gearless two wheelers, not to the category mentioned in this question. Step 4: Remember that 18 years is the standard minimum age for driving a car or motorcycle with gears on Indian public roads. Step 5: Compare this with higher ages like 21 years, which generally relate to commercial transport licences, and confirm that these do not apply for an ordinary private vehicle licence. Step 6: Conclude that 18 years is the correct minimum age for the licence described. Verification / Alternative check: As a quick verification, many driving schools in India advertise that candidates must be at least 18 years old to enrol for car driving courses and obtain a permanent licence. Additionally, government forms for a new licence clearly specify that the applicant for a car or geared motorcycle must have completed 18 years of age. This practical observation supports the choice of 18 years as the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 17 years: There is no standard provision for a permanent licence for cars at 17 years; this age does not match the main category described. 16 years: This can apply only to specific low power gearless two wheelers with conditions, not to motor cars or motorcycles with gears. 21 years: This age limit is generally associated with transport or commercial vehicle licences, not with ordinary private cars or motorcycles. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is mixing up the rules for gearless scooters with those for geared vehicles. Some learners also confuse the age requirement for commercial heavy vehicles with that for private vehicles. Another source of confusion is relying only on hearsay rather than checking official Motor Vehicles rules. For exam purposes and safe driving awareness, it is essential to remember the correct age brackets for different vehicle categories. Final Answer: Thus, the minimum age to obtain a permanent driving licence for a motor car or motorcycle with gears in India is 18 years.

Question 6

In a blood donation camp, 1345 people gave blood and 247 of them were found to have high blood pressure. What is the probability that a randomly selected person from this group did not have high blood pressure?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question is from basic probability and statistics, using a real life context of a blood donation camp. Out of a total number of donors, some have high blood pressure and the rest do not. The task is to find the probability that a randomly chosen donor from this group does not have high blood pressure. Such questions test understanding of simple probability based on counts of favourable and total outcomes. Given Data / Assumptions: - Total number of people who gave blood = 1345. - Number of people with high blood pressure = 247. - The rest of the donors are assumed not to have high blood pressure. - The selection of one person is random, so each donor is equally likely to be chosen. - We are asked for the probability that the chosen person does not have high blood pressure. Concept / Approach: Probability of an event is defined as: P(event) = number of favourable outcomes / total number of possible outcomes. Here, the event of interest is that a randomly chosen donor does not have high blood pressure. Therefore, the favourable outcomes are the donors who do not have high blood pressure. We first compute that number by subtracting the number with high blood pressure from the total. Then we divide the favourable count by the total population of donors. Expressing the answer as a fraction is a common and exact way to present probabilities in such questions. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Write the total number of donors as 1345. Step 2: Write the number of donors with high blood pressure as 247. Step 3: Compute the number of donors without high blood pressure by subtraction: 1345 - 247 = 1098. Step 4: The favourable outcomes are donors without high blood pressure, so the favourable count is 1098. Step 5: Use the probability formula: P(no high blood pressure) = favourable outcomes / total outcomes = 1098 / 1345. Step 6: The fraction 1098/1345 is already in simplest form, so this is the exact probability. In decimal form this is approximately 0.816, which is about 0.82. Verification / Alternative check: We can verify using the complement rule. The probability of high blood pressure is 247/1345. The complement event, no high blood pressure, should have probability 1 - 247/1345. Compute this as: 1 - 247/1345 = (1345/1345) - (247/1345) = (1345 - 247)/1345 = 1098/1345. This matches the earlier result, confirming that 1098/1345 is correct. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 247/1345: This is the probability that a donor has high blood pressure, not that they are free from it. 1345/1098: This is the reciprocal of the correct fraction and cannot represent a probability since it is greater than 1. 247/1098: This uses the wrong denominator and does not match any correct probability derived from the data. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to confuse the count with high blood pressure with the count without it, leading to choosing 247/1345 instead of the complement. Another frequent error is to forget to subtract and directly divide one given number by another without thinking about the event definition. Students should clearly decide which outcome is favourable and which is total before forming the probability fraction. Misinterpreting the complement rule or trying to invert the fraction also leads to incorrect answers greater than 1, which can never be valid probabilities. Final Answer: Therefore, the probability that a randomly selected donor from this group did not have high blood pressure is 1098/1345.

