Question 1

The South China Sea dispute involves overlapping maritime and territorial claims by which of the following countries listed below?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question tests awareness of international relations and geography, specifically the South China Sea dispute. The South China Sea is a strategically important water body with overlapping maritime and island claims by several countries. Exams often ask which countries are directly involved in the main territorial disputes. Given Data / Assumptions: The dispute is over islands, reefs, and maritime zones in the South China Sea. The countries named in the options are China, Vietnam, Malaysia, and Indonesia. We must identify which of these are well known for having direct claims in the contested areas. Concept / Approach: The main claimants in the South China Sea dispute include China, Vietnam, the Philippines, Malaysia, Brunei, and Taiwan. Indonesia is a major regional state but its main dispute with China is around the Natuna Sea, which is adjacent to but not usually counted as part of the core island disputes. Therefore, among the listed countries, China, Vietnam and Malaysia are clear claimants. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that China claims a large area through the so called nine dash line, which overlaps with the exclusive economic zones of several Southeast Asian states.Step 2: Vietnam has competing claims over the Paracel and Spratly Islands, directly opposing Chinese claims.Step 3: Malaysia has asserted claims over part of the Spratly Islands and adjacent maritime zones, making it a direct participant in the dispute.Step 4: Indonesia does patrol and protest Chinese activities near the Natuna Islands, but it traditionally does not present itself as a claimant to the core disputed island groups of the South China Sea.Step 5: Therefore, the combination that best captures the dispute among the given options is China, Vietnam and Malaysia. Verification / Alternative check: Another way is to recall common maps used in textbooks and news reports that show overlapping claims. These maps clearly show China, Vietnam and Malaysia as claimants in the Spratly area, while Indonesia appears mostly near the Natuna region, not as a principal claimant inside the heart of the disputed sea. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A limits the dispute to China and Indonesia, which is inaccurate because Vietnam and others are central claimants while Indonesia is more peripheral. Option B lists only China and Vietnam, leaving out Malaysia, which has declared claims over some of the same islands. Option D lists Vietnam, Malaysia and Indonesia but omits China, which is in fact the most prominent claimant and therefore this combination cannot be correct. Common Pitfalls: Candidates may mistakenly treat any maritime disagreement with China as part of the South China Sea dispute and include Indonesia by default. It is important to distinguish between countries that are core claimants to disputed islands and those whose disputes are only at the edges of their exclusive economic zones. Final Answer: The South China Sea dispute involves overlapping claims by China, Vietnam and Malaysia among the options given.

Question 2

The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty under the United Nations framework that commits participating states to reduce which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question checks basic knowledge of international environmental agreements, specifically the Kyoto Protocol. The Kyoto Protocol is often mentioned in discussions of global warming and climate change, so understanding its main objective is important for general studies and environment related topics. Given Data / Assumptions: The question refers to the Kyoto Protocol as an international treaty. We need to identify what it commits its member states to reduce. The options include poverty, greenhouse gases, nuclear weapons, and agricultural subsidies. Concept / Approach: The Kyoto Protocol is linked to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change. Its central goal is to set legally binding targets and timetables for industrialised countries to reduce emissions of greenhouse gases which contribute to global warming. It is not a disarmament treaty and does not deal directly with poverty or agricultural subsidies. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that greenhouse gases include carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide and some fluorinated gases, which trap heat in the atmosphere.Step 2: The Kyoto Protocol sets country specific targets to reduce or limit these emissions based on a baseline year, usually 1990.Step 3: Examine the options. Only option B explicitly mentions emissions of greenhouse gases.Step 4: Options A, C and D deal with other policy areas such as poverty, weapons and agriculture that are not the primary focus of the Kyoto Protocol.Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer must be the one that refers to greenhouse gas emission reduction. Verification / Alternative check: This can be verified by remembering that the Kyoto Protocol was one of the first major steps in translating climate science into binding international obligations. Subsequent agreements like the Paris Agreement built upon this framework but shifted from binding quantitative targets to nationally determined contributions. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A is wrong because alleviating poverty is a goal of other programmes, such as those linked to the Millennium Development Goals and Sustainable Development Goals, not the Kyoto Protocol directly. Option C is wrong because nuclear arms reduction is covered by treaties like the Nuclear Non Proliferation Treaty and various strategic arms reduction agreements, not Kyoto. Option D is wrong because agricultural subsidy reduction is related to World Trade Organization negotiations, particularly under the Agreement on Agriculture. Common Pitfalls: Some learners confuse various international treaties, assuming that any large treaty might deal with multiple global problems at once. It is important to associate Kyoto specifically with climate change and greenhouse gas emissions rather than with general development issues. Final Answer: The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty that commits state parties to reduce emissions of greenhouse gases responsible for climate change.

