Question 1

Which city was selected as the host venue for the 2017 IAAF World Championships in Athletics (also known as the World Athletics Championships)?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The World Championships in Athletics, now branded as the World Athletics Championships, is the flagship global event for track and field. The 2017 edition was a major highlight in the athletics calendar, drawing elite athletes from all over the world. This question checks whether you remember which city hosted this important championship, a typical fact tested in general knowledge and competitive exams. Given Data / Assumptions: The event in question is the 2017 World Championships in Athletics. The organiser is the international athletics body historically known as the IAAF. The options list several major world cities that regularly host global sporting events. We assume the learner is familiar with the idea that such events rotate between cities and continents. Concept / Approach: To answer this question, you need factual recall of sports GK, especially recent Olympic and world championship venues. A systematic way is to associate each championship year with its host city. For 2017, the World Championships in Athletics were awarded to London, capital of the United Kingdom, which had already proven its capability by successfully hosting the 2012 Summer Olympics. Remembering this connection between London 2012 and London 2017 is a useful memory aid for examinations. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that the question is about the 2017 World Championships in Athletics, not the Olympics or another event. Step 2: Recall that after the success of the 2012 Summer Olympics, the Olympic Stadium in London was reused and adapted for major athletics events. Step 3: Connect this with the information that the 2017 World Championships in Athletics were held in that same London Olympic Stadium. Step 4: Among the given options (Tokyo, London, Paris, New York, Beijing), select London as the correct host city. Step 5: Confirm that no other city listed hosted the 2017 athletics world championships, which validates the choice. Verification / Alternative check: A quick verification strategy is to recall a timeline of recent athletics championships and Olympics. Berlin hosted in 2009, Daegu in 2011, Moscow in 2013, Beijing in 2015, London in 2017, and Doha in 2019. This sequence clearly places London in 2017. You can also remember that Tokyo is associated with the 2020 Olympics, not the 2017 world athletics event, which further confirms that London is the correct answer here. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Tokyo: This city is famous as host of the 1964 and 2020 Summer Olympics, but not the 2017 world athletics championships. Paris: Paris is a traditional sports hub and will host the 2024 Olympics, yet it did not host the 2017 athletics world championships. New York: Although it is a global city with a major marathon, it has not hosted the athletics world championships in 2017. Beijing: Beijing hosted the 2015 World Championships in Athletics, not the 2017 edition, which is the specific year asked in the question. Common Pitfalls: Students often mix up Olympic host cities and world championship host cities, assuming that the same sequence of venues applies. Another mistake is to choose Beijing because it feels strongly associated with athletics due to the 2008 Olympics and the 2015 championships. Confusing the years or focusing only on the overall popularity of the city without linking it to the specific event and year can easily lead to an incorrect answer in this type of GK question. Final Answer: The 2017 World Championships in Athletics were hosted by the city of London.

Question 2

In August 2007, the 40th ASEAN Ministerial Meeting discussed several issues. Which of the following was one of its main agenda items?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is a major regional grouping that regularly holds ministerial meetings to set its political and economic agenda. The 40th ASEAN Ministerial Meeting in August 2007 was important because it focused on strengthening the organisation's legal and institutional framework. This question tests knowledge of that key agenda item, which is a common topic in international relations and general awareness sections of exams. Given Data / Assumptions: The meeting mentioned is the 40th ASEAN Ministerial Meeting held in August 2007. The question asks for one of the main agenda items during that meeting. The options include issues related to Iraq, Pakistan, India United States relations, and ASEAN itself. We assume that the learner is aware that ASEAN was working on a formal charter around this time. Concept / Approach: The correct approach is to connect the year 2007 with ASEAN's internal development. Around this period, ASEAN leaders were drafting and negotiating the ASEAN Charter, a foundational document aimed at giving the organisation a legal personality and clearer rules of operation. While global political issues such as Iraq or Pakistan were important in world news, they were not the central internal agenda for ASEAN in that specific ministerial meeting. The key topic was the draft blueprint of the ASEAN Charter, which would reshape ASEAN as a more rules based community. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that the question is about ASEAN's own ministerial meeting, not about the agenda of the United Nations or any other global body. Step 2: Recall that in 2007, ASEAN was actively working on the ASEAN Charter to formalise its structure and decision making processes. Step 3: Compare each option and ask whether it directly relates to ASEAN's institutional development. Step 4: Recognise that a draft blueprint of the ASEAN Charter clearly fits as a main agenda item for an ASEAN ministerial meeting. Step 5: Conclude that the correct answer is “Draft blueprint of the ASEAN Charter”. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, recall that the ASEAN Charter was signed later in November 2007 at the 13th ASEAN Summit in Singapore. The August ministerial meeting therefore logically served as a preparatory platform to finalise and discuss the draft. News reports and international affairs notes from that year highlight the charter as a central theme, confirming that the draft blueprint of the ASEAN Charter was indeed a key issue under discussion. Why Other Options Are Wrong: US military presence in Iraq: Although widely debated in world politics at that time, it was not a core agenda item of ASEAN's internal ministerial meeting in August 2007. Presidential election in Pakistan: This was a regional political issue in South Asia, but not a main ASEAN institutional agenda point in that specific meeting. The 123 civil nuclear agreement between India and the United States: This was a bilateral agreement between India and the United States and did not form the main agenda of ASEAN ministers. Global review of the Nuclear Non Proliferation Treaty: That is usually handled in United Nations and specialised disarmament forums, not as the main item in an ASEAN ministerial meeting focused on its charter. Common Pitfalls: A frequent mistake is to select a highly visible global issue, such as Iraq or the India United States nuclear agreement, simply because it feels important. However, examination questions often expect you to match an organisation with its own institutional priorities. Confusing global headlines with the specific agenda of a regional body can lead to incorrect answers in international affairs questions like this one. Final Answer: One of the main issues discussed in the 40th ASEAN Ministerial Meeting in August 2007 was the draft blueprint of the ASEAN Charter.