Question 7

When a person has consumed a large amount of alcohol, which of the following statements about their safety and sexual consent is most accurate?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question addresses an important topic in personal safety and sexual ethics. Alcohol consumption can impair judgment, reduce awareness, and increase vulnerability. Understanding how alcohol affects a person's ability to give consent and stay safe is essential for preventing sexual violence and supporting responsible behaviour. The question asks which combined statement best reflects ethical and legal perspectives about a heavily intoxicated person and sexual consent. Given Data / Assumptions: - The person has consumed a large amount of alcohol, so their judgment and awareness are significantly impaired. - We consider issues of blame in case of sexual assault and the ability to give valid consent. - The options present several statements about responsibility, need for help, and capacity to consent. - We assume modern ethical and legal frameworks that prioritise consent and victim protection. Concept / Approach: The key concepts are informed consent, victim blaming, and risk awareness. Valid consent for any sexual activity requires that a person is capable of understanding what they are agreeing to and can freely say yes or no. Heavy intoxication can remove this capacity, which means that sexual activity under such conditions is not genuinely consensual. At the same time, if a heavily intoxicated person is assaulted, they are not at fault; responsibility lies with the perpetrator. In addition, intoxicated individuals may need assistance from friends or bystanders to move away from risky situations. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Evaluate statement "Is never to blame for being sexually assaulted". Ethically and legally, responsibility for assault lies with the attacker, not the victim, regardless of how much alcohol the victim consumed. Step 2: Evaluate statement "May need help getting out of a potentially dangerous situation". Intoxication can reduce awareness, so bystanders and friends may need to step in to keep the person safe. Step 3: Evaluate statement "Is not capable of giving true consent". When heavily intoxicated, a person may not fully understand or remember the situation, which makes any apparent agreement invalid as informed consent. Step 4: Since all three statements are accurate and mutually supportive, the option that combines them, "All of the above", is the most correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Consider how consent education materials and many legal guidelines present these issues. They consistently stress that a drunk person cannot reliably consent and that victims of assault are not at fault. Prevention campaigns also encourage sober friends to look out for people who are very drunk and help them stay safe. This convergence of messages confirms that each individual statement is valid and that the combined choice expressing all three is correct. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Is never to blame for being sexually assaulted: True but incomplete, because it does not mention the need for help or the inability to consent. May need help getting out of a potentially dangerous situation: Also true but partial, as it leaves out the key ideas about consent and victim blaming. Is not capable of giving true consent: Again true, but it does not capture the broader context of safety and non blame for assault. Common Pitfalls: Some people incorrectly believe that if someone has been drinking, they share responsibility for what happens to them, including assault. This is a harmful myth that contributes to victim blaming. Others may underestimate how much alcohol can impair decision making and assume any spoken yes counts as consent. It is essential to understand that heavy intoxication severely reduces a person's ability to consent and that the moral and legal responsibility for assault always rests with the perpetrator, not the victim. Final Answer: Therefore, the most accurate combined statement about a heavily intoxicated person and sexual consent is All of the above.

Question 8

Which of the following is widely regarded as the oldest news agency in the world?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: News agencies play a crucial role in collecting and distributing news to newspapers, broadcasters, and digital platforms across the globe. The history of news agencies dates back to the nineteenth century, and knowing which one is considered the oldest helps in understanding the evolution of modern journalism and international news distribution. This question asks you to identify the agency widely regarded as the oldest in the world. Given Data / Assumptions: - Four internationally known news agencies are listed as options. - The task is to identify which of these agencies traces its origins back the furthest in time. - The agencies named are Associated Press, Agence France-Presse, Reuters, and United Press International. - Only one of them has the earliest founding date among major modern news agencies. Concept / Approach: Historically, Agence France-Presse began as the Agence Havas in the mid nineteenth century. It is widely recognised as the world's oldest news agency. Associated Press, Reuters, and United Press International were all created later. Therefore, the approach is to recall or recognise which organisation has the earliest founding year. Agence France-Presse, through its predecessor Havas, has this distinction. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: List the four news agencies in chronological perspective: Agence France-Presse, Associated Press, Reuters, and United Press International. Step 2: Recall that Agence France-Presse can trace its origins back to the agency founded by Charles Louis Havas in the 1830s. Step 3: Compare this with Associated Press, which was founded later in the nineteenth century, and Reuters, which was established slightly after that. Step 4: Note that United Press International is a twentieth century creation, significantly newer than the others. Step 5: Conclude that Agence France-Presse is widely considered the oldest news agency among the options given. Verification / Alternative check: Another way to confirm the answer is to remember that many textbooks and competitive exam guides specifically highlight Agence France-Presse as the oldest news agency, often mentioning its origin as Agence Havas. When you see options that include AFP alongside Reuters and Associated Press, the classic pairing is that AFP is the oldest, Reuters is slightly younger, and Associated Press is also from the nineteenth century but not the earliest of all. This reinforces that AFP is the correct choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Associated Press: An important American news agency, but it was founded later than the original Havas agency that became Agence France-Presse. Reuters: A famous British based agency with a long history, but it started after the founding of the French agency and is therefore not the oldest. United Press International: A later organisation from the twentieth century, so it clearly cannot be the oldest of the group. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes choose Reuters because its name is very well known in financial and international news, leading them to assume it must also be the oldest. Others may focus on Associated Press due to the prominence of American media. It is useful to remember that the oldest agency has European roots and that Agence France-Presse, through its predecessor Havas, holds this distinction. Marking this fact clearly in memory helps answer similar questions in future exams. Final Answer: Hence, the oldest news agency in the world among the given options is Agence France-Presse.