Question 3

The Beijing Declaration is an important international document primarily concerned with which of the following broad issues?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question checks understanding of major United Nations related declarations, specifically the Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action adopted at the Fourth World Conference on Women in 1995. It is a key document in the global movement for gender equality. Given Data / Assumptions: The question mentions the Beijing Declaration without giving the year or full title. The options refer to rights of children, rights of women, the right to development, and tariff reduction. We must recall which broad issue the Beijing Declaration focuses on. Concept / Approach: The Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action is a comprehensive global policy framework aimed at achieving gender equality and empowering women and girls. It outlines critical areas of concern, including education, health, violence against women, economic participation, and political representation. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Fourth World Conference on Women was held in Beijing in 1995.Step 2: The outcome document from this conference is commonly known as the Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action.Step 3: This document sets strategic objectives and actions for improving the status of women and promoting gender equality worldwide.Step 4: Compare the options. Only option B explicitly mentions the rights of women and gender equality.Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is the option related to women's rights and gender equality. Verification / Alternative check: One way to confirm is to remember that child rights are more closely associated with the Convention on the Rights of the Child, while the right to development has its own declaration, and trade tariffs fall under World Trade Organization frameworks. The Beijing Declaration is repeatedly referenced in discussions about women's empowerment, which reinforces option B. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A is wrong because children's rights are addressed mainly in the Convention on the Rights of the Child, not the Beijing Declaration. Option C is wrong because the right to development is the focus of a separate Declaration on the Right to Development adopted earlier by the United Nations. Option D is wrong because reduction of tariffs is usually discussed under trade organisations and agreements, not within this declaration. Common Pitfalls: A frequent mistake is to confuse the many United Nations declarations by name alone, especially when they all sound broadly developmental. Associating Beijing specifically with the world conference on women helps prevent this confusion. Final Answer: The Beijing Declaration is mainly concerned with the advancement and protection of the rights of women and gender equality.

Question 4

In the context of Self Help Groups (SHGs) in rural development, who takes the decisions regarding the savings and loan activities of the group?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question covers basic knowledge about Self Help Groups, which are widely used in India as an instrument of microfinance and women centred development. A key principle of Self Help Groups is that they are member driven institutions where decisions regarding savings and credit are taken by the group itself. Given Data / Assumptions: The subject is savings and loan activities within a Self Help Group. Possible decision makers listed include a private bank, the Reserve Bank of India, members of the group, and Non Governmental Organisations. We assume a typical Self Help Group promoted under schemes such as the National Rural Livelihoods Mission. Concept / Approach: A Self Help Group is built on self management and collective decision making. Members pool their savings, decide internally how to lend funds to members, set interest rates, and frame repayment norms. Banks and Non Governmental Organisations can support or facilitate, but they do not take day to day loan decisions for the group. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the definition of a Self Help Group. It is a voluntary group, usually of 10 to 20 people, commonly women, who save regularly and lend to each other.Step 2: Identify who has the authority to decide on loans, beneficiaries, and repayment schedules. By design, these decisions are taken in group meetings through discussion and consensus or voting.Step 3: Commercial banks provide larger loans to the group as a whole, but they do not select individual borrowers from among the members.Step 4: The Reserve Bank of India issues broad guidelines for the banking system, but it does not manage individual group level decisions.Step 5: Non Governmental Organisations may promote and train groups, yet they are supposed to gradually withdraw and leave decisions to the members. Verification / Alternative check: Standard training material on Self Help Groups stresses that empowerment comes from members taking responsibility for record keeping, financial decisions, and conflict resolution. This confirms that decision making power regarding savings and loans rests within the group itself. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A is wrong because the private bank acts only as a service provider and lender, not as an internal decision maker for loans between group members. Option B is wrong because the Reserve Bank of India works at a system level and does not run Self Help Groups directly. Option D is wrong because Non Governmental Organisations are facilitators and should not permanently control group financial decisions. Common Pitfalls: Some learners assume that because formal finance is involved, banks or government agencies must control the details. This misunderstanding weakens the concept of self help and mutual trust which are central to the Self Help Group model. Final Answer: Decisions about savings and loan activities in a Self Help Group are taken by the members of the group collectively.

Question 5

Which one of the following Central Public Sector Enterprises is not included in the list of Maharatna companies in India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question tests awareness of India's classification of Central Public Sector Enterprises, especially the Maharatna category. Knowing which companies fall into Maharatna, Navratna and Miniratna categories is a common general knowledge requirement for examinations related to the economy and public sector undertakings. Given Data / Assumptions: The categories mentioned are Maharatna public sector enterprises. Four well known central public sector companies are listed in the options. We are asked to identify which company is not a Maharatna. Concept / Approach: The Government of India created Maharatna, Navratna and Miniratna categories to give selected public sector enterprises greater financial and operational autonomy. Maharatna is the highest status and is given to large, consistently profitable companies with significant global presence and investment capacity. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall examples of Maharatna companies. These typically include Coal India Limited, Steel Authority of India Limited, Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited, Oil and Natural Gas Corporation and others of similar scale.Step 2: Coal India Limited is a well known Maharatna, so option A is part of the Maharatna list.Step 3: Steel Authority of India Limited is also recognised as a Maharatna company, so option B also belongs to this group.Step 4: Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited meets Maharatna criteria and has been granted this status.Step 5: Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited, on the other hand, is commonly listed as a Navratna enterprise, not as a Maharatna. Therefore, option C is not in the Maharatna list. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative memory technique is to associate Maharatna status with very large energy, power, and steel companies that operate with huge capital expenditure, while some important but slightly smaller entities remain Navratna. Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited usually appears alongside other Navratna oil marketing firms. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A is wrong because Coal India Limited is a classic example of a Maharatna public sector enterprise. Option B is wrong because Steel Authority of India Limited is also a Maharatna, recognised for its large scale operations and strategic importance. Option D is wrong because Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited is similarly included in the Maharatna list. Common Pitfalls: Learners may confuse Navratna and Maharatna categories, especially in the oil and gas sector where several large enterprises operate. Carefully recalling the official lists or associating names through revision can help avoid such errors. Final Answer: The company that is not included in the Maharatna list is Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited.

