Question 1

The Himalayas are an example of which type of mountains in physical geography?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Himalayas are one of the most prominent and well studied mountain ranges in the world, stretching across India, Nepal, Bhutan, Pakistan and China. In basic physical geography and general knowledge, students are often asked to classify the Himalayas according to the main types of mountains found on Earth. This question checks whether the learner can connect the Himalayas with the correct geomorphological process that created them, which is essential for understanding plate tectonics and mountain building processes in geography. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question refers to the Himalayas as a major mountain range in Asia. - The learner must identify the correct category of mountains from the common classifications used in geography. - The options include fold mountains, block mountains, ancient mountains and residual mountains. - Standard school and competitive exam geography classifications are assumed. Concept / Approach: Mountains are commonly classified into several types based on how they are formed. The main categories include fold mountains, block mountains, volcanic mountains and residual or relict mountains. Fold mountains are created when large sections of the Earth's crust are pushed together and crumpled, usually by the collision of tectonic plates. The Himalayas formed when the Indian plate collided with the Eurasian plate. This collision compressed and folded layers of sedimentary rocks, pushing them upwards into very high peaks. Therefore, the Himalayas are the classic and most frequently cited example of young fold mountains in physical geography. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the main mountain types: fold mountains, block mountains, residual mountains and others such as volcanic mountains. Step 2: Remember that fold mountains are formed by compression and folding of rock strata during plate collision. Step 3: Note that the Himalayas were formed when the Indian tectonic plate collided with the Eurasian plate, causing intense folding. Step 4: Recognise that geography textbooks refer to the Himalayas as young fold mountains, because they are geologically recent and still rising. Step 5: Match this understanding with the options and select “Fold mountains” as the correct classification. Verification / Alternative check: A quick way to verify is to recall standard examples given for each mountain type. Fold mountains include the Himalayas, the Alps, the Rockies and the Andes. Block mountains include regions like the Vosges and Black Forest in Europe. Residual or relict mountains are low, worn down remnants like the Aravalli range in India. Since the Himalayas are always grouped with fold mountain examples in school geography, the classification as fold mountains is confirmed. Why Other Options Are Wrong: - Block mountains: These form when blocks of the Earth's crust move up or down along faults. The Himalayas are not fault block mountains, so this option is incorrect. - Residual mountains: These are old, heavily eroded mountains that remain after long weathering. The Himalayas are young and very high, not residual, so this is incorrect. - Ancient mountains: While some parts of the Himalayas contain older rocks, the mountain system itself is geologically young and formed by folding, so calling them ancient mountains is misleading for classification purposes. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse old, low mountain ranges like the Aravallis with the Himalayas and assume that height alone determines age. Another common mistake is mixing up block mountains and fold mountains because both are uplifted regions of crust. Learners should focus on the process of formation: compression and folding of rock layers in the case of fold mountains, versus faulting and block movement in the case of block mountains. Remembering standard textbook phrases such as “Himalayas are young fold mountains” helps avoid these errors in competitive exams. Final Answer: The Himalayas are an example of fold mountains in physical geography.

Question 2

Which is the largest irrigation canal in India in terms of length and command area?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Irrigation canals are extremely important for Indian agriculture, especially in arid and semi arid regions where rainfall is low and uncertain. General knowledge and geography questions often ask about the largest or longest irrigation canals in India. This question focuses on identifying the canal that is considered the largest in the country in terms of its length and the vast command area it irrigates. Knowing this fact helps students understand major water resource projects and their regional impact on agriculture and rural development. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question asks for the largest irrigation canal in India. - Options include Yamuna Canal, Indira Gandhi Canal, Sirhind Canal and Upper Bari Doab Canal. - The term largest refers to overall scale, length and command area for irrigation. - Standard Indian geography references are assumed for the answer. Concept / Approach: The Indira Gandhi Canal, earlier known as the Rajasthan Canal, is one of the biggest irrigation projects in India. It carries water from the Sutlej and Beas rivers, through the Harike Barrage on the Sutlej Beas confluence, deep into the Thar Desert of Rajasthan. The canal system is very long and has a huge command area that has transformed large parts of north western Rajasthan from desert to irrigated farmland. In Indian geography, it is widely recognised as the largest irrigation canal project in the country, making it a popular fact for competitive exams and general knowledge tests. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the major irrigation canals in India and their locations. Step 2: Note that the Indira Gandhi Canal is associated with Rajasthan and the Thar Desert and is known for its great length and large command area. Step 3: Compare it with the Yamuna Canal, Sirhind Canal and Upper Bari Doab Canal, which are important but smaller in overall reach and scale. Step 4: Use standard textbook and exam preparation knowledge that labels the Indira Gandhi Canal as the largest irrigation canal project in India. Step 5: Select “Indira Gandhi Canal” as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: As a quick cross check, think about what each canal is famous for. The Sirhind Canal and Upper Bari Doab Canal are significant canals in the Punjab region, and the Yamuna Canal system is important for irrigation in parts of north India, but none of them are described in school level geography as the largest single irrigation canal project. Almost every Indian geography text highlights the Indira Gandhi Canal as a landmark project for desert irrigation and calls it the largest irrigation canal in the country. This repeated emphasis confirms that Indira Gandhi Canal is the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: - Yamuna Canal: An important system for irrigation from the Yamuna River, but not the largest canal project in India. - Sirhind Canal: A major canal from the Sutlej in Punjab, but smaller in reach than the Indira Gandhi Canal. - Upper Bari Doab Canal: Historically important for irrigation in Punjab, but again not considered the largest canal system in the country. Common Pitfalls: Candidates may confuse the term largest with the oldest or historically famous canals. Some may pick Sirhind Canal or Upper Bari Doab Canal simply because they have heard those names in history or geography. Others may think of the Yamuna Canal because the Yamuna is a prominent river. The key is to focus on the specific phrase “largest irrigation canal” and recall how exam oriented books always highlight the Indira Gandhi Canal as the biggest project designed to bring river water into the desert areas of Rajasthan. Final Answer: The largest irrigation canal in India is the Indira Gandhi Canal.

