Question 1

From a basic science and health point of view, it is not advisable to sleep under a tree at night mainly because the tree releases which gas at that time?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Many traditional pieces of advice about health and environment have a basis in elementary science. One such common advice is that people should avoid sleeping under trees at night. This question asks about the scientific reason behind that advice by focusing on which gas is released by trees in the dark that can affect air quality around a sleeping person. Given Data / Assumptions: - The situation described is sleeping under a tree at night. - We must identify the gas released by the tree that makes this inadvisable. - Options mention oxygen in lesser quantity, oxygen in large amounts, carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide. - The explanation draws on basic plant physiology and respiration. Concept / Approach: During the day, in sunlight, plants carry out photosynthesis, using carbon dioxide and releasing oxygen. At night, photosynthesis stops due to lack of light, but respiration in plants continues. During respiration, plants take in oxygen and release carbon dioxide, just like animals do. Under a dense canopy on a still night, carbon dioxide concentration can increase slightly near the ground, while oxygen availability can be reduced compared to open surroundings. Therefore, the gas mainly released that justifies the warning is carbon dioxide. Step-by-Step Solution: 1. Recall that photosynthesis requires light, chlorophyll, carbon dioxide and water to produce glucose and oxygen. 2. In the absence of light at night, photosynthesis stops, so trees no longer convert carbon dioxide into oxygen. 3. However, respiration in plant cells continues all the time and involves taking in oxygen and releasing carbon dioxide. 4. When someone sleeps very close to a large tree, especially under a dense canopy, the local concentration of carbon dioxide in the still air can rise. 5. Therefore, the main gas released by trees at night that can cause discomfort or mild suffocation risk is carbon dioxide. 6. Thus, carbon dioxide is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Basic biology textbooks clearly state that in darkness, plants only respire and do not photosynthesise, which means they release carbon dioxide instead of oxygen. Simple classroom experiments measuring gas exchange in light and dark conditions confirm this behaviour. The traditional advice about avoiding sleeping under trees at night is often explained in school science lessons using this same reasoning. These multiple lines of evidence support the choice of carbon dioxide as the correct option. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Oxygen in a lesser quantity than required is an imprecise statement and does not identify the specific gas of concern. Oxygen in large amounts is actually beneficial for breathing, so it cannot be a reason to avoid sleeping under a tree. Carbon monoxide is a toxic gas generally produced by incomplete combustion of fuels and is not released in significant quantities by trees. Therefore, these three options do not accurately describe the main gas involved in this situation. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may misinterpret the question and think only in terms of reduced oxygen rather than increased carbon dioxide. Others may confuse carbon monoxide with carbon dioxide because both names sound similar, even though carbon monoxide is related to pollution from vehicles and stoves, not to plant respiration. To avoid such mistakes, it is important to remember the basic equation of respiration as using oxygen and releasing carbon dioxide, and to link that directly with this classical general science question. Final Answer: It is not advisable to sleep under a tree at night mainly because the tree releases carbon dioxide during respiration in the dark.

Question 2

Goa Shipyard Limited, an important Indian defence shipbuilding company, was established in which year?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Public sector shipyards play a crucial role in building and maintaining ships for the Indian Navy and Coast Guard. Goa Shipyard Limited is one such defence shipbuilding company located on the west coast of India. General knowledge questions often ask about the year of establishment of major public sector undertakings as part of industrial and defence awareness. Given Data / Assumptions: - The organisation mentioned is Goa Shipyard Limited, abbreviated as GSL. - Four consecutive years from 1955 to 1958 are given as options. - We must choose the year in which the shipyard was established. - No other numerical data is needed for the answer. Concept / Approach: Goa Shipyard Limited traces its origins to a shipyard set up during the Portuguese period in Goa to build barges and small vessels. The modern company recognises 1957 as its year of establishment. Therefore, among the close years listed, 1957 is the historically correct year. Understanding that Goa Shipyard predates the 1961 annexation of Goa and was founded in the late nineteen fifties helps narrow the choice to 1957. Step-by-Step Solution: 1. Recall that Goa was under Portuguese rule until 1961, and the shipyard began operations before that period ended. 2. The company history states that it was established in 1957 to build barges and other vessels. 3. Among the options 1955, 1956, 1957 and 1958, we need to identify the exact year mentioned in official records. 4. Recalling the number 1957 as the founding year of Goa Shipyard Limited helps select the right option. 5. Therefore, 1957 is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Verification can be done by checking standard GK sources and official descriptions, all of which note Goa Shipyard Limited as being established in 1957. Many exam preparation materials reproduce this year in questions about public sector undertakings in the defence sector. The repetition of this exact date across multiple references confirms that 1957 is accurate and not any of the neighbouring years listed in the other options. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The years 1955, 1956 and 1958 are given as close distractors but do not match the officially recorded founding year. While the shipbuilding activities in the region might have evolved over a span of years, the establishment date recognised by the company and by exam questions is 1957, not any of these alternative years. Therefore, selecting any of these options would be inconsistent with both official data and standard general knowledge references. Common Pitfalls: Because all the options are in a narrow range, candidates may confuse the exact year and guess randomly. Another pitfall is not revising the establishment years of key public sector undertakings and relying only on vague memory that the company is from the nineteen fifties. To avoid such errors, students should prepare small lists of major PSUs along with their founding years and sectors, such as shipbuilding, power, steel and oil, so that these straightforward questions can be answered confidently. Final Answer: Goa Shipyard Limited was established in the year 1957.