Question 6

In animal classification, which of the following phyla is characterised by animals that possess a truly segmented body with clear internal metamerism?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This biology question checks understanding of basic animal classification and body organisation patterns, specifically the idea of segmentation. Many introductory zoology topics compare phyla based on features such as body cavity, symmetry and segmentation. Given Data / Assumptions: The question is about the presence of a truly segmented body with internal metamerism. Four phyla are listed: Mollusca, Arthropoda, Annelida and Coelenterata. We must select the phylum that is classically associated with true segmentation throughout the body. Concept / Approach: Segmentation or metamerism refers to the division of the body into repetitive segments that may contain repeated sets of organs. Phylum Annelida, which includes earthworms and leeches, shows clear internal and external segmentation. Arthropods have externally segmented bodies, but they are usually highlighted for jointed appendages and exoskeleton. In basic school level questions on true body segmentation, Annelida is commonly emphasised. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that annelids such as earthworms have ring like segments repeated along the body length, each segment containing similar structures.Step 2: This pattern of repeated segments with a high degree of internal repetition is a key feature of Phylum Annelida.Step 3: Phylum Arthropoda also has segmented bodies, but the segments are often grouped into specialised regions like head, thorax and abdomen, and the focus is on jointed limbs and exoskeleton.Step 4: Phylum Mollusca, which includes snails and octopus, generally has unsegmented soft bodies.Step 5: Phylum Coelenterata, which includes jellyfish and corals, has a simple body plan without segmentation.Step 6: Therefore, among the given options, Annelida is the best answer for animals with a truly segmented body and internal metamerism. Verification / Alternative check: Standard zoology charts of animal classification place examples like earthworm, leech and Nereis under Annelida and specifically highlight segmentation as a defining feature. This helps confirm that Annelida is the correct phylum for this question. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A is wrong because Mollusca is mainly characterised by a muscular foot, visceral mass and mantle, not true segmentation. Option B, Arthropoda, does show segmentation but is not usually chosen as the classic example of true internal metamerism in basic classification questions, which focus on Annelida instead. Option D is wrong because Coelenterata has a simple sac like body without segmentation. Common Pitfalls: The main confusion arises between Arthropoda and Annelida because both show some form of segmentation. In exam questions that emphasise true internal metamerism and repeated segments throughout the body, Annelida is preferred as the classical answer. Final Answer: The phylum that is classically known for a truly segmented body with internal metamerism is Phylum Annelida.

Question 7

In which year did the Kyoto Protocol, related to international control of greenhouse gas emissions, formally come into force?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question focuses on a factual detail about the Kyoto Protocol, one of the major international agreements on climate change. Knowing the year in which it came into force helps situate it correctly in the timeline of global environmental governance. Given Data / Assumptions: The Kyoto Protocol is already assumed to be known as a treaty on greenhouse gas emission reduction. The options provide four consecutive years between 2004 and 2007. We must identify in which year the protocol actually entered into force, not when it was adopted. Concept / Approach: Many international treaties follow a two stage process. First they are adopted, and later they come into force after a certain number of key parties ratify them. The Kyoto Protocol was adopted in 1997, but only came into force years later after sufficient ratifications, including from major emitters. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Kyoto Protocol was adopted at the third Conference of the Parties to the climate convention in Kyoto in 1997.Step 2: It needed ratification by a required number of industrialised countries, representing a specific share of emissions, before it could come into force.Step 3: Russia's ratification was an important step that allowed the entry into force conditions to be met.Step 4: The protocol finally came into force on a specific date in February 2005.Step 5: Among the options, only 2005 matches this well known fact, so option B is correct. Verification / Alternative check: A quick mental check is to place Kyoto before the Copenhagen climate conference of 2009 and after the Rio Earth Summit era. Remembering that it was enforced in the mid 2000s, rather than the late 1990s, confirms 2005 as the correct year. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A, 2004, is slightly early and does not match the officially recognised date of entry into force. Options C and D, 2006 and 2007, are too late and would push the implementation period beyond the commonly cited first commitment period of 2008 to 2012, which was based on the 2005 entry into force. Common Pitfalls: Students often confuse the year of adoption (1997) with the year of entry into force (2005). They may also misplace the protocol in the early 2000s timeline. Keeping in mind the difference between adoption and enforcement is crucial in such questions. Final Answer: The Kyoto Protocol formally came into force in the year 2005.