Question 3

Indian chess Grandmaster Viswanathan Anand won a prestigious Rapid World Chess Championship title by defeating which opponent in the final?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Viswanathan Anand is one of India's greatest sporting icons and a former World Chess Champion. Apart from classical world titles, Anand has also excelled in rapid chess, winning many elite rapid events. This question refers to a Rapid World Chess Championship where Anand defeated a top level grandmaster in the final. Knowing this fact helps you connect Indian sports achievements with specific international events, which is a common pattern in general knowledge examinations. Given Data / Assumptions: The player in focus is Indian Grandmaster Viswanathan Anand. The event is a Rapid World Chess Championship level event. The question asks for the opponent Anand defeated in the final. The options list several legendary grandmasters from different countries. Concept / Approach: The main concept here is factual recall. Anand has played many famous rivals, but not all of them have been his opponents in rapid world championship finals. In this context, Levon Aronian, an Armenian grandmaster, is the correct opponent associated with Anand's victory in a rapid world championship event. The other names listed are legendary players, but their peak competitive eras were earlier, and they are not linked to this specific rapid final against Anand. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that the question refers to a rapid chess world title linked to Anand's career. Step 2: Recall that in high level rapid chess events in the mid and late 2000s, a famous final was Anand versus Levon Aronian, which Anand won. Step 3: Note that Anatoly Karpov, Robert Fischer, and Boris Spassky belong primarily to an earlier generation of world champions and candidates. Step 4: Compare the options and identify Levon Aronian as the contemporary elite player who actually faced Anand in a rapid championship final. Step 5: Select “Levon Aronian” as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify by thinking about chess history timelines. Fischer and Spassky played their famous world championship match in 1972, which is long before Anand's peak. Karpov dominated the 1970s and 1980s. By the time rapid events featuring Anand became prominent, Levon Aronian had become one of the strongest contemporary grandmasters. Various chess resources and tournament reports on rapid championships confirm that Anand defeated Aronian in the final of a major rapid championship, supporting this answer choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Anatoly Karpov: A former world champion from an earlier generation, not Anand's opponent in the noted rapid world championship final. Robert Fischer: The American legend and world champion from 1972 to 1975, not active at the time of Anand's rapid world titles. Boris Spassky: Another earlier world champion and Fischer's rival, not paired with Anand in a rapid world championship final. Vladimir Kramnik: A strong world champion and Anand's rival in classical chess, but the famous rapid world championship win referred to in this question is associated with Levon Aronian, not Kramnik. Common Pitfalls: A common error is to associate Anand with any famous world champion without carefully linking the event type and era. Students may incorrectly choose Karpov or Kramnik simply because they know those names are big in chess history. To avoid such mistakes, always align the timeline of players and the specific format of the event, such as rapid, blitz, or classical, before making your choice. Final Answer: Viswanathan Anand won the Rapid World Chess Championship by defeating Levon Aronian in the final.

Question 4

Which country's government signed a 22 point agreement with the Madhesi People's Rights Forum (MPRF) to address demands related to representation and autonomy?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Madhesi People's Rights Forum (MPRF) is a political group that emerged to represent the interests of the Madhesi population in the Terai region. Their demands focused on representation, federal restructuring, and recognition of rights. A 22 point agreement signed between this forum and the national government became an important milestone in peace and constitutional processes in South Asia. This question checks your awareness of which country entered into that agreement with the MPRF. Given Data / Assumptions: The organisation named is the Madhesi People's Rights Forum (MPRF). A 22 point agreement was signed to address political and regional demands. The options list several South Asian countries. We assume awareness that Madhesi issues are linked to the Terai region along the India Nepal border. Concept / Approach: The key concept here is to associate the Madhesi movement with the correct national context. The Madhesi population is concentrated in the Terai plains of Nepal, and their political struggle is tied to Nepalese constitutional restructuring. Therefore, the government that signed the 22 point agreement is the Government of Nepal, not India or other neighbouring states. Remembering that the Madhesi issue is primarily a Nepal based political question is the central step in solving this item. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify the Madhesi People's Rights Forum as a political actor associated with the Terai region. Step 2: Recall that the Terai region lies in southern Nepal and borders northern India. Step 3: Connect the Madhesi demands for constitutional changes and representation with negotiations conducted by the Government of Nepal. Step 4: Evaluate the options and recognise that only Nepal matches the political setting where this 22 point agreement was signed. Step 5: Choose “Nepal” as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by recalling news and political developments following the end of the monarchy in Nepal and the drafting of a new constitution. Reports regularly mentioned negotiations between the Government of Nepal and Madhesi groups, including the Madhesi People's Rights Forum. No similar 22 point agreement is associated with India, China, Bangladesh, or Sri Lanka in this context. This confirms that the agreement specifically involved Nepal and the MPRF. Why Other Options Are Wrong: India: India shares a border with the Madhesi region, but the Madhesi movement is directed at the Nepalese state and its constitution, not at India. China: China is not the country of residence for the Madhesi population and has no such 22 point agreement with the MPRF. Bangladesh: The politics of Bangladesh do not involve the Madhesi issue; this is specific to Nepal. Sri Lanka: Sri Lanka has its own ethnic and constitutional questions but they are unrelated to the Madhesi movement and the 22 point agreement mentioned here. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse cross border ethnic ties and assume that if a group is near India, the agreement must involve the Indian government. Another error is to broadly guess any South Asian country without linking the name of the movement to a specific geography. Always anchor movements such as Madhesi, Gorkha, or Bodo to their actual national context before answering. Final Answer: The 22 point agreement with the Madhesi People's Rights Forum was signed by the government of Nepal.

Question 5

Who was the first ever Indian industrialist to be honoured with the Bharat Ratna, the country's highest civilian award?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Bharat Ratna is India's highest civilian award, conferred for exceptional service or performance of the highest order in any field of human endeavour. While many recipients come from politics, arts, science, and social service, very few are industrialists. This question asks which industrialist was the first to receive this honour, an important fact in Indian economic and award related general knowledge. Given Data / Assumptions: The award in question is the Bharat Ratna. The field is industry and business leadership. The options list notable names associated with Indian industrial history. We assume basic awareness of the Tata group and other Indian business houses. Concept / Approach: The approach is to match the Bharat Ratna recipient list with major industrial leaders. JRD Tata, the long time head of the Tata group, is well known for his pioneering role in aviation, steel, power, and many other sectors, as well as for high business ethics and philanthropy. He was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1992 and is widely recognised as the first industrialist to receive this honour. The others listed are important industrialists but did not receive the Bharat Ratna before him, if at all. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Bharat Ratna is rarely given to industrialists and that JRD Tata is a famous recipient. Step 2: Confirm that JRD Tata was awarded the Bharat Ratna in the early 1990s for his contributions to Indian industry and civil aviation. Step 3: Check each other option and recall whether any of them are known Bharat Ratna awardees. Step 4: Recognise that RK Dalmia, RK Birla, SP Godrej, and Dhirubhai Ambani, although prominent, are not associated with the Bharat Ratna honour. Step 5: Select “JRD Tata” as the first ever industrialist to receive the Bharat Ratna. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify by remembering a short list of Bharat Ratna awardees that includes names such as C Rajagopalachari, Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, Indira Gandhi, Rajiv Gandhi, B R Ambedkar, Lata Mangeshkar, and a few others in music and science. Among business figures, JRD Tata stands out as a unique inclusion. Cross checking with standard GK sources and award lists confirms this fact, reinforcing that he was indeed the first industrialist recipient. Why Other Options Are Wrong: RK Dalmia: A well known industrialist but not a Bharat Ratna awardee. RK Birla: Represents a major business family, but no Bharat Ratna was conferred on him as the first industrialist. SP Godrej: An influential industrialist, yet not the recipient of the Bharat Ratna in this context. Dhirubhai Ambani: Founder of a major business empire, but did not receive the Bharat Ratna, and certainly not before JRD Tata. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes choose any famous industrialist name, especially Dhirubhai Ambani, because of his wide brand recognition. Another common confusion is mixing up different national awards such as Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, and Bharat Ratna. Always distinguish clearly between these honours and remember the unique status of JRD Tata in this specific category. Final Answer: The first ever industrialist to receive the Bharat Ratna was JRD Tata.