Question 3

In general knowledge about scientific terms, what is the technical name for the study of human beauty?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Certain specialised fields of study have Greek or Latin derived names that appear in general knowledge exams. One such less common term is used to describe the systematic study of human beauty and attractiveness. This question tests whether the candidate can correctly match that concept with its technical name from among several similar sounding terms. Given Data / Assumptions: - The concept described is the study of human beauty. - The options include Argology, Kalology, Agrostology and Oncology. - Only one of these terms specifically refers to the study of beauty. - Candidates are expected to identify and remember the correct match. Concept / Approach: Kalology is derived from the Greek word kalos, meaning beautiful, and logos, meaning study or discourse. It refers to the study of beauty, particularly human beauty, and how it influences society. The other terms refer to different branches of science: Agrostology is the study of grasses and Oncology is the study of tumours and cancer. Argology is not a standard term in this context. Therefore, the correct technical name for the study of human beauty is Kalology. Step-by-Step Solution: 1. Recall that many scientific disciplines use the suffix logy, which indicates study or science of a subject. 2. The root kal or cal is associated with beauty in Greek derived terms, leading to Kalology as the study of beauty. 3. Agrostology is known in botany as the branch that deals with grasses. 4. Oncology is a common medical term describing the study and treatment of cancers and tumours. 5. Argology does not correspond to the recognised field of beauty studies in standard GK references. 6. Therefore, the correct choice for the study of human beauty is Kalology. Verification / Alternative check: Verification can be done by consulting dictionaries of scientific terms or common general awareness material where this question is often repeated. These sources state clearly that Kalology is the study of beauty and its impact, with a focus on human attractiveness. By cross checking the meanings of Agrostology and Oncology in basic biology and medical textbooks, we further confirm that they refer to grasses and cancer respectively, leaving Kalology as the only correct match for beauty studies. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Argology is not widely recognised as a discipline related to aesthetics or beauty in standard general knowledge content and appears only as a distractor. Agrostology is a legitimate field in botany focusing on grasses and has nothing to do with human beauty. Oncology is a serious branch of medicine dealing with cancers and tumours, again unrelated to aesthetics. Therefore, none of these alternatives correctly answer the question about the study of human beauty. Common Pitfalls: Because the options are all somewhat unfamiliar, candidates may attempt to guess based only on the sound of the words. They might mistake Agrostology for something related to agriculture or Argology for a term similar to archaeology. Others might be tempted by Oncology simply because it is a well known medical term, even though it clearly refers to cancer, not beauty. A good strategy is to learn a set of less obvious logy terms such as Kalology, Agrostology and Dermatology, and to remember at least a simple definition for each. Final Answer: The technical name for the study of human beauty is Kalology.

Question 4

In Indian development programmes, Operation Kutir Jyothi refers to which of the following initiatives?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Government initiatives in India are often given distinctive names that capture their main objective or target group. Operation Kutir Jyothi is one such programme name that appears frequently in general knowledge questions. Knowing what the programme is about helps candidates connect it with broader themes such as rural development, electrification and poverty alleviation. Given Data / Assumptions: - The programme name given is Operation Kutir Jyothi. - The options list rural electrification, adult literacy, self employment and Olympic torch. - Only one option correctly describes the focus of this operation. - The explanation relies on awareness of Indian development schemes. Concept / Approach: The word Kutir suggests small dwellings or huts, and Jyothi refers to light. Operation Kutir Jyothi was designed to provide electricity connections to the homes of rural poor families, especially those below the poverty line, thereby bringing light to rural huts. It falls under the broader theme of rural electrification. Adult literacy and self employment programmes generally have different names, and Olympic torch is unrelated to Indian rural schemes. Recognising the meaning of the words and recalling scheme descriptions leads to the correct option of rural electrification. Step-by-Step Solution: 1. Break down the phrase Kutir Jyothi into its components: Kutir means hut or small house, and Jyothi means light. 2. The combination suggests an initiative aimed at lighting small rural houses. 3. Among the given options, rural electrification is directly related to providing light and power to such homes. 4. Adult literacy focuses on education for adults, not on lighting houses. 5. Self employment schemes involve generating income opportunities and do not specifically centre around light or electricity. 6. Olympic torch relates to sports ceremonies and is clearly unrelated to rural housing in India. 7. Therefore, Operation Kutir Jyothi refers to rural electrification. Verification / Alternative check: Standard GK books and exam oriented notes describe Operation Kutir Jyothi as a programme aimed at providing single point light connections to households in rural areas belonging to economically weaker sections. They often group it with other rural electrification schemes and highlight its role in improving quality of life through basic energy access. The repeated classification of this operation under rural electrification confirms that option rural electrification is correct. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Adult literacy programmes in India usually carry names such as National Literacy Mission and do not use the imagery of light in huts as their primary identity. Self employment schemes include programmes like IRDP or later self help group initiatives, which are linked to income generation rather than electricity distribution. Olympic torch refers to an international sporting symbol and has nothing to do with Indian rural development projects. Thus, these options do not align with the objectives or name of Operation Kutir Jyothi. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may be misled by the word Jyothi and think of symbolic light in the sense of education or knowledge, leading them to choose adult literacy. Others may guess self employment because many Indian programmes focus on livelihoods. To avoid such errors, it is helpful to decode the literal meaning of terms in scheme names and to link them with concrete activities such as providing electricity connections. Regular revision of scheme names and their main goals also greatly improves accuracy in such questions. Final Answer: Operation Kutir Jyothi refers to a programme of rural electrification, providing light to small rural homes.