Question 3

Which one of the following countries is known as one of the leading producers of asbestos in the world?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Asbestos is a group of naturally occurring fibrous minerals that were widely used for insulation, fire resistance and construction materials before health risks became well known. General knowledge questions sometimes ask candidates to identify major producers of asbestos, as this links natural resources with industrial patterns and global trade. This question tests awareness of which country is recognised as one of the main producers of asbestos on the world stage, based on standard geography and general knowledge references. Given Data / Assumptions: - The focus is on global production of asbestos as a mineral resource. - The options given are Australia, Russia, Canada and the United States of America. - The question uses the phrase “leading producers”, which refers to top ranking countries in asbestos output. - Standard school and competitive exam data about major producers is assumed. Concept / Approach: Historically, countries like Russia, Canada, China and Kazakhstan have been among the top producers of asbestos. Canada was once very prominent, but in many exam oriented lists, Russia is highlighted as the major producer of asbestos. Many general knowledge sources identify Russia as the leading or one of the leading producers in more recent data. The United States of America and Australia are not commonly listed as top producers in comparison to Russia and some other countries. Therefore, among the given options, Russia best fits the description of a leading asbestos producing country. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the list of major asbestos producing countries from geography or general knowledge study. Step 2: Identify that Russia is consistently mentioned as a very large producer of asbestos ore. Step 3: Remember that Canada was historically important, but its production has declined and regulatory restrictions have increased over time. Step 4: Note that Australia and the United States of America are not usually highlighted as top global producers in modern exam material. Step 5: Conclude that Russia is the most appropriate answer among the provided choices. Verification / Alternative check: A useful verification method is to think in terms of association. Whenever asbestos mining is discussed in current affairs or environmental debates, Russia is frequently named as a major producer. General knowledge books that list important minerals and producing countries nearly always match asbestos with Russia in their example tables. While Canada and a few other countries also appear, recent exam oriented summaries describe Russia as a leading or top producer, so choosing Russia is consistent with widely used reference material. Why Other Options Are Wrong: - Australia: Known more for minerals like iron ore, coal and bauxite. It is not commonly cited as a leading asbestos producer in exam references. - Canada: Historically important as an asbestos producer, but in many modern GK compilations Russia stands out more clearly as the leading producer, so Canada is not the best answer here. - United States of America: Known for many industrial activities, but is not typically listed as a leading asbestos producing nation in standard geography notes. Common Pitfalls: Students may remember old information about Canadian asbestos mines and assume Canada is always the correct answer whenever asbestos is mentioned. Others might guess Australia or the United States of America simply because they are large industrial economies. To avoid such errors, learners should revise up to date lists of major mineral producers and note that Russia is strongly associated with asbestos production in many competitive exam guides. Reading comparative tables of “mineral versus major producers” in geography books is a good way to build this type of factual memory. Final Answer: One of the leading producers of asbestos in the world is Russia.

Question 4

According to the Reserve Bank of India, which bank became the third lender to be classified as a Domestic Systemically Important Bank (D-SIB)?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) designates certain large banks as Domestic Systemically Important Banks, often abbreviated as D-SIBs. These institutions are considered so important to the financial system that their distress or failure could have significant negative effects on the wider economy. General knowledge and banking awareness questions often check whether candidates know which banks are on this list and in what order they were added. This question asks specifically which bank became the third one to receive the D-SIB classification from the RBI. Given Data / Assumptions: - The context is the RBI's list of Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs). - State Bank of India (SBI) and ICICI Bank were the first two banks on the D-SIB list. - The question focuses on the third bank added to this category. - The options are ICICI Bank, SBI, HDFC Bank and Axis Bank. Concept / Approach: D-SIBs are sometimes referred to as too big to fail banks because their smooth functioning is critical to the stability of the domestic financial system. The RBI introduced this framework in line with global recommendations. Initially, the RBI identified SBI and ICICI Bank as D-SIBs. Later, HDFC Bank was added as the third bank to the list, reflecting its large size, extensive customer base and significant role in the Indian banking sector. Therefore, HDFC Bank is correctly recognised as the third bank to receive D-SIB status. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that State Bank of India and ICICI Bank were the first two banks categorised as D-SIBs in India. Step 2: Remember that HDFC Bank is also a very large private sector bank with a wide impact on the financial system. Step 3: Note that RBI later added HDFC Bank to the list, making it the third Domestic Systemically Important Bank. Step 4: Evaluate the options and see that ICICI Bank and SBI were already on the list, so they cannot be the third. Step 5: Conclude that HDFC Bank is the correct answer, while Axis Bank has not been officially designated as a D-SIB in the same way. Verification / Alternative check: A practical way to verify this memory is to recall commonly used banking awareness summaries. Many exam preparation books and articles explicitly state that after SBI and ICICI Bank, HDFC Bank became the third bank to be tagged as a Domestic Systemically Important Bank by the RBI. This sequence is often highlighted in tabular form under the heading of D-SIBs, so students who have read those tables will quickly recognise HDFC Bank as the correct option. Why Other Options Are Wrong: - ICICI Bank: It was one of the first two banks designated as a D-SIB, so it cannot be the third bank added to the list. - State Bank of India (SBI): SBI is also in the original group of D-SIBs and is often mentioned first due to its size, so it is not the third addition. - Axis Bank: A major private sector bank, but it has not been officially identified as one of the first three D-SIBs by the RBI in the way HDFC Bank has been. Common Pitfalls: Because SBI and ICICI Bank are so frequently mentioned along with the D-SIB concept, some candidates mistakenly pick one of them when asked about the third bank. Another confusion arises from mixing up large private sector banks like Axis Bank and HDFC Bank. To avoid errors, learners should memorise the simple sequence: first SBI and ICICI Bank, then HDFC Bank as the third D-SIB. Keeping a small note of key financial sector lists, such as D-SIBs, payment banks and small finance banks, can help in quick revision before exams. Final Answer: The third bank classified by the RBI as a Domestic Systemically Important Bank is HDFC Bank.

Question 5

Which bank signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with POORTI Agri Services Pvt. Ltd. to help farmers purchase agricultural inputs such as fertilizers, pesticides and seeds?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Indian banks increasingly partner with agri technology platforms and service providers to improve access to agricultural inputs and credit for farmers. Such collaborations are an important part of rural development and financial inclusion. This question focuses on a specific agreement in which a bank joined hands with POORTI Agri Services Pvt. Ltd., a platform that enables farmers to order farm inputs online. Knowing which bank signed this Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) helps candidates link banking awareness with agriculture and digital rural services. Given Data / Assumptions: - The MoU is between a bank and POORTI Agri Services Pvt. Ltd. - The purpose is to enable farmers to buy inputs like fertilizers, pesticides and seeds. - Options include State Bank of India, Central Bank of India, Bank of Baroda and Punjab National Bank. - Standard banking current affairs information is assumed. Concept / Approach: The partnership between a bank and POORTI Agri Services Pvt. Ltd. aims to give farmers easier access to quality agricultural inputs by combining finance and an online ordering platform. In this specific case, Bank of Baroda entered into a Memorandum of Understanding with POORTI. The idea was to offer credit support and digital payment options to farmers using the POORTI platform so they could purchase seeds, fertilizers and other inputs conveniently. Therefore, among the listed options, Bank of Baroda is the correct answer. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall relevant banking current affairs related to agriculture and digital platforms. Step 2: Identify that POORTI Agri Services Pvt. Ltd. is linked with an MoU involving Bank of Baroda. Step 3: Eliminate options where there is no known partnership of this specific type with POORTI, such as Central Bank of India or Punjab National Bank in this context. Step 4: Note that although State Bank of India has many rural initiatives, the specific POORTI MoU is associated with Bank of Baroda. Step 5: Select “Bank of Baroda” as the correct option. Verification / Alternative check: To verify this, recall that competitive exam magazines and banking awareness notes often mention a headline similar to “Bank of Baroda signs MoU with POORTI Agri Services to help farmers purchase farm inputs.” This exact pairing of names makes it easier to remember. If a learner has revised banking news summaries, the name Bank of Baroda will stand out when POORTI is mentioned, confirming that this is the correct match. Why Other Options Are Wrong: - State Bank of India: While SBI is very active in the agricultural sector, it was not the bank mentioned in connection with the POORTI Agri Services MoU in this particular news item. - Central Bank of India: Not associated with the specific POORTI collaboration referenced in the question, so this choice would be incorrect. - Punjab National Bank: Also involved in many rural finance initiatives, but the highlighted MoU with POORTI was signed by Bank of Baroda, not PNB. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes guess State Bank of India whenever they see any rural or agricultural initiative, because SBI is the largest public sector bank. While SBI does lead many schemes, other public sector banks like Bank of Baroda, Punjab National Bank and others also sign specific MoUs. It is important to connect the correct pairings: POORTI with Bank of Baroda in this instance. Keeping a small table of “bank plus partner” combinations during exam preparation can significantly reduce such confusion in current affairs questions. Final Answer: The bank that signed an MoU with POORTI Agri Services Pvt. Ltd. for enabling farmers to purchase agricultural inputs is Bank of Baroda.