Question 6

In professional tennis, the term Grand Slam refers to winning which combination of four major tournaments in a single calendar year?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: In tennis, the word Grand Slam has a very specific meaning and is often used in sports commentary, quizzes, and general knowledge tests. It refers to the achievement of winning all four of the most prestigious major tournaments within the same calendar year. This question checks whether you can correctly identify those four majors from among a list that includes other well known but non Grand Slam events. Given Data / Assumptions: The concept is Grand Slam in tennis. The answer must be a combination of four distinct tournaments. The options include genuine Grand Slam events and other professional tournaments. The learner is assumed to know that there are exactly four Grand Slam tournaments. Concept / Approach: The key is to remember the names and sequence of the four Grand Slam tournaments: Australian Open, French Open, Wimbledon, and US Open. These are held annually on different surfaces and in different countries. Any combination that replaces one of these with another tournament, such as the Italian Open, Japan Open, South Africa Open, or Canadian Open, is not a true Grand Slam set. Therefore, you must select the option that lists exactly these four majors and no substitutes. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the four Grand Slam tournaments by name: Australian Open, French Open, Wimbledon, US Open. Step 2: Scan each option and see whether it contains all four of these names without adding any extra non major event. Step 3: Option A lists Australian Open, French Open, Wimbledon, US Open, which matches perfectly with the recognised Grand Slam tournaments. Step 4: Notice that options B, C, D, and E each include at least one non Grand Slam tournament such as Italian Open, Japan Open, South Africa Open, or Canadian Open. Step 5: Conclude that only option A gives the correct composition of a tennis Grand Slam. Verification / Alternative check: A simple verification method is to recall the locations and surfaces of the four Grand Slam events. Australian Open is held in Melbourne on hard courts, French Open in Paris on clay, Wimbledon in London on grass, and US Open in New York on hard courts. If an option includes tournaments in Rome, Tokyo, Toronto, or other venues, you know it is mixing in ATP Tour or WTA Tour events, not the true Grand Slam majors. Thus the correct set remains Australian Open, French Open, Wimbledon, and US Open. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Wimbledon, French Open, Italian Open, Australian Open: Replaces the US Open with the Italian Open, which is a Masters level event, not a Grand Slam. Wimbledon, Australian Open, Japan Open, US Open: The Japan Open is a professional tournament but not part of the four majors. Wimbledon, South Africa Open, French Open, US Open: South Africa Open is not among the four recognised Grand Slam tournaments. Australian Open, Wimbledon, Canadian Open, US Open: The Canadian Open is a high level tour event, not a Grand Slam major. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes assume that any famous or high prize money event is part of the Grand Slam. Another issue is mixing up Grand Slam tournaments with ATP Masters 1000 or other important events. To avoid confusion, always memorise the four names and associate them with their cities and surfaces, which creates a stronger mental link and reduces the chance of error in exam situations. Final Answer: A tennis Grand Slam consists of winning the Australian Open, French Open, Wimbledon, and US Open in the same calendar year.

Question 7

The book Higher Than Hope is an authorised biography of which prominent political leader associated with the anti apartheid struggle?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Books and biographies of major leaders are frequent topics in general knowledge and competitive exams. Higher Than Hope is one such important work, often mentioned in connection with the anti apartheid movement in South Africa. This question checks whether you can correctly identify the political leader whose life and struggle are documented in this book. Given Data / Assumptions: The title of the book is Higher Than Hope. The book is presented as a biography. The options include leaders from Africa and India. The learner is assumed to know basic facts about the anti apartheid movement. Concept / Approach: The correct approach is to associate the title Higher Than Hope with the life story of Nelson Mandela, the iconic South African leader who fought against apartheid and later became President of South Africa. The book is an authorised biography and focuses on his political struggle, personal sacrifices, and the broader context of the African National Congress. The other options, although important leaders in their own contexts, are not the subject of this particular biography. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that the phrase Higher Than Hope is frequently linked in GK notes to Nelson Mandela. Step 2: Recall that the book is written by Fatima Meer and is an authorised biography of Mandela. Step 3: Compare the options and identify which leader is most strongly associated with the anti apartheid struggle in South Africa. Step 4: Confirm that Nelson Mandela is the central figure of that struggle and the subject of this biography. Step 5: Choose “Nelson Mandela” as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: You can check this by remembering other common biography pairings: Long Walk to Freedom is another well known autobiography by Nelson Mandela himself. Higher Than Hope is a separate biography by Fatima Meer and often appears together with Mandela related exam questions. None of the other leaders listed are consistently linked with this particular title in standard preparatory material or library catalogues, which confirms the match with Nelson Mandela. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Sam Nujoma: First President of Namibia and a key independence leader, but not the subject of Higher Than Hope. Robert Mugabe: Former leader of Zimbabwe, widely known, yet this book is not about him. V P Singh: Former Prime Minister of India associated with Indian politics and social justice, not with the anti apartheid biography in question. Julius Nyerere: Tanzanian leader and independence figure, but again not the person profiled in Higher Than Hope. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to guess any African leader when you see an unfamiliar book title. Another error is to assume the book may be about a more recently discussed political figure. To avoid this, build a small mental list of important book leader pairs, such as Discovery of India with Jawaharlal Nehru, Wings of Fire with A P J Abdul Kalam, and Higher Than Hope with Nelson Mandela. Final Answer: The book Higher Than Hope is the authorised biography of Nelson Mandela.

