Question 1

In acoustics, the quality or timbre of a musical note primarily depends on which of the following characteristics of the sound wave?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: In physics, especially in the study of sound and waves, students learn about various properties of musical notes such as loudness, pitch, and quality. Quality, also called timbre, is the feature that allows us to distinguish between notes of the same pitch and loudness produced by different instruments or voices. Understanding which physical property of a sound wave determines this quality is a common conceptual question in school and competitive examinations. This question asks you to connect the concept of musical quality with the underlying wave characteristics. Given Data / Assumptions: The topic is the quality (timbre) of a musical note. Options include fundamental frequency, amplitude, harmonics, and velocity of sound. It is assumed that pitch is associated with frequency, loudness with amplitude, and timbre with more complex features of the waveform. The medium is standard (air or similar) and no special conditions are implied. Concept / Approach: Sound waves produced by musical instruments are rarely pure single frequency waves. Instead, they consist of a fundamental frequency (which determines pitch) and several higher frequency components called overtones or harmonics. The relative presence and intensity of these harmonics create the unique waveform associated with each instrument or voice. This pattern of harmonics gives the sound its characteristic quality or timbre. Amplitude mainly controls loudness, and the velocity of sound is determined by the medium, not by which instrument is playing. Therefore, the correct answer is that the quality of a musical note depends primarily on the harmonics present. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the three basic subjective properties of sound: loudness, pitch, and quality (timbre). Step 2: Remember that pitch is related to the fundamental frequency; higher frequency gives higher pitch. Step 3: Recognise that loudness is linked to amplitude; larger amplitude means a louder sound. Step 4: Understand that quality or timbre is what allows you to distinguish a violin from a flute playing the same note at the same loudness. Step 5: Note that this difference arises from the different combinations and relative strengths of harmonics in the sound produced by each instrument. Step 6: Conclude that harmonics present in the sound wave are primarily responsible for the quality of a musical note. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by imagining a tuning fork producing a nearly pure tone and comparing it to a guitar string playing the same frequency. Even though the fundamental frequency is the same, they sound different because the guitar produces many more overtones and harmonics. If only amplitude changed, the same sound would simply become louder or softer, not change its quality. Similarly, changing the medium (and thus velocity) does not change which instrument produced the sound. This confirms that it is the harmonics that define timbre. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Fundamental frequency of the note: Determines pitch (high or low), not the characteristic tone colour that distinguishes instruments. Amplitude of the wave: Mainly affects loudness; increasing amplitude makes the note louder but does not change the basic timbre. Velocity of sound in the medium: Depends on the medium's properties (temperature, elasticity, density) and does not determine which instrument produced the note. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse pitch with quality and assume that frequency controls both. Another common mistake is to think that louder sounds must have different quality, when in fact a note can be played softly or loudly on the same instrument without changing its fundamental timbre. Remembering the simple mapping—pitch with frequency, loudness with amplitude, and quality with harmonics—helps avoid these confusions in exams. Final Answer: The quality or timbre of a musical note depends primarily on the Harmonics present in the sound wave.

