Question 1

According to survey data, which Indian state ranks first in highest alcohol consumption among children?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question highlights a serious social and public health issue. Studies on substance use among children and adolescents in India reveal patterns of tobacco and alcohol consumption that concern policymakers, parents and educators. Knowing which state shows the highest alcohol use among children, as reported by national surveys, is important for awareness and for examinations that cover social issues. Given Data / Assumptions: The focus is on alcohol consumption specifically among children, not adults. The ranking refers to survey based data across Indian states. Four states are provided among which one has the highest reported rate for children. Concept / Approach: Surveys carried out by child rights bodies and health organisations have indicated that Punjab has one of the highest proportions of children consuming alcohol. This finding is often cited in news reports discussing underage drinking and the need for stronger preventive measures. Therefore, when exams refer to the state that ranks first in this troubling statistic, they generally point to Punjab. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall reading about survey results on substance use among children in India. Step 2: Remember that Punjab was singled out as the state with the highest percentage of children consuming alcohol. Step 3: Examine the given options and locate Punjab. Step 4: Recognise that Uttar Pradesh, Telangana and Maharashtra were not reported as the top state on this specific parameter in the cited studies. Step 5: Select Punjab as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Articles summarising national level surveys on child substance abuse list Punjab as leading in several indicators of alcohol use among minors. These reports often mention that this trend is higher than in many other large states and call for targeted interventions. No equivalent ranking is given for Uttar Pradesh, Telangana or Maharashtra in this context, which validates Punjab as the correct choice for the question. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Uttar Pradesh: A populous state with its own challenges, but not identified as first in the specific metric of alcohol use among children in the cited study. Telangana: Has social issues like many regions, yet does not top this particular national ranking. Maharashtra: Also a large state with urban centres, but not reported as number one for child alcohol consumption rates in the relevant survey. Common Pitfalls: Candidates might guess based purely on population size, thinking that larger states such as Uttar Pradesh will automatically lead all negative indicators. Others may choose states with well known adult alcohol consumption patterns without considering child specific data. The correct approach is to remember that survey based rankings can differ from general impressions and to revise key findings carefully. Final Answer: Punjab is the state that ranks first in highest alcohol consumption among children according to the survey data referenced in the question.

Question 2

Which Indian state government announced the Mukhyamantri Parivar Samman Nidhi income support scheme for eligible families?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Mukhyamantri Parivar Samman Nidhi scheme is a state level social security and income support initiative announced to provide financial assistance to eligible families. Questions like this test your awareness of which state governments have launched major welfare schemes, a very common theme in Indian general knowledge and current affairs examinations. Given Data / Assumptions: - The name of the scheme is Mukhyamantri Parivar Samman Nidhi. - It is a state government scheme, not a central government scheme. - The options list four Indian states Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat and Haryana. - The question expects you to recall which state announced this particular family income support programme. Concept / Approach: In recent years several states have launched schemes with similar sounding names like Mukhyamantri and Parivar, so it is important to map each scheme name to the correct state. Mukhyamantri Parivar Samman Nidhi is a scheme announced by the Government of Haryana to provide income support to farmers and certain other categories of workers through regular payments. Remembering that Haryana has used the phrase Parivar Samman Nidhi in its welfare branding helps you identify the correct state among the options. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Focus on the keywords Mukhyamantri, Parivar and Samman Nidhi, which indicate a chief minister led family support scheme. Step 2: Recall from news and current affairs notes that Haryana launched a Mukhyamantri Parivar Samman Nidhi Yojana to support small and marginal farmers and workers. Step 3: Compare this with welfare schemes in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, which have different names such as Annabhagya or Amma branded schemes. Step 4: Note that Gujarat has its own set of Mukhyamantri schemes but is not associated with the specific title Parivar Samman Nidhi. Step 5: Therefore, match the scheme name to Haryana and select that option as correct. Verification / Alternative check: If you look at compilations of important schemes by Indian states, you will find entries for Haryana mentioning Mukhyamantri Parivar Samman Nidhi Yojana as an income support scheme. These sources often describe it alongside other Haryana programmes, confirming the link between this scheme name and the Haryana state government. No similar listing connects the exact phrase Parivar Samman Nidhi with Karnataka, Tamil Nadu or Gujarat in standard exam oriented materials. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Karnataka has launched several flagship schemes in areas like food security and farmer support, but none carry the exact title Mukhyamantri Parivar Samman Nidhi. Tamil Nadu is known for Amma branded schemes and other social programmes, not for a scheme with this particular name. Gujarat also runs many Mukhyamantri schemes, yet the combination Parivar Samman Nidhi is specifically associated with Haryana, not Gujarat. Common Pitfalls: Because many states use the prefix Mukhyamantri in their schemes, students sometimes guess based on political preference or vague memory instead of precise recall. Another common mistake is to confuse this scheme with central government programmes like Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi, which has a similar Samman Nidhi phrase. To avoid such confusion, always note both the full scheme name and the level of government, state versus central, when you study current affairs. Final Answer: The Mukhyamantri Parivar Samman Nidhi income support scheme was announced by the state government of Haryana.

Question 3

According to the report Trends in International Arms Transfers 2018 which country was identified as the second largest importer of weapons in the world?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Reports on global arms transfers help observers understand which countries are purchasing large quantities of weapons and defence equipment. The Stockholm International Peace Research Institute publishes the well known Trends in International Arms Transfers series. General knowledge questions frequently ask which countries are the largest importers or exporters of arms in particular time periods, making this a key static current affairs topic. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question refers specifically to the report titled Trends in International Arms Transfers 2018. - We are asked about the second largest importer of weapons, not the largest exporter. - The options list North Korea, India, China and Pakistan. - We assume the standard interpretation of weapons imports over the reporting period used in that report. Concept / Approach: During the period covered by Trends in International Arms Transfers 2018, India remained one of the world leading importers of major arms. Although the exact ranking may vary slightly depending on the chosen time window, the report often highlights Saudi Arabia and India at the top of the import list, with India appearing as the second largest importer. Many exam oriented summaries explicitly mention that India was the second largest importer of weapons in this report, so that is the answer expected here. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that India has for many years relied heavily on imports for advanced defence platforms such as fighter jets, submarines and artillery. Step 2: Remember reading in current affairs notes that India was described as the world second largest importer of major arms in the Trends in International Arms Transfers 2018 report, behind Saudi Arabia. Step 3: Consider that North Korea is heavily sanctioned and does not appear as a major legal importer in such reports. Step 4: Note that China has increased its own defence production and has been reducing relative imports compared to earlier decades. Step 5: Pakistan imports significant arms, but not at the same overall level as India for the time window covered by the 2018 report, so choose India. Verification / Alternative check: Summaries of the 2018 arms transfer trends published in newspapers and defence magazines emphasise that India remained among the top importers of major arms, often ranking second. Many exam prep books directly state in bullet points that as per Trends in International Arms Transfers 2018, India was the world second largest importer of weapons. Seeing this statement repeated consistently across exam materials confirms that India is the intended correct answer for this question. Why Other Options Are Wrong: North Korea is an isolated state with restricted access to legal arms markets and is not listed among the largest importers in mainstream arms transfer reports. China has traditionally imported some major platforms, but in recent years it has focused on domestic production and is not ranked as high as India in the relevant period. Pakistan does import arms but its total volume is lower than that of India during the period examined in the 2018 report, so it is not the second largest importer. Common Pitfalls: Candidates may confuse arms import rankings with overall military power or defence spending, where countries like China and the United States appear very prominently. Another trap is to assume that a politically sensitive country like North Korea must appear at the top of any negative list. To avoid these mistakes, focus on the specific phrasing of the question second largest importer as per a named report and revise the rankings tied to that exact source. Final Answer: As per the report Trends in International Arms Transfers 2018, the second largest importer of weapons in the world was India.