Question 8

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) granted some listed companies an exemption from the minimum 25 percent public shareholding requirement. Such companies had to satisfy which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: SEBI regulates capital markets in India and frames rules for transparency, investor protection, and market liquidity. One such rule is the minimum public shareholding requirement, which generally requires at least 25 percent of a company's shares to be held by the public. At one point, SEBI decided to relax this rule for certain large and widely held companies if they met specific quantitative criteria. This question checks if you know which conditions had to be satisfied to get that exemption. Given Data / Assumptions: SEBI has a rule requiring 25 percent minimum public shareholding. Certain companies were exempted from this rule. Three possible conditions are listed: A: Market capitalisation of Rs 1,000 crore. B: At least 20 million shares listed. C: Turnover of Rs 400 crore per annum. The options combine these conditions in different ways. Concept / Approach: The concept tested is knowledge of SEBI's quantitative norms for large listed companies. The exemption was granted to companies that already had a very large market value and a broad shareholder base, measured through the number of listed shares. Therefore, conditions A and B together were the basis for the exemption. Turnover, although important for business performance, was not the criterion used in this specific regulatory relaxation. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Read each of the three conditions carefully: A for market capitalisation, B for number of listed shares, C for turnover. Step 2: Recall that SEBI's focus for the exemption was on large market capitalisation and broad shareholding, not on turnover figures. Step 3: Identify that conditions A (market capitalisation of Rs 1,000 crore) and B (20 million shares listed) are the two that match SEBI's criteria. Step 4: Note that condition C (turnover of Rs 400 crore per annum) does not appear as an exemption criterion in this context. Step 5: Choose the option that combines A and B but excludes C, which is “Both A and B”. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, think about the objective behind minimum public shareholding. The goal is to ensure adequate free float and liquidity. Companies with huge market capitalisation and millions of listed shares already provide this liquidity, even if promoter holding is high. Turnover, by contrast, measures sales or revenue, not the spread of shareholding. That is why conditions related to capitalisation and listed shares were used, confirming that A and B are the correct pair for the exemption. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Only condition A: Market capitalisation alone does not guarantee broad share distribution; number of listed shares also matters. Only condition B: Having many shares listed without sufficient market capitalisation may not reflect the same level of market depth. Only condition C: Turnover is about business performance, not directly about market liquidity or shareholding structure. A, B and C: This would make turnover mandatory, which was not part of the specific exemption norms given by SEBI in this case. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes assume that a higher turnover automatically justifies regulatory relaxations, which is not always true. Another error is to focus on only one quantitative indicator without seeing why regulators combine multiple indicators like market capitalisation and share count. Always connect the rule to its purpose: in this case, public shareholding and liquidity, not sales revenue. Final Answer: SEBI granted the exemption to companies that satisfied both condition A and condition B, that is, a market capitalisation of Rs 1,000 crore and at least 20 million shares listed.

Question 9

The long running Darfur humanitarian crisis has been associated with which African country?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Darfur is one of the most discussed humanitarian crises of the twenty first century. The conflict, involving government forces, militias, and local communities, led to large scale displacement, violence, and international concern. This question tests whether you can correctly link Darfur with the country in which it is located, an important basic fact for international affairs and general knowledge exams. Given Data / Assumptions: The crisis is named the Darfur humanitarian crisis. It involves severe conflict, displacement, and human rights concerns. The options list several African countries known from news and history. The learner is expected to know the geographic location of Darfur. Concept / Approach: The key concept is geographic association. Darfur is a region in western Sudan. The crisis in Darfur has been widely reported as part of Sudan's internal conflict and civil war. Although other African countries like Uganda, Somalia, and Sierra Leone have also experienced serious conflicts and humanitarian issues, the specific label Darfur humanitarian crisis is tied to Sudan, not to any of the other countries listed. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that Darfur is the name of a region rather than a stand alone country. Step 2: Recall that Darfur is a western region of Sudan in North East Africa. Step 3: Associate media reports and United Nations discussions about the Darfur crisis with Sudan's internal conflict. Step 4: Compare the given options and identify Sudan as the only country that matches the location of Darfur. Step 5: Choose “Sudan” as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, remember that Sudan has often appeared in news related to conflict in Darfur, the capital Khartoum, and later issues following the separation of South Sudan. Reports about peacekeeping missions, International Criminal Court investigations, and humanitarian aid in Darfur all clearly identify the region as part of Sudan. No comparable widespread use of the term Darfur crisis exists in connection with Uganda, Somalia, Sierra Leone, or Ethiopia. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Uganda: Has faced its own conflicts, such as with the Lord's Resistance Army, but Darfur is not in Uganda. Somalia: Known for piracy, civil war, and humanitarian issues, yet the specific Darfur crisis is not Somali territory. Sierra Leone: Experienced a civil war and issues related to blood diamonds, but has no region called Darfur. Ethiopia: Has had regional conflicts, but Darfur is not an Ethiopian region; it belongs to Sudan. Common Pitfalls: A frequent mistake is to choose any conflict prone African country when you see the word humanitarian crisis. Another pitfall is confusing places like Darfur, Rwanda, and Somalia, all of which have different histories and locations. A clear mental map of Africa and repeated association of names like Darfur and Sudan can prevent these errors in examinations. Final Answer: The Darfur humanitarian crisis is associated with the country of Sudan.

Question 10

According to the recommendations of the Twelfth Finance Commission, what percentage share of the net shareable proceeds of central taxes was to be devolved to state governments?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: In India, Finance Commissions recommend how tax revenues collected by the Union government should be shared with the states. The Twelfth Finance Commission (FC 12) was particularly important for setting the devolution formula for a specific period. This question asks you to recall the percentage share of the net proceeds of shareable central taxes that FC 12 recommended for state governments, a key figure in public finance and Indian economy GK. Given Data / Assumptions: The question refers to the Twelfth Finance Commission, not any other commission. The subject is the share of states in the net proceeds of shareable central taxes. The options provide different percentages: 15, 20.5, 22, 30.5, and 33. We assume basic understanding that this percentage is a single numeric figure agreed for a given award period. Concept / Approach: The concept is core fiscal devolution. Each Finance Commission suggests how much of the union tax pool should go to states. The Twelfth Finance Commission clearly recommended that states together receive 30.5 percent of the net shareable central tax revenues. Lower figures such as 20.5 percent or 22 percent relate to earlier periods or different calculations, whereas 33 percent is associated with other later discussions and not with FC 12 itself. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that the commission in question is the Twelfth Finance Commission (FC 12). Step 2: Recall that FC 12 recommended increasing the share of states compared with earlier commissions. Step 3: Remember or look up the exact percentage recommended, which is 30.5 percent of net shareable central taxes. Step 4: Compare this figure with the options and confirm that 30.5 percent appears as one of the choices. Step 5: Select “30.5 percent” as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: A verification method is to recall that the Eleventh Finance Commission had recommended a lower share of around 29.5 percent, and that FC 12 increased this slightly to 30.5 percent. Later commissions adjusted the formula and sometimes considered additional criteria, but the 30.5 percent figure remains strongly associated with the Twelfth Finance Commission. Reading budget documents or commission summaries confirms this number, reinforcing your memory. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 15 percent: Far too low and not associated with modern Finance Commission recommendations for tax devolution. 20.5 percent: Not linked to FC 12; may appear in other fiscal contexts but not here. 22 percent: Another distractor figure, not matching FC 12 recommendations for shareable central taxes. 33 percent: This might resemble later discussions about increasing state share, but it is not the percentage recommended by the Twelfth Finance Commission. Common Pitfalls: Students often confuse the percentages allotted by different Finance Commissions or mix up the share of states with separate grants and plan assistance. Another difficulty is remembering whether FC 12 recommended 30 percent or 30.5 percent. To avoid this, focus on the decimal detail: FC 12 specifically recommended 30.5 percent, so the half percentage point is a useful memory hook. Final Answer: The Twelfth Finance Commission recommended that states receive 30.5 percent of the net shareable proceeds of central taxes.

