Question 1

Which one of the following States of India hosted the Nobel Prize Series India 2018 exhibition on the theme “Science Impacts Life”?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Nobel Prize Series India is an outreach programme organised in collaboration with Nobel Media and Indian partners to promote scientific temper and public engagement with science. In 2018, the series included an exhibition called “Science Impacts Life”. This question asks which Indian State hosted that exhibition. Such questions test awareness of important science communication events connected with globally recognised institutions like the Nobel Foundation and are common in civil services and other competitive examinations. Given Data / Assumptions: The event is Nobel Prize Series India 2018. The theme of the exhibition is “Science Impacts Life”. We are asked to identify the Indian State that hosted this edition. The options are Gujarat, Rajasthan, Goa and Madhya Pradesh. We assume the official arrangement between the Nobel organisation and the State Government, as reported in news releases, to be correct. Concept / Approach: The concept here is straightforward factual recall. However, we can use association to remember the correct answer. Goa is a relatively small coastal State which has been increasingly projected as a destination for international conferences and high profile events due to its tourism infrastructure. In 2018, Goa Government partnered with the Department of Biotechnology and Nobel Media to host the Nobel Prize Series India exhibition. Remembering that this science themed event was held in a popular tourist and conference destination helps to fix the fact in memory. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Nobel Prize Series India brings Nobel Laureates and science communication activities to different Indian States. Step 2: For the 2018 edition on the theme “Science Impacts Life”, the hosting State partnered closely with central agencies. Step 3: News reports at that time often mentioned Goa as the venue for lectures and exhibitions linked to the Nobel Prize Series. Step 4: Among the option list Gujarat, Rajasthan, Goa and Madhya Pradesh, the State that actually hosted the 2018 exhibition is Goa. Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is Goa. Verification / Alternative check: A candidate can verify this fact by recalling visual cues or headlines such as “Nobel Laureates to visit Goa for Nobel Prize Series India” that were widely carried in newspapers and official press releases. Another way is to remember that Gujarat had hosted the Nobel Prize Series earlier, for example in 2017, while Goa featured prominently for the 2018 edition. Cross checking with compilations of scientific events in 2018 would confirm that Goa is indeed the correct State. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A (Gujarat) is incorrect because although Gujarat has also been associated with Nobel Prize Series events, it did not host the 2018 exhibition on the theme “Science Impacts Life”. Option B (Rajasthan) is incorrect as there is no record of Rajasthan being the host of the Nobel Prize Series India 2018 exhibition. Option D (Madhya Pradesh) is also incorrect because the event was not organised there in that year, even though educational activities relating to science take place in many States. Common Pitfalls: A common confusion arises between different years and venues of Nobel Prize Series India. Some learners remember Gujarat hosting an earlier edition and choose it for every related question. Others may guess a bigger State simply because it has more universities. To avoid such mistakes, it helps to link specific themes and years with their host States, for example “Science Impacts Life 2018 in Goa”. Creating such mental associations reduces errors in factual MCQs. Final Answer: The Nobel Prize Series India 2018 exhibition on “Science Impacts Life” was hosted by the State of Goa.

Question 2

The Ministry of Communications launched a pan India scholarship programme for school children called “Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana”. The main objective of this scheme is to increase the reach of which activity among students?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana is a scholarship scheme launched by the Department of Posts under the Ministry of Communications. The name SPARSH stands for Scholarship for Promotion of Aptitude and Research in Stamps as a Hobby. This programme specifically targets school children and uses scholarships as an incentive to encourage a particular educational and cultural hobby. The question asks which activity the Government intends to promote through this scheme, which is an important piece of current affairs regarding youth oriented government programmes. Given Data / Assumptions: The scheme is called Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana. It is a pan India scholarship programme for school children. It is launched by the Ministry of Communications and Department of Posts. The acronym SPARSH expands to a phrase related to stamps and research. The options include sports, philately, music and web designing. Concept / Approach: The key concept is understanding that philately, the collection and study of postage stamps, has historically been encouraged by postal departments worldwide as a way to preserve history, culture and themes depicted on stamps. The Department of Posts in India designed Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana to revive interest in philately among the younger generation, by offering scholarships to students with demonstrated aptitude in stamp collecting and related activities. Once this link between SPARSH and philately is known, the correct option is easy to identify. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Expand the acronym SPARSH as Scholarship for Promotion of Aptitude and Research in Stamps as a Hobby. Step 2: Recognise that stamps as a hobby immediately point to philately, which is the technical term for stamp collecting and the study of postal history. Step 3: Note that the Department of Posts is naturally the ministry most closely associated with stamps, postal services and philately rather than with sports, music or web designing. Step 4: Observe that the scholarship is aimed at school children who are members of philately clubs and who participate in philatelic projects. Step 5: Therefore, the objective of Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana is to increase the reach of philately among students. Verification / Alternative check: A quick verification can be obtained by remembering how the scheme was covered in news. Headlines often clearly mentioned that the scholarship was to promote philately. Additionally, exam oriented current affairs notes expand SPARSH and explicitly mention philately as the targeted hobby. Since none of the other options match the full form of SPARSH or the mandate of the Department of Posts, philately is confirmed as the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A (sports) is incorrect because sports promotion is generally handled by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, not by the postal department, and there is no mention of sports in the full form of SPARSH. Option C (music) is incorrect as the scheme does not address performing arts or music education. It is centred on stamp collecting and research into stamps. Option D (web designing) is incorrect because digital skills initiatives fall under different programmes such as Digital India and various IT related schemes, not under a scholarship whose acronym is explicitly related to stamps. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may not know the meaning of the word philately and therefore fail to connect the dots between stamps and the given options. Others may ignore the role of the Department of Posts and guess sports or music based on the popularity of such activities. To avoid this, aspirants should familiarise themselves with less common terms like philately and also pay attention to which ministry launches which scheme, because that often reveals the nature of the targeted sector. Final Answer: The Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana aims to promote philately, that is, the hobby of collecting and studying postage stamps, among school children across India.