Question 8

Which one of the following pairs of artist and art form is incorrectly matched?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question checks awareness of prominent Indian artists and the classical art forms they are associated with. Matching famous names to their correct musical instrument or dance form is a common type of cultural general knowledge question. Given Data / Assumptions: Each option gives a pair consisting of an artist's name and an art form. We have to locate the pair that is incorrectly matched. The art forms mentioned are Tabla, Shehnai, Bharatnatyam and Kathak. Concept / Approach: To answer, we recall the best known association of each artist. Amjad Ali Khan is a legendary exponent of the sarod, a stringed instrument, not the Tabla. Ustad Bismillah Khan is famously linked to the Shehnai. Hema Malini is an accomplished Bharatnatyam dancer and film actor. Shambhu Maharaj is a renowned Kathak guru. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Evaluate option A. Amjad Ali Khan is known worldwide as a maestro of the sarod. The Tabla is a percussion instrument associated with other artists, so this pairing is incorrect.Step 2: Evaluate option B. Ustad Bismillah Khan played the Shehnai and popularised it in classical concerts and national ceremonies, so this pairing is correct.Step 3: Evaluate option C. Hema Malini is recognised as a trained Bharatnatyam dancer in addition to being a film star, so this pairing is correct.Step 4: Evaluate option D. Shambhu Maharaj is a celebrated Kathak exponent from a famous dancing family, so this pairing is also correct.Step 5: Since only option A contains an incorrect association, it is the required answer. Verification / Alternative check: One can quickly cross check by listing instruments in the mind: sarod goes with Amjad Ali Khan, Shehnai with Bismillah Khan, Tabla with artists like Zakir Hussain. This instantly confirms that linking Amjad Ali Khan to Tabla is wrong. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option B is not the incorrect pair because Ustad Bismillah Khan and Shehnai is the classic and accurate association. Option C is not incorrect because Hema Malini has long been associated with Bharatnatyam dance performances and training. Option D is not incorrect because Shambhu Maharaj is documented as a leading Kathak guru. Common Pitfalls: Learners may mix up the names of artists with similar sounding surnames or confuse Tabla and sarod, both of which are important in Hindustani classical music. Careful revision of prominent artists with their main instrument or dance form is the best safeguard. Final Answer: The incorrectly matched pair is Amjad Ali Khan – Tabla, since he is actually a sarod maestro.

Question 9

With which country did India celebrate the 25th anniversary of the establishment of full diplomatic relations in the year 2017?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question concerns India's foreign relations and an important diplomatic milestone. In 2017, India marked 25 years of full diplomatic ties with a particular country, and this was widely reported in the news, including high level visits and commemorative events. Given Data / Assumptions: The milestone is the 25th anniversary of full diplomatic relations. The year of celebration is 2017. The candidate countries listed are France, Russia, Israel and China. Concept / Approach: Full diplomatic relations at the ambassadorial level between India and Israel were established in 1992. Counting 25 years from 1992 brings us to 2017, which is why that year was observed as a silver jubilee in India Israel ties. Other countries such as France, Russia and China had established relations with India much earlier. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Note that 25 years before 2017 is 1992.Step 2: Recall which of the listed countries began full diplomatic relations with India in or around 1992.Step 3: India had diplomatic contacts with Russia (and earlier the Soviet Union), France and China long before this period.Step 4: India upgraded relations with Israel to full diplomatic status in 1992, making 2017 the 25th anniversary.Step 5: Therefore, Israel must be the correct option. Verification / Alternative check: High level visits in 2017, including the visit of the Indian Prime Minister to Israel and reciprocal visits, were often described as marking 25 years of diplomatic relations. Media coverage frequently used this phrasing, helping to confirm the answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A is wrong because India and France have had diplomatic relations since soon after India's independence, far earlier than 1992. Option B is wrong because ties with Russia go back to the Soviet era and are not limited to a recent 25 year period. Option D is wrong because India and China established diplomatic relations in the 1950s, much earlier than 1992. Common Pitfalls: Students may guess a country that frequently appears in recent news, such as China or France, without paying attention to the specific timeline. Carefully calculating 25 years back from 2017 and recalling which country fits that date helps avoid this error. Final Answer: In 2017, India celebrated 25 years of full diplomatic relations with Israel.

Question 10

Which Asian country opened the Duge Bridge, recognised as the world's highest road bridge at the time of its opening in 2016?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question relates to world geography and infrastructure, focusing on a record breaking bridge project. The Duge Bridge, also known as Beipanjiang Bridge Duge, gained attention as the world's highest road bridge at the time of its opening, making it a popular current affairs topic. Given Data / Assumptions: The structure is named the Duge Bridge. It is described as the world's highest road bridge when opened. The options provide four Asian countries: China, Russia, Japan and India. Concept / Approach: China has invested heavily in large scale infrastructure, especially record setting bridges across deep valleys and rivers. The Duge Bridge is one of several megaprojects in mountainous regions connecting remote provinces through expressways. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Duge Bridge spans a deep gorge of the Beipan River in south western China.Step 2: The bridge deck stands hundreds of metres above the river, making it exceptionally high for a road bridge.Step 3: Media reports from around 2016 highlighted China opening the world's highest bridge to traffic, referring to the Duge Bridge.Step 4: Among the options, China is the only country that matches this famous project.Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is China. Verification / Alternative check: One can mentally associate many record setting infrastructure projects, such as high speed rail and long bridges, with China. This includes not only sea bridges but also mountain expressway bridges, reinforcing the link between the Duge Bridge and China. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option B is wrong because Russia, while large, is not associated with the Duge Bridge project. Option C is wrong because Japan has impressive bridges but not this particular one. Option D is wrong because India has other major bridges but not the Duge Bridge, which is firmly located in China. Common Pitfalls: Candidates may confuse different record holding bridges such as longest sea bridges, tallest pylons or highest rail bridges. Carefully reading that this is a road bridge and recalling news from China about bridges over deep gorges helps anchor the correct answer. Final Answer: The Duge Bridge, known as the world's highest road bridge at its opening, is located in China.