Question 11

Which organisation launched a Rural Development Programme in Uttar Pradesh so that villages could be developed in an integrated manner?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Rural development programmes in India are often implemented or supported by specialised institutions that focus on agriculture, rural credit, and infrastructure. Uttar Pradesh, being a large agrarian state, has been the target of several integrated rural development initiatives. This question asks which organisation initiated a Rural Development Programme in Uttar Pradesh aimed at developing villages in an integrated and sustainable manner. Given Data / Assumptions: The programme is specifically called a Rural Development Programme. The focus is on integrated development of villages in Uttar Pradesh. The options include banks and financial institutions: NABARD, SBI, RBI, ECGC, and SIDBI. We assume familiarity with the primary mandates of these institutions. Concept / Approach: The essential idea is to align the nature of the programme with the core mandate of the institution. NABARD stands for National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development and is specifically tasked with rural credit, agricultural development, and integrated rural projects. Therefore, a Rural Development Programme for integrated village development in a state like Uttar Pradesh fits squarely within NABARD's mission. The other institutions handle commercial banking, monetary policy, export credit guarantees, or small industry finance, which are related but not as directly focused on integrated rural development. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Note that the programme targets villages and rural development in Uttar Pradesh. Step 2: Recall the full form and core purpose of NABARD, which is dedicated to agriculture and rural development across India. Step 3: Compare this with SBI (a large commercial bank), RBI (the central bank), ECGC (export credit guarantee body), and SIDBI (small industries finance institution). Step 4: Identify that among these, NABARD is the most logical organisation to start such an integrated rural development initiative. Step 5: Choose “NABARD” as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by looking at typical functions: NABARD finances rural infrastructure projects, self help groups, watershed management, and village level development models. Many exam oriented GK sources specifically mention that NABARD launched a Rural Development Programme in Uttar Pradesh to promote integrated village development. No similar flagship integrated rural programme is usually attributed to RBI, ECGC, or SIDBI in this context. Why Other Options Are Wrong: State Bank of India (SBI): Although SBI has rural branches and runs financial inclusion schemes, it is primarily a commercial bank rather than a specialised rural development institution. Reserve Bank of India (RBI): The central bank sets monetary policy and regulates banking but does not directly implement integrated village development programmes. Export Credit Guarantee Corporation (ECGC): Its main role is to provide export credit insurance and support exporters, not to design rural development projects. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI): Focuses on small and medium enterprises, not comprehensive cluster based rural village development in the way NABARD does. Common Pitfalls: Candidates may mistakenly pick SBI simply because it is a familiar name or because it also works in rural areas. Another common confusion is to think RBI handles all economic programmes nationwide. To avoid this, always match the specific nature of a scheme, especially one explicitly labelled rural development, with NABARD, which is the apex institution in that domain. Final Answer: The Rural Development Programme for integrated village development in Uttar Pradesh was initiated by NABARD.

Question 12

Which of the following authors was conferred a knighthood by the British government in 2007 for services to literature?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The British honours system confers titles such as knighthoods on individuals who have made significant contributions in fields like literature, science, and public service. In 2007, one of the most discussed literary honours was a knighthood for a novelist of South Asian origin. This question checks whether you can identify that author, which is a common fact in international and literary general knowledge. Given Data / Assumptions: The year of the honour is 2007. The honour is a knighthood by the British government. The field is literature. The options include well known authors such as Salman Rushdie, V S Naipaul, Chetan Bhagat, Khushwant Singh, and Arundhati Roy. Concept / Approach: The central idea is to connect the year and the type of honour with the correct author. Salman Rushdie, known for works like Midnight's Children and The Satanic Verses, was knighted in the 2007 Queen's Birthday Honours for his services to literature. Although V S Naipaul also received a knighthood, that occurred earlier in 1990. The other Indian authors mentioned have won important awards but have not received British knighthoods of this type. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Focus on the year 2007 and the word knighthood. Step 2: Recall publicity around Salman Rushdie receiving a knighthood in 2007 and the debates and reactions that followed. Step 3: Note that V S Naipaul had already been knighted earlier and thus does not match the 2007 date. Step 4: Recognise that Chetan Bhagat, Khushwant Singh, and Arundhati Roy are not associated with British knighthoods. Step 5: Select “Salman Rushdie” as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, remember that news reports at the time highlighted controversy around the knighthood given to Rushdie due to reactions from some groups. The British honours list for 2007 clearly records his name as a Knight Bachelor. While Naipaul is styled Sir V S Naipaul, his knighthood predates 2007, which rules him out for this question. Checking standard GK compilations confirms Salman Rushdie as the 2007 literary knighthood recipient. Why Other Options Are Wrong: V S Naipaul: He did receive a knighthood, but it was in 1990, not in 2007, so the year does not match the question. Chetan Bhagat: A popular Indian novelist, but he has not been knighted by the British government. Khushwant Singh: A renowned Indian writer and journalist, honoured in other ways but not with a British knighthood in 2007. Arundhati Roy: Booker Prize winning Indian author, but not a British knight and therefore not the answer here. Common Pitfalls: A typical confusion is between Salman Rushdie and V S Naipaul, since both are major literary figures with British links. Another mistake is to ignore the specific year and simply pick any famous author. Always pay attention to both the honour type and the date mentioned in the question to avoid such errors. Final Answer: The author who was knighted by the British government in 2007 for services to literature is Salman Rushdie.