Question 5

In basic plant biology, the yellow colour of papaya fruit is mainly due to the presence of which pigment?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Colours of fruits and vegetables are often due to specific pigments present in their cells. Questions in general science and biology frequently test this knowledge by asking about the pigment responsible for the characteristic colour of a familiar fruit. This question focuses on papaya and asks which pigment gives it its typical yellow colour. Given Data / Assumptions: - The fruit mentioned is papaya. - The colour under discussion is yellow. - The options include Caricaxanthin, Carotene, Lycopene and Papain. - We assume some knowledge of plant pigments and papaya composition. Concept / Approach: The yellow colour of papaya is due to carotenoid pigments, particularly a xanthophyll called Caricaxanthin. While carotene is a general name for a family of orange pigments and papaya does contain carotenoids, exam questions usually expect the more specific name Caricaxanthin. Lycopene is associated with red colour in tomatoes and some other fruits. Papain is an enzyme found in papaya latex and is unrelated to colour. Therefore, the correct answer is Caricaxanthin. Step-by-Step Solution: 1. Recall that plant colours often come from three major groups of pigments: chlorophylls (green), carotenoids (yellow to orange), and anthocyanins (red to purple). 2. Papaya pulp is typically yellow to orange, indicating the presence of carotenoid pigments rather than chlorophyll or anthocyanins. 3. Among carotenoids, a specific xanthophyll known as Caricaxanthin is characteristic of papaya and contributes strongly to its yellow colour. 4. Carotene is a more general term and not the precise name often tested in exam questions about papaya colour. 5. Lycopene primarily gives red colour to tomatoes and watermelons, not the yellow seen in papaya. 6. Papain is a proteolytic enzyme used in meat tenderisers and digestive aids, with no direct role in pigment formation. 7. Hence, Caricaxanthin is the most accurate pigment name for the yellow colour of papaya. Verification / Alternative check: Biology question banks and general awareness resources often include the same question and consistently mark Caricaxanthin as the correct option. Additional explanations in these sources mention that papaya chromoplasts contain carotene and xanthophyll pigments, with Caricaxanthin being the specific xanthophyll responsible for the yellow appearance. This repeated mapping confirms that Caricaxanthin is the expected exam answer, not the broader term carotene. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Carotene, while present, is a generic name and does not uniquely identify the pigment most closely linked with papaya yellow colour in standard questions. Lycopene is a red pigment and is not responsible for yellow hues, so it does not fit the description here. Papain is an enzyme involved in protein digestion and commercial uses but has no connection with fruit colour. Therefore, these three options do not correctly answer the question about the pigment causing papaya yellow colour. Common Pitfalls: Many candidates quickly choose carotene because it is a familiar term associated with carrots and vitamin A, without noticing that a more specific pigment name is available. Others may confuse Lycopene due to its popularity in health discussions. To avoid such mistakes, students should pay attention to more precise pigment names linked with specific fruits, such as Caricaxanthin for papaya and Lycopene for tomato, and not rely only on the most commonly heard pigment terms. Final Answer: The yellow colour of papaya is mainly due to the pigment Caricaxanthin present in its pulp.

Question 6

In human blood grouping, a universal recipient is a person who belongs to which ABO blood group?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The terms universal donor and universal recipient are basic concepts in human blood transfusion. They relate to which blood groups can safely donate blood to or receive blood from other groups in the ABO system. This question focuses on the universal recipient, asking which blood group can, in an emergency and with standard compatibility rules, receive blood from any of the main ABO groups. Given Data / Assumptions: - We are dealing with the ABO blood group system. - The term used is universal recipient. - Options given are AB, O, B and A. - We assume Rh factor is either matched or not considered for this simplified question. Concept / Approach: In the ABO system, blood group AB has both A and B antigens on the surface of its red blood cells and does not have anti A or anti B antibodies in its plasma. This means that an individual with group AB blood can receive red blood cells from donors with groups A, B, AB or O, provided that other factors like Rh are matched. Therefore, group AB is called the universal recipient group. Group O is instead known as the universal donor because its red cells lack A and B antigens. Step-by-Step Solution: 1. Recall that blood groups are determined by the presence or absence of A and B antigens on red blood cells. 2. Group AB has both A and B antigens but no anti A or anti B antibodies. 3. Because the plasma of an AB person does not attack A or B antigens, they can safely receive red cells from all ABO groups. 4. Group O, by contrast, has no A or B antigens but has both anti A and anti B antibodies, making it unsafe to receive other types but safe to donate red cells to others. 5. Groups A and B can receive from limited groups only, not from all four. 6. Therefore, the universal recipient group is AB. Verification / Alternative check: Basic biology textbooks and healthcare educational material always state that group O negative is the universal donor for red cells, and group AB positive is considered the universal recipient, particularly in the context of ABO compatibility. Many exam questions repeat this pairing, making it a standard fact for students to memorise. Reviewing such material quickly confirms that AB is the correct answer in the ABO system for universal recipient status. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Group O is popularly known as the universal donor because its red cells lack A and B antigens and can be given to patients of any ABO group. However, people with group O blood cannot receive from all other groups due to the presence of both anti A and anti B antibodies in their plasma. Groups A and B each have one type of antigen and one corresponding antibody, so their recipients are limited to compatible groups only. Consequently, none of these groups can receive blood from every other group, so they are not universal recipients. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes confuse universal donor with universal recipient and may incorrectly select group O based on that confusion. Another error is to think that the most common blood group in a population must be the universal recipient, which is not logically correct. To avoid these mistakes, students should clearly separate the concepts: O as universal donor for red cells in ABO terms, and AB as universal recipient. Creating a simple mental table of antigens and antibodies for each group also helps solidify this understanding. Final Answer: In the ABO blood group system, the universal recipient belongs to blood group AB.

Question 7

Which Indian state government launched the Pashu Bazar website for online cattle sale to help farmers trade cattle online?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This multiple choice general knowledge question asks about a specific state government initiative in India. The Pashu Bazar website is an example of how e governance and digital platforms are being used to support farmers in marketing their cattle. Exams often test awareness of such schemes because they reveal whether the candidate follows current affairs related to agriculture and rural development. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question states that Pashu Bazar is a website for online cattle sale. - It asks which state government launched this website. - The options list several Indian states including Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Haryana, Gujarat and Rajasthan. - We assume the question refers to the officially launched government portal used for online cattle trading. Concept / Approach: To answer this, the learner must recall which state government was in the news for creating an online cattle market portal called Pashu Bazar. There is no calculation involved. The key approach is simple factual recall supported by understanding that many livestock rich states have been experimenting with digital platforms to reduce transport cost and time for farmers. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Remember that Pashu Bazar is a government website for buying and selling cattle online. Step 2: Recall the news that this platform was launched by the government of Telangana to help farmers avoid taking animals physically to weekly markets. Step 3: Compare each option with this memory. Telangana clearly matches the known fact. Step 4: Conclude that Telangana is the correct answer and the remaining states are distractors. Verification / Alternative check: A quick way to verify in an exam setting is to connect the initiative with the state that has been very active in using online platforms for farmers, irrigation information, and other agricultural services. Telangana is frequently mentioned in current affairs for such digital initiatives. None of the other listed states are associated specifically with a portal called Pashu Bazar for cattle sale. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Andhra Pradesh is not correct because although it has its own agricultural schemes, Pashu Bazar is not an officially branded portal of that state. Haryana is wrong because it is known more for dairy and livestock productivity, but the named website was not launched there. Gujarat has many cooperative initiatives like those related to milk, but the cattle sale portal with this specific name belongs to another state. Rajasthan is also a major livestock state, yet Pashu Bazar as a branded online platform was not launched by its government. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to guess a state that is famous for cattle or dairy production instead of recalling the exact news item. Some aspirants also misread the question and think it asks about any cattle scheme rather than this specific website. Another pitfall is confusing Pashu Bazar with other similarly named animal husbandry portals. Final Answer: Thus, the correct answer is Telangana, the state government that launched the Pashu Bazar website for online cattle sale.