Question 11

In South America, which one of the following countries is not crossed by the Tropic of Capricorn?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question tests map based knowledge of world geography, specifically the path of the Tropic of Capricorn through South America. Lines of latitude such as the Equator, Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn are frequently used to frame questions on climate and political geography. Given Data / Assumptions: The focus is on South American countries. The latitude in question is the Tropic of Capricorn. Four countries are listed: Chile, Bolivia, Paraguay and Brazil. We must determine which country is not crossed by this line of latitude. Concept / Approach: The Tropic of Capricorn is located at approximately 23.5 degrees south latitude. In South America, it passes through several countries, and exam candidates are expected to remember this by studying world maps carefully. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Visualise or recall a political map of South America with the Tropic of Capricorn drawn across it.Step 2: The Tropic of Capricorn clearly passes through northern Chile, cutting across its territory.Step 3: It then passes through central Paraguay, making Paraguay a correct example of a country crossed by this latitude.Step 4: The line also goes through parts of southern Brazil, another well known fact because Brazil spans a wide range of latitudes.Step 5: Bolivia lies slightly north of the Tropic of Capricorn and is therefore not crossed by this line. It sits between roughly 10 degrees and 22 degrees south latitude, so the Tropic just misses it. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative check is to remember that many atlases list example countries for each special line of latitude. For the Tropic of Capricorn in South America, Chile, Paraguay, Brazil and Argentina often appear. Bolivia usually does not appear in that list, which confirms that the Tropic does not cross it. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A is wrong because Chile is definitely crossed by the Tropic of Capricorn in its northern region. Option C is wrong because Paraguay is also intersected by this latitude and is a standard example in textbooks. Option D is wrong because Brazil is famously large and straddles several important lines of latitude, including the Equator and the Tropic of Capricorn. Common Pitfalls: Students may confuse Bolivia with neighbouring Paraguay or misremember the exact position of the Tropic of Capricorn. Regular revision of world maps and marking key latitudes can prevent this type of error. Final Answer: Among the given options, the Tropic of Capricorn does not pass through Bolivia.

Question 12

Which one of the following statements about the Sargasso Sea in the North Atlantic Ocean is not correct?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question examines knowledge of physical oceanography, using the Sargasso Sea as an example. The Sargasso Sea is a unique region of the North Atlantic Ocean defined not by land boundaries but by surrounding ocean currents, and several of its properties are commonly asked in examinations. Given Data / Assumptions: The Sargasso Sea is located in the North Atlantic Ocean. Four statements describe its currents, salinity and position relative to major currents. We must identify the statement that is not correct. Concept / Approach: The Sargasso Sea lies within the North Atlantic subtropical gyre. It is bounded by the Gulf Stream to the west, the North Atlantic Current to the north, the Canary Current to the east and the North Equatorial Current to the south. It is known for relatively calm waters, floating Sargassum seaweed and comparatively high salinity. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Check option A. The Sargasso Sea is indeed part of an anticyclonic or clockwise subtropical gyre, so this statement is correct.Step 2: Check option B. The region is associated with warm, clear, high salinity water, so this statement is also correct.Step 3: Check option D. Because surrounding currents encircle it, the central area tends to be relatively calm compared to boundary currents, so this statement is broadly correct.Step 4: Examine option C. It states that the Sargasso Sea is located west of the Gulf Stream and east of the Canary Current. In reality, the Gulf Stream runs along the western side of the gyre and the Canary Current along the eastern side, so the Sargasso Sea lies east of the Gulf Stream and west of the Canary Current.Step 5: Therefore, option C reverses the location and is not correct. Verification / Alternative check: Visualising a map of the North Atlantic helps. The Gulf Stream runs northward along the east coast of the United States, while the Canary Current flows southward off the coast of northwest Africa. The Sargasso Sea lies in the open ocean between these two boundary currents, which confirms that the direction in option C has been stated incorrectly. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A is not the incorrect statement because the Sargasso Sea does indeed lie within an anticyclonic subtropical gyre. Option B is not incorrect because it is well known for high salinity clear blue waters. Option D is not incorrect because the interior of the gyre is relatively calm, with weaker surface currents compared to the strong bordering currents. Common Pitfalls: Many learners confuse east and west when describing positions relative to moving currents. It is important to remember that the Gulf Stream lies to the west of the Sargasso Sea and the Canary Current lies to its east, not the other way around. Final Answer: The statement that is not correct is that the Sargasso Sea is located west of the Gulf Stream and east of the Canary Current.

Question 13

Which one of the following methods is generally not considered suitable for urban rainwater harvesting projects?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question tests environmental and geographic knowledge related to rainwater harvesting techniques, with a specific focus on urban areas. Different methods are suited to different terrains, and understanding this helps in planning sustainable water management. Given Data / Assumptions: The focus is on urban rainwater harvesting methods. Four techniques are mentioned: rooftop recharge pits, recharge wells, gully plugs and recharge trenches. We must identify which technique is not typically appropriate for urban settings. Concept / Approach: Urban rainwater harvesting usually deals with rooftop runoff, paved areas and limited open spaces. Structures such as rooftop recharge pits, recharge wells and recharge trenches are commonly used in cities. Gully plugs, on the other hand, are small embankments constructed across gullies or small seasonal streams in hilly or rural areas to check surface runoff and promote percolation. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Consider rooftop recharge pits. These collect water from roofs and channel it into pits where it percolates into the ground, a typical urban technique.Step 2: Recharge wells are also used in cities to inject roof or surface runoff directly into deeper aquifers.Step 3: Recharge trenches along roads or open areas help capture runoff in narrow strips and are compatible with urban layouts.Step 4: Gully plugs are usually built in hilly or rural terrains where natural gullies carry seasonal runoff. Such structures are not common in dense urban environments where gullies and natural streams are rare or heavily modified.Step 5: Therefore, gully plugs are not generally considered suitable for typical urban rainwater harvesting. Verification / Alternative check: Government manuals and city level guidelines for rainwater harvesting emphasise rooftop systems and underground recharge structures. They rarely mention gully plugs for cities, reinforcing that this method belongs more to watershed development in rural or hilly regions. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A is wrong as the incorrect choice because rooftop recharge pits are specifically promoted in urban building byelaws. Option B is wrong because recharge wells are widely used where space is limited but depth is available. Option D is wrong because recharge trenches can be fitted along compound walls and roadsides in cities. Common Pitfalls: Students may not distinguish between watershed development methods used in rural catchments and those designed for dense cities with more concrete surfaces. Recognising that gully plugs require natural gullies helps avoid confusion. Final Answer: The method that is generally not suitable for urban rainwater harvesting is gully plug structures across small hill streams or gullies.