Question 3

Which one of the following statements about India’s ports and maritime trade is not correct?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question checks conceptual and factual understanding of India’s maritime infrastructure and trade. India has an extensive coastline, numerous major and non major ports and a very large share of its external trade moves by sea. The Government prepared a Maritime Agenda for 2010–2020 that set ambitious port capacity targets. The learner must identify which of the given statements does not match these well known facts. Such questions combine geography, economics and infrastructure planning and are important for examinations that include Indian economy and general knowledge sections. Given Data / Assumptions: India is a maritime nation with a coastline and many ports. There are specific numbers of major and non major ports in official classifications. A large proportion of India’s trade by volume and value uses sea routes. The Maritime Agenda 2010–2020 fixed a numerical target for port capacity for the year 2020. The options state approximate values for coastline length, trade shares and port capacity targets. Concept / Approach: The first three options describe standard textbook facts. India indeed has 12 major ports and around 200 non major or intermediate ports. Almost 95 percent of India’s foreign trade by volume and around two thirds by value move through maritime transport. The coastline is often quoted as about 7516 kilometres including island territories, so approximately 7500 kilometres is acceptable. The fourth option concerns the capacity target in the Maritime Agenda. In reality, the Agenda set a very high target of around 3200 million tonnes of port capacity by 2020, that is, in the range of thousands of million tonnes, not merely 300 million tonnes. Hence the statement mentioning a 300 MT target is incorrect. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Evaluate option A. Official data states that India has 12 major ports administered by the central government and roughly 200 non major ports under state governments. Therefore this statement is essentially correct. Step 2: Evaluate option B. Various economic surveys mention that about 95 percent of India’s external trade by volume and about 68 percent by value are carried by sea, so this statement is also correct. Step 3: Evaluate option C. Standard figures give the Indian coastline as about 7500 kilometres, sometimes slightly more when island coastlines are fully included, therefore this statement is correct. Step 4: Evaluate option D. The Maritime Agenda 2010–2020 aimed to increase port capacity to more than 3000 million tonnes, around 3200 million tonnes, by 2020. Step 5: The value 300 million tonnes is far too low and does not match the official target, so option D is the incorrect statement. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative way to verify is to think about the scale of India’s trade. With such a large and growing economy, a target of only 300 million tonnes of port capacity would clearly be inadequate. Existing capacity before the Agenda itself was already in the range of several hundred million tonnes. Therefore, the Agenda logically had to aim for several thousand million tonnes to accommodate growth. Consulting standard sources like the Maritime Agenda document or summaries in the Economic Survey would confirm that the target was around 3200 million tonnes, which makes the value of 300 million tonnes clearly incorrect. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Here “wrong” refers to why they are not the answer to the question asking for the incorrect statement. Option A is factually right, so it cannot be chosen as the incorrect statement. Option B correctly captures the high dependence of India’s foreign trade on shipping by quoting the widely used figures for trade by volume and value, so it is not the wrong statement. Option C accurately reflects the approximate length of the Indian coastline and therefore is also not the incorrect option. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to misremember numerical values, especially when they involve large numbers. Some candidates misread 3000 million tonnes as 300 million tonnes and then treat the smaller number as correct. Others may be unsure about the exact number of non major ports and suspect option A. It is helpful to note that in policy documents, targets for national capacity tend to be ambitious and often expressed in round thousands rather than in a few hundred million tonnes. Carefully comparing orders of magnitude helps avoid such errors. Final Answer: The statement that is not correct is option D, because the Maritime Agenda 2010–2020 actually set a target of port capacity in the range of more than 3000 million tonnes, not merely 300 MT by 2020.

Question 4

Which one of the following statements is not correct in the context of India’s international regimes and initiatives?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question tests knowledge of India’s engagement with important international regimes and forums related to security, nuclear governance and terrorism. It mentions India’s membership in the Missile Technology Control Regime, its application for the Nuclear Suppliers Group, its longstanding proposal for a Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism and the venue and year of a Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting. The learner needs to identify which one of these statements is factually incorrect, while the others correctly match India’s diplomatic actions and the historical timeline of global meetings. Given Data / Assumptions: India joined MTCR in a particular year mentioned as 2016. India applied for NSG membership and the year given is 2016. India proposed the Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism (CCIT) in 1996. The statement claims that CHOGM was held in 2016 at Malta. We assume standard historical records for these events. Concept / Approach: The approach is to evaluate each statement one by one. India did become a member of MTCR in June 2016, so option A is correct. India did formally apply for membership of NSG in 2016, which makes option B correct as well. India has indeed been the principal proponent of a Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism at the United Nations since 1996, so option C is also correct. The problematic part is option D. The Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (CHOGM) was held in Malta in November 2015, not in 2016. Therefore, the statement that CHOGM was held in 2016 at Malta is not correct. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Check option A. India joined the Missile Technology Control Regime as its 35th member in June 2016, so this is accurate. Step 2: Check option B. India did submit a formal application to join the Nuclear Suppliers Group in 2016, which was widely reported in the context of NSG plenary meetings, so this statement is also correct. Step 3: Check option C. India proposed the Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism in the United Nations General Assembly in 1996 to provide a universal legal framework against terrorism. Hence this statement is correct. Step 4: Check option D. The CHOGM summit at Malta took place in 2015. There was no CHOGM hosted in Malta in 2016. Step 5: Since option D gives an incorrect year for the Malta CHOGM, it is the statement that is not correct. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, a candidate may recall that India’s entry into MTCR and its NSG application were major foreign policy headlines in 2016 and became frequent questions in prelims and mains. The CCIT has been a long pending Indian initiative since the mid 1990s. On the other hand, CHOGM being in Malta is correct, but the year is wrong because the Malta summit is associated with late 2015. Remembering that CHOGM does not occur every year and that the subsequent summit after Malta was scheduled in 2018 in the United Kingdom helps confirm that 2016 is not the correct year. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Here we mean why they are wrong choices for the incorrect statement. Option A is factually true and thus not the answer to a question asking for the statement that is not correct. Option B is also true because 2016 is indeed the year when India officially applied for NSG membership. Option C is true because India has been pressing for the CCIT since it proposed the draft in 1996, and this fact is well documented. Common Pitfalls: Some learners confuse the years for MTCR membership and NSG application or they remember only one of them. Others may guess incorrectly that the error lies in the CCIT year, because 1996 may not be as well known. However, the most subtle trap is in option D where both the place and the year are given. Many candidates see Malta and recognise it as a CHOGM host, and therefore overlook the incorrect year 2016. It is important in such questions to check both the event and the year, not just the location. Final Answer: The only statement that is factually incorrect is option D, because the Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting at Malta was held in 2015, not in 2016. Therefore the wrong statement is “The Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (CHOGM) was held in 2016 at Malta.”

Question 5

Which of the following correctly describes the role of the Indian Coast Guard in maritime and coastal security?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question deals with India’s maritime security architecture after reforms that followed incidents such as the Mumbai attacks of 2008. Several agencies share responsibilities along the long Indian coastline and in the offshore areas. The Indian Coast Guard in particular has been assigned key roles relating to offshore security coordination, intelligence gathering along the coast and coastal security in territorial waters. The question presents three statements describing these roles and asks which combination correctly reflects the functions entrusted to the Coast Guard. Given Data / Assumptions: Statement 1 says that the Indian Coast Guard has been entrusted with the Offshore Security Coordination Authority role. Statement 2 says that it acts as the lead intelligence agency for the coastal and sea borders. Statement 3 says that it has responsibility for coastal security in territorial waters. The options combine these statements in different ways. We assume the division of roles as notified by the Government of India in official orders on coastal security. Concept / Approach: The approach is to recall how responsibilities are shared between the Indian Navy, Coast Guard, marine police and other agencies. The Navy is the overall authority for maritime security. The Coast Guard has been designated as the authority responsible for coordination of offshore security and as the lead agency for intelligence related to coastal and sea borders. It also plays a central role in coastal security within territorial waters, in coordination with State marine police. Consequently, all three statements are essentially correct descriptions of functions entrusted to the Coast Guard, so the correct answer will be the option that includes 1, 2 and 3 together. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Examine Statement 1. Offshore areas include installations such as oil platforms beyond the immediate coastline. The Government has entrusted the Coast Guard with offshore security coordination authority, so Statement 1 is correct. Step 2: Examine Statement 2. After coastal security reforms, the Coast Guard was given the role of lead intelligence agency for coastal and sea borders, coordinating inputs from various sources. Thus Statement 2 is also correct. Step 3: Examine Statement 3. Coastal security in territorial waters is shared between the Coast Guard and State police, but the Coast Guard has a major responsibility and coordinating role, so Statement 3 is essentially correct. Step 4: Since all three statements are correct, the correct option must be the one that lists 1, 2 and 3 together. Step 5: Option B includes 1, 2 and 3, so option B is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: A candidate may verify by recalling diagrams or summaries in coastal security notes that show the Navy as overall maritime security authority, the Coast Guard as offshore security and coastal security coordinator and State marine police as responsible for patrolling close to shore. Government notifications explicitly state that the Coast Guard is the lead intelligence agency for coastal and sea borders and that it coordinates offshore security. Matching these descriptions to the three statements confirms that all of them are correct. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A (1 and 3 only) is incorrect because it ignores the intelligence role described in Statement 2, which is in fact part of the Coast Guard mandate. Option C (1 and 2 only) is incorrect because it excludes the coastal security responsibility mentioned in Statement 3, which is also correct. Option D (3 only) is incorrect because it drops both offshore security coordination and lead intelligence roles, which is an incomplete and misleading representation of the Coast Guard’s duties. Common Pitfalls: Learners sometimes confuse the roles of the Indian Navy and the Indian Coast Guard. Some wrongly attribute offshore security coordination to the Navy alone, ignoring the specific designation of the Coast Guard in that role. Others think that intelligence is handled only by traditional domestic agencies and not by the Coast Guard. It is important to remember that after the Mumbai attacks, coastal security arrangements were significantly revised, and the Coast Guard now has prominent responsibilities in offshore security, intelligence collection and coastal patrolling. Keeping this holistic picture in mind helps avoid errors. Final Answer: All three statements are correct, so the correct choice is the combination 1, 2 and 3, which is option B.