Question 8

Which of the following common human diseases is not caused by a virus infection but is instead produced by another type of pathogen?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This general science question tests basic knowledge of disease causation and the difference between viral and non viral infections. Competitive exams frequently ask which disease in a list is caused by a virus or which one is an exception. Recognising the correct pathogen type is important for understanding prevention and treatment strategies in public health. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question lists Chicken pox, Dengue, Cholera, Polio and Measles. - It asks which disease is not caused by a virus. - We assume standard textbook definitions of these diseases. Concept / Approach: The key concept is the classification of diseases by causative organism. Chicken pox, Dengue, Polio and Measles are classic viral diseases. Cholera, in contrast, is caused by a bacterium called Vibrio cholerae. Identifying the lone bacterial disease among viral diseases is the required approach. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Chicken pox is caused by the varicella zoster virus, so it is viral. Step 2: Remember that Dengue fever is caused by the dengue virus transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes. Step 3: Recall that Polio is caused by the poliovirus, and Measles is caused by the measles virus. Step 4: Know that Cholera is caused by a bacterium, Vibrio cholerae, not by any virus. Therefore Cholera is the only non viral disease in the list. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative check is to connect each disease with its common vaccine. Chicken pox, Polio and Measles all have well known viral vaccines. Dengue is controlled mainly by vector control and now by viral vaccines in some places. Cholera control focuses on safe water and sanitation because it is a water borne bacterial disease. This difference confirms that Cholera is not viral. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Chicken pox is wrong because it is a viral disease of childhood caused by varicella zoster virus. Dengue is wrong because it is caused by dengue virus spread by mosquito bites. Polio is wrong as it is caused by poliovirus and targeted through oral polio vaccines. Measles is wrong because it is clearly a viral disease that spreads through respiratory droplets. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse bacterial and viral diseases simply because symptoms such as fever, vomiting or diarrhoea appear similar. Another pitfall is rushing through the options and choosing Measles or Chicken pox as exceptions, even though they are classic viral infections. Careful recall of basic microbiology terms helps avoid such errors. Final Answer: Therefore, the only disease listed that is not caused by a virus is Cholera.

Question 9

Which state government launched the e health programme Jeevan Rekha to create a centralised database of healthcare information for its citizens?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question checks awareness of Indian state level health initiatives. The e health programme named Jeevan Rekha aims to digitise health records and provide a centralised database of healthcare information. Knowing which state pioneered this initiative is important for exams focused on current affairs, governance and public health administration. Given Data / Assumptions: - The scheme is called Jeevan Rekha and is described as an e health programme. - It aims to provide a centralised database of healthcare information. - The options are Assam, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Odisha. - We assume the question refers to the well publicised state level launch of Jeevan Rekha. Concept / Approach: The approach is to connect the scheme name with the state government known for strong health indicators and innovations in health information systems. Kerala has long been recognised for high literacy, good health outcomes and early adoption of e governance. Remembering this association makes it easier to select the correct option even if the learner does not recall every detail of the scheme. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Focus on the key phrase e health programme Jeevan Rekha. Step 2: Recall that this programme was reported from Kerala, where the government launched a centralised health information system under this name. Step 3: Check each option. Kerala stands out due to its strong public health system and frequent mention in current affairs about health reforms. Step 4: Confirm that none of the other listed states are officially linked with an e health programme called Jeevan Rekha. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative check is to think of which states usually appear in examination questions related to innovative health schemes. Kerala is often mentioned for initiatives in primary health centres, family health centres and digital health records. This mental cross check again points towards Kerala as the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Assam is not correct, as its health programmes have different names and focus areas. Madhya Pradesh is wrong because its major schemes are related to other social sectors, and there is no prominent programme named Jeevan Rekha there. Chhattisgarh is incorrect because it has its own health initiatives but is not associated with this specific e health programme. Odisha is also wrong; while it has health schemes, the brand name Jeevan Rekha belongs to a different state. Common Pitfalls: A typical mistake is to guess randomly among less familiar states without recalling that Kerala is frequently used as an example of health sector innovation. Some aspirants also confuse Jeevan Rekha with other schemes having similar sounding names. Careful reading of news and revision of state specific schemes prevent such confusion. Final Answer: Hence, the e health programme Jeevan Rekha was launched by the government of Kerala.