Question 14

The Andaman group of islands and the Nicobar group of islands in the Bay of Bengal are separated by which one of the following latitudes, commonly referred to as a channel?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question examines Indian geography, focusing on the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The water body separating these two groups is an often asked fact, and it is associated with a specific latitude known as a channel. Given Data / Assumptions: The islands mentioned are the Andaman group and the Nicobar group in the Bay of Bengal. The separation is described by a line of latitude. Options include 8°, 10°, 12° and 13° North latitude. Concept / Approach: Between the Andaman and Nicobar groups lies a water body known as the Ten Degree Channel. As the name suggests, this channel follows roughly the 10° North latitude, forming an important physical and navigational feature in the region. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the names of key channels around Indian islands. The Palk Strait separates India and Sri Lanka, while the Ten Degree Channel separates the Andaman and Nicobar islands.Step 2: The Ten Degree Channel corresponds to approximately 10° North latitude.Step 3: Among the options, 10° North is provided as option B.Step 4: Therefore, the correct latitude separating these island groups is 10° North. Verification / Alternative check: Standard school geography textbooks and maps label this channel clearly as the Ten Degree Channel at about 10° North. Remembering this name is an easy way to connect the concept of latitude to the separation of the Andaman and Nicobar groups. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Options A, C and D, namely 8°, 12° and 13° North latitude, do not correspond to the traditional naming or location of the channel that separates these islands. These latitudes may cross other parts of the Indian Ocean but they are not used to label the main channel between the Andaman and Nicobar groups. Common Pitfalls: A common issue is mixing up different degrees used in geography, such as the Tropic of Cancer at about 23.5° North or the latitudes marking other features. Remembering the specific term Ten Degree Channel helps lock the answer as 10° North. Final Answer: The Andaman and Nicobar groups of islands are separated by the 10° North latitude, known as the Ten Degree Channel.

Question 15

The Damanganga Reservoir Project, which includes about 115 kilometres of minor canals and distributaries, is located in which of the following Union Territories or regions?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question relates to water resource projects and Indian geography. Knowing where major reservoir projects and canal systems are located is useful for exams that cover irrigation, development schemes and regional planning. Given Data / Assumptions: The project mentioned is the Damanganga Reservoir Project. It has about 115 kilometres of minor canals and distributaries. The options list several Union Territories or regions: Delhi, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Puducherry and Goa. Concept / Approach: The Damanganga River flows through parts of Maharashtra, Gujarat and the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli. The associated reservoir project and canal network have been developed to provide irrigation and water supply in this area, making Dadra and Nagar Haveli the correct location among the choices. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that Delhi and Puducherry do not have rivers named Damanganga, so they are unlikely candidates for this project.Step 2: Goa, although a coastal state with several rivers, is not commonly associated with the Damanganga Reservoir Project in standard references.Step 3: Dadra and Nagar Haveli is a Union Territory located between Gujarat and Maharashtra, through which the Damanganga River passes.Step 4: Many irrigation and reservoir projects on the Damanganga are linked with this territory and adjoining areas.Step 5: Therefore, the Damanganga Reservoir Project with approximately 115 kilometres of minor canals is located in Dadra and Nagar Haveli. Verification / Alternative check: Maps showing the Damanganga River clearly connect it with Vapi region and areas near Dadra and Nagar Haveli. Government descriptions of irrigation projects in that Union Territory mention this reservoir and its canal network. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A is wrong because Delhi lies on the Yamuna River and is not associated with this project. Option C is wrong because Puducherry is a coastal Union Territory on the southeastern side of India with its own local rivers, not the Damanganga. Option D is wrong because although Goa has various water projects, the Damanganga system is primarily associated with the regions further north near Dadra and Nagar Haveli. Common Pitfalls: Candidates may guess Goa due to its coastal location or confuse the names of projects across nearby states. Carefully connecting river names with specific territories through regular map practice helps avoid such mistakes. Final Answer: The Damanganga Reservoir Project with its network of canals is located in Dadra and Nagar Haveli.

Question 16

Which one of the following statements correctly describes India's surgical strike mission carried out inside Pakistan Occupied Kashmir in 2016?