Question 2

In ancient Indian history, who among the following is held responsible for initiating the spread of Buddhism to Sri Lanka?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The spread of Buddhism beyond the borders of India is an important theme in ancient Indian history. Sri Lanka, in particular, became a strong centre of Theravada Buddhism, and traditional sources trace the origin of Buddhism in Sri Lanka to missions sent from India. Understanding which Indian ruler is credited with this early propagation helps link political history with religious and cultural diffusion. This question focuses on identifying the ruler associated with sending Buddhist missions to Sri Lanka. Given Data / Assumptions: The region in focus is Sri Lanka (then known as Lanka or Tambapanni). The religion in focus is Buddhism. Options include Ashoka, Mahavira, Parsavanth, and Chandra Gupta Maurya. Information from Buddhist chronicles such as Mahavamsa is assumed as historical background. Concept / Approach: Emperor Ashoka of the Maurya dynasty is renowned for his patronage and active promotion of Buddhism after the Kalinga war. Buddhist chronicles state that he dispatched missions to various regions, including Sri Lanka. His son Mahinda (Mahendra) and daughter Sanghamitta are traditionally credited with introducing Buddhism to Sri Lanka, but these missions were sent under Ashoka's authority. Mahavira and Parsavanth are Jain Tirthankaras, associated with Jainism rather than Buddhism. Chandra Gupta Maurya was an earlier Maurya ruler connected more with the spread of Jainism later in his life. Therefore, Ashoka is the correct answer in this context. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Ashoka adopted Buddhism and sought to propagate it both within and outside his empire. Step 2: Remember that Buddhist texts like the Mahavamsa describe the missionary journey of Mahinda to Sri Lanka. Step 3: Understand that Mahinda is described as the son of Ashoka and that his mission had the explicit support and sponsorship of the emperor. Step 4: Identify that Mahavira and Parsavanth belong to the Jain tradition, not to Buddhism, and therefore cannot be responsible for spreading Buddhism to Sri Lanka. Step 5: Note that Chandra Gupta Maurya, though a Maurya emperor, is historically linked with Jainism towards the end of his life and not specifically with Buddhist missions to Sri Lanka. Step 6: Conclude that Ashoka is held responsible for initiating the spread of Buddhism to Sri Lanka through his missionary policy. Verification / Alternative check: Most standard history textbooks clearly state that Ashoka sent Buddhist missions to various regions, including Sri Lanka, where Buddhism took strong root. The story of the Bodhi tree sapling being taken to Sri Lanka by Sanghamitta, Ashoka's daughter, further reinforces this connection. No such missionary role is attributed to Mahavira or Parsavanth, who are central figures in Jainism, or to Chandra Gupta Maurya in the context of Sri Lanka. This consistent narrative confirms Ashoka as the correct choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Mahavira: The 24th Tirthankara of Jainism, associated with Jain doctrines, not with sending Buddhist missions abroad. Parsavanth: An earlier Jain Tirthankara, also unrelated to the spread of Buddhism. Chandra Gupta Maurya: Founder of the Maurya dynasty, later associated with Jainism, but not documented as the initiator of Buddhist missions to Sri Lanka. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse Jain and Buddhist personalities because they appear close together in the ancient timeline. Another pitfall is to assume that any Mauryan emperor mentioned must be responsible for all religious activities in that era. To avoid confusion, it is crucial to associate Ashoka specifically with the promotion of Buddhism and with missions to Sri Lanka and other regions, while remembering that Mahavira and Parsavanth are Jain figures. Final Answer: The ruler held responsible for initiating the spread of Buddhism to Sri Lanka is Ashoka.