Question 9

India held its first ever global tourism mart, organised as a national level tourism trade event, in which Indian city?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Tourism trade events are important platforms where tourism boards, travel companies, and other stakeholders come together to promote destinations and build partnerships. India organised its first ever global tourism mart to showcase the country as a major destination to international buyers. This question tests awareness of Indian tourism initiatives by asking in which city this inaugural global tourism mart was held. Given Data / Assumptions: - The event mentioned is the first ever global tourism mart organised by India. - It was a major national and international tourism trade event. - Four major Indian cities are listed as options: New Delhi, Hyderabad, Bengaluru, and Kolkata. - Only one of these cities actually hosted the inaugural event. Concept / Approach: The approach is to recall news related to India Tourism Mart or similar events. The first such global tourism mart was held in the national capital, New Delhi, where the central government, industry partners, and international buyers gathered. Since many major national level conferences and trade shows are hosted in the capital, it is a logical and also factual choice. The other cities are important in their own right but were not the host of this specific first edition. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that the phrase "first ever global tourism mart" refers to a significant, centrally coordinated tourism event. Step 2: Recall that high profile national tourism events are often organised in New Delhi due to its status as the capital and its infrastructure for major conferences. Step 3: Match this recollection with the options available. Step 4: Confirm from memory of current affairs that the inaugural India Tourism Mart, which was promoted as a global tourism mart, took place in New Delhi. Step 5: Select New Delhi as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: If a candidate is unsure, elimination can help. Bengaluru and Hyderabad are major technology and business hubs, and Kolkata is historically significant, but central government ministries and national tourism bodies most frequently choose New Delhi for first time high level events. News coverage of the first India Tourism Mart highlighted the event as being inaugurated in New Delhi, further confirming this answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Hyderabad: Although it hosts many conferences, it was not the city for this particular first global tourism mart organised by India. Bengaluru: A major technology hub, but it did not host the inaugural national level global tourism mart mentioned here. Kolkata: An important eastern metropolis, but it was not chosen as the venue for the first edition of this specific tourism mart. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to treat all big cities as equally likely without remembering the central role of New Delhi in hosting national launch events. Another error is to mix up different tourism or trade exhibitions held in various cities. Keeping a mental note that the first large national level tourism mart event of this kind was held in New Delhi helps in avoiding confusion when similar questions appear. Final Answer: Thus, India held its first ever global tourism mart in New Delhi.

Question 10

What is the name of the first commercial underwater robotic drone developed in India for inspection of underwater structures?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Underwater robotic drones, also known as remotely operated vehicles, are used to inspect and monitor underwater structures such as dams, bridges, ports, and pipelines. In India, a notable milestone was reached when a domestically developed underwater robotic drone was launched for commercial use. This question tests knowledge of science and technology developments in India by asking for the name of that first commercial underwater robotic drone. Given Data / Assumptions: - The focus is on an underwater robotic drone developed in India. - It is described as the first commercial product of its kind in the country. - The drone is used for underwater inspection and related tasks. - Four similar looking names are provided to test precise recall: EyeROV TUNA, HandROV TUNA, BrainROV TUNA, HeadROV TUNA. Concept / Approach: The question is based on current affairs in the area of robotics and marine technology. The correct name, EyeROV TUNA, is a product developed by an Indian start up with support from research institutions. The word Eye in the name suggests its role in visually inspecting underwater assets, and ROV stands for remotely operated vehicle. The other options are constructed distractors that follow the same pattern but are not real products in this context. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall news about the launch of India's first commercial underwater drone and its use for inspections in dams and other structures. Step 2: Remember that the product name contains the term EyeROV, indicating a robotic vehicle with an eye like camera for underwater viewing. Step 3: Look at the options and spot "EyeROV TUNA", which matches the known product name exactly. Step 4: Recognise that options such as HandROV, BrainROV, and HeadROV are not associated with this specific Indian development. Step 5: Select EyeROV TUNA as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: A further check is to break down the name. The term "Eye" fits a camera equipped inspection device, while "ROV" is the common abbreviation for remotely operated vehicle used globally in marine operations. The addition of TUNA is a unique model name. This structure matches the known naming convention of the Indian product and confirms that EyeROV TUNA is correct. Why Other Options Are Wrong: HandROV TUNA: This name is not associated with any widely reported Indian underwater drone and appears invented to confuse the learner. BrainROV TUNA: Also a fictitious name in this context and not connected with actual Indian underwater robotics achievements. HeadROV TUNA: Another distractor that sounds plausible but does not correspond to the recognised Indian commercial underwater vehicle. Common Pitfalls: A typical mistake is to misremember the first part of the name and think that any similar sounding ROV label is acceptable. Students might also overthink the TUNA part and forget the more important EyeROV label. To avoid confusion, focus on the connection between Eye, camera, and inspection, and between ROV and remotely operated vehicle. Recognising these components fixes the correct name more firmly in memory. Final Answer: Therefore, the first commercial underwater robotic drone developed in India is called EyeROV TUNA.