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Introduction / Context: This question checks current affairs knowledge related to India's security operations, specifically the surgical strikes conducted across the Line of Control into Pakistan Occupied Kashmir. These strikes were widely reported and became an important part of recent defence and foreign policy discussions. Given Data / Assumptions: The question refers to surgical strikes by India across the Line of Control in Pakistan Occupied Kashmir. Different statements mention the year, the leading armed service, whether an official operation name was given, and any United Nations sanction. We need to identify the statement that is correct. Concept / Approach: The widely reported surgical strikes took place in late September 2016 and were carried out by Indian Army special forces against terror launch pads across the Line of Control. In public, the operation was generally referred to simply as surgical strikes, without an officially publicised code name. The mission was a unilateral action by India and did not involve explicit United Nations authorisation. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Examine the year in option A. It states 2018, which does not match the date of the 2016 surgical strikes. Therefore, option A is incorrect.Step 2: Option B claims that the Indian Air Force led the operation, but reports clearly identify ground based special forces of the Indian Army as the main executing arm, so this is incorrect.Step 3: Option C states that the operation was not given any specific name in public briefings and was referred to simply as surgical strikes. This matches the way the government communicated about it.Step 4: Option D mentions United Nations sanction, which is not applicable because this was a unilateral action for self defence, not an operation under United Nations command.Step 5: Therefore, option C is the correct description. Verification / Alternative check: News reports and official press conferences from 2016 described the strikes as surgical strikes across the Line of Control without revealing any internal operation title. The time frame was shortly after a major terror attack in Uri, Jammu and Kashmir, further confirming 2016 rather than 2018. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A is wrong because the year 2018 is associated with other defence events, not these particular surgical strikes. Option B is wrong because the operation was carried out by the Indian Army, not the Air Force, although air assets may have provided support such as surveillance. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may confuse the 2016 surgical strikes with later air operations such as the Balakot air strike in 2019, which did involve the Air Force. Keeping the timelines separated in memory is important to avoid such mix ups. Final Answer: The correct statement is that the mission was not given any specific operational name in public and was simply referred to as surgical strikes.

Question 17

Which one of the following statements about the National Green Tribunal (NGT) is not correct?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question tests knowledge about the National Green Tribunal, a specialised body established to handle environmental disputes in India. Understanding its powers, objectives and procedures is important for questions related to environmental governance and law. Given Data / Assumptions: The subject is the National Green Tribunal (NGT). Four statements describe its year of establishment, objectives, powers and procedural rules. We must identify which statement is not correct. Concept / Approach: The National Green Tribunal was set up under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. It is designed to handle environmental cases quickly, applying principles of natural justice rather than being rigidly bound by the full Code of Civil Procedure. It can order relief, compensation and restorative measures in environmental matters. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Examine option A. The year 2010 is accurate, as the NGT Act was enacted in that year and the tribunal started functioning soon thereafter.Step 2: Option B states that the NGT aims at effective and expeditious disposal of environmental cases, which matches its core purpose.Step 3: Option C mentions that the NGT may grant relief and compensation for damages to people and property, a power explicitly given by its founding Act.Step 4: Option D claims that the NGT is strictly bound by the detailed procedures of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. In reality, the Act clearly states that the NGT is not bound by the Code and shall instead be guided by principles of natural justice, giving it procedural flexibility.Step 5: Therefore, option D is the statement that is not correct. Verification / Alternative check: A quick check is to remember that several specialised tribunals, including the NGT, were created to overcome the slow and formal nature of regular civil courts. To achieve this, they are allowed to follow more flexible procedures rather than strictly following the Code of Civil Procedure. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A is not wrong because it correctly mentions the year of establishment. Option B is not wrong because the objective of speedy resolution of environmental disputes is central to the NGT's mandate. Option C is not wrong because the NGT can and does award compensation or relief for environmental damage, including orders for restoration. Common Pitfalls: Students may assume that every judicial or quasi judicial body must automatically follow the Code of Civil Procedure. However, many tribunals are intentionally given freedom from strict procedural codes to allow for quicker and more specialised decision making. Final Answer: The statement that is not correct is that the National Green Tribunal is strictly bound by the detailed procedures of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

Question 18

Identify the Government of India scheme described as providing old age income security to senior citizens (60 years and above) by offering an assured pension or return linked to the subscription amount, backed by a government guarantee to the Life I…

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Introduction / Context: This question tests knowledge of social security schemes for senior citizens in India. The description given focuses on a pension scheme that offers an assured return to elderly persons through the Life Insurance Corporation of India, with a government guarantee. Given Data / Assumptions: The scheme targets people aged 60 years and above. Its purpose is to provide social security during old age against the risk of falling interest rates. The pension or return is linked to the subscription amount and is backed by a government guarantee to the Life Insurance Corporation of India. Four schemes are listed as options. Concept / Approach: Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana is a pension scheme operated by the Life Insurance Corporation of India. It offers a guaranteed rate of return for a fixed term to senior citizens, thereby protecting them from fluctuations in market interest rates. The other schemes mentioned in the options serve different purposes. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Consider the key phrases: old age income security, assured pension or return, government guarantee, and Life Insurance Corporation of India as the implementing agency.Step 2: Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana deals with strengthening health infrastructure and not with pensions.Step 3: Liveability Index Programme relates to assessing urban living conditions rather than individual financial support.Step 4: Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana provides physical aids and assistive devices to senior citizens with disabilities, not guaranteed pension returns.Step 5: Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana, on the other hand, is specifically a pension scheme for senior citizens, implemented by the Life Insurance Corporation of India with guaranteed returns. This matches the description perfectly. Verification / Alternative check: Government advertisements and official notifications for Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana clearly mention guaranteed pension payouts to senior citizens and implementation through the Life Insurance Corporation of India, confirming that this is the scheme described. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A is wrong because Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana focuses on health sector infrastructure like AIIMS type institutions. Option C is wrong because the Liveability Index Programme concerns quality of life in cities, not pensions. Option D is wrong because Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana provides assistive devices rather than financial pension benefits. Common Pitfalls: Learners may confuse schemes that include the words Pradhan Mantri or that involve senior citizens, but careful reading of the clue about assured pension and the mention of the Life Insurance Corporation of India should direct them to the correct option. Final Answer: The scheme described is Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana.