Question 10

In which type of economic system is national income equal to domestic income because there is no net factor income from abroad?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question belongs to basic macroeconomics and national income accounting. It asks about the situation in which national income and domestic income are numerically equal. Understanding this relation helps learners distinguish between closed and open economies and to interpret national income statistics correctly. Given Data / Assumptions: - National income is compared with domestic income. - The options mention Closed Economy, Open Economy, Developed Economy, Developing Economy and Mixed Economy. - We assume standard textbook definitions where national income equals domestic income plus net factor income from abroad. Concept / Approach: The key formula is: National income = Domestic income + Net factor income from abroad. In a truly closed economy there is no economic interaction in the form of factor payments with the rest of the world, so net factor income from abroad is zero. Therefore national income equals domestic income. The approach is to recall this relationship and recognise that openness or development status, by itself, does not guarantee equality between the two measures. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the relation national income = domestic income + net factor income from abroad. Step 2: Note that in a closed economy there is no cross border flow of factor income such as wages, interest or profits. Step 3: With no net factor income from abroad, the additional term becomes zero, so national income equals domestic income. Step 4: Conclude that a Closed Economy best satisfies the condition given in the question. Verification / Alternative check: Another way to check is to imagine an Open Economy where residents work abroad or foreign firms earn income inside the country. In that case, net factor income from abroad will generally be positive or negative, and national income and domestic income will differ. Developed or developing status does not guarantee no external factor flows. This confirms that only a closed economy ensures equality in the simplest model. Why Other Options Are Wrong: An Open Economy is wrong because it explicitly allows international factor payments, so domestic income and national income normally differ. Developed Economy is incorrect since developed countries are usually highly open, with large cross border capital flows and labour income flows. Developing Economy is also wrong because many developing countries participate actively in global labour and capital markets. Mixed Economy refers to the mix of public and private sectors, not to openness to foreign factor income, so it does not guarantee equality between the two measures. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes focus on the words developed or developing and think that equality will occur in highly organised economies. Others may confuse national income with domestic product and forget the role of net factor income from abroad. Remembering the simple accounting identity and visualising an economy with no foreign factor transactions helps avoid these errors. Final Answer: Therefore, national income and domestic income are equal in a Closed Economy where net factor income from abroad is zero.

Question 11

In basic general science, what is the study of heavenly bodies such as stars, planets and galaxies called?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question checks understanding of scientific terminology related to the study of space. Many terms such as Astronomy, Astrology, Astrophysics and Astronautics sound similar but refer to different fields. Exams frequently test whether candidates can distinguish between scientific disciplines and pseudoscientific beliefs. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question refers to the study of heavenly bodies like stars and planets. - Options include Astronomy, Astrology, Astrophysics, Astronautics and Cosmology. - We assume that heavenly bodies means natural objects beyond the Earth such as planets, stars, satellites and galaxies. Concept / Approach: Astronomy is the science that systematically studies celestial objects, space and the universe as a whole using observation and theory. Astrology is a belief system that claims human affairs are influenced by the positions of celestial bodies. Astrophysics focuses on the physical properties and processes of celestial bodies, while Astronautics deals with the technology of space travel. Cosmology is the study of the universe at large scales. The basic school level term for study of heavenly bodies is Astronomy. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify what the question asks: the general name for the study of heavenly bodies. Step 2: Recall that Astronomy covers observation and analysis of stars, planets, comets and galaxies. Step 3: Recognise that Astrology is about horoscopes and predictions, not scientific study of celestial objects. Step 4: Note that Astrophysics and Cosmology are specialised branches within Astronomy, and Astronautics is about space travel technology. Step 5: Conclude that Astronomy is the best match to the question. Verification / Alternative check: Another way to check is to remember how school textbooks label chapters on stars and planets. They usually carry titles such as Introduction to Astronomy or The World of Stars. Astrophysics, Cosmology and Astronautics appear only in advanced courses. This confirms that Astronomy is the correct general term. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Astrology is wrong because it is a traditional belief system rather than a modern empirical science of celestial bodies. Astrophysics is incorrect as the main answer because it is a branch of physics applying physical laws to celestial objects, not the broad basic name for the field. Astronautics is wrong because it deals with designing rockets, satellites and spacecraft, not primarily with studying heavenly bodies themselves. Cosmology focuses on the origin, structure and evolution of the universe as a whole and is a specialised part of Astronomy, not the basic general term. Common Pitfalls: Many candidates confuse Astronomy and Astrology because of similar spellings. Others may think Astrophysics sounds more scientific and pick it without noticing that the question asks for the general study of heavenly bodies at basic level. Careful reading of both the stem and the options helps avoid such traps. Final Answer: Thus, the study of heavenly bodies is called Astronomy.

Question 12

The expression unfriend is commonly associated with Facebook and social media. Who first used the related term unperson in modern literature?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This general knowledge question links a modern social media expression with a classic term from political literature. While unfriend is widely used on platforms such as Facebook to describe removing a contact, the term unperson comes from dystopian fiction and carries a much deeper meaning related to political control and erasure of identity. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question states that unfriend is associated with Facebook. - It asks who first used the related expression unperson. - The options list George Orwell, Aldous Huxley, Franz Kafka, Isaac Asimov and Arthur C Clarke. - We assume the question refers to the widely known origin of the term in twentieth century English literature. Concept / Approach: The key concept is familiarity with famous dystopian novels. George Orwell popularised the term unperson in his novel Nineteen Eighty Four to describe people who have been secretly murdered or erased by the totalitarian state, so that they no longer officially exist. Other authors listed also wrote about dark or speculative futures, but the specific term unperson is most strongly and originally associated with Orwell. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall major works of the authors listed, especially their themes about society and power. Step 2: Remember that George Orwell wrote Nineteen Eighty Four, which introduced concepts such as Big Brother, thoughtcrime and unperson. Step 3: Recognise that Aldous Huxley wrote Brave New World, Franz Kafka wrote works like The Trial, and Isaac Asimov and Arthur C Clarke focused mainly on science fiction and robotics or space exploration. Step 4: Conclude that George Orwell is the correct originator of the term unperson. Verification / Alternative check: A quick mental check is to connect unperson with other invented political terms like thought police and newspeak, all of which clearly belong to Orwellian vocabulary. None of the other authors have a similar cluster of political language that includes this specific word. This strongly confirms the answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Aldous Huxley is incorrect because although he wrote about a controlled society in Brave New World, the terminology there is different. Franz Kafka is wrong because his works focus on alienation and bureaucracy but do not use the term unperson. Isaac Asimov is known for stories about robots and the three laws of robotics, not for coining this particular political term. Arthur C Clarke is famous for space themed science fiction and also does not introduce the term unperson. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes mix up Orwell and Huxley because both wrote about dystopian futures. Others may simply guess a science fiction author without remembering the specific vocabulary of each work. Regular reading of summaries of classic novels and noting their key terms is an effective way to avoid such confusion. Final Answer: Therefore, the expression unperson was first used in modern literature by George Orwell.