Question 13

As per the recommendations of the Twelfth Finance Commission, what should be the share of states in the net proceeds of shareable central taxes?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question again focuses on the recommendations of the Twelfth Finance Commission, but states the same concept in slightly different words. The idea is to reinforce your grasp of the exact percentage that states were to receive from the net proceeds of shareable central taxes. Correctly remembering such figures is important in public finance and Indian economy questions for civil services and banking exams. Given Data / Assumptions: Commission referred to is the Twelfth Finance Commission. The subject is the share of states in net proceeds of shareable central taxes. Options are various percentage values: 20, 25.5, 30.5, 33, and 28. We assume awareness that only one of these is correct for FC 12. Concept / Approach: The concept is identical to that in the earlier related question: the Twelfth Finance Commission recommended that states together receive 30.5 percent of the net shareable central tax pool. This recommendation was part of a broader package to correct vertical imbalances between the Union and states. All other percentage figures in the options are distractors that correspond either to earlier recommendations, later demands, or no specific commission at all. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify the reference to the Twelfth Finance Commission, not any other commission. Step 2: Recall that FC 12 recommended a 30.5 percent share for states. Step 3: Compare the percentage 30.5 with the given options and locate it as option C. Step 4: Confirm that 30.5 percent matches what you already know from standard economy notes. Step 5: Select “30.5 percent” as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Verification is similar to the previous explanation. The Eleventh Finance Commission recommended a lower share, and the Thirteenth Commission later revised formulas again. But FC 12 is consistently associated with the figure 30.5 percent. Reading summaries of the Twelfth Finance Commission report or government budget annexures confirms this percentage as the state share in net central taxes for that award period. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 20 percent: Too low and not related to FC 12 recommendations for shareable central taxes. 25.5 percent: May appear in other fiscal contexts but not as the FC 12 devolution rate. 33 percent: This figure can be associated with later debates on higher state shares but not with FC 12. 28 percent: Another distractor value with no direct link to the Twelfth Finance Commission's main devolution recommendation. Common Pitfalls: Because similar questions often repeat with slightly different wording, candidates can doubt themselves and change from the correct figure. Another pitfall is assuming that any higher number must be correct if it appears more generous. Instead, trust the specifically remembered figure 30.5 percent for the Twelfth Finance Commission and use repeated practice to fix it firmly in memory. Final Answer: As per the Twelfth Finance Commission, the share of states in the net proceeds of shareable central taxes was fixed at 30.5 percent.

Question 14

In order to increase wool production in India, which high yielding breed of sheep has been imported and used for cross breeding with indigenous breeds?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: India has many indigenous sheep breeds, but to improve both quantity and quality of wool production, high yielding foreign breeds have been introduced for cross breeding. Understanding which breed has been imported especially for this purpose helps in questions on animal husbandry, agriculture, and rural development, which are common in both agriculture exams and general studies papers. Given Data / Assumptions: The focus is on increasing wool production in India. We are asked specifically about an imported sheep breed. The options list several sheep breeds: Merino, Chokla, Magra, Bellary, and Nali. We assume familiarity with the fact that some of these are Indian breeds while one is a famous foreign wool breed. Concept / Approach: Merino sheep, originally from Spain and now bred in many countries, is world famous for its fine and high quality wool. India has imported Merino or strains of Merino for cross breeding with local sheep to improve wool yield and quality. The other breeds listed are largely Indian or regional breeds used mainly in their own ecological zones and are not the primary imported breed for this purpose. Therefore, the correct answer must be Merino. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify which of the listed breeds is globally known for superior wool quality. Step 2: Recall that Merino wool is considered premium and is used widely in fine clothing. Step 3: Recognise that India imported Merino sheep or Merino strains specifically to cross breed with indigenous breeds. Step 4: Confirm that Chokla, Magra, Bellary, and Nali are primarily Indian regional breeds, not imported foreign breeds for wool improvement. Step 5: Select “Merino” as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify by looking at agriculture and animal husbandry notes. They clearly mention that India imported Merino, including Soviet Merino strains, to enhance wool production. Descriptions of indigenous breeds such as Chokla and Magra emphasise their regional importance but do not describe them as imported. Therefore, Merino stands out as the only imported high yielding wool breed among the options. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Chokla: An Indian breed, mainly from Rajasthan, used for carpet wool, not imported as the primary foreign breed. Magra: Another Indian breed from arid regions, important locally but not the imported high yielding wool breed in question. Bellary: A local breed from certain Indian states, not globally famed like Merino for fine wool and not imported for this purpose. Nali: Indigenous to parts of Rajasthan and Haryana, again not the foreign strain used in national level wool improvement programmes. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes guess an Indian sounding name assuming that imports would be less likely to appear in exam options. Another issue is mixing up which breed is famous for carpet wool and which is known for fine apparel wool. To avoid confusion, always remember that Merino is the classic imported fine wool breed and that many improvement programmes in India have used it for cross breeding. Final Answer: The imported high yielding breed used to increase wool production in India is the Merino sheep.

Question 15

Lady Tata Memorial Awards, instituted by the Lady Tata Memorial Trust, are primarily given for research in which medical field related to human disease?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Lady Tata Memorial Trust was founded in memory of Lady Meherbai Tata, who died from leukaemia. In her memory, the trust established research awards that focus on serious human diseases. One significant category of these awards is known as the Lady Tata Memorial Awards. This question tests whether you can identify the main medical research area for which these awards are primarily given, an important detail in the context of medical and scientific awards. Given Data / Assumptions: The awards are called Lady Tata Memorial Awards. They are connected to medical research. The options list leukaemia, biodiversity conservation, tuberculosis control, environmental protection, and orthopaedic surgery. We assume awareness that the trust's origin is linked to a blood cancer case. Concept / Approach: The key concept is to relate the name of the trust and awards to the disease that motivated their creation. Lady Meherbai Tata died of leukaemia, and Sir Dorabji Tata established the trust to support research into this disease and related conditions. Therefore, Lady Tata Memorial Awards focus heavily on leukaemia and closely associated medical research. Biodiversity and environmental protection are important fields but are not the core focus of this trust in its classic award schemes. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that the awards are named after Lady Tata and are administered by the Lady Tata Memorial Trust. Step 2: Recall that the trust was set up following Lady Tata's death from leukaemia. Step 3: Infer that the awards would likely support research on leukaemia and related human diseases. Step 4: Examine the options and identify leukaemia as the specific disease area among more general or unrelated fields. Step 5: Select “Leukaemia” as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: You can confirm this by reading basic information about the Lady Tata Memorial Trust, which states that its awards support research into leukaemia and related blood disorders. While the trust may also support broader biomedical projects over time, the classic examination question focuses on leukaemia as the central area. Other environmental or disease fields like tuberculosis, though significant, are usually funded by different agencies and programmes rather than by the Lady Tata Memorial Trust as its primary theme. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Biodiversity conservation: This relates to ecology and species diversity, not specifically to the medical disease focus of the Lady Tata Memorial Awards. Tuberculosis control: A major public health concern, but these awards are not primarily framed around tuberculosis. Environmental protection: Important in its own right, yet not the main research theme of the Lady Tata Memorial Trust's classic awards. Orthopaedic surgery: A surgical speciality dealing with bones and joints, unrelated to the historical origin of the trust and its flagship awards. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may assume that any memorial award could be for a broad cause like environmental protection or general health. Others may confuse Lady Tata awards with other medical or environmental prizes. To avoid this, always connect the award name to its origin story, in this case the struggle with leukaemia that led to the creation of the trust. Final Answer: Lady Tata Memorial Awards are primarily given for research in leukaemia and closely related blood diseases.