Question 11

In macroeconomics, which of the following best describes a closed economy?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: In macroeconomics, economists often classify economies as open or closed depending on their interaction with the rest of the world. Understanding the definition of a closed economy is fundamental for interpreting many economic models and exam questions. This question asks you to identify the description that correctly captures what a closed economy means in standard economic theory. Given Data / Assumptions: - The focus is on the macroeconomic concept of a closed economy, not on specific countries. - Four different descriptions of economic behaviour are given as options. - The correct option should capture the idea of an economy that does not trade with other countries. - The terms include trade in goods, services, and financial assets, all of which are relevant to openness or closedness. Concept / Approach: By definition, a closed economy is one that does not engage in international trade. That means it neither exports nor imports goods and services, and it does not allow free flows of capital in the form of cross border borrowing, lending, or investment. In contrast, most real world countries today are open economies to varying degrees. In theoretical models, a closed economy is used to simplify analysis by removing the external sector. Therefore, the correct description must stress the absence of international trade and cross border financial transactions. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Read option A, which states that the economy does not engage in international trade in goods, services, or financial assets. Step 2: Recognise that this matches the textbook definition of a closed economy, which excludes the external sector. Step 3: Consider option B, which allows only exports and bans imports. This still involves international trade and is not fully closed. Step 4: Examine option C, which mentions no taxes and no government intervention. This refers to a different concept, sometimes linked with laissez faire policies, and has nothing to do with trade openness. Step 5: Evaluate option D, which allows trade only with neighbouring countries. This is still an open economy, although with limited partners, and therefore does not fit the closed economy definition. Step 6: Conclude that option A is the only option that correctly describes a closed economy. Verification / Alternative check: In many macroeconomics textbooks, the national income identity for a closed economy is written without terms for exports and imports. For example, domestic output is expressed as a function of consumption, investment, and government spending only. This reinforces that no international trade takes place. Since option A is the only one that explicitly excludes international trade and financial flows, it aligns with the standard treatment of closed economies in theory. Why Other Options Are Wrong: An economy that allows only exports but completely bans imports: Such an economy is still open because it trades with other countries, even if trade is one sided. An economy that has no taxes and no government intervention: This describes a hypothetical free market economy but says nothing about whether the country trades internationally. An economy that trades only with neighbouring countries: This is a restricted open economy but clearly not closed, since cross border trade exists. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse closed economy with other concepts like self sufficiency, autarky, or a tax free system. While there can be overlap, the precise macroeconomic definition focuses on international trade and financial flows. Another pitfall is to think that partial restrictions make an economy closed, when in fact many countries with trade restrictions still count as open because they do engage in trade. Remember that a closed economy means zero trade with the rest of the world in the model. Final Answer: Thus, in macroeconomics a closed economy is An economy that does not engage in international trade in goods, services, or financial assets.

Question 12

According to the original decision of the Swedish Academy in 2018, amid a major scandal that year, the Nobel Prize in Literature for 2018 was awarded to whom?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Nobel Prize in Literature is one of the most prestigious international awards for writers. In 2018, the prize became the subject of worldwide discussion because the Swedish Academy faced a serious scandal that affected its ability to proceed as usual. This question checks awareness of that unusual situation by asking to whom the Nobel Literature Prize for 2018 was awarded according to the original decision of that year. Given Data / Assumptions: - The year under consideration is 2018. - The category is the Nobel Prize in Literature. - A scandal affected the Swedish Academy around that time. - The options include names of well known writers and a statement that no one received the prize that year. - The focus of the question is the original 2018 decision, not later retrospective changes. Concept / Approach: In 2018, due to allegations and internal issues involving members of the Swedish Academy, the body responsible for the Literature prize decided not to award the Nobel Prize in Literature that year. It announced that the prize would be postponed. For competitive exam purposes, the key fact is that no laureate was announced in 2018 for the Literature prize. Therefore, the best answer is the option stating that no one received the prize that year. Later, the Academy named a laureate for 2018 in a later year, but the original news question is based on the unprecedented decision to skip the award in 2018. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that there was a scandal around the Swedish Academy in 2018 involving allegations of misconduct and governance problems. Step 2: Remember that, as a result, the Academy publicly announced that the Nobel Prize in Literature for 2018 would not be awarded in the usual way that year. Step 3: Look at the options and identify the statement that reflects this situation: "No one (the prize was not awarded that year)". Step 4: Confirm that the other options list names of writers who received Nobel or other literary honours in different years, but not as the 2018 Literature laureate announced at that time. Step 5: Select the option indicating that no one received the award in 2018 as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, consider the broader pattern of Nobel announcements. In other years, a single laureate or sometimes multiple laureates are announced, but in 2018 the Literature prize was explicitly postponed. This difference was widely reported and discussed in media and exam guides. While later the Academy retrospectively assigned a 2018 Literature laureate, competitive exams that refer specifically to the original 2018 announcement treat the correct answer as no award that year. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Bob Dylan: He received the Nobel Prize in Literature in an earlier year, not in 2018. Shashi Tharoor: A noted Indian writer and politician, but he has not been announced as a Nobel Literature laureate. George Saunders: A fiction writer who received the Man Booker Prize, but he is not the writer associated with the 2018 Nobel Literature decision mentioned here. Common Pitfalls: One pitfall is to think that every Nobel Prize year must have a winner and therefore select one of the names given. Another source of confusion is mixing up the Nobel Literature prize with other major literary awards such as the Booker Prize. Students should remember the exceptional case of 2018, when the Nobel Literature prize was postponed due to an institutional crisis, making the correct exam answer that no one received the prize that year. Final Answer: Thus, according to the original decision made in 2018, the Nobel Prize in Literature for that year was awarded to No one (the prize was not awarded that year).