Question 13

Among the following major planets in our solar system, which one is often referred to as the green planet because of its bluish green appearance?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This basic astronomy question focuses on the popular nicknames of planets based on their visual appearance. Knowing which planet is called the green planet helps students recall distinguishing features of different planets in the solar system, which is a standard topic in school level science and general knowledge exams. Given Data / Assumptions: - The options include Pluto, Venus, Uranus, Mars and Neptune. - The question asks which is known as the green planet. - We assume the usual school level descriptions based on telescopic and spacecraft images. Concept / Approach: The outer planet Uranus appears bluish green due to the presence of methane in its atmosphere, which absorbs red light and reflects blue and green wavelengths. This gives Uranus a characteristic greenish or cyan colour, leading to the nickname green planet. Mars appears red, Venus appears bright yellowish white, and Neptune appears deep blue. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall colour based nicknames of planets: Mars as the red planet, Neptune as the blue planet and Uranus as a bluish green planet. Step 2: Note that Venus is often called Earth twin or evening star, not the green planet. Step 3: Recognise that Pluto is now classified as a dwarf planet and is not typically called the green planet. Step 4: Conclude that Uranus, with its bluish green appearance, matches the description green planet. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, visualise standard textbook images or models of the solar system. Mars is clearly shown as red due to iron rich dust, while Neptune is deep blue. Uranus is the only planet shown with a cyan or greenish blue colouring. Remembering that methane absorption creates this colour provides an additional scientific check. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Pluto is wrong because it is a dwarf planet located in the Kuiper belt and does not have a common green planet nickname. Venus is incorrect; it is known for its thick cloudy atmosphere and is not green in appearance. Mars is wrong because it is commonly called the red planet due to its rusty surface. Neptune is incorrect as it is famous for its deep blue colour, not green. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse Uranus and Neptune, since both are outer gas giants with bluish colours. Others may guess Venus or Pluto simply because they are familiar names. Remembering the specific colour nicknames, such as red for Mars, blue for Neptune and greenish for Uranus, helps avoid these mistakes. Final Answer: Hence, the planet referred to as the green planet is Uranus.

Question 14

The Doing Business Report, released every year, is prepared by which of the following international organisations?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question belongs to international economics and institutions. The Doing Business Report ranks economies on the ease of doing business and has been widely discussed in the media. Examinations often ask which organisation publishes major global reports, because this knowledge helps candidates connect policies with responsible agencies. Given Data / Assumptions: - The report in question is the Doing Business Report. - It is prepared every year by an international organisation. - The options given are ADB, WTO, IMF, World Bank and UNDP. - We assume the learner is familiar with the major roles of these institutions. Concept / Approach: The Doing Business Report was prepared by the World Bank Group. It evaluated regulations that enhance or constrain business activity across countries and ranked economies accordingly. Remembering which institution focuses on development finance and country level business environment is the key to answering correctly. Other institutions have different primary mandates, such as trade rules or monetary cooperation. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: List what each organisation is mainly known for: ADB for regional development loans in Asia, WTO for global trade rules, IMF for financial stability and balance of payments support, and World Bank for development projects and policy research. Step 2: Recall that the Doing Business Report evaluates business regulations such as starting a business, getting credit and paying taxes. Step 3: Remember that these indicators have been historically produced by the World Bank Group. Step 4: Conclude that World Bank is the correct option. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative check is to think about where one would go for country rankings and policy recommendations related to business regulations. The World Bank maintains a wide range of country data and has a dedicated Doing Business portal. Neither the IMF, WTO, ADB nor UNDP are primarily associated with this branded series of reports. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Asian Development Bank is wrong because it focuses on lending in Asia and does not publish the Doing Business series. World Trade Organisation is incorrect since it deals with trade agreements and disputes, not detailed business regulation rankings. International Monetary Fund is wrong because its flagship publications are the World Economic Outlook and Global Financial Stability Report, not Doing Business. United Nations Development Programme publishes the Human Development Report, not the Doing Business Report. Common Pitfalls: A frequent mistake is to confuse various international reports and assume that any development related report belongs to the United Nations or IMF. Another pitfall is to overlook the difference between trade rules (WTO) and ease of doing business indicators (World Bank). Regular revision of which institution publishes which key reports helps prevent these errors. Final Answer: Therefore, the Doing Business Report is prepared by the World Bank.

Question 15

The country first specialised brain bank that can store up to 300 human brains for research has been opened at which Indian city?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question examines awareness of advances in medical research infrastructure in India. A brain bank is a specialised facility where human brain tissue is collected, stored and studied to better understand neurological and psychiatric disorders. Knowing where the country first such brain bank was established reflects a candidate interest in health science developments. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question mentions the country first brain bank with capacity for about 300 human brains. - It asks in which city this facility has been opened. - Options include Alleppey, Bangalore, Bhubaneswar, Bombay and Chennai. - We assume the reference is to the widely reported brain bank at the National Institute of Mental Health and Neurosciences in India. Concept / Approach: The key idea is to connect brain research with leading neuroscience institutes in India. NIMHANS, located in Bangalore, is one of the most prominent centres for mental health and neurosciences and has been associated with establishing a brain bank. Therefore, remembering the city of NIMHANS is enough to answer the question. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that the question is about a brain bank used for storing and researching human brain tissue. Step 2: Recall that the National Institute of Mental Health and Neurosciences is located in Bangalore. Step 3: Remember that reports about the first brain bank in the country pointed to this institute and city. Step 4: Conclude that Bangalore is the correct answer among the options. Verification / Alternative check: A quick check is to consider which of the listed cities are known for premier institutions in neurosciences. While Mumbai (Bombay) and Chennai have major hospitals, it is Bangalore that is most closely associated with NIMHANS and the establishment of the brain bank. Alleppey and Bhubaneswar are not commonly linked to such a facility. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Alleppey is wrong because it is better known as a backwater and tourism destination, not for a national level brain bank. Bhubaneswar is incorrect though it hosts important institutions, it is not the city where this specific brain bank was launched. Bombay is wrong in this context; while it has advanced medical centres, the first dedicated brain bank is not located there. Chennai also has significant medical infrastructure, but it is not the site referred to in this question. Common Pitfalls: A common error is to guess the largest or most familiar city without linking it to the right research institute. Another pitfall is confusion between general medical colleges and specialised neuroscience centres. Associating specific institutions like NIMHANS with their cities helps candidates answer similar questions reliably. Final Answer: Thus, the country first dedicated brain bank capable of storing about 300 human brains was opened in Bangalore.