Question 6

The Ministry of Power constituted a Committee to investigate the causes of the accident on 1 November 2017 at Feroze Gandhi Thermal Power Plant, Unchahar, in Uttar Pradesh. Who was appointed as the Chairman of this Committee?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: On 1 November 2017, a serious accident occurred at the NTPC run Feroze Gandhi Thermal Power Plant at Unchahar in Uttar Pradesh, resulting in many fatalities and injuries. In response, the Ministry of Power, Government of India, set up a high level Committee to investigate the causes of the accident and to suggest measures to prevent similar incidents in the future. This question asks for the name of the Chairman of that Committee, which is a factual detail drawn from contemporary national news and official announcements. Given Data / Assumptions: The accident took place on 1 November 2017 at Feroze Gandhi Thermal Power Plant, Unchahar. The Ministry of Power constituted an investigation Committee after the accident. We need to identify the person appointed as Chairman of this Committee. The options list four different names, each with an honorific prefix. We assume that the officially notified Chairman is correctly reflected in standard current affairs sources. Concept / Approach: The approach is purely factual recall. Such questions reward candidates who follow important safety related industrial accidents and read the follow up measures taken by the Government. The Chairman of the Committee was an experienced technical expert, Shri P. D. Siwal, whose appointment was specifically mentioned in press releases. By eliminating names that do not match this role or are not associated with the Ministry of Power’s technical bodies, we can identify the correct option. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that after the Unchahar accident, the Ministry of Power announced a Committee of senior officials and technical experts. Step 2: The news reports repeatedly named Shri P. D. Siwal as the Chairman of this Committee. Step 3: Compare the options given: Dr. L. D. Papney, Shri Dhawal Prakash Antapurkar, Shri Subir Chakraborty and Shri P. Siwal. Step 4: Recognise that the name which matches the Chairman is Shri P. Siwal, which corresponds to Shri P. D. Siwal in full. Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is option D, Shri P. Siwal. Verification / Alternative check: The candidate can verify this by remembering the pattern that usually, investigations into major power plant accidents are led by senior engineers or members of the Central Electricity Authority. Official press releases from the Ministry of Power after the accident explicitly mention Shri P. D. Siwal as the Committee’s Chairman. Checking any standard current affairs compilation for late 2017 would confirm that Shri P. Siwal headed the investigation. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A (Dr. L. D. Papney) is incorrect because he was not named as the head of the accident investigation Committee at Unchahar. Option B (Shri Dhawal Prakash Antapurkar) is incorrect since this person did not serve as Chairman of the Committee in question. Option C (Shri Subir Chakraborty) is also incorrect because he was not associated as the head of this particular probe, even though people with similar names may hold other technical or managerial positions elsewhere. Common Pitfalls: A frequent difficulty in such questions is that the names are not widely known outside the specific sector, and all options look similar as formal Indian names. Candidates may resort to guessing. To reduce such guesswork, it helps to note that exam setters usually choose the exact spelling that has appeared in press releases. Remembering at least one or two key names associated with each major incident can significantly increase accuracy in current affairs questions. Final Answer: The Chairman of the Committee set up to investigate the Unchahar power plant accident was Shri P. Siwal (often written in full as Shri P. D. Siwal).

Question 7

Which one of the following options is not a correct ascending order of commissioned ranks in the Indian defence forces?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The commissioned officer ranks in the Indian Army, Indian Air Force and Indian Navy follow a fixed hierarchy from junior to senior positions. Many examinations test knowledge of this hierarchy because it reflects basic familiarity with the structure of the armed forces. In this question, several sequences of ranks are given and you are asked to identify which one is not arranged in the correct ascending order. Understanding the normal order of ranks in each service makes it straightforward to spot any incorrect sequence. Given Data / Assumptions: Option A gives an Army sequence from Lieutenant to General. Option B gives an Air Force sequence from Flying Officer to Air Chief Marshal. Option C also lists Air Force ranks but in a different order. Option D gives a Navy sequence from Sub Lieutenant to Admiral. All sequences are claimed to be in ascending order of seniority. We assume the standard official rank structure of the Indian armed forces. Concept / Approach: The correct order for Army commissioned ranks is Lieutenant, Captain, Major, Lieutenant Colonel, Colonel, Brigadier, Major General, Lieutenant General, General. For the Air Force, the ascending order is Flying Officer, Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Wing Commander, Group Captain, Air Commodore, Air Vice Marshal, Air Marshal, Air Chief Marshal. For the Navy, it is Sub Lieutenant, Lieutenant, Lieutenant Commander, Commander, Captain, Commodore, Rear Admiral, Vice Admiral, Admiral. By comparing each option with these standard orders, we can quickly see which one deviates. Option C wrongly places Group Captain before Wing Commander, which reverses their correct order. Therefore, option C is not a correct ascending order. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Examine option A. It lists Army ranks from Lieutenant up to General in the exact official ascending order. So option A is correct. Step 2: Examine option D. It lists Naval ranks from Sub Lieutenant to Admiral in the accepted ascending order, so option D is also correct. Step 3: Examine option B. It lists Air Force ranks in the correct ascending order: Flying Officer, Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Wing Commander, Group Captain, Air Commodore, Air Vice Marshal, Air Marshal, Air Chief Marshal. Step 4: Examine option C. Here, after Squadron Leader, the sequence goes to Group Captain and then Wing Commander. In reality, Wing Commander is junior to Group Captain, so the order between these two ranks is reversed. Step 5: Since option C does not provide a proper ascending sequence, it is the incorrect option. Verification / Alternative check: A quick way to verify is to focus only on the Air Force ranks, because options B and C differ only in the relative position of Wing Commander and Group Captain. Remembering that Group Captain commands larger formations and is senior to Wing Commander immediately shows that any list where Group Captain is placed below Wing Commander is erroneous. Option B correctly places Wing Commander before Group Captain, whereas option C reverses them, confirming that option C is not a correct ascending order. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Again, “wrong” here means wrong as answers to the question asking for the incorrect sequence. Option A is a correct sequence of Army officer ranks and therefore does not answer the question which asks for an incorrect sequence. Option B is a correct sequence of Air Force ranks and thus is not the required incorrect option. Option D is a correct sequence of Navy ranks and hence cannot be chosen as the wrong order. Common Pitfalls: Many candidates struggle to remember the exact order of intermediate ranks, especially in the Air Force and Navy. It is easy to confuse Wing Commander and Group Captain or Commodore and Captain. Another common pitfall is to read quickly and assume that two similar looking lists are identical, without noticing that two ranks have been swapped. To avoid errors, it is useful to memorise the rank hierarchy for each service and pay careful attention to the position of each rank when answering such questions. Final Answer: The sequence that is not in the correct ascending order of commissioned ranks is option C, which lists Flying Officer, Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Group Captain, Wing Commander, Air Commodore, Air Vice Marshal, Air Marshal, Air Chief Marshal and incorrectly places Group Captain before Wing Commander.