Question 4

On standard Indian currency notes whose signature appears as the official signatory on behalf of the issuing authority?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Every Indian currency note carries certain standard features such as the denomination, security elements and an official signature. Recognising whose signature appears on banknotes is a basic element of financial and civic literacy, and questions about it are very common in competitive examinations and banking awareness sections. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question asks whose signature is printed on Indian currency notes. - It refers to normal banknotes, not commemorative coins. - The options list four high ranking constitutional or economic functionaries Finance Minister, RBI Governor, Prime Minister and President of India. - We assume knowledge of the role of the Reserve Bank of India as the issuing authority. Concept / Approach: Under the Reserve Bank of India Act, the RBI is the sole authority empowered to issue banknotes in India, except for one rupee notes which are issued by the Government of India. For the majority of denominations, the promise to pay the bearer is signed by the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India. Currency notes therefore carry the RBI Governor signature, signifying the backing and responsibility of the central bank rather than of a political office holder such as the Prime Minister or Finance Minister. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that most Indian banknotes contain the printed line I promise to pay the bearer the sum of ... Step 2: Notice that this promise is followed by the printed name and signature of the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India. Step 3: Understand that the Finance Minister presents the Union Budget and oversees economic policy, but does not sign banknotes. Step 4: Recognise that the Prime Minister and President are constitutional heads but do not act as the issuing authority for banknotes under the RBI Act. Step 5: Therefore, the correct choice is RBI Governor. Verification / Alternative check: If you physically examine any common denomination note such as Rs 100, Rs 200 or Rs 500, you will clearly see the name and signature of the RBI Governor printed on it. Textbooks on banking and monetary policy also state that the RBI has the sole right to issue banknotes in India and that these notes carry the signature of the Governor. This direct observation and consistent documentation confirm that RBI Governor is the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The Finance Minister does not sign banknotes; their role is in policy making, taxation and budgeting. The Prime Minister leads the government but is not the authority specified in law for issuing currency notes. The President of India is the ceremonial head of state and likewise does not sign banknotes. Common Pitfalls: Some students may assume that because currency is a matter of national sovereignty, the signatures of the highest political leaders like the President or Prime Minister must appear on notes. Others might confuse coins and one rupee notes, which are technically issued by the Government of India, with banknotes issued by the RBI. The key is to remember the specific legal role of the Reserve Bank of India and the fact that its Governor signature symbolises the central bank guarantee on the note. Final Answer: The signature printed on standard Indian currency notes is that of the RBI Governor.

Question 5

The main principal bench of the National Green Tribunal NGT in India is located in which city?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The National Green Tribunal is a specialised judicial body set up in India for the effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection, conservation of forests and other natural resources. Knowing where its main principal bench is located is part of basic Indian polity and environment related general knowledge. Given Data / Assumptions: - The institution mentioned is the National Green Tribunal, commonly abbreviated as NGT. - The question asks about the location of its main bench, also called the principal bench. - The options list Delhi, Pune, Lucknow and Bhopal as possible cities. - We assume awareness that NGT also has regional benches, but the question is specifically about the main one. Concept / Approach: The NGT principal bench is located in New Delhi, the capital of India. While the Tribunal has zonal benches in cities like Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai to cover different regions, the central and most important bench operates from Delhi. Most landmark NGT orders and high profile environmental cases are heard at the principal bench in Delhi, which is why exam questions generally expect Delhi as the answer. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the headquarters of many national level tribunals and commissions are based in New Delhi. Step 2: Specifically remember that the National Green Tribunal principal bench functions from Delhi, handling matters with nationwide implications. Step 3: Note that Pune hosts a western zonal bench of the NGT but is not the site of the principal bench. Step 4: Similarly, Bhopal and other cities are used for regional benches or circuit benches for convenience of litigants. Step 5: Therefore, select Delhi as the correct city where the main bench is located. Verification / Alternative check: Official information from the National Green Tribunal and government websites clearly states that the principal bench is situated in New Delhi. Maps and contact details for NGT benches list Delhi as the headquarters address, while other cities appear under regional or zonal bench headings. Competitive exam guides on environment and ecology also mention that the NGT principal bench is in Delhi, confirming the expected answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Pune does have an NGT bench, but it is a regional bench, not the principal bench. Lucknow is a major city in Uttar Pradesh but does not host the NGT principal bench. Bhopal is associated with an NGT bench for the central region, yet the main bench remains in Delhi. Common Pitfalls: Students who have heard of an NGT bench in another city, such as Pune or Bhopal, may mistakenly assume that this city must be the head office location. The word main or principal in the question is a crucial clue pointing towards Delhi. To avoid confusion, it helps to memorise a short list of principal bench locations for important tribunals and differentiate them from their regional benches. Final Answer: The main principal bench of the National Green Tribunal is located in Delhi.