Question 16

Pulitzer Prize winners are selected by the Pulitzer Prize Board and the awards are formally announced by the president of which university?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Pulitzer Prize is one of the most prestigious awards in journalism, letters, drama, and music in the United States. It is administered within a university framework and has a clear process for selection and announcement. This question tests whether you know which university's president formally announces the winners after they are chosen by the Pulitzer Prize Board, a frequent point in general awareness and media related GK. Given Data / Assumptions: The winners are selected by the Pulitzer Prize Board. The awards are formally announced by a university president. The options provide names of notable universities. We assume awareness that the Pulitzer Prize is historically linked to a specific New York based Ivy League institution. Concept / Approach: The central concept is institutional association. The Pulitzer Prizes were established by the will of newspaper publisher Joseph Pulitzer and are administered by Columbia University in New York City. The Pulitzer Prize Board operates within this university, and traditionally, the president of Columbia University announces the winners. Therefore, the correct answer must be Columbia University, not other universities listed as distractors. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify the connection between the Pulitzer Prize and Columbia University from standard GK notes. Step 2: Recall that the Pulitzer Prize Board functions under the administration of Columbia University. Step 3: Recognise that final announcements of Pulitzer winners are made by the president of Columbia University. Step 4: Compare the given options and note that other universities like New York University, Wesleyan University, Cambridge University, or Harvard University do not have this formal role. Step 5: Choose “Columbia University” as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Verification is straightforward. Any official description of the Pulitzer Prize states that the awards are administered by Columbia University. News reports covering the annual Pulitzer announcement often mention that the winners are declared at Columbia. No competing claim exists for other universities, which confirms the association. This consistency across sources makes Columbia University the firmly correct choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: New York University: A major university but has no formal administrative role in the Pulitzer Prize process. Wesleyan University: A respected institution, yet not connected with the Pulitzer administration or announcements. Cambridge University: Located in the United Kingdom, it has no direct link to this American journalism and arts prize. Harvard University: Another elite university, but it does not administer the Pulitzers or host the prize board. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes confuse Columbia University with New York University because both are located in New York City. Another mistake is to simply pick a famous name like Harvard or Cambridge without considering the specific link to the Pulitzer Prizes. To avoid these errors, always memorise the Pulitzer Columbia connection as a fixed pair in your GK preparation. Final Answer: Pulitzer Prize winners are formally announced by the president of Columbia University.

Question 17

India's first rural telephone exchange was established in which state?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Telecommunications development is an important part of India's infrastructure history. The installation of telephone exchanges, particularly in rural areas, marked significant steps in connecting villages to the rest of the country. This question asks you to identify the state where India's first rural telephone exchange was located, a fact that often appears in general awareness questions on technology and infrastructure. Given Data / Assumptions: The focus is on India's first rural telephone exchange. The options list several Indian states: Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu. We assume the learner can distinguish between states known for early telecom initiatives. Concept / Approach: The key is to match early telecommunications initiatives with the correct state. Historical notes on telecom development mention that India's first rural telephone exchange was set up in Karnataka. This reflects the state's pioneering role in certain aspects of rural connectivity. The other states listed have also expanded telecom infrastructure, but they are not credited with hosting the first rural telephone exchange in the country. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that the question is asking about the very first rural telephone exchange in India. Step 2: Recall from GK notes that Karnataka is mentioned as the location of this pioneering rural exchange. Step 3: Compare this with the other options, which do not have the same specific historical association. Step 4: Eliminate states like Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu, which are not cited as hosting the first rural exchange. Step 5: Select “Karnataka” as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Verification can be done by consulting telecom history summaries or competitive exam question banks, many of which explicitly state that India's first rural telephone exchange was located in Karnataka. Multiple independent GK sources repeat this point, making it a reliable fact. Since no other state is consistently credited with this first rural exchange, Karnataka remains the accepted answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Andhra Pradesh: Although it has important telecom hubs, it is not recorded as hosting the first rural exchange. Kerala: Known for high literacy and social indicators, but not specifically for the first rural telephone exchange. Uttar Pradesh: A large state with extensive telecom expansion, but not associated with this first installation. Tamil Nadu: An industrially advanced state, yet the pioneering rural exchange is not attributed to it. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes guess a state based on its perceived level of industrial or IT development, such as Tamil Nadu or Andhra Pradesh. Others simply pick their home state or a state they associate with early technology growth. To avoid this, remember the specific pairing of rural telephone exchange first and Karnataka as a fixed GK item. Final Answer: India's first rural telephone exchange was located in the state of Karnataka.

Question 18

The book The Man Who Knew Infinity by Robert Kanigel, widely reviewed in India, is a biography of which legendary Indian mathematician?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Biographies of scientists and mathematicians often appear in competitive exam questions, and The Man Who Knew Infinity is one of the most celebrated books of this type. Written by Robert Kanigel, it explores the life and genius of a famous Indian mathematician. This question checks your ability to match that title with the correct personality, an important part of science and biography related general knowledge. Given Data / Assumptions: The book title is The Man Who Knew Infinity. The author is Robert Kanigel. The options list several major Indian scientists: Srinivasa Ramanujan, Vikram Sarabhai, Sir Homi J Bhabha, Sir C V Raman, and Satyendra Nath Bose. We assume familiarity with at least the major contributions of these scientists. Concept / Approach: The book focuses on Srinivasa Ramanujan, a self taught mathematical genius from India whose work in number theory and infinite series was revolutionary. He later collaborated with the British mathematician G H Hardy at Cambridge. The title The Man Who Knew Infinity symbolically refers to Ramanujan's intuitive understanding of infinite series and complex mathematical relationships. The other scientists listed are eminent figures in physics and space science, but they are not the subject of this particular biography. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise the association of the phrase The Man Who Knew Infinity with mathematics and infinite series. Step 2: Recall that Srinivasa Ramanujan is the Indian mathematician whose life story is told in this book. Step 3: Note that Vikram Sarabhai is known as the father of the Indian space programme, Homi J Bhabha for nuclear science, C V Raman for the Raman effect, and S N Bose for quantum statistics. Step 4: Eliminate these other scientists since the book in question is clearly about a mathematician, not a physicist or space scientist. Step 5: Choose “Srinivasa Ramanujan” as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Verification is easy: movie adaptations, book reviews, and exam notes all agree that The Man Who Knew Infinity is a biography of Srinivasa Ramanujan. The film of the same name reinforces the association between the title and Ramanujan's life. No major source connects this title with the other scientists listed, which confirms that the answer is uniquely linked to Ramanujan. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Vikram Sarabhai: Pioneer of India's space programme, not the central figure of this biography. Sir Homi J Bhabha: Nuclear physicist and key figure in atomic energy, associated with other biographies, not this one. Sir C V Raman: Nobel Prize winning physicist known for the Raman effect, not the subject of The Man Who Knew Infinity. Satyendra Nath Bose: Theoretical physicist whose work led to the concept of bosons, but again not the focus of Kanigel's book. Common Pitfalls: A common error is to confuse this book with other science biographies or to assume it might be about a more widely known Nobel laureate like C V Raman. Another pitfall is not noticing that the title emphasises infinity, hinting at infinite series and number theory, which are directly linked with Ramanujan. Remembering this association will help you avoid such mix ups. Final Answer: The book The Man Who Knew Infinity is a biography of Srinivasa Ramanujan.