Question 8

Which of the following statements about the Attorney General of India is or are not correct?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Attorney General of India is the highest law officer of the country and serves as the chief legal advisor to the Government of India. Many constitutional questions in examinations test knowledge of the powers, functions and conditions of service of this important office. In this question, four statements are given about the Attorney General, and we are asked to identify which of them are not correct. To do this, we must recall the relevant provisions of the Constitution of India and related conventions about the Attorney General. Given Data / Assumptions: Statement 1: He is the first Law Officer of the Government of India. Statement 2: He is entitled to the privileges of a Member of Parliament. Statement 3: He is a whole time counsel for the Government. Statement 4: He must have the same qualifications as are required to be a judge of the Supreme Court. We assume the standard constitutional description in Articles 76 and related practice. Concept / Approach: The Attorney General is appointed by the President and must be qualified to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court. He is indeed regarded as the first law officer of the Government of India and is entitled to the privileges and immunities of a Member of Parliament when he speaks or takes part in proceedings of Parliament, although he is not a member. However, he is not a whole time counsel; he can engage in private legal practice, subject to certain restrictions. Therefore Statement 3 is incorrect, while Statements 1, 2 and 4 are essentially correct. The option that selects only Statement 3 as not correct is the right answer. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Consider Statement 1. In constitutional and administrative practice, the Attorney General is described as the chief or first law officer of the Government of India. This statement is correct. Step 2: Consider Statement 2. Although the Attorney General is not an elected Member of Parliament, he has the right to speak and take part in proceedings of both Houses and enjoys the same privileges and immunities as Members when doing so. Thus, the statement that he is entitled to the privileges of a Member of Parliament is substantially correct. Step 3: Consider Statement 3. The Attorney General is not a whole time counsel of the Government. He may continue his private legal practice, except in matters where the Government is opposed or where there is a conflict of interest. Therefore this statement is incorrect. Step 4: Consider Statement 4. Article 76 states that the person appointed as Attorney General should be qualified to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court, which is the same qualification requirement mentioned here. So Statement 4 is correct. Step 5: Since only Statement 3 is not correct, the correct option is the one that selects “3 only”. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, one can refer to standard polity textbooks. They clearly mention that the Attorney General may practice privately and is not a full time government servant. They also confirm that he must have the same qualifications as a Supreme Court judge, such as having been a judge of some High Court for five years or an advocate of a High Court for ten years or being an eminent jurist. The books also routinely refer to him as the first law officer and discuss his privileges in Parliament, supporting Statements 1, 2 and 4 and rejecting Statement 3. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A (1, 2 and 3) is incorrect because Statements 1 and 2 are true, while only Statement 3 is false, so grouping them together is wrong. Option B (2 and 4) is incorrect because both 2 and 4 are essentially correct statements about privileges and qualifications of the Attorney General. Option D (1 only) is incorrect because Statement 1 is correct and therefore cannot be listed as not correct. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes assume that because the Attorney General is a high constitutional authority, he must serve exclusively as a government employee and therefore mistakenly think that he is a whole time counsel. Others confuse the privileges of membership with membership itself, but the Constitution is clear that he is not a member but still enjoys parliamentary privileges while participating in proceedings. Carefully distinguishing between full time service and part time engagement, and between membership and privileges, helps avoid such errors. Final Answer: The only statement that is not correct is Statement 3. Hence the correct option is “3 only”, meaning that the Attorney General of India is not a whole time counsel of the Government.

Question 9

Which one of the following territories became a Special Administrative Region of China in 1997 under the principle of “one country, two systems”?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question relates to modern political geography and international relations. The principle of “one country, two systems” was formulated by China to allow certain regions to maintain separate economic and legal systems while remaining part of the People's Republic of China. In 1997 a significant territory, previously under British rule, was handed back to China and became a Special Administrative Region under this principle. The question asks you to identify that territory from the given options. Given Data / Assumptions: The year of the event is 1997. The principle involved is “one country, two systems”. A territory changed status and became part of China as a Special Administrative Region. The options are Tibet, Hong Kong, Xinjiang and Inner Mongolia. We assume standard historical facts about Chinese territorial arrangements. Concept / Approach: The approach is factual but benefits from understanding the political context. Hong Kong was a British colony until 1997, when sovereignty was transferred to China under a joint declaration. It then became a Special Administrative Region with a high degree of autonomy in economic, legal and administrative matters, following the “one country, two systems” model. Tibet, Xinjiang and Inner Mongolia have different historical and administrative backgrounds and are not governed under this special arrangement. Therefore, the correct answer is Hong Kong. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Hong Kong was under British rule and that the Sino British Joint Declaration provided for its handover to China in 1997. Step 2: Note that after the handover, Hong Kong became a Special Administrative Region of China with its own Basic Law and a separate system from mainland China in many areas. Step 3: Recognise that this arrangement was explicitly described as “one country, two systems”, with one country being China and two systems being the socialist system in mainland China and the capitalist system in Hong Kong. Step 4: Tibet, Xinjiang and Inner Mongolia are autonomous regions within China but they did not become Special Administrative Regions in 1997, nor were they part of a separate colonial rule ending in that year. Step 5: Therefore, Hong Kong is the only option that fits the description in the question. Verification / Alternative check: A quick verification can be done by remembering popular news coverage and history lessons about the 1997 Hong Kong handover ceremony, which was widely broadcast worldwide. The slogan “one country, two systems” is strongly associated with Hong Kong and later with Macau, which returned in 1999. No similar international events took place in 1997 regarding Tibet, Xinjiang or Inner Mongolia. This confirms that Hong Kong is the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A (Tibet) is incorrect because Tibet is an autonomous region that was integrated into the People's Republic of China in the 1950s, not in 1997, and it is not governed under the “one country, two systems” framework. Option C (Xinjiang) is incorrect since Xinjiang is an autonomous region of China and has been part of the country for many decades before 1997. Option D (Inner Mongolia) is also incorrect because it is an autonomous region with a long standing status within China and was not part of a 1997 handover arrangement. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to confuse the notion of an autonomous region with a Special Administrative Region. Tibet, Xinjiang and Inner Mongolia are autonomous regions, which is a different category from the Special Administrative Region status enjoyed by Hong Kong and Macau. Another pitfall is misremembering the year, but 1997 is strongly tied to the Hong Kong handover in international news history, so associating the year with that event helps avoid confusion. Final Answer: The territory that became a Special Administrative Region of China in 1997 under the principle of “one country, two systems” is Hong Kong.