Question 6

Project 75 India often mentioned in defence news is associated with which branch of the Indian armed forces for building advanced submarines?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Project 75 and its extended version Project 75 India are important programmes in India effort to strengthen its underwater warfare capabilities. These projects involve the construction of modern submarines with advanced stealth and combat features. General knowledge questions frequently ask which branch of the armed forces is linked to these projects, making this a key defence awareness topic. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question refers to Project 75 India, also written as P75I. - It asks which Indian armed force this project is associated with. - The options list the Indian Army, Indian Air Force, Indian Coast Guard and Indian Navy. - We assume awareness that submarine construction falls under naval warfare. Concept / Approach: Project 75 and Project 75 India are submarine acquisition and construction programmes intended to equip the Indian Navy with a new generation of conventional diesel electric submarines, some featuring air independent propulsion. These submarines are critical for sea denial, coastal defence and maritime security, all of which fall squarely within the role of the Indian Navy. Therefore, the project is directly associated with the Indian Navy, not the Army, Air Force or Coast Guard. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that the phrase Project 75 India is used in news stories about submarine building contracts and strategic partnerships. Step 2: Recall that submarines are naval platforms operating under water to support maritime operations and deterrence. Step 3: Since submarines are not used by the Army or Air Force, immediately rule out those branches. Step 4: The Indian Coast Guard operates patrol vessels and aircraft for coastal security but is not the primary operator of advanced attack submarines. Step 5: Therefore select Indian Navy as the branch associated with Project 75 India. Verification / Alternative check: Reading defence news articles and official press briefings reveals that Project 75 covers the construction of Scorpene class submarines at Mazagon Dock for the Indian Navy, while Project 75 India plans an additional line of more advanced submarines. All such communications refer to the Indian Navy as the beneficiary service. Competitive exam guides on defence also summarise Project 75 India under the Indian Navy heading, which confirms the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The Indian Army primarily operates land based forces such as infantry, armour and artillery, not submarines. The Indian Air Force is responsible for aerial warfare and does not manage submarine building programmes. The Indian Coast Guard protects coastal and maritime zones but typically operates surface vessels and aircraft, not advanced attack submarines. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may confuse Project 75 with other numbered defence projects related to missiles or aircraft, leading them to consider the Air Force or Army. Others may not pay attention to the keywords in news headlines that clearly connect P75I to submarines. A simple memory trick is to associate the number 75 with the deep sea by picturing seventy five metres underwater and linking that image to the Indian Navy submarine programme. Final Answer: Project 75 India is associated with the Indian Navy and its programme to build advanced submarines.

Question 7

By total land area which continent is the second largest in the world after Asia?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Basic world geography often starts with learning the names and relative sizes of the continents. Knowing which continent is the largest, second largest and so on is a common requirement for school exams and competitive tests. This question checks whether you remember which landmass comes second in size after Asia. Given Data / Assumptions: - The measure used is total land area of each continent. - Asia is already known to be the largest continent by area. - The options include Asia, Australia, Africa and Europe. - We assume standard geographical definitions of continents. Concept / Approach: Asia is the largest continent, covering roughly thirty percent of the world land area. The next largest continent by area is Africa, which spans a huge landmass extending across the equator and containing many countries. Europe is smaller than both Asia and Africa, and Australia is the smallest continent if we exclude Antarctica from many practical lists. Therefore, when asked for the second largest continent after Asia, Africa is the correct answer. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Start by ordering the continents by size from memory Asia, Africa, North America, South America, Antarctica, Europe and Australia. Step 2: Identify that Asia is clearly number one on this list. Step 3: Note that Africa is next in the sequence and is widely recognised as the second largest continent. Step 4: Recognise that Europe is significantly smaller than both Asia and Africa. Step 5: Remember that Australia is the smallest continent in most common classifications and cannot be second largest, so select Africa. Verification / Alternative check: Any standard atlas or geography textbook will include a table or map showing the continents and their approximate areas. These references consistently list Asia as the largest and Africa as the second largest by land area. Visual inspection of world maps also confirms that Africa covers a vast portion of the globe, second only to the immense landmass of Asia, which makes the ranking logical and easy to remember. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Asia is indeed the largest continent, but the question specifically asks for the second largest after Asia, so Asia cannot be the correct option here. Australia is the smallest inhabited continent and is far smaller than Africa and Asia, so it does not qualify as the second largest. Europe has a smaller land area than Africa and is not the second largest continent. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to confuse population size with land area. For example, Europe has a high population density in many parts, which may make it feel important but does not change its physical size ranking. Another error is to forget whether North America or Africa is larger; however, the standard order by area puts Africa ahead of North America. Memorising the continent size order once and revising it before exams helps avoid such confusion. Final Answer: The second largest continent in the world by land area, after Asia, is Africa.

Question 8

In which city is the Nobel Peace Prize formally awarded each year under the Nobel Foundation system?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Nobel Prizes are among the most prestigious international awards, given for achievements in fields such as physics, chemistry, medicine, literature and peace. Most Nobel Prizes are awarded in Stockholm, Sweden, but the Nobel Peace Prize follows a special arrangement and is presented in a different city. This distinction is often tested in general knowledge exams. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question is specifically about the Nobel Peace Prize, not the other Nobel Prizes. - It asks in which city the prize is awarded. - The options include Oslo, Stockholm, Radhuset and Spain. - We understand that Radhuset is not a country but a specific building name, and Spain is a country, not a city. Concept / Approach: In accordance with Alfred Nobel will, the Nobel Peace Prize is awarded in Oslo, Norway, while the other Nobel Prizes are awarded in Stockholm, Sweden. The award ceremony for the Peace Prize is held at the Oslo City Hall, known locally as Radhuset. Therefore, when asked for the city where the Nobel Peace Prize is awarded, the correct answer is Oslo, not Stockholm or any other option. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the special rule that distinguishes the Nobel Peace Prize from the other Nobel Prizes. Step 2: Remember that Alfred Nobel specified in his will that the Peace Prize should be decided and awarded in Norway. Step 3: Recognise that Oslo is the capital city of Norway and the location of the Peace Prize ceremony. Step 4: Note that Stockholm is associated with the other Nobel disciplines, not with the Peace Prize. Step 5: Understand that Radhuset is the Oslo City Hall building, and Spain is a country, so the correct city name to choose is Oslo. Verification / Alternative check: News coverage every year clearly shows the Nobel Peace Prize ceremony taking place at Oslo City Hall. Official Nobel Foundation information explains that five Norwegian Nobel Committee members decide the Peace Prize and that the ceremony is held in Oslo. In contrast, Nobel ceremonies in Stockholm are for physics, chemistry, medicine, literature and economic sciences. This consistent pattern confirms Oslo as the right answer to this question. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Stockholm is indeed a Nobel city but hosts the prize ceremonies for other fields, not for the Peace Prize. Radhuset is the Norwegian name for the city hall building in Oslo, not a city by itself; the question asks for the city name, which is Oslo. Spain is a country, not a city, and has no special role in the Nobel Peace Prize ceremonies. Common Pitfalls: Many students automatically associate all Nobel Prizes with Stockholm and answer Stockholm without carefully reading that the question is about the Peace Prize only. Others may see the unfamiliar term Radhuset and mistake it for a city name. To avoid such errors, remember the simple rule Stockholm for most Nobel Prizes and Oslo for the Peace Prize, and then pick the correct city name rather than the building or the country. Final Answer: The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded each year in the city of Oslo, Norway.