Question 13

In the context of physical fitness and workout planning, exercise intensity refers to which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: In fitness and exercise science, workouts are often described using several key variables: frequency, intensity, time, and type. Understanding these variables is essential for designing safe and effective exercise programmes. This question focuses on the meaning of exercise intensity, a term commonly used by trainers and health professionals. Given Data / Assumptions: - The topic is basic exercise science and fitness planning. - Four descriptions are given, each referring to a different aspect of exercise: component of fitness, duration or repetitions, frequency, and energy expenditure. - The correct description should match how intensity is defined in exercise guidelines. Concept / Approach: Exercise intensity refers to how hard the body is working during an activity. It often relates to how much energy is expended, which can be measured through heart rate, perceived exertion, or metabolic equivalents. It is different from frequency (how often you exercise), duration or time (how long each session lasts), and type (what kind of activity you perform). Therefore, the correct option is the one that talks about energy expenditure during exercise. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the FITT principle used in exercise programming: Frequency, Intensity, Time, and Type. Step 2: Understand that intensity answers the question "How hard am I working?", not "How long?" or "How often?" Step 3: Examine option A. It refers to the component of fitness targeted, such as strength or flexibility, which is more about type or goal, not intensity. Step 4: Examine option B. It refers to time or repetitions, which corresponds to the duration element of training. Step 5: Examine option C. It discusses the number of sessions per week, which clearly defines frequency, not intensity. Step 6: Examine option D. It describes how much energy is expended while exercising, which aligns directly with the idea of how hard the exercise feels or how much effort the body is making. Step 7: Conclude that option D correctly defines exercise intensity. Verification / Alternative check: Fitness guidelines often describe moderate intensity and vigorous intensity activities based on energy expenditure and physiological responses such as breathing rate and heart rate. For example, brisk walking is a moderate intensity activity, while running is usually vigorous. These distinctions depend on how much energy the body uses, not simply on the number of repetitions or the number of days per week. This confirms that the definition focusing on energy expenditure is correct. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The specific component of fitness an activity is designed to improve: This relates more to the type of exercise or training objective (such as endurance, strength, or flexibility). The length of time or number of repetitions: This describes duration or volume, not intensity. The number of times per week you need to do a particular exercise: This refers to frequency, another separate variable in exercise planning. Common Pitfalls: A frequent mistake is to confuse intensity with duration, thinking that long workouts must always be high intensity. In reality, an exercise can be low intensity but performed for a longer period. Another mistake is mixing up frequency and intensity, assuming that more days automatically mean harder exercise. By clearly understanding that intensity is about how hard the body works and how much energy is used, students can better interpret fitness advice and exam questions. Final Answer: Therefore, in the context of physical fitness, exercise intensity refers to How much energy is expended while exercising.

Question 14

In music theory, a tone is a musical sound that primarily has which characteristic?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: In basic music theory, it is important to distinguish between noise and musical sound. A tone is a specific type of musical sound used to build melodies and harmonies. This question asks which characteristic best defines a tone in music and helps learners reinforce core terminology used by musicians and music teachers. Given Data / Assumptions: - The subject is music theory and sound properties. - Four options describe different characteristics a sound might have, such as high frequency, definite pitch, low duration, or none of these. - The question asks for the primary characteristic that makes a sound a tone in the musical sense. Concept / Approach: In music, a tone is a sound that has a regular waveform and a definite pitch. This means the listener can perceive it as a specific note higher or lower relative to others. Noise, by contrast, does not have a clear pitch because its vibrations are irregular. While tones can vary in frequency, duration, and loudness, the defining feature is that the sound possesses a stable and recognisable pitch. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that a tone is associated with musical notes, such as those played on a piano or sung by a singer. Step 2: Recognise that these notes are distinguished by specific pitches (for example, C, D, E) that remain steady. Step 3: Examine option A, "Has high frequency". Some tones are high, some are low, so high frequency is not a universal requirement. Step 4: Examine option B, "Has definite pitch". This directly matches the requirement that a tone must be perceived as a particular note. Step 5: Examine option C, "Has low duration". Duration of a tone can be long or short, so this cannot be the defining trait. Step 6: Option D, "None of the above", is incorrect because option B is already a correct description. Step 7: Conclude that the correct characteristic is that a tone has definite pitch. Verification / Alternative check: A practical check is to think about tuning a musical instrument. When a musician tunes a guitar string, they adjust its tension until it produces a clear note at a specific pitch. That clear note is what is meant by a tone. If the sound were fuzzy, irregular, or without a recognisable note, it would not be considered a tone in music theory. This practical understanding supports option B as the correct choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Has high frequency: A tone can be low pitched or high pitched, so high frequency does not define all tones. Has low duration: The duration of a tone can vary widely in music; it is not the primary defining property. None of the above: Incorrect because having a definite pitch clearly defines a musical tone. Common Pitfalls: Some learners assume that any musical sound must be high pitched or short to be important, but music uses both high and low tones, with both long and short durations. Confusing frequency or length of time with the concept of pitch leads to wrong answers. It is helpful to remember that pitch refers to how high or low a note sounds, and having a clear, stable pitch is what makes a sound a tone in music theory. Final Answer: Therefore, in music a tone is a sound that Has definite pitch.