Question 19

In 2018, which of the following countries had legalized the possession and use of recreational cannabis (marijuana) for adults?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This general knowledge question tests awareness of international drug policy and recent changes in laws on recreational cannabis. Competitive exams often include current affairs related to social policy and legal reforms because they reflect how different countries approach public health, crime control, and individual freedom. Here, the focus is on identifying which countries had fully legalized the possession and use of recreational cannabis by about 2018, not just medical use or partial decriminalisation. Given Data / Assumptions: Statement 1 refers to America, that is, the United States of America. Statement 2 refers to Canada. Statement 3 refers to Nigeria. Statement 4 refers to Uruguay. The question asks about legalization of possession and use of recreational cannabis at the national level, not just in some regions. Concept / Approach: The key concept is the difference between full national legalization, regional legalization, and decriminalisation. A country is treated as having legalized recreational cannabis only if the national law permits adults to possess and use cannabis, usually with regulation and taxation. If only some states or provinces allow it, but national law does not, that is not a full country level legalization. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Uruguay was the first country in the world to fully legalize recreational cannabis through national legislation. Step 2: Recall that Canada passed national legislation to legalize recreational cannabis, and the new law came into effect in 2018. Step 3: The United States has some states that permit recreational cannabis, but it is not legalized at the federal level, so the whole country cannot be counted. Step 4: Nigeria does not have laws that legalize recreational cannabis; possession remains illegal. Step 5: Therefore, only statement 2 (Canada) and statement 4 (Uruguay) are correct. Verification / Alternative check: Another way to check is to remember a basic timeline. Uruguay is known as the first country to legalize recreational cannabis at the national level. Canada is widely known as the first major industrialised nation to do so, with a law implemented in 2018. The United States is often mentioned in news because several states allow recreational use, which can confuse learners, but the federal classification of cannabis remains restrictive, so it is not a full country wide legalization. Nigeria is never listed among legal cannabis countries. This confirms that only countries 2 and 4 match the condition in the question. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option 1 (1, 2 and 3) is wrong because America and Nigeria have not both fully legalized recreational cannabis nationwide. Option 3 (1 and 4 only) is wrong because the United States is not fully legalized at the national level. Option 4 (1, 2 and 4) is wrong for the same reason; it wrongly includes America with Canada and Uruguay. Option 5 (1, 3 and 4 only) is also wrong because it includes Nigeria, which does not have legal recreational cannabis. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to assume that because some states in the United States allow recreational cannabis, the whole country counts as legalized. Exam questions often exploit this confusion. Another pitfall is ignoring the difference between medical cannabis laws and recreational cannabis laws. Students must carefully distinguish between partial decriminalisation, medical use permission, and full adult use legalization at the national level. Final Answer: The correct combination of countries that had legalized recreational cannabis at the national level by 2018 is 2 and 4 only.

Question 20

Ebrahim Alkazi is an eminent Indian personality primarily known for his contribution to which field of art and culture?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question checks your knowledge of important Indian cultural personalities. Many exams ask about well known figures in literature, theatre, music, cinema, science and politics. Ebrahim Alkazi is a highly respected name in modern Indian culture, and recognising his main field helps candidates connect people with their contributions. Given Data / Assumptions: The question gives the name Ebrahim Alkazi. Four main options are provided: heart surgery, civil aviation, theatre and painting, along with one extra option in arts. No dates or extra hints are given, so the candidate must recall general knowledge about Indian cultural institutions. Concept / Approach: The approach is based on static general knowledge about Indian arts. Ebrahim Alkazi is famous as a theatre director, teacher and institution builder. He played a central role in the National School of Drama in New Delhi and trained many leading actors and directors. This direct association is enough to answer the question. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Ebrahim Alkazi was associated with the National School of Drama. Step 2: The National School of Drama is a premier institution for theatre training in India. Step 3: Alkazi directed many landmark stage productions and introduced modern stagecraft to Indian theatre. Step 4: There is no well known link between Alkazi and heart surgery, civil aviation, or painting as his primary field. Step 5: Therefore, his main area of eminence is theatre. Verification / Alternative check: Another way to verify is to recall that many famous Indian actors and theatre personalities refer to him as a legendary theatre director. When reading about the history of modern Indian theatre, his name appears repeatedly. Standard general knowledge books and cultural sections in competitive exam guides list him under theatre, not under medicine, aviation, or fine arts painting. This cross check reinforces the answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A (Heart surgery) is wrong because Alkazi was not a cardiac surgeon; that field is associated with medical doctors, not theatre directors. Option B (Civil aviation) is wrong because there is no link between him and airlines, airports or aviation policy. Option D (Painting) is incorrect because, although theatre may involve set design and visual art, Alkazi is recognised first and foremost as a theatre director and teacher, not as a famous painter. Option E (Classical music) is also incorrect because he is not known as a vocalist or instrumentalist, but as a theatre educator and director. Common Pitfalls: A frequent mistake is to confuse different cultural personalities with similar sounding names or to guess randomly when unsure. Candidates may also see the word art and assume painting. A better approach is to build a small mental map linking major personalities with one core field: for example, Satyajit Ray with cinema, Rukmini Devi with dance, and Ebrahim Alkazi with theatre. Final Answer: Ebrahim Alkazi is an eminent personality in the field of Theatre.

Basic General Knowledge Questions