Question 9

As per market capitalisation at the time this question was framed which company was regarded as the world most valuable company?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The term most valuable company usually refers to the company with the highest market capitalisation on global stock markets at a given point in time. This figure is calculated as the total number of outstanding shares multiplied by the share price. Competitive examinations sometimes ask which company held this top position during a particular period, especially when a firm reaches historic milestones such as crossing the one trillion United States dollar mark in valuation. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question asks for the world most valuable company by market capitalisation at the time the question bank was prepared. - The options list Apple, Amazon, Microsoft and Google as possible answers. - During the relevant period, Apple was widely reported as the most valuable public company. - We interpret most valuable in the sense of stock market valuation, not brand value or revenue. Concept / Approach: For several years around the late 2010s, Apple was frequently at or near the top of global rankings by market capitalisation and became the first publicly traded United States company to reach a valuation of one trillion United States dollars. While companies like Amazon, Microsoft and Alphabet (Google parent) sometimes overtook one another in short time windows, most general knowledge books and question banks for that period captured the headline that Apple was the world most valuable company. Therefore, Apple is the expected correct option in this static GK question. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Apple share price surged significantly, making it the first big technology company to cross the one trillion United States dollar valuation mark. Step 2: Remember that many news articles and exam notes summarised this by saying Apple became the world most valuable company. Step 3: Recognise that Amazon and Microsoft also achieved high valuations, but their periods at number one were often shorter and are less commonly used as static GK statements. Step 4: Note that Google, through its parent Alphabet, is extremely valuable but was not the focus of the specific milestone often quoted in older GK material. Step 5: Based on this, choose Apple as the company most likely intended by the question setter. Verification / Alternative check: If you look at historical financial news from around the time these questions were typically compiled, you will find repeated references to Apple as the most valuable publicly traded company in the world, especially when it first crossed the trillion dollar mark. Static general knowledge books often freeze such facts at the time of publication, so Apple remains the correct answer in those contexts even if market rankings change later. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Amazon briefly overtook Apple in valuation at certain moments, but this change was not as widely fixed in exam oriented GK as Apple historic milestone. Microsoft has also been extremely valuable and at times ranked first, but many question banks written for that specific period still highlight Apple as the top company. Google, represented by Alphabet, is a major technology giant but was not the main company linked with the first trillion dollar headline in general knowledge notes. Common Pitfalls: One common pitfall is to treat this as a live current affairs question and try to recall the absolute latest market rankings, which change frequently over time. However, static general knowledge questions in printed books usually reflect the situation at the time of writing. Another mistake is to misinterpret most valuable as referring to brand value or revenue instead of stock market capitalisation. Carefully reading the context of your study materials helps you avoid such confusion. Final Answer: At the time this question was framed, the company regarded as the world most valuable by market capitalisation was Apple.

Question 10

In which year did India successfully launch its first lunar mission Chandrayaan 1?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Chandrayaan 1 was India first unmanned lunar mission and a major milestone in the Indian Space Research Organisation journey into deep space exploration. Knowing the launch year of this historic mission is a common requirement in space science and Indian achievement related general knowledge. Given Data / Assumptions: - The mission in question is Chandrayaan 1, India first lunar probe. - We are asked in which year it was successfully launched. - The options provided are 2008, 2006, 2010 and 2013. - We assume standard historical timelines for ISRO missions. Concept / Approach: Chandrayaan 1 was launched by ISRO on board a Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in October 2008. The mission successfully entered lunar orbit and played a key role in confirming the presence of water molecules on the Moon surface. Later missions such as Chandrayaan 2 and other planetary projects came in subsequent years, but the first Chandrayaan launch is firmly placed in 2008. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the timeline of major ISRO achievements, including the first lunar mission, the Mars Orbiter Mission and later Chandrayaan attempts. Step 2: Remember that Chandrayaan 1 launch took place in late 2008, an event widely celebrated in India and covered by global media. Step 3: Note that 2006 is too early and does not match the widely known launch date. Step 4: Recognise that 2010 and 2013 are associated with other missions and subsequent developments, not with the original Chandrayaan 1 launch. Step 5: Therefore, select 2008 as the correct year. Verification / Alternative check: Any reliable chronology of ISRO missions lists Chandrayaan 1 launch in October 2008. School textbooks, competitive exam manuals and science outreach materials all reference 2008 as the year India joined the group of nations that had sent spacecraft to the Moon. These sources confirm that 2008 is the correct answer for this question. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 2006 predates the actual launch and does not correspond to the mission date in official ISRO records. 2010 falls after the Chandrayaan 1 mission and is not associated with the first lunar launch. 2013 is closer to later missions and other achievements but again does not match the start of Chandrayaan 1. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse Chandrayaan 1 with Chandrayaan 2 or mix up the dates of India Mars Orbiter Mission and its lunar missions. Another pitfall is to remember only the decade and then guess between multiple nearby years such as 2008 and 2010. To avoid such confusion, it is helpful to memorise a simple timeline of ISRO landmark missions with their specific launch years. Final Answer: India successfully launched its first lunar mission Chandrayaan 1 in the year 2008.