Question 6

In India, the Economic Survey that reviews the state of the economy is prepared by which institution in the Ministry of Finance?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Economic Survey of India is a key official document released every year just before the Union Budget. It provides a detailed review of how the economy performed during the previous year and highlights major policy challenges and reform options. Understanding who prepares this document is important for general knowledge, economics and civil services preparation. This question asks candidates to identify the specific institution within the Ministry of Finance that is responsible for preparing the Economic Survey. Given Data / Assumptions: - The focus is on the Economic Survey of India. - It is prepared within the Ministry of Finance at the Union government level. - Options are Department of Economic Affairs, Central Statistical Office, National Sample Survey Office and Office of the Economic Adviser. - Standard Indian polity and economics facts are assumed. Concept / Approach: The Economic Survey is prepared under the guidance of the Chief Economic Adviser to the Government of India. The Chief Economic Adviser works within the Department of Economic Affairs in the Ministry of Finance. While other statistical and advisory bodies provide data and support, the formal responsibility for preparing the Economic Survey lies with the Department of Economic Affairs. This document analyses macroeconomic trends, sector wise performance and policy issues, and it serves as an important input for budget making and public debate. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Chief Economic Adviser is associated with the Ministry of Finance. Step 2: Remember that the Chief Economic Adviser and the team operate within the Department of Economic Affairs. Step 3: Recognise that the Economic Survey is described as being prepared by the Ministry of Finance under the Department of Economic Affairs. Step 4: Compare this with the roles of CSO and NSSO, which mainly handle statistics and surveys, but are not officially credited as the primary authors of the Economic Survey. Step 5: Select “Department of Economic Affairs” as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: In many introductions to the Economic Survey, the first page or preface often states that the survey has been prepared by the Economic Division of the Department of Economic Affairs under the overall guidance of the Chief Economic Adviser. Exam preparation books on Indian economy also repeat this fact. Therefore, when candidates see these options, they should link the Economic Survey directly with the Department of Economic Affairs in the Ministry of Finance, not with purely statistical offices like CSO or NSSO. Why Other Options Are Wrong: - Central Statistical Office (CSO): Plays a crucial role in compiling national accounts and statistical data, but it does not formally prepare the Economic Survey document itself. - National Sample Survey Office (NSSO): Conducts large scale sample surveys on various socio economic issues, yet it is not the official author of the Economic Survey. - Office of the Economic Adviser: This office is associated more with the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and prepares indices like the Wholesale Price Index, not the overall Economic Survey of India. Common Pitfalls: Because the Economic Survey is full of statistics, some students think that the main statistical agencies like CSO or NSSO must prepare it. However, those agencies primarily provide data. The actual analysis, structure, narrative and official publication are handled by the Department of Economic Affairs under the leadership of the Chief Economic Adviser. To avoid confusion, learners should always connect the Economic Survey with the Ministry of Finance and specifically with the Department of Economic Affairs rather than with the broader statistical machinery. Final Answer: The Economic Survey of India is prepared by the Department of Economic Affairs in the Ministry of Finance.

Question 7

World Braille Day is observed internationally on which date every year to honour the contribution of Louis Braille and promote the rights of persons with visual impairment?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: World Braille Day is an important international observance that highlights the significance of Braille as a means of communication and education for people with visual impairment. It honours the contribution of Louis Braille, who developed the Braille system of raised dots, and it raises awareness about the rights of persons who are blind or have low vision. Many general knowledge and current affairs exams ask about the exact date on which World Braille Day is celebrated each year. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question asks for the specific date of World Braille Day. - The options are January 2, January 3, January 4 and January 5. - The observance is linked to the birth date of Louis Braille. - International calendars and United Nations observances are the reference context. Concept / Approach: World Braille Day is observed on the birth anniversary of Louis Braille, the inventor of the Braille script. Louis Braille was born on 4 January 1809. To honour his work and to emphasise the importance of accessible formats for persons with visual impairment, this date was chosen as World Braille Day. The day is used to discuss inclusive education, accessible information and the role of Braille in ensuring that visually impaired persons enjoy their full human rights and freedoms. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that World Braille Day is connected to the birth anniversary of Louis Braille. Step 2: Remember that Louis Braille was born on 4 January, which is why this date was selected. Step 3: Look at the options and identify January 4 as the matching date. Step 4: Eliminate January 2, 3 and 5, as they do not correspond to the accepted international date for this observance. Step 5: Choose “January 4” with confidence as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Learners can verify this by recalling that many news articles, social media posts and government messages on 4 January specifically refer to World Braille Day and to the life of Louis Braille. United Nations related information and disability rights organisations also refer to 4 January as the official date. Since this is a recurring global observance, once a student associates 4 January with World Braille Day, it becomes easy to remember for future exams. Why Other Options Are Wrong: - January 2: There is no widely recognised international observance named World Braille Day on this date. - January 3: This date is close to the correct one, which may confuse candidates, but the official observance is on 4 January, not 3 January. - January 5: Also incorrect, since major references clearly state that World Braille Day is 4 January. Common Pitfalls: Because all options fall early in the same month, candidates may mix up the dates if they rely only on vague memory. Some may think of 3 January or 5 January simply because they remember the observance as being in the first week of January. To avoid such confusion, learners should link the date strongly with the person. Remember: Louis Braille was born on 4 January, and the day chosen to celebrate his legacy is 4 January, World Braille Day. Creating a small mental association such as “Braille and four raised dots point to 4 January” may also help some students remember the correct date. Final Answer: World Braille Day is observed every year on January 4.