Question 10

Consider the following statements about the National Wildlife Action Plan (NWAP) of India for 2017–2031 and select the correct answer:

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The National Wildlife Action Plan (NWAP) 2017–2031 is an important policy document guiding wildlife conservation efforts in India. It is the third such Action Plan since independence and introduces climate change concerns into wildlife planning in a systematic way. This question presents three statements about the NWAP 2017–2031 and asks which of them are correct. Understanding the basic features and innovations of this plan is important for environment and ecology sections of competitive examinations. Given Data / Assumptions: Statement 1: This is the third National Wildlife Action Plan of India. Statement 2: The NWAP 2017–2031 is unique because for the first time India has formally recognised climate change impacts on wildlife within such a plan. Statement 3: The NWAP 2017–2031 has ten components. We must determine which combination of these statements is correct. Concept / Approach: India adopted its first National Wildlife Action Plan in 1983 and the second one for 2002–2016. The plan for 2017–2031 is therefore the third NWAP, which makes Statement 1 correct. The 2017–2031 plan is widely noted as being the first to explicitly integrate concerns about climate change and its impact on wildlife and habitats, so Statement 2 is also correct. However, the plan is organised into more than ten thematic components or themes. Various references state that the plan has seventeen themes with a number of objectives and actions under each theme. Therefore Statement 3, which claims that the NWAP has ten components, is not correct. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Check the historical sequence of NWAPs. The first NWAP was for 1983–2001, the second for 2002–2016 and the third for 2017–2031. This confirms that Statement 1 is correct. Step 2: Examine the focus of NWAP 2017–2031. It emphasises climate change as a key driver of ecosystem change and explicitly discusses the need to integrate climate change considerations into wildlife management. This makes Statement 2 correct. Step 3: Consider the structure of the new plan. It is organised around multiple themes that are more than ten in number, most commonly cited as seventeen. Therefore the assertion that the plan has ten components is incorrect. Step 4: Thus Statement 3 is not correct, while Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Step 5: The option that matches this evaluation is “1 and 2 only”. Verification / Alternative check: A candidate can verify by recalling that the plan released in 2017 was widely discussed in news as the third NWAP and the first to focus on climate change. Many examination oriented notes highlight that it has seventeen themes, including landscape conservation, climate change, human wildlife conflict mitigation and community participation. Since seventeen is clearly more than ten, any option that treats ten as the total number of components is incorrect. This reinforces that Statements 1 and 2 are correct and Statement 3 is not. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A (1 only) is incorrect because it ignores the important fact in Statement 2 about climate change integration, which is actually correct. Option C (2 and 3 only) is incorrect because Statement 3 is wrong regarding the number of components in the plan. Option D (1, 2 and 3) is incorrect because it treats Statement 3 as correct, which it is not. Common Pitfalls: A common trap is to assume that because earlier plans had fewer themes, the new plan would also have a similar number, leading to careless acceptance of the figure ten. Another pitfall is to confuse the number of years with the number of components or themes in the plan. Learners sometimes memorise only that the plan is for 2017–2031 and forget its structural details. It is helpful to remember at least two distinctive features of each major policy document, in this case “third NWAP” and “first to integrate climate change explicitly”, to answer such questions correctly. Final Answer: Only Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Therefore the correct choice is “1 and 2 only” for the National Wildlife Action Plan 2017–2031 question.

Question 11

eBiz is one of the integrated services projects under the National e-Governance Plan of the Government of India. Under the guidance of the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, which company is implementing the eBiz project?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The eBiz project is an important initiative under the National e Governance Plan aimed at providing integrated online services to investors and businesses through a single window. It seeks to simplify and speed up business approvals by integrating services of central and state government departments. The project is implemented by a private information technology company under the guidance of the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion in the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. This question asks which company that is. Given Data / Assumptions: eBiz is an integrated services project and one of the Mission Mode Projects under the National e Governance Plan. The project is being implemented under the guidance of the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion. The options list four major Indian IT service companies: TCS, Infosys, Wipro and HCL Technologies. We assume standard government contract information about the implementing partner. Concept / Approach: The approach is factual recall. The Government of India selected Infosys Technologies Limited as the Managed Service Provider and main implementation partner for the eBiz project. This was reported widely when the project was launched and forms part of standard economic and governance current affairs. Recognising that Infosys is associated with the eBiz single window concept helps candidates pick the correct option. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that eBiz is designed as a single electronic window for business and investment related services. Step 2: Remember that the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal department responsible for this project. Step 3: The Government selected one of the leading IT companies as the implementation partner through a formal process. Step 4: Standard references identify Infosys Technologies Limited as the company implementing the eBiz project. Step 5: Therefore, among the options, the correct answer is Infosys Technologies Limited. Verification / Alternative check: Verification can be done by recalling that many reports about eBiz explicitly mention a partnership between the Government and Infosys, often describing Infosys as the Managed Service Provider. Explanations of the National e Governance Plan and its Mission Mode Projects in competitive exam books also mention Infosys in this context. Since other companies like TCS, Wipro and HCL are associated with different government projects, mixing them up could lead to confusion, but cross checking with these sources confirms that Infosys is correct. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A (Tata Consultancy Services) is incorrect because although TCS implements many other government IT projects, the eBiz project in particular is not attributed to TCS. Option C (Wipro) is incorrect as Wipro has worked on other state and central projects, but not as the main implementing partner for eBiz. Option D (HCL Technologies) is also incorrect because HCL is not the designated company for the eBiz single window project under DIPP. Common Pitfalls: A frequent mistake is to assume that any large government IT project must be handled by TCS or another commonly heard company without checking specific facts. Since several big Indian IT firms implement different Mission Mode Projects, candidates must connect each project with the correct company by remembering at least one or two association clues. For eBiz, one can remember a simple cue such as “eBiz and Infosys both start with I in their key letters” to improve recall. Final Answer: Under the guidance of the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, the eBiz project is being implemented by Infosys Technologies Limited.

Question 12

Which one of the following event–year pairs is not correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question focuses on major developments in international finance and trade institutions. Accurate knowledge of when global systems like SWIFT, the Uruguay Round of GATT, the World Trade Organization and Nasdaq began is important for understanding the evolution of the world economy. Four event year pairs are given, and we must identify which one is not correctly matched, that is, where the year given does not correspond to the actual event. Given Data / Assumptions: Option A: Inauguration of SWIFT – 1985. Option B: Conclusion of Uruguay Round of GATT – 1994. Option C: Inauguration of World Trade Organization – 1995. Option D: Establishment of Nasdaq – 1971. We assume standard historical dates for these events. Concept / Approach: The Uruguay Round of GATT negotiations did conclude in 1994, and the World Trade Organization officially came into existence on 1 January 1995, so options B and C are correct. Nasdaq, widely regarded as the first wholly electronic stock exchange, was launched in 1971, so option D is also correctly matched. The Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication, or SWIFT, was founded in the early 1970s and its messaging services went live in 1977, not in 1985. Therefore, the event year pair given in option A is not correct. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Consider option B. The Uruguay Round of GATT is known to have concluded in April 1994 with the signing of the Marrakesh Agreement. Thus, this pair is correctly matched. Step 2: Consider option C. The World Trade Organization succeeded GATT and came into formal existence on 1 January 1995. So this pair is also correctly matched. Step 3: Consider option D. Nasdaq began operations in 1971 as a pioneering electronic stock market in the United States. Therefore, this event year pair is correct. Step 4: Consider option A. SWIFT was created earlier in the 1970s, and its messaging system went live in 1977. The year 1985 given in the option does not match the actual inauguration period. Step 5: Therefore, option A is the incorrectly matched event year pair. Verification / Alternative check: A candidate can verify by remembering that SWIFT was established to replace the telex system in the 1970s, which predates 1985. On the other hand, the Uruguay Round and WTO dates are standard facts that appear in most international trade chapters. Nasdaq being founded in 1971 is one of the earliest examples of an electronic exchange, which is often mentioned in finance textbooks. Since three of the pairs fit these well known dates, the remaining one, SWIFT 1985, stands out as incorrect. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option B is not the incorrect pair because 1994 is indeed the year in which the Uruguay Round concluded. Option C is not the incorrect pair because the World Trade Organization did formally begin in 1995 as stated. Option D is not the incorrect pair since 1971 is the correct founding year for Nasdaq as a fully electronic stock exchange. Common Pitfalls: Candidates may sometimes misremember the sequence of events around the formation of the WTO and assume that it started in 1994 when the Uruguay Round concluded, instead of 1995 when the organisation formally came into being. Others may guess that Nasdaq is more recent because electronic trading is associated with the computer age, leading them to doubt the 1971 date. Careful reading of economic history clarifies that electronic exchanges and SWIFT style messaging systems were introduced earlier than many people think. Always cross check whether an institution was founded or only expanded services in the year given. Final Answer: The event year pair that is not correctly matched is option A, because the SWIFT system was founded and became operational in the late 1970s, not in 1985 as stated.