Question 11

Which of the following was the first bank to be established in India in the modern banking era?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The history of modern banking in India began under colonial rule, with early banks being set up in the eighteenth century. Competitive exams often ask which was the first bank to be established in India, because this fact helps frame the timeline of financial development in the country and distinguishes between several old institutions with similar sounding names. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question asks for the first bank established in India. - The options are General Bank of India, Bank of Calcutta, Bank of Hindustan and Bank of Baroda. - We are dealing with modern style banks, not informal moneylenders or indigenous banking houses. - We assume the standard chronology accepted in most Indian banking history references. Concept / Approach: Bank of Hindustan, established around 1770, is generally regarded as the first modern bank in India. It was set up in the then Bengal Presidency and later went into liquidation. General Bank of India was founded later in the 1780s, and the Bank of Calcutta, which eventually became part of the Imperial Bank of India and later the State Bank of India, was established in 1806. Bank of Baroda is a much newer nationalised bank founded in the early twentieth century. Therefore, among the given options, Bank of Hindustan is recognised as the earliest bank. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the historical order Bank of Hindustan, General Bank of India and then Bank of Calcutta. Step 2: Note that Bank of Hindustan is generally placed around 1770, making it the earliest of these institutions. Step 3: Recognise that General Bank of India was established later, so it cannot be the first if Bank of Hindustan already existed. Step 4: Remember that Bank of Calcutta was set up in 1806, clearly after both Bank of Hindustan and General Bank of India. Step 5: Bank of Baroda dates from the twentieth century, much later than all the others, so mark Bank of Hindustan as correct. Verification / Alternative check: Banking history summaries used in exam preparation usually contain a chronological list of early Indian banks. These lists almost always begin with Bank of Hindustan as the first bank established in India, followed by General Bank of India and then the Presidency banks including Bank of Calcutta. Although some finer academic debates exist about definitions, general knowledge material consistently identifies Bank of Hindustan as the first, which is what matters for exam answers. Why Other Options Are Wrong: General Bank of India is one of the early banks but was founded after Bank of Hindustan and therefore is not the first. Bank of Calcutta is significant historically but was established in 1806, well after Bank of Hindustan. Bank of Baroda was founded in the twentieth century and is far too recent to be the first bank in India. Common Pitfalls: Because more attention is given to banks that survived and evolved into major modern institutions, many students remember Bank of Calcutta or later Presidency banks better than Bank of Hindustan, which no longer exists. As a result, they may incorrectly select Bank of Calcutta. To avoid this mistake, it helps to memorise a short note such as Bank of Hindustan 1770 first bank in India and then build the rest of the timeline around it. Final Answer: The first bank established in India in the modern banking era was the Bank of Hindustan.

Question 12

National Housing Bank NHB functions as a specialised housing finance institution and is a subsidiary of which organisation?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: National Housing Bank is an apex level institution created to promote housing finance institutions and provide refinancing support for housing loans in India. Understanding its ownership and parentage is important in banking awareness, because it shows how housing finance is linked to the broader monetary and regulatory framework of the country. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question asks National Housing Bank is a subsidiary of which organisation. - The options list State Bank of India, Reserve Bank of India, Bank of India and the World Bank. - We are dealing with the institutional relationship at the time this static GK question was framed. - We assume knowledge of RBI role as the central bank. Concept / Approach: National Housing Bank was set up in 1988 under the National Housing Bank Act as a wholly owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India. The idea was to create a dedicated apex financial institution for housing while keeping it within the overall framework of the central bank supervision and policy direction. Though shareholding patterns can evolve over time, static general knowledge questions in many exam books state that NHB is a subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India, which is the relationship expected in this question. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that NHB has historically been described in textbooks as the apex housing finance institution under the umbrella of the RBI. Step 2: Remember reading that NHB was initially wholly owned by the Reserve Bank of India. Step 3: State Bank of India and Bank of India are commercial banks, not the central bank, so they are less likely to be the parent of an apex level housing finance institution. Step 4: World Bank is an international organisation and does not directly own NHB as a subsidiary. Step 5: Therefore, choose Reserve Bank of India as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Banking awareness notes and older official documents from RBI describe National Housing Bank as its wholly owned subsidiary established to accelerate housing finance. Even where ownership structures later change, exam oriented material continues to treat Reserve Bank of India as the parent organisation for the purpose of static GK questions. This makes option b the standard expected response. Why Other Options Are Wrong: State Bank of India, though a large public sector bank, is itself regulated by RBI and is not the parent of NHB in the sense meant by the question. Bank of India is another commercial bank and does not own National Housing Bank as a subsidiary. World Bank may provide financial or technical assistance to housing projects but does not directly own NHB. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates see the word bank in the name and incorrectly assume that NHB must be linked to State Bank of India simply because SBI is the largest commercial bank in the country. Others may overthink and choose World Bank due to its involvement in development projects. Keeping in mind that RBI creates and supervises financial institutions at the apex level helps anchor the correct answer in memory. Final Answer: National Housing Bank is a subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India.

Question 13

Which Indian state became the first in the country to list a masala bond in the overseas market to raise funds?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Masala bonds are rupee denominated bonds issued outside India, allowing Indian issuers to raise funds from international markets while the currency risk is borne by investors. While initially used mainly by corporations and public sector entities, one Indian state government made news by becoming the first state to list a masala bond in an overseas market to finance its infrastructure projects. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question asks which state became the first in India to list a masala bond overseas. - The options are Karnataka, Odisha, Sikkim and Kerala. - We assume that the bond was issued by a state related financial vehicle on an international exchange. - The question is based on a specific current affairs event. Concept / Approach: Kerala attracted attention when the Kerala Infrastructure Investment Fund Board, a state level body, issued a masala bond on the London Stock Exchange to raise money for infrastructure development. This move made Kerala the first Indian state to tap the overseas masala bond market directly through a state backed entity. Exam oriented current affairs material therefore records Kerala as the first state to list such a bond overseas. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the news that a southern Indian state used masala bonds to finance large infrastructure projects through an investment fund. Step 2: Remember that this state was Kerala, acting through the Kerala Infrastructure Investment Fund Board. Step 3: Compare this with Karnataka and Odisha, which have undertaken various borrowing programmes but were not highlighted in the same way for masala bond listing firsts. Step 4: Recognise that Sikkim is a small state unlikely to be the first mover in this particular international bond market context. Step 5: Based on the widely reported event, select Kerala as the correct option. Verification / Alternative check: Financial newspapers and magazines reported on Kerala masala bond issue in detail, emphasising that it was the first time an Indian state government entity had listed such a bond on an overseas exchange. The London Stock Exchange also highlighted this listing as a milestone. Current affairs compilations summarised the story with the simple statement that Kerala was the first state to float a masala bond abroad, which is the statement this question is derived from. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Karnataka has a large economy and has used bonds for financing, but it is not recorded as the first state to list a masala bond overseas. Odisha has not been highlighted in major financial news as the pioneer in masala bond listings among Indian states. Sikkim is not associated with such an international bond issue in exam oriented GK material. Common Pitfalls: Because multiple states have announced innovative financing schemes, some candidates may guess Karnataka or another large state assuming that bigger economies always lead in such areas. Another source of confusion is the similarity between different types of bonds and loan instruments. To avoid errors, it helps to remember the specific pairing Kerala and masala bond listing on the London Stock Exchange as a unique fact. Final Answer: The first Indian state to list a masala bond in the overseas market was Kerala.