Question 8

Which cryptocurrency dealer launched India's first mobile Bitcoin trading app for transacting in virtual currencies?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: With the growth of digital currencies, several platforms have emerged that allow users to buy and sell cryptocurrencies such as Bitcoin. In India, the launch of the first mobile Bitcoin trading app was a notable development in the virtual currency ecosystem. General knowledge and banking awareness questions sometimes ask which company or exchange introduced this type of service. This question tests recognition of the name of the cryptocurrency dealer that launched India's first mobile Bitcoin trading app. Given Data / Assumptions: - The focus is on India's first mobile Bitcoin trading app. - The app allows users to transact in virtual currencies using a mobile device. - Options are EtherDelta Exchange, BitFin Exchange, Venus Exchange and Pluto Exchange. - The event is related to cryptocurrency trading in the Indian context. Concept / Approach: India's first mobile app dedicated to Bitcoin trading was launched by Pluto Exchange. The service aimed to make it easier for users to buy, sell and store Bitcoin using a smartphone interface, at a time when awareness about virtual currencies was increasing. The name Pluto Exchange became associated in news reports with this first of its kind mobile Bitcoin trading app in India. Therefore, among the given choices, Pluto Exchange is the correct answer. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall news and current affairs related to the early days of cryptocurrency trading apps in India. Step 2: Identify that Pluto Exchange was highlighted in media as launching India's first mobile Bitcoin trading application. Step 3: Compare the other options and note that EtherDelta is more often associated with a decentralised exchange outside the specific Indian context. Step 4: Recognise that BitFin Exchange and Venus Exchange are not widely reported as being the first Indian mobile Bitcoin trading app providers. Step 5: Choose “Pluto Exchange” as the correct option. Verification / Alternative check: Students who read newspapers or exam magazines at the time this event was reported may remember headlines stating that Pluto Exchange, an Indian cryptocurrency dealer, launched a mobile app for Bitcoin trading. This is often mentioned in sections dealing with fintech innovations, digital payments and virtual currencies. A quick mental review of such headlines and summaries confirms that Pluto Exchange is the exchange name linked with this milestone in India. Why Other Options Are Wrong: - EtherDelta Exchange: Known internationally as a decentralised exchange for tokens, not identified in Indian news as launching India's first mobile Bitcoin app. - BitFin Exchange: Not the firm that received attention in India as the first to launch a mobile Bitcoin trading application, so this choice does not match the specific event in the question. - Venus Exchange: Similarly, there is no widely reported association between this name and India's first mobile Bitcoin trading app. Common Pitfalls: Because many cryptocurrency platforms have futuristic or space related names, such as Pluto or Venus, candidates may confuse them. Additionally, some test takers may not follow cryptocurrency news closely and may try to guess based on how the name sounds. To reduce errors, learners should pay attention to major firsts in digital finance and virtual currencies, noting simple pairs like “Pluto Exchange – first Indian mobile Bitcoin trading app.” Keeping a short list of such fintech milestones can help significantly in current affairs sections of competitive exams. Final Answer: The cryptocurrency dealer that launched India's first mobile Bitcoin trading app is Pluto Exchange.

Question 9

Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the 60 megawatt Tuirial Hydroelectric Power Project in which Indian state?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Hydroelectric power projects are important components of India's energy mix, particularly in the north eastern region where river systems and hilly terrain provide significant potential. The Tuirial Hydroelectric Power Project is a 60 megawatt project that has featured in news related to regional development and power generation. General knowledge and current affairs questions often ask in which state a notable project is located, as this tests both geographic and infrastructural awareness. Given Data / Assumptions: - The project in question is the 60 megawatt Tuirial Hydroelectric Power Project. - It was inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. - Options for the state location are Sikkim, Assam, Meghalaya and Mizoram. - The learner is expected to connect the project with its correct state in the north east of India. Concept / Approach: The Tuirial Hydroelectric Power Project is located in the state of Mizoram. It is built on the Tuirial River and aims to improve power availability in Mizoram and the broader north eastern region. The project has been highlighted as an important step towards making the region more self reliant in electricity and supporting economic growth. Therefore, among the given options, Mizoram is the correct answer. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall news reports and exam notes that mention the Tuirial Hydroelectric Project and its inauguration by the Prime Minister. Step 2: Note that the name “Tuirial” is associated with a river in Mizoram. Step 3: Compare the options: Sikkim, Assam, Meghalaya and Mizoram are all in the north east, but only Mizoram is consistently linked to this project. Step 4: Eliminate Sikkim, Assam and Meghalaya, which have their own hydro projects but not the Tuirial project. Step 5: Select “Mizoram” as the state where the 60 megawatt Tuirial Hydroelectric Power Project is constructed. Verification / Alternative check: Many competitive exam capsules summarise the project as “60 megawatt Tuirial Hydro Power Project in Mizoram inaugurated by the Prime Minister.” This combination of number, name and state makes it easier to memorise. Also, when studying north eastern states, geography sources often mention hydropower potential and highlight Tuirial as a key project for Mizoram. Recalling these linked facts confirms that Mizoram is the correct option. Why Other Options Are Wrong: - Sikkim: Has several hydroelectric projects on the Teesta and other rivers, but Tuirial is not located there. - Assam: Important for river systems like the Brahmaputra and many power projects, yet Tuirial Hydroelectric Power Project is not identified with Assam. - Meghalaya: Also has hydro potential, but this particular 60 megawatt Tuirial project is not sited in Meghalaya. Common Pitfalls: Because all options are north eastern states, candidates sometimes rely on guesswork. They might choose Assam due to its larger size or Sikkim because it is known for hydropower. To avoid such guesses, it is useful to remember clear associations: Tuirial is linked to Mizoram, Teesta projects are linked to Sikkim, and big Brahmaputra projects are linked to Assam and Arunachal Pradesh. Building such mental maps of projects and states helps in answering infrastructure and current affairs questions confidently. Final Answer: The 60 megawatt Tuirial Hydroelectric Power Project is located in Mizoram.

Question 10

Who was appointed as the first Chairman of the National Anti-Profiteering Authority (NAPA) constituted under the Goods and Services Tax (GST) framework in India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: With the introduction of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India, the government created the National Anti-Profiteering Authority, often abbreviated as NAPA or NAAP, to ensure that businesses pass on the benefits of tax rate cuts or input tax credit to consumers. This authority has the power to examine undue profiteering and order corrective measures. General knowledge and commerce related exams often ask who was appointed as the first Chairman of this authority, since it marks an important institution in the GST regime. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question concerns the National Anti-Profiteering Authority created under GST. - It asks specifically for the first Chairman of this authority. - Options include BN Sharma, Ansul Gupta, Shravan Choudhary and NK Sharma. - Standard GST and current affairs information is assumed. Concept / Approach: The National Anti-Profiteering Authority was set up to deal with complaints that businesses were not passing on GST related benefits to consumers. The government appointed senior civil servant B N Sharma, a former bureaucrat associated with indirect tax administration, as the first Chairman of this authority. His name appears in many GST related news articles and exam notes as the inaugural head of the National Anti-Profiteering Authority, making this a straightforward recall question for students who have followed GST developments. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the creation of the National Anti-Profiteering Authority to monitor profiteering under GST. Step 2: Remember that a senior officer from the Indian Administrative Service, B N Sharma, was chosen to lead the authority as its first Chairman. Step 3: Look at the options and identify the exact name “BN Sharma.” Step 4: Eliminate the other names, which do not match common current affairs references for the first Chairman of this authority. Step 5: Select “BN Sharma” as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: While revising GST related current affairs, many exam oriented books present a summary list of important positions such as Chairperson of the GST Council (the Union Finance Minister) and Chairman of NAPA. In those lists, B N Sharma is clearly mentioned as the first Chairman of the National Anti-Profiteering Authority. Recalling this list or any news article that introduced the authority will quickly confirm his name as the correct choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: - Ansul Gupta: Not known in standard GST current affairs as the Chairman of the National Anti-Profiteering Authority, so this option is incorrect. - Shravan Choudhary: Also not associated with the post of first Chairman of NAPA in official announcements or exam references. - NK Sharma: The similarity of the surname to B N Sharma may confuse some candidates, but N K Sharma is not the name cited in news reports for this particular appointment. Common Pitfalls: Because more than one option includes the surname Sharma, there is a risk that candidates will confuse the initials and select the wrong person. Another mistake is to guess based solely on how official a name sounds. To avoid these pitfalls, learners should memorise complete names with initials as they appear in exam capsules, for example “B N Sharma – first Chairman of National Anti-Profiteering Authority under GST.” Writing a short list of such appointments and revising it regularly before exams is a very effective strategy. Final Answer: The first Chairman of the National Anti-Profiteering Authority under GST was BN Sharma.