Question 19

The Indus Valley Civilisation is described as a protohistoric civilisation because its people were familiar with which important cultural feature, even though modern scholars have not fully deciphered it?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Historians classify ancient societies into pre historic, protohistoric, and historic phases based on the presence and understanding of written records. The Indus Valley Civilisation, also called the Harappan Civilisation, is often labelled protohistoric rather than fully historic. This question asks why that is so, focusing on what the people of this civilisation already knew, even though modern scholars still face challenges in interpreting it fully. Given Data / Assumptions: The civilisation in question is the Indus Valley Civilisation. It is called protohistoric, not purely pre historic or historic. The options give possible reasons: writing, art, copper, pottery, or use of iron tools. We assume a basic understanding of how written records influence historical classification. Concept / Approach: A pre historic society has no written records. A historic society has written records that can be read and interpreted. A protohistoric society has evidence of writing or script, but modern scholars have not yet fully deciphered or understood it. The Indus Valley Civilisation left behind numerous seals and inscriptions bearing a script. Because these symbols exist but are not yet fully deciphered, the civilisation is placed in the protohistoric category. Therefore, the relevant feature is writing, not simply art, pottery, or metallurgy, which can be found in purely pre historic cultures as well. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the definitions of pre historic, protohistoric, and historic in archaeology and history. Step 2: Remember that the Indus Valley Civilisation produced a script found on seals, tablets, and pottery. Step 3: Note that this script is not yet fully deciphered, which prevents historians from reading the civilisation's own records. Step 4: Recognise that the presence of undeciphered writing is exactly what makes a civilisation protohistoric. Step 5: Choose “Writing” as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by reading any standard textbook on ancient Indian history. They consistently describe the Harappan Civilisation as protohistoric due to the presence of a script on seals and other objects. These texts also mention that while many signs and inscriptions have been found, a clear bilingual key has not been discovered, making the script undeciphered. As a result, historians cannot treat the civilisation as fully historic even though writing definitely existed. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Art: Many pre historic cultures produced sophisticated art, including cave paintings, without having writing, so art alone does not move a culture into protohistory. Copper metallurgy: Knowledge of copper is important for technology but has nothing to do with the classification of pre historic versus historic. Pottery making: Pottery is widely found in pre historic times and does not by itself create a protohistoric label. Use of iron tools: Iron came into widespread use later and is not a defining feature of the Indus Valley Civilisation, which is a Bronze Age culture. Common Pitfalls: Some students confuse protohistoric with prehistoric and think that having pottery or metal tools is enough to change the classification. Others may incorrectly choose pottery because they remember many references to Harappan pottery. To avoid this, always link protohistory specifically with the presence of writing that exists but cannot yet be fully read or interpreted. Final Answer: The Indus Valley Civilisation is called protohistoric because its people knew writing, even though their script remains undeciphered.

Question 20

The Periyar Game Sanctuary, also known as the Periyar Tiger Reserve at Thekkady, is located in which Indian state?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Periyar Game Sanctuary, now widely known as Periyar Tiger Reserve, is one of the most famous wildlife reserves in India. Situated near Thekkady, it is an important destination for ecology, tourism, and tiger conservation. This question checks whether you can correctly identify the Indian state in which this sanctuary is located, a common item in geography and environment related general knowledge. Given Data / Assumptions: The sanctuary is called Periyar Game Sanctuary or Periyar Tiger Reserve. It is located at or near Thekkady. The options list several states: Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Goa, and Andhra Pradesh. We assume a basic knowledge of popular wildlife reserves in different Indian states. Concept / Approach: The Periyar River and Periyar Tiger Reserve are closely associated with the state of Kerala. The reserve lies in the Western Ghats, primarily in the Idukki and Pathanamthitta districts of Kerala. Thekkady, a well known tourist town, is also in Kerala. Although the Western Ghats stretch across multiple states, this specific sanctuary is administratively part of Kerala, not Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Goa, or Andhra Pradesh. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that Thekkady is a popular hill and wildlife tourism destination in Kerala. Step 2: Recall that Periyar Tiger Reserve surrounds the artificial Periyar Lake created by the Mullaperiyar Dam. Step 3: Note that these geographic and administrative details place the sanctuary firmly inside Kerala's boundaries. Step 4: Compare the options and see that Kerala is the only state that matches the known location of Periyar Game Sanctuary. Step 5: Select “Kerala” as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, remember that many tourism brochures and official forest department websites describe Periyar Tiger Reserve as located in Idukki district of Kerala. The nearest town, Kumily, and the well known route from Kochi or Kottayam to Thekkady further reinforce this association. No authoritative source places Periyar Game Sanctuary in Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Goa, or Andhra Pradesh, so the answer remains clear. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Karnataka: Home to other reserves like Bandipur and Nagarhole, but Periyar is not in this state. Tamil Nadu: Shares the Western Ghats and benefits from the Mullaperiyar Dam water, yet the sanctuary itself lies on the Kerala side of the border. Goa: Has wildlife sanctuaries but does not host the Periyar Tiger Reserve. Andhra Pradesh: Located on the eastern side of India and not part of the Western Ghats in which Periyar is situated. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates mistakenly link Periyar to Tamil Nadu because of the Mullaperiyar Dam controversy, or they simply see Western Ghats and guess Karnataka. To avoid confusion, clearly associate Periyar Game Sanctuary and Thekkady with Kerala in your mental map of Indian wildlife reserves. Final Answer: The Periyar Game Sanctuary at Thekkady is located in the state of Kerala.

Basic General Knowledge Questions