Question 14

According to the 2018 all India tiger estimation which Indian state recorded the highest number of tigers?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: India conducts periodic all India tiger estimation exercises to monitor the status of its tiger population in various states and reserves. These surveys receive wide publicity, and exam questions often ask which state recorded the highest number of tigers in a particular census year. The 2018 estimation was especially important because it showed a significant increase in tiger numbers in several regions. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question refers specifically to the 2018 tiger census or all India estimation. - We are asked which state recorded the highest number of tigers. - The options given are Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Uttarakhand. - We assume the standard official figures released for that period. Concept / Approach: In earlier tiger counts, Karnataka often held the top position in terms of tiger numbers. However, according to the 2018 estimation, Madhya Pradesh recorded the highest number of tigers among Indian states, slightly surpassing Karnataka. Because of this change, many current affairs notes specifically highlight that Madhya Pradesh regained or secured the top spot in 2018, making it the correct answer for questions on that census year. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that both Madhya Pradesh and Karnataka have historically been strong tiger states, with famous reserves like Kanha, Bandhavgarh and Nagarhole. Step 2: Remember reading that in the 2018 tiger census, Madhya Pradesh was reported as having the largest tiger population among the states. Step 3: Note that Karnataka, while still having a high tiger population, came slightly behind Madhya Pradesh in the ranking for that year. Step 4: Chhattisgarh and Uttarakhand have important tiger habitats but do not rank at the very top in absolute numbers. Step 5: Therefore, mark Madhya Pradesh as the state with the highest number of tigers in 2018. Verification / Alternative check: Official press releases and environment ministry reports summarising the 2018 tiger estimation clearly state that Madhya Pradesh had the maximum number of tigers among all states, followed closely by Karnataka. Current affairs books and environment oriented GK guides convert this into a direct fact statement Madhya Pradesh recorded the highest number of tigers in 2018, which matches the wording of this question. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Karnataka had topped some earlier lists but, according to the 2018 figures, it was marginally behind Madhya Pradesh. Chhattisgarh has tigers but faces challenges related to habitat and conflict and does not have the largest population nationally. Uttarakhand contains important reserves like Corbett National Park but still has fewer tigers than Madhya Pradesh in the 2018 estimation. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to remember only that Karnataka had once been the top tiger state and to keep selecting it for all years without noting changes in later reports. Another pitfall is not paying attention to the specific census year mentioned in the question. To avoid such errors, it is helpful to remember the trend that Madhya Pradesh and Karnataka alternate near the top and to link the 2018 milestone specifically with Madhya Pradesh regaining the lead. Final Answer: In the 2018 all India tiger estimation, Madhya Pradesh recorded the highest number of tigers among Indian states.

Question 15

In Indian religious literature the Upanishads are best described as which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Upanishads form an important part of ancient Indian religious and philosophical literature. They are connected with the Vedas and are considered foundational texts for many schools of Hindu philosophy. General knowledge questions often test whether you can correctly classify the Upanishads among other types of sacred literature such as epics, law codes and mythological stories. Given Data / Assumptions: - The subject of the question is the Upanishads. - We are asked to identify the best description among the options. - The options describe epics, story books, sources of Hindu philosophy and law books. - We assume a basic understanding of how different types of Sanskrit texts are classified. Concept / Approach: The Upanishads are philosophical and mystical treatises attached to the Vedas. They explore fundamental questions about reality, the self, the nature of Brahman, the meaning of life and the path to liberation. Many central ideas of Hindu philosophy, such as the concepts of Atman and Brahman, owe their classical formulation to the Upanishads. They are not narrative epics like the Ramayana and Mahabharata, nor are they primarily legal texts like the Dharmashastras or casual story books. Therefore, the most accurate description is that they are a source of Hindu philosophy and spiritual thought. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Vedas are divided into Samhitas, Brahmanas, Aranyakas and Upanishads, each serving different purposes. Step 2: Know that the Upanishads focus on philosophical inquiry into the ultimate reality and the nature of the self. Step 3: Recognise that great epics in Hindu tradition are the Ramayana and Mahabharata, which are distinct from the Upanishads. Step 4: Understand that law books in Hindu tradition include texts like Manusmriti and other Dharmashastra works, not usually classified as Upanishads. Step 5: Therefore select the option that describes the Upanishads as a source of Hindu philosophy and spiritual ideas. Verification / Alternative check: Religious studies and Indian philosophy textbooks consistently describe the Upanishads as philosophical portions of the Vedas that form the basis of Vedanta, one of the major schools of Hindu thought. Statements such as Upanishads are the source of Hindu philosophy are common in exam oriented summaries. This confirms that the correct classification in multiple choice questions should emphasise their philosophical and spiritual nature rather than narrative or legal aspects. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Great epics refer instead to long narrative poems like the Ramayana and Mahabharata, not to the Upanishads. Story books is too casual a description and does not capture the serious philosophical and spiritual content of the Upanishads. Law books describes texts laying down rules of conduct and social norms, such as Dharmashastras, and does not accurately apply to Upanishadic literature. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse all ancient Hindu texts and may think that because the Upanishads contain stories or dialogues, they should be classified as story books. Others may assume that any old Sanskrit text must be a law book or an epic. The key to avoiding this confusion is to connect the Upanishads specifically with ideas like Atman, Brahman, karma and moksha and to remember that they are referred to as the end of the Vedas or Vedanta, highlighting their philosophical role. Final Answer: The Upanishads are best described as a source of Hindu philosophy and spiritual thought.