Question 11

According to the World Inequality Report 2018 released by the World Inequality Lab in Paris, which of the following countries listed here shows the highest level of income inequality?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Income inequality refers to how unevenly income is distributed among individuals or households within a country. The World Inequality Report 2018, prepared by the World Inequality Lab based in Paris, analyses how income and wealth are shared across different regions and countries. For general knowledge and economics oriented exams, questions may ask which country has a particularly high level of inequality according to such reports. This question focuses on comparing four South Asian and Asian countries mentioned in the options and identifying which one shows the highest income inequality according to the report. Given Data / Assumptions: - The source is the World Inequality Report 2018 from the World Inequality Lab. - The question restricts the comparison to Pakistan, Bangladesh, India and China. - We are asked to pick the country with the highest income inequality among these four. - Standard interpretations of the report used in exam material are assumed. Concept / Approach: The World Inequality Report 2018 highlights that the share of national income going to the top income groups has increased in many countries. Among large economies, India is often cited as having very high levels of income inequality, with the top 10 percent and especially the top 1 percent capturing a large share of total income. In South Asia, this report and related analyses point out that India displays more pronounced inequality than neighbours like Pakistan and Bangladesh, and it is frequently described as one of the most unequal countries among major economies. Therefore, within the set of four options provided, India is identified as having the highest income inequality in the context of the report. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall key messages from the World Inequality Report 2018, especially regarding India. Step 2: Note that the report emphasises a strong rise in income concentration at the top in India. Step 3: Compare India with Pakistan and Bangladesh, where inequality is high but not highlighted to the same extent in the report for global comparisons. Step 4: Compare India with China, where inequality is also serious, yet exam oriented summaries often single out India as more unequal among the major economies in this region. Step 5: Conclude that among the listed options, India is the appropriate answer. Verification / Alternative check: Many newspapers and analysis pieces that discussed the World Inequality Report 2018 carried headlines such as “India among countries with highest income inequality” or “India has extremely high income inequality among major economies.” Exam preparation guides and current affairs magazines summarised this finding by stating that the report shows India with very high income inequality. When options are limited to Pakistan, Bangladesh, India and China, these summaries clearly support choosing India as the country displaying the highest inequality in this context. Why Other Options Are Wrong: - Pakistan: Although Pakistan faces many economic challenges, the World Inequality Report 2018 does not single it out as having higher inequality than India when both are discussed together in exam oriented summaries. - Bangladesh: Has its own inequality concerns, but again, the focus in commentary around the report in South Asia was more on India as a striking case of high income concentration. - China: Income inequality in China is also relatively high, yet several discussions of the report emphasise that India exhibits very sharp inequality levels, particularly among large democracies, making China a less suitable choice among these options. Common Pitfalls: Students may overthink the question by considering broader debates about inequality in different countries, instead of focusing on how the World Inequality Report 2018 was presented in exam material. Others may guess China because of rapid growth and regional disparities there. To avoid errors, learners should remember that competitive exam capsules often summarised the report with a clear statement that India shows very high income inequality among large economies. Associating the phrase “World Inequality Report 2018” with “India has very high income inequality” is a helpful memory aid. Final Answer: According to the World Inequality Report 2018, the country with the highest income inequality among the options listed is India.

Question 12

The Wassenaar Arrangement has decided to admit India as a new member. Which of the following statements correctly describes the nature and purpose of the Wassenaar Arrangement?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Wassenaar Arrangement is one of several international export control regimes that aim to regulate the transfer of sensitive items, including conventional weapons and dual use goods and technologies that can have both civilian and military applications. When India was admitted as a member, it became an important development in India's integration into global non proliferation and export control frameworks. General knowledge questions often test whether candidates know what the Wassenaar Arrangement actually is and what its main objectives are. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question refers to the Wassenaar Arrangement and India's admission as a member. - Statements include: that it is a non government organisation, that it is a multilateral export control regime and that it promotes transparency and responsibility in transfers of conventional arms and dual use goods and technologies. - Options allow selection of individual statements or the combination of B and C. Concept / Approach: The Wassenaar Arrangement on Export Controls for Conventional Arms and Dual Use Goods and Technologies is a multilateral export control regime. It is not a non government organisation. Member states agree to apply common guidelines for national export controls so that transfers of certain sensitive items do not lead to destabilising accumulations of arms or contribute to proliferation. A central aim of the arrangement is to promote transparency and greater responsibility in the transfer of conventional arms and dual use items. Therefore, statement B correctly identifies it as a multilateral export control regime, and statement C correctly describes its purpose. Statement A, on the other hand, is not correct. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Wassenaar Arrangement is an international framework dealing with export controls. Step 2: Recognise that it is described as a multilateral export control regime, which matches statement B. Step 3: Remember that the arrangement aims to promote transparency and responsibility in transfers of conventional arms and dual use goods and technologies, which is exactly what statement C says. Step 4: Understand that it is not a typical non government organisation; rather, it is an arrangement between participating states, so statement A is incorrect. Step 5: Conclude that both B and C are correct, and select the option that includes both of them. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, think of other similar regimes like the Nuclear Suppliers Group or the Australia Group, which are also described as multilateral export control regimes, not as non government organisations. Official descriptions of the Wassenaar Arrangement talk about participating states, export control lists and shared guidelines. They specifically mention transparency and responsibility as objectives. Current affairs and international relations notes repeat that India joining the Wassenaar Arrangement helps it align with global export control standards for arms and dual use items. These points clearly support both statements B and C while rejecting statement A. Why Other Options Are Wrong: - It is a non government organisation: This is incorrect because the Wassenaar Arrangement is an intergovernmental export control framework, not a non profit or private organisation. - It is a multilateral export control regime: This by itself is true but does not fully capture the purpose described in option C, and the question offers a more complete correct option including both B and C. - It promotes transparency and greater responsibility in the transfer of conventional arms and dual use goods and technologies: This statement is correct but, again, the best and most complete answer is the combined option that includes both its nature and purpose. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may be tempted to choose only statement B because they remember that the Wassenaar Arrangement is a multilateral export control regime, without paying attention to the full objective described in statement C. Others may be confused by the term arrangement and think it is a non government organisation. To avoid mistakes, learners should remember two key phrases together: “multilateral export control regime” and “promotes transparency and responsibility in the transfer of conventional arms and dual use goods and technologies.” When both phrases appear in the options, the combined choice is usually the most accurate description. Final Answer: The Wassenaar Arrangement is a multilateral export control regime that promotes transparency and greater responsibility in the transfer of conventional arms and dual use goods and technologies, so both statements B and C are correct.