Question 13

In the context of elections in India, what is the correct full form of the abbreviation VVPAT?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail is an important technological addition to Electronic Voting Machines used in Indian elections. It allows voters to verify visually that their vote has been recorded in favour of the candidate they chose, and creates a paper trail for audit and recount purposes. This question tests basic familiarity with the correct expansion of the abbreviation VVPAT, which is a common topic in polity and current affairs. Given Data / Assumptions: The abbreviation in question is VVPAT. All options expand the letters V, V, P, A and T in slightly different ways. Some options use words like “Poll”, “Paper”, “Account”, “Audit” and “Verifiable”. We assume the official terminology used by the Election Commission of India. Concept / Approach: The official term used in India and widely in election technology literature is Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail. The phrase emphasises that the system generates a paper record of the vote that the voter can verify and that this paper record can be used to audit the electronic count. The key words to remember are “Voter Verifiable”, “Paper” and “Audit Trail”. Options that replace “Audit” with “Account” or that change “Paper” to “Poll” are therefore incorrect. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Break down VVPAT into its letters: V, V, P, A, T. Step 2: Recall that the system is a paper based verification trail for voters. Step 3: The correct phrase is “Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail”, where the first V stands for Voter, the second V for Verifiable, P for Paper, A for Audit and T for Trail. Step 4: Compare with the given options and identify which one exactly matches this phrase. Step 5: Option C corresponds exactly to “Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail”, so it is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: One can verify this by recalling images of VVPAT devices used in Indian elections, where the full form is often printed on the machine body or in Election Commission handouts. Standard polity and current affairs books also expand VVPAT in this way. The word “Audit” is crucial because the purpose is to provide an auditable trail, not merely an account, and “Paper” is important because the system prints a paper slip visible to the voter. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A (Voter Verifiable Poll Audit Trail) incorrectly uses the word “Poll” instead of “Paper”. The system is based on a paper slip, not simply the idea of a poll. Option B (Voter Verifying Paper Audit Trail) reverses the adjective and changes the sense slightly. The standard official term uses “Verifiable”, focusing on the fact that the vote can be verified by the voter. Option D (Voter Verifiable Paper Account Trail) replaces “Audit” with “Account”. While accounting is related to record keeping, the adopted term is “Audit Trail”, which has a specific meaning in information systems and security. Common Pitfalls: A common error is to mark an option that looks almost correct but has one word altered, such as substituting Poll for Paper or Account for Audit. Another pitfall is confusion between “Verifiable” and “Verifying”. Examination setters deliberately include such near misses, so it is important to memorise the exact phrase and to read each option carefully before answering. Final Answer: In Indian elections, VVPAT stands for Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail.

Question 14

Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Niryat Bandhu Scheme?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Niryat Bandhu Scheme is an initiative launched by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. It seeks to encourage new participants in India’s international trade by providing guidance and handholding support. Questions on this scheme assess awareness of export promotion measures and programmes designed to support new entrepreneurs in foreign trade. Given Data / Assumptions: The scheme is called Niryat Bandhu, where “Niryat” means export and “Bandhu” means friend or companion. The options describe the scheme variously as mentoring entrepreneurs, crop protection, support for vulnerable groups or monitoring rural poor. We assume official information about the scheme as available from DGFT and government documents. Concept / Approach: The key idea of Niryat Bandhu is to act as a friend and guide for those who are new to exports and foreign trade. The scheme focuses especially on first generation entrepreneurs and small and medium enterprises, offering training, counselling and information about export procedures, documentation and opportunities. It does not deal with agriculture protection, poverty monitoring or social welfare in a narrow sense. Hence, the option that mentions mentoring first generation entrepreneurs is the correct description. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that the word “Niryat” is Hindi for export, which hints that the scheme deals with foreign trade. Step 2: Recall that the Niryat Bandhu Scheme was launched by DGFT to support those new to exports by providing guidance and capacity building. Step 3: Among the options, only option A talks about mentoring first generation entrepreneurs, which matches this understanding. Step 4: The other options refer to crop protection, vulnerable sections and rural poor monitoring, which are not the focus areas of a foreign trade scheme. Step 5: Therefore, option A is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Textbooks on Indian economy and government schemes often explain that Niryat Bandhu provides handholding support for new entrepreneurs in exports. The scheme includes outreach programmes, training sessions and counselling on export related issues. None of the official descriptions mention crop protection or poverty monitoring. This confirms that mentoring first generation entrepreneurs is the central theme. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option B (scheme for crop protection) is incorrect because agricultural crop protection is covered by other schemes under the agriculture ministry, not by a scheme whose name explicitly relates to exports. Option C (scheme for the vulnerable section of society) is incorrect because although entrepreneurship support can indirectly benefit vulnerable groups, Niryat Bandhu is not a social welfare scheme targeted by vulnerability criteria. Its primary focus is export promotion. Option D (scheme for monitoring rural poor) is incorrect since monitoring poverty in rural areas is the mandate of separate surveys and programmes, and Niryat Bandhu does not perform this function. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may misinterpret the scheme as a general social welfare programme because of the friendly word “Bandhu” and mark an option related to poor or vulnerable sections. Another pitfall is ignoring the hint in the word “Niryat”. Understanding basic Hindi terms often helps decode the subject area of a scheme. Always look for such clues in scheme names to narrow down the correct description. Final Answer: The Niryat Bandhu Scheme is correctly described as a scheme for mentoring first generation entrepreneurs in the field of exports.