Question 16

In Tibet the river known locally as Tsangpo is called by what name after it enters India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Many major rivers flow across international borders and are known by different local names in different regions. Understanding these name changes is an important part of physical geography. The river called Tsangpo in Tibet is a prominent example that later becomes one of the great rivers of India and Bangladesh. Given Data / Assumptions: - The river name given is Tsangpo, as used in Tibet. - The question asks what this river is called in India, after it crosses the border. - The options are Kosi, Gandak, Brahmaputra and Ganga. - We assume knowledge of major Himalayan river systems. Concept / Approach: The river originates in the Tibetan plateau as the Yarlung Tsangpo. It flows eastwards across Tibet and then takes a sharp turn, entering India through Arunachal Pradesh. After entering India, it is known as the Brahmaputra. The river then flows through Assam and eventually enters Bangladesh, where it is called the Jamuna and later merges with the Ganga river system. Thus the correct Indian name corresponding to Tsangpo is Brahmaputra. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Yarlung Tsangpo is frequently mentioned as a trans boundary river originating in Tibet. Step 2: Remember that it enters India in the eastern Himalayas and becomes the Brahmaputra in Arunachal Pradesh and Assam. Step 3: Note that Kosi and Gandak are other important Himalayan rivers but originate in Nepal, not as Tsangpo in Tibet. Step 4: Ganga is a separate major river system arising mainly from the Gangotri glacier region and is not simply a renaming of Tsangpo. Step 5: Therefore, select Brahmaputra as the correct correspondence to Tsangpo. Verification / Alternative check: School and competitive exam geography books typically include a table of important rivers with their names in different regions. In that table, the sequence Yarlung Tsangpo in Tibet, Brahmaputra in India and Jamuna in Bangladesh is clearly presented. Maps of the Brahmaputra basin also label the Tibetan stretch as Tsangpo, confirming that they refer to the same river system with changing names across borders. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Kosi is a trans boundary river between Nepal and India and is sometimes called the Sorrow of Bihar, but it is not the same river as Tsangpo. Gandak similarly originates in Nepal and flows into India as a tributary of the Ganga, not as a continuation of Tsangpo. Ganga is another great river of northern India but arises from different headwaters and is not simply the downstream name of Tsangpo. Common Pitfalls: A frequent mistake is to treat all major Himalayan rivers as interchangeable and to guess Ganga because it is the most famous. Another pitfall is confusion between names like Tsangpo and Indus, which also cross international borders with multiple local names. To avoid such errors, it is useful to memorise a few classic examples such as Tsangpo becoming Brahmaputra and Huang He being called the Yellow River, instead of mixing them up. Final Answer: The river known as Tsangpo in Tibet is called the Brahmaputra after it enters India.

Question 17

Why was 26 January 1950 chosen as the date for the Constitution of India to come into force?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: India Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26 November 1949 but did not immediately come into force. Instead, it was decided that the new republican Constitution would commence on 26 January 1950. Understanding why this specific date was chosen helps connect modern constitutional history with the earlier freedom struggle and is a favourite topic in Indian polity questions. Given Data / Assumptions: - The event in question is the promulgation and coming into force of the Constitution of India on 26 January 1950. - We are asked to identify the main historical reason for selecting this particular date. - The options include reasons related to the freedom movement, farmers demands, British decisions and auspiciousness. - We assume familiarity with the concept of Poorna Swaraj and the pre independence Independence Day observances. Concept / Approach: In December 1929, the Lahore session of the Indian National Congress passed the Poorna Swaraj resolution, which demanded complete independence from British rule. The Congress declared that 26 January 1930 would be observed as India Independence Day. For several years, this date was celebrated as Independence Day during the freedom struggle. After independence was actually achieved on 15 August 1947, the framers of the Constitution decided to honour the earlier symbolic date by making 26 January the day the Constitution came into effect, thereby making it the official Republic Day. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949 but commenced on 26 January 1950. Step 2: Remember that long before 1947, the Congress had declared 26 January as Independence Day following the Poorna Swaraj resolution of 1929. Step 3: Understand that by choosing 26 January 1950 for the Constitution to come into force, the new republic honoured the significance of that date in the freedom struggle. Step 4: Recognise that farmers demands or British preferences were not the primary reasons recorded in constitutional history for selecting this date. Step 5: Therefore, select the option linking 26 January with the earlier Independence Day observances arising from the 1929 declaration. Verification / Alternative check: Indian polity books and history texts consistently explain that 26 January was chosen to commemorate the declaration of Poorna Swaraj adopted in December 1929 and celebrated on 26 January 1930. They clearly state that this date had already become symbolic of India desire for complete independence. These sources make no mention of farmer specific demands or British imposed deadlines for this date, confirming the correctness of option a. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The idea that 26 January was chosen because farmers desired it is not supported by historical records of constitutional deliberations. There is no evidence that the British government dictated this date or refused to leave India before it; independence actually occurred earlier on 15 August 1947. While some people may see the date as auspicious, the documented primary reason for its selection was the connection to the Poorna Swaraj declaration and earlier Independence Day celebrations. Common Pitfalls: Some learners mix up the two important dates 15 August and 26 January and may assume that both must be linked directly to British decisions. Others accept vague explanations about auspiciousness without checking historical sources. To avoid these errors, it is crucial to remember the narrative that 26 January 1930 was first celebrated as Independence Day after the Poorna Swaraj resolution and that the Republic deliberately chose that date in 1950 to connect constitutional authority with the freedom movement legacy. Final Answer: 26 January 1950 was chosen for the Constitution of India to come into force because this day had been celebrated as Independence Day since the 1929 Poorna Swaraj declaration.

Question 18

Under the regional air connectivity scheme Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik UDAN what is the approximate capped airfare for a one hour flight on many tier 2 and tier 3 routes?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik scheme, commonly called UDAN, is a regional air connectivity programme launched by the Government of India to make air travel affordable and to improve connectivity to smaller cities. One of the key features of the scheme is a fare cap on a portion of seats on certain routes, which is frequently asked about in general awareness and economy sections of competitive exams. Given Data / Assumptions: - The scheme in question is UDAN for regional air connectivity. - The question asks about the capped airfare for a one hour flight on selected routes. - The options range from Rs 1500 to Rs 3000 per hour. - We assume the standard initial fare cap as notified when the scheme was launched. Concept / Approach: Under the original UDAN guidelines, a certain number of seats on flights covering approximately 500 to 600 kilometres or taking around one hour of flight time are to be offered at a capped airfare of about Rs 2500 per passenger for that one hour journey. This affordable fare is supported through a viability gap funding mechanism where the government compensates airlines for the reduced ticket price. Consequently, exam questions that summarise the scheme almost always quote Rs 2500 per hour as the key figure to remember. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that UDAN aims to make air travel accessible to the common citizen by limiting fares on regional routes. Step 2: Remember the widely publicised statement that under UDAN, you can fly for about one hour for a fare capped at around Rs 2500. Step 3: Compare the options and note that Rs 2500 per hour appears as option c, matching the figure from scheme documents. Step 4: Recognise that Rs 1500 or Rs 2000 would be lower than the commonly quoted cap and are not the standard numbers given in policy summaries. Step 5: Understand that Rs 3000 is higher than the scheme cap and therefore does not meet the goal of capped affordable pricing, so choose Rs 2500 per hour. Verification / Alternative check: Official press releases and civil aviation ministry documents describing the launch of UDAN clearly state that the airfare for approximately one hour of travel on many regional routes would be capped at around Rs 2500 per passenger for a limited number of seats. This number is repeated in almost all news articles, policy briefs and exam prep books dealing with the scheme. Such consistent repetition confirms that Rs 2500 per hour is the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Rs 1500 per hour is not the officially announced standard cap and appears only as a distractor in this question. Rs 2000 per hour likewise does not match the widely publicised figure attached to UDAN fares. Rs 3000 per hour is higher than the capped fare intended to make flying affordable and thus cannot be the right scheme figure. Common Pitfalls: A common error is to misremember the exact fare cap and mix it up with other policy thresholds or concession amounts. Some candidates also focus only on the distance of 500 to 600 kilometres and forget the associated price. To avoid confusion, it is helpful to memorise the full pattern in one line for revision under UDAN, selected seats on flights of about one hour or 500 to 600 kilometres are capped at around Rs 2500 per passenger. Final Answer: Under the UDAN regional air connectivity scheme, the capped airfare for about one hour of flying on many tier 2 and tier 3 routes is approximately Rs 2500 per hour.