Question 3

In the context of India's power sector, which one of the following types of power plants currently contributes the largest share to electricity generation?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: India uses a mix of energy sources to generate electricity, including coal, gas, hydro, nuclear, and various renewable sources such as wind and solar. For exam purposes, it is important to know which category of power plants currently dominates the electricity generation mix. Although renewable and nuclear energy are growing, one particular category has historically provided the bulk of India’s electricity due to abundant fuel and existing infrastructure. This question asks you to identify that largest source. Given Data / Assumptions: The question refers to the overall pattern of electricity generation in India, not an isolated year. Options are hydropower plants, nuclear power plants, thermal power plants, and wind energy projects. Thermal power plants in India primarily use coal, with some using gas or oil. We assume typical exam oriented general knowledge about India's energy mix. Concept / Approach: India has large reserves of coal, and coal based thermal power plants were built extensively over several decades. As a result, thermal power has traditionally accounted for the largest share of electricity generation capacity as well as actual output. Hydropower, although significant, represents a smaller fraction; nuclear power contributes only a few percent; and while wind and other renewables are rapidly expanding, they still do not surpass the share of thermal power. Therefore, when asked about the largest source of electricity in India, the correct answer remains thermal power plants. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that India's installed capacity and generation data show coal based and other thermal plants at the top. Step 2: Recognise that hydropower, though important for peak load and renewable contribution, is limited by geographic and environmental factors. Step 3: Note that nuclear power plants are few in number and contribute a relatively small portion of total electricity. Step 4: Understand that wind energy has grown mainly in certain states but still does not exceed thermal power's share nationwide. Step 5: Conclude that thermal power plants are the largest single source of electricity in India. Verification / Alternative check: You can cross check this by recalling common statements in newspapers and reports, which often mention that coal based thermal power contributes more than half of India's total electricity generation. Hydropower typically accounts for a much smaller percentage, and nuclear for an even smaller share. Wind and solar together are rising but still fall short of the dominant share of thermal power. This broad pattern remains stable enough to be tested in general knowledge exams. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Hydropower plants: They contribute significantly, especially in mountainous regions, but their overall share is lower than that of thermal power. Nuclear power plants: They provide a reliable base load but constitute only a small fraction of total generation capacity and output. Wind energy projects: These are part of the renewable energy push and have grown rapidly, yet they do not match the large established base of thermal power plants. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may be influenced by recent news about renewable energy expansion and assume that wind or hydro must have overtaken thermal power. However, while growth rates may be high for renewables, the absolute share of thermal power remains dominant. Another pitfall is to confuse "fastest growing" with "largest current share." Always focus on the wording of the question: it asks for the largest source, not the fastest growing one. Final Answer: The largest source of electricity generation in India is Thermal power plants.

Question 4

In the Indian judicial system, the subordinate courts (lower courts) in a state are placed under the supervision and control of which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The structure of the Indian judiciary has multiple tiers, from the Supreme Court at the apex down to subordinate courts at the district and taluka levels. Constitutional provisions clearly lay down how these different levels relate to each other and which body exercises control over the functioning of lower courts. Understanding this hierarchy is important for questions on polity and governance. This question focuses on identifying which institution supervises the subordinate courts in a state. Given Data / Assumptions: The subject is "subordinate courts" or lower courts within a state. The options include the Supreme Court, District Court, High Court, and Parliament. It is assumed that constitutional articles relating to the judiciary are being referred to, especially Articles 227 and 235. The focus is on supervision and control, not on appeals alone. Concept / Approach: Under the Constitution of India, each High Court has superintendence over all subordinate courts and tribunals within its territorial jurisdiction (Article 227). In addition, under Article 235, the control over district courts and subordinate courts, including posting, promotion, and disciplinary matters of judicial officers, vests in the High Court. The Supreme Court is the apex court for the entire country, but it does not exercise direct routine supervision over each subordinate court. Parliament is a legislative body and does not supervise courts. District Courts themselves are part of the subordinate judiciary, not separate supervisory institutions. Hence, the correct answer is the High Court. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that each state or group of states has a High Court as the highest court within that jurisdiction. Step 2: Remember that the Constitution assigns "superintendence" over all subordinate courts in the state to the High Court. Step 3: Understand that this superintendence includes administrative control such as transfers, promotions, and disciplinary actions regarding subordinate judicial officers. Step 4: Recognise that while the Supreme Court is the highest appellate authority, it does not handle day to day supervision of subordinate courts in each state. Step 5: Note that Parliament is a legislative body and does not supervise judicial bodies, and a District Court is itself part of the subordinate judiciary. Step 6: Conclude that subordinate courts are supervised by the High Court. Verification / Alternative check: Standard polity textbooks and exam guides explicitly state that High Courts exercise control and superintendence over subordinate courts under Articles 227 and 235. You may recall that many questions about the independence of the judiciary highlight this feature, pointing out that control resting with High Courts rather than the executive helps protect judicial independence at the lower levels. This consistent emphasis confirms that the High Court is the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Supreme Court of India: It is the highest court for appeals and constitutional matters but does not supervise the routine functioning of every subordinate court in each state. District Court: It is itself a subordinate court, not an overseeing authority for all lower courts in the state. Parliament of India: A legislative body that makes laws; it does not exercise administrative or judicial supervision over courts. Common Pitfalls: A frequent error is to think that because the Supreme Court is the apex court, it must supervise all other courts. Another pitfall is to overlook the specific constitutional provisions that grant superintendence to High Courts. To avoid such mistakes, always recall that for administrative and supervisory control over subordinate courts within a state, the relevant authority is the High Court, not the Supreme Court or Parliament. Final Answer: Subordinate courts in a state are supervised and controlled by the High Court of that state.