Question 16

The space centre of the Indian Space Research Organisation ISRO at Sriharikota is named after which of the following Indian scientists?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question belongs to Indian science and technology and tests knowledge about the naming of major space centres. ISRO launch centre at Sriharikota is one of the most important spaceports in India. Knowing which scientist it is named after helps candidates connect famous personalities to the institutions that honour them. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question refers to the ISRO space centre located at Sriharikota. - It asks after which scientist this centre is named. - Options include APJ Abdul Kalam, Vikram Sarabhai, Homi J Baba, Satish Dhawan and C V Raman. - We assume standard naming where this centre is officially called Satish Dhawan Space Centre. Concept / Approach: The key concept is simple factual recall. ISRO main spaceport at Sriharikota is officially named Satish Dhawan Space Centre after Professor Satish Dhawan, who served as chairman of ISRO and contributed significantly to Indian space research. Other names in the options are also great Indian scientists, which can distract unprepared candidates. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the formal name of the Sriharikota launch centre, which is Satish Dhawan Space Centre. Step 2: Match this name with the scientist in the options, Satish Dhawan. Step 3: Recognise that APJ Abdul Kalam is associated with missile development and the space centre at Thumba is named after Vikram Sarabhai. Step 4: Conclude that Satish Dhawan is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: As an alternative check, think about which scientific institutions are named after the other listed scientists. Vikram Sarabhai has the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre at Thiruvananthapuram, Homi Bhabha is associated with the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre, and C V Raman lends his name to institutions like Raman Research Institute. This leaves Satish Dhawan for Sriharikota. Why Other Options Are Wrong: APJ Abdul Kalam is wrong here because although he is strongly connected with the Indian space and missile programmes, the Sriharikota centre is not named after him. Vikram Sarabhai is incorrect since the centre named after him is located in Kerala, not at Sriharikota. Homi J Baba is associated with atomic research rather than this space launch facility. C V Raman is a Nobel Prize winning physicist in the field of light scattering and is not linked to the naming of the Sriharikota space centre. Common Pitfalls: Students often get confused between the different space centres and their namesakes, especially between Vikram Sarabhai and Satish Dhawan. Another pitfall is simply choosing APJ Abdul Kalam because he is a very famous space and missile scientist, even though he does not correspond to this particular centre name. Final Answer: Therefore, the ISRO space centre at Sriharikota is named after Satish Dhawan.

Question 17

In which year and host city was field hockey first introduced as an event in the Asian Games?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question targets sports history and the evolution of the Asian Games. Hockey has been a major sport in Asia, and India has historically performed well in it. Knowing when hockey was introduced into the Asian Games helps candidates demonstrate awareness of the timeline of multi sport events in the region. Given Data / Assumptions: - The event is the Asian Games. - The question asks in which year and host city hockey was first introduced. - Options show combinations of year and city: 1958 Tokyo, 1962 Jakarta, 1966 Bangkok, 1970 Bangkok and 1954 Manila. - We assume the standard historical record of Asian Games sports. Concept / Approach: The approach is centred on factual recall of sports history. Hockey was introduced in the 1958 Asian Games held in Tokyo. This is a commonly asked fact in general knowledge exams. Recognising the correct combination from among the listed pairs is the task. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Remember that the first time field hockey appeared in the Asian Games was the 1958 edition. Step 2: Recall that the 1958 Asian Games were hosted by Tokyo, Japan. Step 3: Match this memory with the options and identify the pair 1958 in Tokyo. Step 4: Confirm that no later editions such as 1962 or 1966 correspond to the first introduction. Verification / Alternative check: Another way to check is to remember that early years of the Asian Games saw gradual addition of sports. Many study materials specifically mention that hockey was added in the Tokyo Asian Games of 1958, which aligns with option 1958 in Tokyo. This double check supports the choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 1962 in Jakarta is incorrect because by that time hockey had already been in the programme since 1958. 1966 in Bangkok is wrong; it represents a later edition of the games, not the first appearance of hockey. 1970 in Bangkok is also too late in the timeline to be the first introduction. 1954 in Manila is not correct because the sport was not yet part of the Asian Games event list at that time. Common Pitfalls: Candidates may confuse the host cities and years of different editions of the Asian Games. Another common mistake is choosing a later year under the impression that team sports were added gradually much later. Careful revision of sports event timelines and making a simple chronological chart can avoid such errors. Final Answer: Thus, hockey was first introduced in the Asian Games in 1958 in Tokyo.