Question 15

In basic astronomy and navigation, the rising of the evening star (usually the planet Venus seen after sunset) indicates which cardinal direction on the horizon?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: For many centuries, people have used the apparent motion of celestial bodies to help determine direction and time. The term evening star is commonly used for the planet Venus when it is visible shortly after sunset. This question tests basic knowledge of observational astronomy and navigation by asking which direction is indicated when the evening star rises in the sky. Given Data / Assumptions: - The evening star generally refers to Venus when seen after sunset. - Venus appears in the western sky in the early evening when called the evening star. - The question asks which cardinal direction on the horizon this rising indicates. - The options include West, East, South pole, and North pole. Concept / Approach: At sunset, the Sun itself is setting in the west. When Venus appears as the evening star, it is seen in the same general region of the sky, near the western horizon shortly after the Sun goes below the horizon. Therefore, observing the evening star helps a person identify the western direction. The other directions listed do not match this sky position for Venus as the evening star. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Sun rises in the east and sets in the west. Step 2: Understand that the evening star is seen just after sunset, close to where the Sun went down. Step 3: Note that Venus, when called the evening star, is visible above the western horizon in the early evening. Step 4: Look at the options and identify which one names the direction associated with sunset and the evening star. Step 5: Recognise that West is the correct direction for the evening star's rising in this context. Verification / Alternative check: A simple verification method is to imagine standing outside at sunset. The Sun goes down in the west, and the first bright object you often see in that part of the sky in the evening is Venus when conditions are right. Many cultural references to the evening star describe looking toward the western horizon. This mental picture confirms that the evening star indicates the western direction. Why Other Options Are Wrong: East: This is the direction of sunrise and of the morning star when Venus appears before dawn, not the evening star seen after sunset. South pole: This is not a horizontal direction on a normal compass for most observers; it refers to an extreme geographic point and is not related to the evening star's appearance in everyday navigation. North pole: Similarly, this is a geographic pole and not the direction where the evening star is observed near the horizon. Common Pitfalls: Some learners mix up the idea of morning star and evening star, forgetting that they describe Venus at different times of day and different positions relative to the Sun. Others confuse east and west when visualising sunrise and sunset. A simple memory aid is that the word west appears in the phrase "Sun sets in the west", and the evening star appears shortly after sunset in that same direction. Final Answer: Thus, the rising of the evening star indicates the direction toward the West.

Question 16

Which planet in the night sky is traditionally known as the Bright Wandering Star because of its exceptional brightness and visibility?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: In ancient times, people observed the night sky and named the bright objects they saw. The planets were often called wandering stars because they move against the fixed background of real stars. Among these, one planet is especially bright and has inspired many names in different cultures, including terms meaning bright star or bright wandering star. This question asks which planet that is. Given Data / Assumptions: - The term Bright Wandering Star refers to a very bright planet visible to the naked eye. - The options are Saturn, Jupiter, Earth, and Venus. - Earth is not seen as a star from the surface by human observers; we see other planets. - The correct choice must be the planet that appears brightest in the sky for ground based observers. Concept / Approach: Venus is the brightest planet in the night sky as seen from Earth. It can be seen shortly before sunrise or shortly after sunset, earning the names morning star and evening star in various traditions. Its brightness and wandering motion relative to the background stars fit the description of a bright wandering star. Although Jupiter is also very bright, Venus outshines it and is usually the brightest natural object in the night sky after the Moon. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Eliminate Earth, since observers on Earth do not see Earth as a point of light in the sky. Step 2: Compare the apparent brightness of Saturn, Jupiter, and Venus. Venus is usually the brightest of the three. Step 3: Recall that Venus is often referred to as the morning star or evening star because of its brilliance near sunrise and sunset. Step 4: Recognise that the phrase Bright Wandering Star logically refers to this extremely bright planet. Step 5: Conclude that Venus is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: An observational check is to step outside on a clear evening or early morning when Venus is visible. It appears as a bright white point of light, noticeably more brilliant than nearby stars and planets. Planetarium software, astronomy books, and school texts all describe Venus as the brightest planet visible from Earth. Since the question emphasises exceptional brightness and visibility, Venus fits the description better than Jupiter or Saturn. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Saturn: Although visible and interesting, Saturn appears fainter than Venus and Jupiter to the naked eye and is not usually described as the brightest wandering star. Jupiter: Very bright and one of the brightest objects in the night sky, but still generally less bright than Venus when both are visible. Earth: Observers on Earth cannot see Earth as a star like point in the sky, so this option does not make sense in this context. Common Pitfalls: A frequent error is to choose Jupiter because many people know it is a bright planet. Another pitfall is confusing the phrases morning star and evening star with Jupiter rather than Venus. Remembering that Venus is often the first bright object seen after sunset or before sunrise and that it is the brightest planet will help in answering such questions correctly. Final Answer: Therefore, the planet traditionally known as the Bright Wandering Star is Venus.