Question 13

Under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) in India, the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) handles cases using which of the following forums?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) is a major reform in India that provides a unified process for resolving insolvency and bankruptcy for companies, limited liability partnerships and individuals. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) is the regulator that oversees insolvency professionals and related processes. However, the actual adjudication of cases happens through specific tribunals. This question checks whether candidates know which forums are used for handling insolvency cases under the IBC framework. Given Data / Assumptions: - The focus is on the tribunals used under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code in India. - The question links these forums to the work of the IBBI and the insolvency process. - Options include the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT), Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT), Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) and a combined option of only a and b. - Standard knowledge of IBC structure and adjudicating authorities is assumed. Concept / Approach: Under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, corporate insolvency resolution processes for companies and limited liability partnerships are handled by the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT). Insolvency and bankruptcy cases relating to individuals and partnership firms are handled by the Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT). The Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) is not an IBC adjudicating authority; it deals mainly with appeals against orders passed by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) or related to securities laws. Therefore, the correct combination of forums used under the IBC is NCLT and DRT only. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that corporate insolvency cases under the IBC go to the National Company Law Tribunal. Step 2: Remember that individual and partnership insolvency cases go to the Debt Recovery Tribunal. Step 3: Recognise that the Securities Appellate Tribunal deals with securities law and not directly with IBC resolution processes. Step 4: Match this understanding with the options and see that NCLT and DRT are the relevant forums. Step 5: Select the option “Only a and b” which includes NCLT and DRT but excludes SAT. Verification / Alternative check: Standard summaries of the IBC always explain that NCLT acts as the adjudicating authority for corporate persons, while DRT acts as the adjudicating authority for individuals and partnership firms. These points are usually presented in a simple table in exam guides. SAT appears in separate sections covering capital markets and SEBI related matters. Recalling these basic structures confirms that only NCLT and DRT are the correct tribunals in the context of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code. Why Other Options Are Wrong: - National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) alone: While NCLT is correct, mentioning it alone ignores the role of DRT for non corporate persons, so it is incomplete. - Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT) alone: This would ignore the crucial role of NCLT in corporate insolvency cases, so it is also incomplete. - Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT): Not an IBC adjudicating authority. It handles appeals related to securities laws and SEBI orders, so including it with IBC forums would be incorrect. Common Pitfalls: The main confusion arises because students encounter several specialised tribunals during their preparation, such as NCLT, DRT, SAT and others. Some may wrongly think that SAT is involved in all financial sector disputes. To avoid such mix ups, learners should link each tribunal with its primary area: NCLT with companies law and corporate insolvency, DRT with recovery and insolvency for individuals and firms, and SAT with securities and SEBI matters. Creating a small chart matching tribunals to subject areas will significantly reduce these errors in the exam hall. Final Answer: Under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, the correct forums used are the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) and the Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT), so the correct option is only a and b.

Question 14

Among the following sectors, which one produces the largest quantity of solid waste worldwide?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Solid waste management is a major environmental and public health challenge. Different sectors of the economy generate solid waste in varying amounts, including agriculture, industry, energy production and packaging. In many basic environmental studies and geography texts, students are taught which sectors contribute the most to overall solid waste generation. This question asks which of the listed sectors produces the largest quantity of solid waste, a concept that helps learners understand the scale of agricultural residues and by products compared to other forms of waste. Given Data / Assumptions: - The sectors listed are agriculture, nuclear power plants, manufacturing industry and the packaging industry. - Solid waste here refers to physical, non gaseous waste materials generated by human activities. - The question seeks the sector that produces the largest quantity of solid waste by mass. - Standard school level environmental science references are assumed. Concept / Approach: Agriculture generates vast amounts of solid waste in the form of crop residues, animal manure, agro processing waste and other organic materials. When measured by weight and volume on a global scale, agricultural waste usually exceeds solid waste from most industrial and urban sectors. Nuclear power plants generate highly hazardous waste, but the volume is relatively small and carefully managed. The manufacturing and packaging industries do generate important quantities of solid waste, especially in urban areas, but in basic environmental education, agriculture is commonly identified as the sector that produces the largest overall mass of solid waste due to the sheer scale of farming activities worldwide. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: List the types of waste generated by each sector: agriculture produces crop residues and animal waste, nuclear plants produce radioactive waste, manufacturing creates industrial waste and packaging produces packaging materials like plastics, paper and metal. Step 2: Compare the total mass of waste globally and recall that crop residues alone amount to billions of tonnes per year. Step 3: Note that although nuclear waste is dangerous, its volume is very small and carefully controlled. Step 4: Recognise that urban solid waste from packaging and manufacturing is significant but still smaller than the combined agricultural residues on a global basis. Step 5: Conclude that agriculture is the sector that produces the most solid waste by volume and mass. Verification / Alternative check: Basic environmental science textbooks and exam oriented notes often state that agriculture is the largest producer of solid waste when measured by bulk, especially when crop residues, husks, straw and animal dung are included. Diagrams of solid waste generation by sector frequently show agriculture at the top of the chart. Remembering such diagrams or summary statements reinforces that agriculture is the correct answer, rather than focusing only on the more visible urban waste from packaging or industrial sectors. Why Other Options Are Wrong: - Nuclear power plants: They produce hazardous radioactive waste that requires careful long term storage, but the actual quantity by mass is relatively small compared to agricultural residues. - Manufacturing industry: Industrial waste is significant, yet in many standard references, total agricultural waste still surpasses industrial solid waste when evaluated globally. - Packaging industry: It is a major source of municipal solid waste, especially plastics and paper, but the overall mass is still generally less than the huge volume of agricultural residues produced each year. Common Pitfalls: Because urban waste such as plastic packaging is very visible in daily life, students may wrongly assume that packaging or manufacturing creates the largest amount of solid waste. The key is to think in terms of absolute mass and global scale, not just what is seen in cities. Agriculture covers vast areas and produces enormous quantities of organic by products. Recognising the hidden scale of rural and agricultural waste helps candidates avoid this common mistake in environmental science questions. Final Answer: The sector that produces the largest quantity of solid waste worldwide is agriculture.

Question 15

Who inaugurated the Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam Memorial in Rameswaram, Tamil Nadu, to honour the former President of India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam, often called the Missile Man of India, served as President of India and is widely respected for his contributions to science, defence, education and youth inspiration. A memorial dedicated to him was set up in his hometown of Rameswaram in Tamil Nadu. The inauguration of this memorial was an important national event and naturally became a topic for current affairs questions in various competitive exams. This question asks which leader formally inaugurated the Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam Memorial. Given Data / Assumptions: - The memorial is in Rameswaram, Tamil Nadu. - It is dedicated to former President Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam. - Options for the person who inaugurated it are Narendra Modi, O. Panneerselvam, Pranab Mukherjee and K. Palaniswami. - The event is treated as a national level ceremony, not just a state level function. Concept / Approach: Given Dr. Kalam's national stature, the inauguration of his memorial was performed by the Prime Minister of India. Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam Memorial in Rameswaram, where he also paid tributes and interacted with local people and officials. Although state leaders and other dignitaries were present or associated with the event, the central figure who formally inaugurated the memorial was Narendra Modi, which is the key fact tested in this question. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall news coverage around the inauguration of the Dr. Abdul Kalam Memorial in Rameswaram. Step 2: Remember that the Prime Minister of India visited Rameswaram for this event. Step 3: Identify that at the time of inauguration, Narendra Modi was serving as Prime Minister. Step 4: Compare the options and recognise that while Pranab Mukherjee was President for part of the same period and state leaders like O. Panneerselvam and K. Palaniswami were in Tamil Nadu politics, the inauguration was credited to the Prime Minister. Step 5: Select “Narendra Modi” as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Newspaper articles, television news and exam magazines reported that Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the Kalam memorial and addressed gatherings in Rameswaram. Many exam capsules summarised the event in one line: “Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurates Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam Memorial at Rameswaram.” Remembering this standard phrasing is enough to verify that Narendra Modi is the correct option in this general knowledge question. Why Other Options Are Wrong: - O. Panneerselvam: A senior leader in Tamil Nadu politics and former Chief Minister, but he did not inaugurate the memorial as the main central figure in this event. - Pranab Mukherjee: Former President of India, and he may have paid respect to Dr. Kalam at other times, but the memorial inauguration ceremony at Rameswaram was conducted by the Prime Minister, not the President. - K. Palaniswami: Another Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu, but again, the national level inauguration associated with this memorial is credited to the Prime Minister. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes confuse who inaugurates which monument or memorial, especially when both the President and the Prime Minister, along with state leaders, attend various events. Some may think that, because Dr. Kalam was a President, the current President would have inaugurated his memorial. However, in this case, widely publicised coverage clearly showed the Prime Minister taking that role. Keeping a short list of important memorials and who inaugurated them, especially for well known personalities, can help avoid such confusion in the exam hall. Final Answer: The Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam Memorial in Rameswaram was inaugurated by Narendra Modi.