Question 5

Which of the following is widely regarded as the world's top international award specifically devoted to wildlife and environmental conservation films and programmes?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: International awards play an important role in recognising excellence in areas such as cinema, television, and environmental conservation. Some awards are general film awards, while others are specialised in themes like wildlife or environmental issues. Knowing which award is associated with environmental and wildlife films is a common general knowledge requirement. This question asks you to identify the award that is recognised as a leading global prize for wildlife and environmental conservation programmes. Given Data / Assumptions: Four awards are listed: Golden Bear, Golden Panda, Golden Globe, and Golden Palms. The question focuses on environmental conservation and wildlife themed content. It assumes familiarity with major film and media awards. We are looking for an award strongly associated with wildlife and environmental films. Concept / Approach: The Golden Panda Awards are organised in association with the Wildscreen Festival and similar events, and are often described as one of the world's top honours for wildlife and environmental conservation films and programmes. In contrast, the Golden Bear is the top prize at the Berlin International Film Festival, a general film festival. The Golden Globe Awards are American awards for film and television but not specific to environmental themes. "Golden Palms" usually refers to the Palme d'Or at the Cannes Film Festival, again a general film prize. Therefore, the award most closely associated with wildlife and environmental conservation films is the Golden Panda Award. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that the question is about an award focused on wildlife and environmental conservation. Step 2: Recall that the Golden Panda name is linked with wildlife film festivals and environmental documentary awards. Step 3: Recognise that the Golden Bear is tied to the Berlin Film Festival, where a wide range of films compete, not just environmental ones. Step 4: Note that the Golden Globe Awards are given by the Hollywood Foreign Press Association for film and television across many genres, not specifically conservation. Step 5: Understand that "Golden Palms" refers to the main prize at Cannes, again a general film award, not restricted to environmental subjects. Step 6: Conclude that the Golden Panda Award is the one closely associated with environmental conservation programmes. Verification / Alternative check: If you recall reading about major wildlife documentary awards, the name Golden Panda often appears alongside programmes and films produced by organisations like BBC or National Geographic. These are highlighted as top honours in the niche of nature and conservation filmmaking. On the other hand, Golden Bear, Golden Globe, and the Palme d'Or are described in the context of general film festivals, which confirms that they are not primarily environmental awards. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Golden Bear Award: Top prize at the Berlin International Film Festival, but not specifically for environmental conservation films. Golden Globe Award: Recognises excellence in film and television generally and is not focused on wildlife or conservation. Golden Palms Award: Refers to the Palme d'Or at Cannes, again a general film festival prize and not restricted to environmental themes. Common Pitfalls: Because many prestigious awards have "Golden" in their names, candidates sometimes mix them up. Another pitfall is relying solely on name familiarity: Golden Globes and the Palme d'Or are widely known, but not for environmental content. To avoid confusion, link each award to its core focus: Golden Panda with wildlife and conservation, Golden Bear with Berlin film festival, Golden Globe with Hollywood film and TV, and Palme d'Or with Cannes. Final Answer: The world's top environmental conservation award among the given options is the Golden Panda Award.