Question 15

Which one of the following statements about the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is not correct?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU GKY) is a flagship programme under the Ministry of Rural Development that seeks to provide skill training and placement to rural youth from poor families. It forms part of the larger National Rural Livelihoods Mission. This question presents four statements about DDU GKY and asks which one is not correct. Identifying the incorrect description requires a clear understanding of the target group and the programme design. Given Data / Assumptions: Statement A: DDU GKY is a placement linked skill training programme exclusively for rural girls. Statement B: It aims to convert India’s demographic surplus into a demographic dividend. Statement C: The scheme aims to benefit more than 55 million poor rural people. Statement D: It is a generational poverty alleviation programme. We must determine which statement does not match the official description of DDU GKY. Concept / Approach: DDU GKY targets rural youth from poor families, typically in the age group 15 to 35 years, and provides skill training that is linked to placement in wage employment. It is not limited to girls; both young men and women are eligible, though there are special provisions for vulnerable groups. The programme is designed to harness India’s demographic surplus by equipping young rural population with employable skills, so Statement B is correct. It aims to reach a large number of poor rural youth, so Statement C is broadly correct in spirit. It is considered a generational poverty alleviation programme because stable employment for youth can lift entire families out of poverty, making Statement D correct. Thus the incorrect statement is Statement A, which wrongly says the scheme is exclusively for rural girls. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that DDU GKY provides skill development and placement support to rural youth from poor households. Step 2: Note that the scheme is meant for both males and females. There are specific targets and relaxations for women, but it is not restricted to girls only. Step 3: Statement B describes the vision of turning India’s young population surplus into a demographic dividend, which is indeed part of the scheme’s objective, so B is correct. Step 4: Statement C about benefiting more than 55 million poor rural people describes the broad long term target of the scheme and is consistent with official communications, so it is acceptable. Step 5: Statement D calling it a generational poverty alleviation programme is also correct because placement in stable jobs for youth can break intergenerational poverty cycles. Step 6: Therefore the only statement that is not correct is Statement A. Verification / Alternative check: Verification comes from reading official DDU GKY documents which explicitly state that it targets rural youth from poor families in the age group 15–35, including both men and women. They emphasise special attention to women, Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and minorities but never mention that the scheme is exclusively for rural girls. Also, the language of demographic dividend and generational poverty alleviation is commonly used in official descriptions, confirming that Statements B, C and D reflect the intent of the programme. Why Other Options Are Wrong: As answers to the question asking for the incorrect statement, options B, C and D are wrong choices because the statements they represent are either exactly correct or broadly aligned with the official scheme objectives. They cannot be selected when we are specifically asked to identify the statement that is not correct. Common Pitfalls: Candidates may see the words “placement linked skill training” and accept Statement A at a glance without noticing the word “exclusively”. The exam setter uses this term to create a trap. Another pitfall is misunderstanding approximate numbers such as 55 million and treating them as automatically suspicious. However, in government documents, large rounded figures are common targets. It is essential to read every word of a statement, especially qualifiers like “only” or “exclusively”. Final Answer: The statement that is not correct is option A, because DDU GKY is a placement linked skill training programme for rural youth from poor families, but it is not exclusively for rural girls.

Question 16

Under the flagship Sagarmala Programme, the projects taken up under the Coastal Berth Scheme are distributed over how many States in India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Sagarmala is a flagship programme of the Government of India aimed at promoting port led development by modernising ports, enhancing connectivity and encouraging coastal community development. One of its components is the Coastal Berth Scheme, which provides financial assistance for construction and upgradation of coastal berths in various States. This question asks how many States have projects under the Coastal Berth Scheme, which is a specific factual detail from scheme related current affairs. Given Data / Assumptions: The projects in question fall under the Coastal Berth Scheme of the Sagarmala Programme. They are distributed across a certain number of Indian States. The options are 8, 10, 12 and 14 States. We assume official scheme data on the geographic distribution of sanctioned projects. Concept / Approach: The Sagarmala Programme involves many coastal States and Union Territories, but not all may have projects under every sub scheme. Official reports on the Coastal Berth Scheme mention that projects have been approved for twelve States. Remembering that the number is in double digits and specifically twelve helps pick the correct option. The other options are either too low or too high compared with the actual distribution. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Sagarmala aims to develop port infrastructure along the Indian coast, including construction of berths and jetties. Step 2: The Coastal Berth Scheme is a sub component that provides assistance to States for creating dedicated coastal cargo berths, passenger jetties and related facilities. Step 3: According to official information, projects under this scheme have been sanctioned in twelve States along the coast. Step 4: Compare the options 8, 10, 12 and 14 with this memory. Step 5: Since the correct number is twelve, option C is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Verification can be done by thinking about the number of Indian coastal States. India has a total of nine coastal States plus some Union Territories with coastlines. However, projects under the Coastal Berth Scheme also cover certain inland locations connected to the coastal network. Official briefings on Sagarmala clearly state that projects under the Coastal Berth Scheme are spread over twelve States, which lies between the lower estimate of only coastal States and a higher guess including too many regions. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A (8) is incorrect because this number is lower than the actual count of States that have received projects under the scheme. It would exclude several States that are clearly mentioned in official lists. Option B (10) is also incorrect since it still falls short of the actual figure of twelve. Option D (14) is incorrect because it overshoots the number of States currently covered by the Coastal Berth Scheme and does not match official data. Common Pitfalls: A frequent mistake is to equate the number of States in a scheme with the number of coastal States without considering inland areas or updated approvals. Another pitfall is random guessing among close numbers like 10 and 12. To avoid such errors, it is helpful to recall one or two specific figures from key flagship programmes and to revise them periodically from trusted current affairs sources. Final Answer: The projects under the Coastal Berth Scheme of Sagarmala are distributed over 12 States in India.

Question 17

Which one of the following statements about the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC) is not correct?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC) is an important initiative of the Government of India aimed at supporting adaptation measures to mitigate the adverse impacts of climate change, particularly on vulnerable sectors and regions. Knowing the nature of this fund, its implementation structure and its time frame is part of environment and climate policy awareness. This question presents four statements about NAFCC and asks which one is not correct. Given Data / Assumptions: Statement A: The fund assists national and State level activities to meet the cost of adaptation measures. Statement B: The scheme has been taken up as a Central Sector Scheme. Statement C: The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is the national implementing entity for the fund. Statement D: The scheme has been in force since the financial year 2015–16. We must identify the statement that does not match official information. Concept / Approach: NAFCC was established to support adaptation projects in vulnerable sectors such as agriculture, water, forestry and coastal zones. It is designed as a Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, meaning the central government bears the full financial cost. The fund supports State level projects with national significance, so Statements A and B are correct in spirit and design. The scheme was operationalised around 2015–16, so Statement D is also correct. However, the national implementing entity for NAFCC is the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD), not the Indian Council of Agricultural Research. Therefore, Statement C is not correct. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Examine Statement A. The objective of NAFCC is indeed to help meet the costs of adaptation measures at both national and State levels, especially through State driven projects that address climate impacts. So Statement A is correct. Step 2: Examine Statement B. Government documents describe NAFCC as a Central Sector Scheme, which means the entire funding comes from the central government budget. Therefore Statement B is correct. Step 3: Examine Statement D. The fund was launched around 2015–16, and budget allocations for NAFCC began in that financial year, so Statement D is correct. Step 4: Examine Statement C. The national implementing entity that appraises and oversees projects under NAFCC is NABARD, not ICAR. ICAR focuses on agricultural research and may participate in adaptation related research but is not designated as the national implementing entity for this fund. Step 5: Therefore, Statement C is the one that is not correct. Verification / Alternative check: Verification comes from reading official notifications on NAFCC, which clearly identify NABARD as the national implementing entity. Additionally, in many State project notes and environment ministry documents, NABARD is repeatedly mentioned as the agency responsible for project appraisal and management under NAFCC. These sources also confirm that the scheme is a Central Sector Scheme and that it has been operational since the mid 2010s. No such document names ICAR as the implementing entity for the fund, confirming that Statement C is wrong. Why Other Options Are Wrong: As choices to the question asking for the incorrect statement, options A, B and D are wrong because those statements are actually factually correct. They cannot be selected when we are specifically asked to pick the statement that is not correct. Common Pitfalls: A common confusion arises from the fact that both NABARD and ICAR are prominent in agriculture related policies. Candidates sometimes assume that anything linked to climate change and agriculture must involve ICAR. Another pitfall is neglecting the concept of a Central Sector Scheme versus a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, which can lead to doubt about Statement B. To avoid these issues, learners should memorise at least the main implementing agency for each major climate fund and understand basic scheme classifications. Final Answer: The statement that is not correct is option C, because the national implementing entity for the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change is NABARD, not the Indian Council of Agricultural Research.