Question 17

The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully launched a heavy communication satellite on board which launch vehicle, marking an important milestone for the Indian space programme?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has developed a family of launch vehicles to place satellites into orbit. One of the major milestones in India's space programme was the successful launch of a heavy communication satellite using the country's heaviest rocket. This question asks which launch vehicle was used for that significant mission, highlighting awareness of India's advancement in space technology. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question refers to a heavy communication satellite launched by ISRO. - The focus is on the type of launch vehicle used. - Options given are various versions of the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV): Mk III, Mk II, Mk I, plus a none of the above option. - Only one of these correctly describes the heaviest and most advanced GSLV variant used for such a landmark mission. Concept / Approach: GSLV Mk III is ISRO's heavy lift launch vehicle designed to place heavier communication satellites into geostationary transfer orbit and also to support crewed missions in the future. Earlier versions, GSLV Mk I and Mk II, carried lighter loads and represented earlier stages of development. When ISRO launched a very heavy communication satellite and highlighted the achievement globally, it was on board the GSLV Mk III. Therefore, knowledge of the relative capabilities of these rocket variants leads to the correct answer. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that the question emphasises a heavy communication satellite and an important milestone for the Indian space programme. Step 2: Recall that GSLV Mk III is the most powerful rocket developed by ISRO, sometimes called a heavy lift vehicle. Step 3: Identify that GSLV Mk I and Mk II are earlier versions with lower payload capacities, used before Mk III became operational. Step 4: Understand that a notable landmark launch using a heavy vehicle must logically refer to GSLV Mk III. Step 5: Select GSLV Mk III as the correct launch vehicle for this mission. Verification / Alternative check: A verification step is to remember that media reports around the launch of GSAT 19, one of the heavy communication satellites, specifically mentioned that it flew on GSLV Mk III. This mission was highlighted as the first developmental flight of India's heaviest rocket and a key step for future human spaceflight plans. GSLV Mk II continued to serve for medium weight satellites, but the heavy milestone missions are associated with Mk III. Why Other Options Are Wrong: GSLV Mk II: Although important, it is a medium lift version and not the heaviest vehicle used for landmark heavy communication launches. GSLV Mk I: An earlier configuration with lower payload capabilities, not the advanced heavy lift rocket referred to in the question. None of the above: Incorrect because GSLV Mk III clearly fits the description and is a valid option. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse the different GSLV versions or assume that the newest sounding label is always used without checking payload details. Another pitfall is focusing only on the name GSLV without noting the Mk number. Remembering that GSLV Mk III is the heavy lift variant and associated with major milestones like launching heavy communication satellites and preparing for crewed missions will help avoid such confusion. Final Answer: Thus, the heavy communication satellite mentioned in the question was launched by ISRO on board GSLV Mk III.

Question 18

Who was invited to be the chief guest at the Republic Day parade of India in 2019?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Every year, India invites a foreign head of state or government as the chief guest for the Republic Day parade held on 26 January in New Delhi. This tradition reflects India's diplomatic priorities and friendships. The question tests awareness of international relations and current affairs by asking who was the chief guest for the Republic Day celebrations in 2019. Given Data / Assumptions: - The event is India's Republic Day parade in 2019. - The question asks for the name of the foreign leader invited as chief guest. - Four world leaders are listed: Donald Trump, Cyril Ramaphosa, Theresa May, and Scott Morrison. - Only one of these leaders actually attended India's Republic Day celebrations in 2019 as chief guest. Concept / Approach: In 2019, India invited Cyril Ramaphosa, the President of South Africa, as the chief guest for Republic Day. This invitation highlighted the close historical and strategic ties between India and South Africa, including cooperation within groupings such as BRICS. The other leaders listed were heads of state or government of other countries around the same time, but they were not the chief guests in 2019. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall from current affairs that India has often invited leaders from Africa, ASEAN, Europe, and other regions as Republic Day chief guests. Step 2: Focus on the year 2019 and remember that Cyril Ramaphosa of South Africa visited India as the chief guest. Step 3: Examine the options: Donald Trump (United States), Cyril Ramaphosa (South Africa), Theresa May (United Kingdom), Scott Morrison (Australia). Step 4: Confirm that news reports of 2019 Republic Day celebrations specifically mentioned President Cyril Ramaphosa as the chief guest. Step 5: Select Cyril Ramaphosa as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: A quick cross check is to recall that leaders from the Association of Southeast Asian Nations were special guests in 2018, while 2019 shifted focus back to a single chief guest from South Africa. Additionally, exam preparation materials and yearbooks often list the Republic Day chief guests for each year, and for 2019 they consistently show Cyril Ramaphosa. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Donald Trump: The United States President did not attend India's Republic Day parade in 2019 as chief guest. Theresa May: The British Prime Minister was not invited as chief guest in that particular year. Scott Morrison: The Australian Prime Minister did not serve as Republic Day chief guest in 2019. Common Pitfalls: Learners may be tempted to pick very famous names like Donald Trump without checking the specific year and event. Another pitfall is mixing up the chief guest for Republic Day with leaders who visited India for other summits or bilateral meetings. Keeping a short list of Republic Day chief guests by year can help avoid such confusion in competitive exams. Final Answer: Therefore, the chief guest at India's Republic Day parade in 2019 was Cyril Ramaphosa.