Question 19

In 2016 which technology company lost high profile legal battles with both HP and Google over business and software disputes?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Large technology companies are often involved in complex legal disputes over contracts, intellectual property and antitrust issues. In 2016, one well known enterprise software company made headlines for losing two separate high profile cases involving HP and Google. General knowledge and business awareness questions sometimes ask you to identify this company because the events were widely covered in technology and financial media. Given Data / Assumptions: - The year referred to is 2016. - The question notes that the company lost legal battles against both HP and Google. - The options are Oracle, Apple, Microsoft and Intel. - We assume familiarity with major corporate litigation involving these firms. Concept / Approach: Oracle, a major enterprise software and database company, was involved in two notable disputes around that period. One was a legal battle with HP relating to Oracle decision to discontinue support for Itanium processors, where the court ruling went against Oracle. The other was the long running Oracle versus Google case over the use of Java application programming interfaces in the Android operating system. In important phases of that case, courts also ruled in favour of Google. This combination of defeats led news outlets to highlight Oracle as the company that lost high profile legal battles with both HP and Google. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify which of the options have been publicly known to litigate against both HP and Google around that time. Step 2: Recall that Oracle sued Google over the alleged misuse of Java application programming interfaces in Android and lost key rounds of that case. Step 3: Remember that HP and Oracle had a major dispute over Oracle support for the Itanium processor, resulting in an adverse ruling for Oracle. Step 4: Apple legal disputes during that period were primarily with Samsung and government regulators, not simultaneously with HP and Google in the way described. Step 5: Microsoft and Intel also faced various legal issues but are not noted for losing significant cases against both HP and Google in 2016, so select Oracle. Verification / Alternative check: Business news summaries and technology law commentaries from that period mention an HP versus Oracle verdict where the court ruled that Oracle was wrong to drop support for Itanium, obliging it to continue support. The same sources also describe Oracle setbacks in its lawsuit against Google over Java. Exam oriented current affairs books often condense these stories into a single sentence stating that Oracle lost high profile legal battles with HP and Google in 2016, which this question directly reflects. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Apple was involved in major legal fights with Samsung over smartphone patents and with authorities over encryption and tax issues, not in simultaneous high profile losses to HP and Google as described here. Microsoft had antitrust cases and other disputes, but there is no widely publicised pair of defeats against HP and Google in 2016 matching this description. Intel has faced regulatory and competitive investigations, yet again the specific narrative of losing to both HP and Google in high profile court cases in 2016 fits Oracle, not Intel. Common Pitfalls: A frequent error is to assume that Apple or Microsoft must be the answer whenever technology litigation is mentioned, simply because they are very famous. Another pitfall is to focus on Google involvement and then randomly choose a rival like Apple instead of recalling the specific Java related dispute with Oracle. Paying attention to the combination of both HP and Google in a single question is a strong clue pointing uniquely to Oracle. Final Answer: The company that lost high profile legal battles with both HP and Google in 2016 was Oracle.

Question 20

By total geographical area India ranks as which numbered largest country in the world?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Apart from population, countries are also compared by their total geographical area. Knowing India relative position in terms of land area helps place the country size in a global context. This is a standard fact tested in geography and general studies exams. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question concerns India rank when countries are ordered by total area. - The options provided are 3rd, 5th, 7th and 9th. - We use commonly accepted area figures including land and inland waters, excluding Antarctic claims. - We assume no major redefinitions of country boundaries. Concept / Approach: When ranked by area, the largest countries in the world are, in order, Russia, Canada, the United States of America, China, Brazil, Australia and India. This places India at number seven in terms of total area. While India ranks second in population, it is seventh in land area, which is an important distinction for exam questions. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the standard list of the largest countries by area Russia, Canada, United States, China, Brazil, Australia and India. Step 2: Count the positions Russia is 1st, Canada 2nd, United States 3rd, China 4th, Brazil 5th, Australia 6th and India 7th. Step 3: Confirm that no other country has a greater area than India after these six. Step 4: Compare this rank with the options and see that 7th matches the position just determined. Step 5: Therefore, choose 7th as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Any atlas or global statistical compendium listing countries by area shows the top seven as Russia, Canada, United States, China, Brazil, Australia and India in that order. These rankings are also repeated in school textbooks and competitive exam guides, which summarise the fact with statements such as India is the seventh largest country in the world by area. This cross checking confirms the correctness of the 7th position. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 3rd would incorrectly place India ahead of China and Brazil in area, which is not supported by standard measurements. 5th would suggest that only four countries have greater area than India, but in reality six countries do Russia, Canada, United States, China, Brazil and Australia. 9th is too low a rank, as there are not eight countries with larger area than India in accepted listings. Common Pitfalls: Students often confuse population rank with area rank, knowing that India is second in population and therefore mistakenly assuming it must also be near the top in area. Others misremember the sequence of large countries, especially when deciding where to place Australia and Brazil. To prevent such errors, it is useful to memorise a short phrase or mental picture of the seven largest countries by area, ensuring that India is fixed in your mind at number seven. Final Answer: By total geographical area, India is the 7th largest country in the world.

Basic General Knowledge Questions