Question 18

“SAMPRITI–2017” is the name of a joint military exercise conducted between the armed forces of India and which of the following countries?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: India conducts a number of joint military exercises with friendly countries to enhance defence cooperation, build interoperability and strengthen strategic partnerships. Each exercise typically has a specific name that becomes a favourite topic in defence and current affairs questions. “SAMPRITI” is the name given to a series of joint military exercises between India and one of its neighbours. This question asks which country that is, specifically referring to the 2017 edition of the exercise. Given Data / Assumptions: The exercise name is SAMPRITI–2017. It is described as a joint military exercise with India. The options are Bhutan, Bangladesh, Pakistan and Myanmar. We assume standard defence cooperation information as released by the Ministry of Defence and reported in the media. Concept / Approach: SAMPRITI is the name used for joint military exercises between the armies of India and Bangladesh. Other exercises have different names, for example “IMPACT” and “Maitree” with other neighbours. Remembering that SAMPRITI relates to India–Bangladesh army cooperation allows us to pick the correct option easily. It has nothing to do with Pakistan, Bhutan or Myanmar in official exercise nomenclature. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that many India–Bangladesh joint military exercises have the code name SAMPRITI. Step 2: The 2017 edition, SAMPRITI–2017, continued this series and involved army units from both countries. Step 3: Compare the given options: Bhutan, Bangladesh, Pakistan and Myanmar. Step 4: Only Bangladesh matches the well known SAMPRITI series association. Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is Bangladesh. Verification / Alternative check: A quick way to verify is to remember a few well known joint exercise pairs. For instance, “Yudh Abhyas” is with the United States, “Indra” is with Russia and “Garuda Shakti” is with Indonesia. Similarly, SAMPRITI is repeatedly mentioned in news as the India–Bangladesh army exercise. No defence news item mentions SAMPRITI as a joint exercise with Bhutan, Pakistan or Myanmar, which confirms the answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A (Bhutan) is incorrect because India’s cooperation with Bhutan is strong but their joint military interactions are not known by the name SAMPRITI. Option C (Pakistan) is incorrect because ongoing tensions mean that such exercises with Pakistan are not conducted under this name. Option D (Myanmar) is also incorrect, as exercises with Myanmar have other designations and SAMPRITI is not one of them. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates mix up the names of joint exercises because there are many and they sound similar. Confusing SAMPRITI with other exercises, or assuming it is with Bhutan due to close friendship, is a frequent error. A useful strategy is to make small mental associations, such as “SAMPRITI sounds like sympathy and friendship with Bangladesh”, to remember the pairing correctly. Final Answer: SAMPRITI–2017 is a joint military exercise conducted between the armed forces of India and Bangladesh.

Question 19

In the constitutional system of India, who is regarded as the executive head of the Indian state at the Union level?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This general knowledge question checks awareness of the basic structure of the Indian Union government and the difference between the head of state and other important executive functionaries. Understanding who is regarded as the executive head of the Indian state is fundamental for examinations on polity, civics and the Constitution of India. Many learners confuse the actual political authority with the formal executive authority, so this question helps clarify that distinction. Given Data / Assumptions: The question asks about the executive head of the state in India at the Union level. The options provided are Prime Minister, President, Cabinet Secretary and Finance Secretary. The question refers to the constitutional position, not to popularity or political power. Concept / Approach: According to the Constitution of India, Article 52 states that there shall be a President of India. The President is the head of the state and the formal executive head of the Union. Article 53 vests the executive power of the Union in the President, who exercises this power either directly or through officers subordinate to him or her. However, the real executive authority is exercised by the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. For exam purposes, when the question asks for the executive head of the state, the correct answer is the President, because that is the office in which the Constitution vests the Union executive power. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Indian Constitution distinguishes between the head of state (President) and the head of government (Prime Minister). Step 2: Article 52 provides for a President of India as the head of state. Step 3: Article 53 states that the executive power of the Union is vested in the President. Step 4: Although the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers exercise the real day to day executive power, they do so in the name of the President. Step 5: Therefore, the constitutional executive head of the Indian state at the Union level is the President. Verification / Alternative check: Another way to verify is to recall the oath and functions of the President, who appoints the Prime Minister, other ministers, governors, judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, and many other high officials. All important executive actions of the Government of India are taken in the name of the President. Textbooks on Indian polity consistently describe the President as the nominal or constitutional head of the state, confirming this answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Prime Minister: The Prime Minister is the real head of government and leads the Council of Ministers, but is not the head of state. Cabinet Secretary: The Cabinet Secretary is the top civil servant coordinating between ministries, not a constitutional head. Finance Secretary: The Finance Secretary is a senior bureaucrat in the Ministry of Finance, not the overall executive head of the state. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to select the Prime Minister because of the very visible role in politics and policy. Examinations, however, expect candidates to differentiate between de jure (legal) and de facto (actual) executive authority. Another confusion arises from mixing up terms like head of state and head of government. Remember that the President is the ceremonial and constitutional head of state, whereas the Prime Minister is the political head of government. Final Answer: The executive head of the Indian state at the Union level is the President.

Question 20

Which of the following contestants won the Miss Universe 2016 international beauty pageant title?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question tests awareness of recent international events, specifically global beauty pageants. Miss Universe is one of the most widely followed pageants in the world, and winners from different years are often asked in competitive examinations. Knowing the winner for 2016 helps learners keep track of important names in the field of international current affairs and culture. Given Data / Assumptions: The question asks for the winner of the Miss Universe 2016 title. The options list four well known contestants related to recent Miss Universe editions. The year is clearly specified as 2016, so the learner must not confuse it with nearby years. Concept / Approach: Miss Universe is an annual international beauty pageant. The 2016 edition of Miss Universe was held in January 2017 in Manila, Philippines, but it is referred to as Miss Universe 2016 because it represents the 2016 pageant cycle. The winner of this edition was Iris Mittenaere from France. Other names in the options such as Pia Wurtzbach, Raquel Pellissier and Andrea Tovar were winners or runners up in adjacent years, which can cause confusion if one is not careful with dates. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Pia Wurtzbach from the Philippines won Miss Universe 2015. Step 2: Remember that Iris Mittenaere, representing France, was crowned Miss Universe 2016. Step 3: Note that Raquel Pellissier from Haiti and Andrea Tovar from Colombia were runners up at the same pageant, not the winner. Step 4: Match this information with the options and identify Iris Mittenaere as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: A quick verification approach is to connect each name with the country and year usually mentioned in current affairs notes. Exam preparation material and news archives describe Iris Mittenaere from France as Miss Universe 2016, succeeding Pia Wurtzbach. This cross check confirms that the correct answer is Iris Mittenaere and not any of the runners up. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Pia Wurtzbach: She won Miss Universe 2015, not Miss Universe 2016. Raquel Pellissier: She was the first runner up at Miss Universe 2016, representing Haiti, so she did not win the crown. Andrea Tovar: She was the second runner up at Miss Universe 2016, representing Colombia, therefore she was not the title holder. Common Pitfalls: A common error is to remember the names but forget the exact year of the title. Because the Miss Universe 2016 event actually took place in January 2017, some learners mix it with events of that year and may choose the wrong option. It is also easy to confuse between the winner and runners up when several names are repeatedly mentioned in the media. For exam purposes, always fix the pair year plus winner in memory. Final Answer: The Miss Universe 2016 title was won by Iris Mittenaere.

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