Question 16

Which is currently recognised as the longest National Highway in India after the renumbering of the highway network?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: India has a vast network of National Highways that connect different regions of the country. Over the years, many highway numbers were rationalised and renumbered. After this renumbering exercise, one particular highway stretching from the northernmost part of the country to the southern tip came to be recognised as the longest National Highway in India. This is a common fact tested in geography and general awareness sections of competitive exams. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question asks for the longest National Highway in India after renumbering. - Options provided are NH4, NH44, NH10 and NH5. - The learner is expected to know which highway runs over a very long north south route. - Standard geography and transport knowledge is assumed. Concept / Approach: After the rationalisation of National Highway numbers, the highway running from Srinagar in Jammu and Kashmir to Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu was designated as National Highway 44 (NH44). This route integrates several earlier highways and is the longest National Highway in India in terms of distance covered. Other highways like NH4, NH10 and NH5 are important but do not match NH44 in overall length. Therefore, NH44 is the correct answer to this question. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that prior to renumbering, different segments had numbers like NH7, which were long north south routes. Step 2: Remember that the rationalisation exercise created NH44 as a continuous long corridor from Srinagar to Kanyakumari. Step 3: Recognise that NH44 is widely cited in exam material as the longest National Highway in India. Step 4: Compare this with NH4, NH10 and NH5, which are shorter and cover specific regions. Step 5: Select “NH44” as the correct option. Verification / Alternative check: Many geography books and exam guides list National Highway trivia in tabular form. In these tables, under the heading “Longest National Highway,” the answer is clearly given as NH44, Srinagar to Kanyakumari. If a student has revised transport related facts, this combination should be familiar. Additionally, maps of the Golden Quadrilateral and other major corridors also highlight NH44 as a key north south spine, reinforcing the idea that it is the longest highway in the network. Why Other Options Are Wrong: - NH4: An important highway connecting regions in southern India, but not the longest highway after renumbering. - NH10: A shorter highway mainly in the north eastern region, connecting cities such as Siliguri to other destinations, not comparable in length to NH44. - NH5: Another National Highway of regional importance, but its length does not exceed that of NH44. Common Pitfalls: Earlier exam questions sometimes mentioned NH7 as the longest National Highway. Some candidates who studied before the renumbering may still remember that and get confused. The key is to update this fact: after rationalisation and renumbering, NH44 is now recognised as the longest. Students should regularly revise changes in highway numbering, states, and other transport facts to avoid relying on outdated information. Final Answer: After the renumbering of the network, the longest National Highway in India is NH44.

Question 17

Which country was designated to chair the 2019 summit of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is a regional organisation of Southeast Asian countries that works together on political, economic and security issues. The chairmanship of ASEAN rotates annually among its member states, and the chairing country hosts the main ASEAN summit and related meetings for that year. General knowledge and international relations questions often ask which country chaired ASEAN in a particular year. This question focuses on the chair for the year 2019. Given Data / Assumptions: - The year in question is 2019. - The focus is on which country chaired the ASEAN summit that year. - Options are Japan, Singapore, China and Thailand. - Only ASEAN member states can chair ASEAN; dialogue partners cannot hold the rotating chair. Concept / Approach: ASEAN consists of ten member states: Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand and Vietnam. The chair rotates each year among these members in a predefined order. Singapore chaired ASEAN in 2018. In 2019, the chairmanship passed to Thailand, which hosted the main ASEAN summits and related meetings. Japan and China are important dialogue partners of ASEAN but are not members and therefore do not chair ASEAN. Consequently, Thailand is the correct answer to this question. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that only ASEAN member states can chair the organisation. Step 2: Strike out Japan and China immediately, because they are not ASEAN members; they are external partners. Step 3: Remember that Singapore chaired ASEAN in 2018 and that the chairmanship rotates annually. Step 4: Identify that in 2019 the chair was Thailand, which hosted the ASEAN meetings that year. Step 5: Select “Thailand” as the correct option. Verification / Alternative check: Current affairs summaries often list ASEAN chairs year by year. Such tables show that Singapore held the chair in 2018 and Thailand in 2019, followed by other members in subsequent years. News headlines around 2019 ASEAN summits also referred to “Thailand as ASEAN chair” and highlighted Bangkok and other Thai cities as venues for key meetings. Recalling these facts confirms that Thailand was the chair in 2019. Why Other Options Are Wrong: - Japan: A major partner and participant in ASEAN related forums, but not a member of ASEAN, so it cannot chair the organisation. - Singapore: Did serve as ASEAN chair, but that was in 2018, not in 2019. - China: Also an important dialogue partner but not an ASEAN member, so it cannot hold the rotating chairmanship. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates know that Singapore has served as chair and might mistakenly choose it for 2019 if they forget the exact year. Others may not recall that only member states can chair ASEAN and might consider Japan or China because of their strong presence in regional meetings. To avoid these mistakes, learners should memorise the basic ASEAN membership list and remember that the chair rotates only among these ten countries. Associating the sequence “Singapore 2018, Thailand 2019” is a simple memory aid for this specific question. Final Answer: The country that chaired the ASEAN summit in 2019 was Thailand.

Question 18

Lok Adalat is an alternative dispute redressal mechanism in India where pending and pre litigation cases are settled amicably. What is the minimum court fee charged for filing a case in a Lok Adalat?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Lok Adalat is an important part of India's system of alternative dispute resolution. It provides an accessible forum where disputes can be resolved through compromise and settlement, often much faster than in regular courts. One of the key features that makes Lok Adalat attractive to ordinary citizens is the cost of accessing it. This question checks whether candidates know the basic rule about the minimum court fee payable when filing a case before a Lok Adalat. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question is about the minimum court fee for filing a case in Lok Adalat. - Options include “no court fee”, Rs 10, Rs 50 and Rs 5. - Lok Adalat is designed to be people friendly and inexpensive. - Standard legal general knowledge based on provisions of the Legal Services Authorities Act is assumed. Concept / Approach: One of the main objectives of Lok Adalat is to provide easy and affordable access to justice, especially for weaker sections of society. To achieve this, cases brought directly before Lok Adalat do not require payment of any court fee. Furthermore, if a case that was earlier filed in a regular court is referred to Lok Adalat, the court fee already paid is usually refunded upon settlement. This zero fee approach encourages parties to attempt compromise solutions without worrying about additional financial burdens. Therefore, the correct answer is that no court fee is charged for filing a case in Lok Adalat. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the objectives of Lok Adalat as an inexpensive and speedy forum for dispute resolution. Step 2: Remember that the Legal Services Authorities framework emphasises cost free access for eligible persons. Step 3: Note that exam oriented legal awareness points often state that there is no court fee for cases in Lok Adalat. Step 4: Compare the options that specify nominal fees (Rs 5, Rs 10, Rs 50) and see that they contradict the core principle of zero court fee. Step 5: Choose “No court fee” as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Legal awareness booklets and government publications on Lok Adalat clearly state that there is no court fee for matters placed before a Lok Adalat. If a matter has already been filed in a regular court and is then transferred to Lok Adalat, the fee that was paid earlier is refunded after the settlement. This consistent statement appears in many exam preparation materials under the heading “Salient features of Lok Adalat.” Remembering this description makes it easy to verify that the correct answer is “No court fee.” Why Other Options Are Wrong: - Rs 10: Even a small fee would conflict with the principle of full exemption of court fee in Lok Adalat cases. - Rs 50: This amount is clearly too high and does not match the legal provision that cases are taken up without court fee. - Rs 5: Also incorrect because any charge contradicts the widely publicised feature that no court fee is required. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates assume that there must be at least a token fee and are tempted to select Rs 5 or Rs 10. Others may not differentiate between regular court procedures and the special rules that apply to Lok Adalat. To avoid such mistakes, learners should clearly note the key features of Lok Adalat: no court fee, flexible procedures, voluntary settlement and binding awards. Linking “Lok Adalat equals no fee and speedy settlement” is an effective way to remember this fact for general knowledge examinations. Final Answer: The minimum court fee for filing a case in a Lok Adalat is no court fee.