Question 19

Who was the first woman to serve as the Prime Minister of India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Political history questions often focus on firsts, especially when they relate to the participation of women in high office. In India, one of the most significant milestones was the appointment of the first woman Prime Minister. This question tests knowledge of Indian political history by asking for her name. Given Data / Assumptions: - The office in question is the Prime Minister of India. - The focus is on identifying the first woman who held this office. - The options list four prominent female figures: Sarojini Naidu, Sonia Gandhi, Indira Gandhi, and Rani Lakshmi Bai. - Only one of them served as Prime Minister. Concept / Approach: Indira Gandhi, daughter of India's first Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru, became the third Prime Minister of India and the first woman to hold that office. She served multiple terms and played a major role in shaping Indian politics. The other women listed were significant leaders and freedom fighters but did not serve as Prime Minister of India. Therefore, identifying the correct answer requires recalling this key historical fact. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the list of Indian Prime Ministers and identify which of them were women. Step 2: Recognise that Indira Gandhi served as Prime Minister for several years, starting in the 1960s. Step 3: Consider Sarojini Naidu, who was a noted poet and freedom fighter and served as the Governor of Uttar Pradesh, but not as Prime Minister. Step 4: Note that Sonia Gandhi has been a powerful political leader and headed the Indian National Congress for many years but has not assumed the office of Prime Minister. Step 5: Understand that Rani Lakshmi Bai was a nineteenth century queen and warrior who resisted British rule but lived before the modern Prime Ministerial system. Step 6: Conclude that Indira Gandhi is the only candidate among the options who actually served as Prime Minister of India. Verification / Alternative check: Any standard list of Indian Prime Ministers shows Jawaharlal Nehru, followed by Lal Bahadur Shastri, and then Indira Gandhi as the third Prime Minister. She is also clearly identified as the first woman to hold that position. School textbooks and competitive exam guides frequently highlight this milestone, so cross checking with such lists reinforces that Indira Gandhi is correct. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Sarojini Naidu: A great freedom fighter and poet who became a state governor, but she never served as Prime Minister. Sonia Gandhi: A leading political figure and former Congress president, but she did not assume the Prime Minister's office. Rani Lakshmi Bai: A historic queen of Jhansi and symbol of resistance during the revolt of 1857, but the role of Prime Minister did not even exist in colonial India during her lifetime. Common Pitfalls: Some students may confuse party leadership with the office of Prime Minister and mistakenly choose Sonia Gandhi. Others may be influenced by the fame of Sarojini Naidu or Rani Lakshmi Bai without focusing on the specific constitutional post described. Carefully reading the question and recalling the official list of Prime Ministers is the best way to avoid such errors. Final Answer: Therefore, the first woman to serve as the Prime Minister of India was Indira Gandhi.

Question 20

Which state government in India became one of the first to withdraw the general consent given to the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), thereby barring the CBI from entering the state without prior approval?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is India's premier central investigating agency. Normally, it operates in a state with that state's general consent under the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act. In recent years, some states have withdrawn this general consent, which means the CBI must seek specific permission before starting investigations in those states. This question checks knowledge of Indian federal relations and current affairs by asking which state was among the first to take such a step. Given Data / Assumptions: - The subject is general consent for CBI operations in Indian states. - The question focuses on the withdrawal of such consent, effectively restricting CBI entry without prior approval. - Four states are given as options: Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu. - Only one of these was among the first states to withdraw general consent in a widely discussed move. Concept / Approach: In 2018, Andhra Pradesh was one of the first states that announced the withdrawal of general consent granted to the CBI. This meant that the agency could not automatically investigate cases in the state without case specific approval from the state government. This step was seen as significant in the context of centre state relations and raised debates about investigative independence and federalism in India. Therefore, recalling this development points to Andhra Pradesh as the correct answer. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Understand what withdrawing general consent means. It does not ban the CBI outright, but it requires the agency to obtain state permission for each case. Step 2: Recall news reports from 2018 when Andhra Pradesh announced that it was revoking the general consent earlier given to the CBI. Step 3: Recognise that this move was widely reported and discussed as a rare and bold step by a state government. Step 4: Look at the options and identify Andhra Pradesh among the states listed. Step 5: Confirm that other listed states did not take this particular step as early as Andhra Pradesh in the timeframe referred to by the question. Step 6: Select Andhra Pradesh as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: A further cross check is to remember that some other states later followed a similar path, but Andhra Pradesh and one or two others were highlighted in early news articles as first movers in revoking general consent. Competitive exam materials of that period emphasised Andhra Pradesh as a key example, which supports choosing it as the correct response here. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Telangana: Although it has its own law and order issues and relations with central agencies, it was not among the first states to withdraw general consent in the way described in the question. Uttar Pradesh: This state did not lead this particular development in the same timeframe. Tamil Nadu: While it has had political debates on centre state relations, it was not the state highlighted as an early example of withdrawing CBI general consent. Common Pitfalls: A typical mistake is to guess based on states that are frequently in the news for political reasons without recalling the specific policy action in question. Another pitfall is to confuse later developments or other kinds of disputes with the specific act of revoking CBI general consent. To avoid such errors, students should link Andhra Pradesh with this notable step in federal relations during the relevant period. Final Answer: Hence, the state government that barred the CBI from entering the state without prior approval by withdrawing general consent was Andhra Pradesh.

Basic General Knowledge Questions