Question 18

The three Presidency Banks namely Bank of Madras, Bank of Bombay and Bank of Calcutta were merged to form which important Indian banking institution?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question concerns the history of Indian banking. Before independence, three major Presidency Banks operated in different regions. Their merger created a key institution that later evolved into the State Bank of India. Understanding this lineage is essential for candidates preparing for banking and financial sector exams. Given Data / Assumptions: - The three banks mentioned are Bank of Madras, Bank of Bombay and Bank of Calcutta. - The question asks which bank they were merged into. - Options include New Bank of India, Corporation Bank, Reserve Bank of India, Imperial Bank of India(now SBI), and State Bank of Mysore. - We assume the standard historical record of Indian commercial banking. Concept / Approach: Historically, the three Presidency Banks were merged in 1921 to form the Imperial Bank of India. After independence, in 1955, the Imperial Bank of India was nationalised and renamed State Bank of India. Remembering this timeline is the core concept needed to answer the question. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Bank of Bombay, Bank of Madras and Bank of Calcutta were prominent Presidency Banks during the British period. Step 2: Remember that they were merged to form a single entity called the Imperial Bank of India. Step 3: Later this Imperial Bank of India became State Bank of India, which is why the option mentions now SBI. Step 4: Select Imperial Bank of India(now SBI) as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative way to verify is to think about the founding timeline of the Reserve Bank of India. RBI was established in 1935 as the central bank and was not created by merger of commercial banks. New Bank of India and Corporation Bank are separate entities created later. This confirms that only Imperial Bank of India matches the description. Why Other Options Are Wrong: New Bank of India is wrong because it was not formed through this merger and has a different history. Corporation Bank is incorrect; it originated in Udupi and was not linked to the Presidency Banks merger. Reserve Bank of India is wrong since it was set up as a central bank under a separate act and not by merging commercial banks. State Bank of Mysore is a former associate bank of State Bank of India, not the direct result of combining the three Presidency Banks. Common Pitfalls: Many candidates quickly choose Reserve Bank of India because it is a very familiar institution, ignoring the fact that RBI is a central bank, not a commercial bank formed by merger. Others remember State Bank of India but do not recall its earlier name, leading to confusion. Linking the sequence Presidency Banks to Imperial Bank of India and then to State Bank of India helps avoid these mistakes. Final Answer: Therefore, the three Presidency Banks were merged to form the Imperial Bank of India(now SBI).

Question 19

Under the proclamation of President rule in a state under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution, who effectively administers the state on behalf of the Union?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This polity question deals with emergency provisions in the Indian Constitution, specifically Article 356, commonly known as President rule in a state. When such an emergency is proclaimed, normal state level democratic functioning is suspended. The question asks which authority then effectively administers the state. Given Data / Assumptions: - The situation is declaration of emergency under Article 356 in a state. - The options are Prime Minister, Chief Minister, Governor, Chief Justice of the High Court and Union Home Minister. - We assume the standard constitutional arrangement where executive functions of the state government are assumed by the Union through the Governor. Concept / Approach: Under Article 356, if the President is satisfied that the governance of a state cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution, the President can assume to himself the functions of the state government. In practice, the Governor, as the representative of the President in the state, carries out administration. Therefore, exams often take the practical view that the Governor rules the state during President rule, subject to directions from the Union government. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Article 356 leads to President rule in a state. Step 2: Understand that the state council of ministers and Chief Minister are dismissed, so they no longer govern. Step 3: The Governor, who is appointed by the President, conducts administration in the state as the agent of the Union during this period. Step 4: Therefore, among the options, Governor is the correct choice. Verification / Alternative check: Another way to verify is to recall typical wording in newspapers when President rule is imposed. Reports usually mention that the Governor will now run the administration. The Prime Minister and Union Home Minister operate at the Union level and do not directly act as the head of the state administration, while the state Chief Minister loses office during President rule. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Prime Minister is wrong because the Prime Minister heads the Union government, not individual state administrations, even during emergencies. Chief Minister is incorrect since the state ministry is dismissed when Article 356 is invoked. Chief Justice of the High Court does not take over executive functions and therefore is not the correct answer. Union Home Minister, although playing a role in recommending President rule, does not formally become the head of the state administration. Common Pitfalls: Some students may think that because it is called President rule, the President personally administers the state. Others may pick Prime Minister or Union Home Minister because they are powerful Union level authorities. The key is to remember the constitutional role of the Governor as the head of the state executive acting under instructions from the President. Final Answer: Thus, during President rule under Article 356, the state is effectively administered by the Governor acting on behalf of the Union government.

Question 20

In basic world geography and economy, what is the official currency of the Republic of Cuba?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question tests fundamental knowledge of world currencies. Competitive exams often include questions asking for the currency of a particular country. Cuba, an island nation in the Caribbean, has the Peso as its currency, and knowing this is part of general economic awareness. Given Data / Assumptions: - The country mentioned is Cuba. - The options are Kuna, Peso, Dollar, None and Euro. - We assume standard usage where Peso refers to the Cuban Peso used in Cuba. Concept / Approach: The approach is straightforward factual recall. Many Spanish speaking or Latin American countries use variants of the Peso. Cuba uses the Cuban Peso. West European nations tend to use the Euro, and Kuna is the currency of Croatia. Dollar is associated with countries such as the United States, Canada and others, not Cuba. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Cuba is a Spanish speaking country in the Caribbean region. Step 2: Remember that several such countries use the Peso as currency, and specifically Cuba uses the Cuban Peso. Step 3: Compare this with the options and identify Peso as the correct one. Step 4: Confirm that none of the other listed currencies match Cuba. Verification / Alternative check: As another check, think about travel or foreign exchange context. Tourists visiting Cuba typically exchange their money into Cuban Pesos. Dollar is widely used globally, but it is not the official Cuban currency, even though US Dollar may sometimes circulate informally. Kuna and Euro clearly belong to different geographic regions. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Kuna is incorrect because it is the currency of Croatia, a European country, not Cuba. Dollar is wrong as the official currency of Cuba, despite the influence of the US Dollar internationally. The option None is incorrect because Cuba clearly has a specific currency and does not use multiple foreign currencies as official tender. Euro is wrong because it is used by many European Union members but not by Cuba. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may quickly choose Dollar because it is a very famous currency, without considering the regional and linguistic context. Others may confuse Cuba with countries that have adopted the Euro. Remembering a small list of important country and currency pairs can strengthen performance in such questions. Final Answer: Hence, the official currency of Cuba is the Peso.

Basic General Knowledge Questions