Question 19

Under the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) campaign “Eat Right Movement”, which Bollywood actor was selected as the brand ambassador for the “Aaj Se Thoda Kam” initiative?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) launched the “Eat Right Movement” to encourage healthier eating habits and to reduce the intake of excess salt, sugar and fat in everyday diets. As part of this movement, a specific campaign called “Aaj Se Thoda Kam” was created to nudge citizens to consume these ingredients in moderation. To reach a wide audience, FSSAI appointed a popular Bollywood actor as brand ambassador for this initiative. This question asks candidates to identify that actor. Given Data / Assumptions: - The campaign is “Aaj Se Thoda Kam” under the broader “Eat Right Movement.” - It is led by FSSAI and the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. - Options for brand ambassador are M. S. Dhoni, Virat Kohli, Rajkummar Rao and Amitabh Bachchan. - Standard health and nutrition related current affairs knowledge is assumed. Concept / Approach: FSSAI chose actor Rajkummar Rao as the brand ambassador for the “Aaj Se Thoda Kam” component of the Eat Right Movement. In campaign videos and promotional material, Rajkummar Rao appears delivering the message that people should gradually reduce their consumption of salt, sugar and fat. While other celebrities such as Virat Kohli and Amitabh Bachchan support various health and nutrition campaigns, the specific slogan “Aaj Se Thoda Kam” under the Eat Right Movement is closely linked with Rajkummar Rao. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the “Eat Right Movement” involves several campaigns and celebrity endorsements. Step 2: Remember that the phrase “Aaj Se Thoda Kam” is used in television and online advertisements featuring Rajkummar Rao. Step 3: Eliminate M. S. Dhoni and Virat Kohli, who are associated with other sports and health related messages but not this specific slogan as the primary face. Step 4: Recognise that Amitabh Bachchan endorses many social campaigns but is not the main face of “Aaj Se Thoda Kam.” Step 5: Choose “Rajkummar Rao” as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: FSSAI and media reports clearly mention that Rajkummar Rao is the brand ambassador for the Eat Right Movement's “Aaj Se Thoda Kam” campaign. Video advertisements on television and digital platforms also show him promoting the idea of cutting down on salt, sugar and fat. Exam oriented health and nutrition capsules often summarise this with a simple line: “Eat Right Movement (Aaj Se Thoda Kam) – brand ambassador Rajkummar Rao.” Recalling this association confirms that he is the correct choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: - M. S. Dhoni: A celebrated cricketer and brand ambassador for many products, but not the main face of the “Aaj Se Thoda Kam” campaign. - Virat Kohli: Also associated with healthy living and some FSSAI promotional work, but the specific “Aaj Se Thoda Kam” advertisements are led by Rajkummar Rao. - Amitabh Bachchan: A leading figure in many public awareness campaigns, such as polio and tuberculosis, but not the primary ambassador linked with this FSSAI slogan. Common Pitfalls: Because several celebrities support different parts of FSSAI and health related campaigns, candidates sometimes mix up which person is associated with which slogan. They may know that Virat Kohli has appeared in messages about fortified foods, or that Amitabh Bachchan has worked on other government health campaigns, and wrongly select those names. To avoid confusion, students should connect each slogan with the correct face: for example “Aaj Se Thoda Kam – Rajkummar Rao.” Creating short flashcards of campaigns and their ambassadors can make revision much easier. Final Answer: Under the Eat Right Movement, the “Aaj Se Thoda Kam” campaign's brand ambassador is Rajkummar Rao.

Question 20

In which year was the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE), Asia's oldest stock exchange, formally established in Mumbai?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Bombay Stock Exchange, now commonly called BSE Limited, is a central institution in India's financial system and is recognised as the oldest stock exchange in Asia. Its origin is frequently discussed in questions on Indian economy, financial markets and business history. Knowing the year in which BSE was formally established is a standard fact for general knowledge and banking exams. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question asks for the year when the Bombay Stock Exchange was formally established. - Options are 1947, 1875, 1920 and 1960. - BSE is based in Mumbai and has a long history that predates India's independence. - Standard finance and economic history references are assumed. Concept / Approach: The origins of BSE go back to informal trading among brokers under a banyan tree in Bombay in the mid nineteenth century. Over time, this group of brokers evolved into an organised association. The institution was formally established as The Native Share and Stock Brokers' Association in the year 1875. This body later became what we know today as the Bombay Stock Exchange or BSE. Because 1875 marks the formal establishment of the exchange, this year is the one that is used in official descriptions and exam syllabi. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that BSE is older than independent India and that it existed in the late nineteenth century. Step 2: Remember that the year 1875 is repeatedly cited as the formal establishment year of the exchange. Step 3: Compare the options and immediately reject 1947 and 1960, which are well after the founding period. Step 4: Consider 1920, which is closer but still not the correct founding year. Step 5: Select “1875” as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Official profiles of BSE, as well as finance textbooks and exam guides, describe it as being established in 1875 and emphasise that it is the oldest stock exchange in Asia. The frequently repeated line is that it began as The Native Share and Stock Brokers' Association in 1875. Students who have read any history of Indian capital markets will have seen this date many times, making it straightforward to verify that 1875 is the correct founding year. Why Other Options Are Wrong: - 1947: This is the year of India's independence, not the year when BSE was founded. BSE already existed long before 1947. - 1920: There were developments in BSE's infrastructure around that time, but the formal establishment year is earlier, in 1875. - 1960: This is far too late and corresponds more to the period of post independence economic development than to the origin of the stock exchange. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may mistakenly link the start of modern financial institutions with India's independence and choose dates like 1947 or 1960, especially if they have not studied economic history in detail. Others may simply guess a twentieth century date because it feels more modern. To avoid these errors, learners should remember that BSE has a very long history that began in colonial times. Associating the phrase “BSE – founded as Native Share and Stock Brokers' Association in 1875” is a simple way to lock in the correct year. Final Answer: The Bombay Stock Exchange was formally established in 1875.

Basic General Knowledge Questions