Question 6

In computer networking, which scheduling service is specifically used to handle network traffic that has different priorities or quality-of-service (QoS) requirements?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Modern computer networks carry many types of traffic simultaneously, such as voice calls, video streams, web browsing, and file downloads. Not all of this traffic has the same priority or time sensitivity. To ensure that delay sensitive applications like voice and video get better service than bulk data transfers, networks use Quality of Service (QoS) mechanisms. Scheduling services are an important part of QoS, deciding which packets are sent first based on priority or service class. This question asks which specific scheduling service is used for handling traffic with different priorities. Given Data / Assumptions: The context is network traffic with differing priorities or QoS requirements. Options mention generic traffic management and more specific QoS terms. We assume an environment where QoS policies are implemented at routers or switches using schedulers and queues. The correct option should point to a component that actually schedules packets based on QoS classes. Concept / Approach: In a QoS enabled network, packets are typically placed into different queues according to their priority or service class (for example, real time voice, streaming video, or best effort data). A QoS scheduler is the component that decides how these queues are serviced: which queue is given precedence, how bandwidth is shared, and how delay and jitter are controlled. Algorithms such as priority queuing, weighted fair queuing, or deficit round robin are implemented inside the QoS scheduler. Generic terms like "traffic management" or "QoS manager" may refer to broader functions, but the key scheduling function is performed by the QoS scheduler. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that the question is about handling traffic with different priorities or QoS requirements. Step 2: Recall that QoS environments classify traffic into multiple queues and then use a scheduler to decide the order and proportion in which packets are transmitted. Step 3: Recognise that the term "QoS Scheduler" refers directly to this scheduling component that implements algorithms based on priority and bandwidth allocation. Step 4: Compare with "traffic management," which is a broader phrase covering policing, shaping, and congestion control but not specifically the scheduling service. Step 5: Note that "QoS traffic scheduling" describes an activity rather than naming a specific service component, and "QoS Manager" usually refers to a logical management entity rather than the scheduler itself. Step 6: Conclude that the most accurate term for the scheduling service handling different priority traffic is "QoS Scheduler." Verification / Alternative check: Textbooks and vendor documentation on QoS architectures typically present a diagram with classification, marking, queuing, and scheduling as distinct stages. The block responsible for choosing which packet to send next is labelled as the scheduler. When QoS is discussed, this block is often called the QoS scheduler or scheduling service. Other terms like traffic management or QoS manager refer to configuration or overall policy, not the algorithmic scheduling function, which confirms that QoS Scheduler is the correct choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Traffic management: A broad term that may include scheduling but also includes shaping, policing, and congestion control; it is not the specific name of the scheduling service. QoS traffic scheduling: Describes the process but is not typically the formal name of the service or component implementing it. QoS Manager: Usually refers to a management module or software that configures QoS policies, not to the actual scheduling algorithm that handles individual packets. Common Pitfalls: Candidates may be tempted to choose the most generic sounding answer, such as traffic management, or the phrase that appears longest or most complex. Another pitfall is to ignore the word "scheduling" and focus only on QoS. The correct approach is to recognise that the question is about the specific service that schedules packets, which is the QoS scheduler component inside a QoS system. Final Answer: The scheduling service used to handle traffic with different priorities in a QoS enabled network is the QoS Scheduler.

Question 7

In solar astronomy, the outermost visible layer or atmosphere of the Sun, which becomes prominent during a total solar eclipse, is known as which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The structure of the Sun is described in terms of several layers, each with distinct physical properties. Some layers are internal, such as the core and radiative zone, while others form the Sun's atmosphere, including the photosphere, chromosphere, and corona. The outermost part of the Sun's atmosphere is especially visible during a total solar eclipse as a glowing halo around the darkened disk. This question asks you to identify the correct name of that outermost visible layer. Given Data / Assumptions: The focus is on the outermost layer or atmosphere of the Sun. The layer becomes clearly visible during a total solar eclipse. Options include chromosphere, photosphere, radiative zone, and corona. Basic school level understanding of solar structure is assumed. Concept / Approach: The Sun's visible surface, from which most light is emitted, is called the photosphere. Above this lies the chromosphere, a relatively thin layer that appears reddish during certain eclipse phases. Beyond the chromosphere is the corona, a very hot and extended outer atmosphere composed of highly ionised gases. The corona is difficult to see under normal conditions because it is outshone by the bright photosphere, but during a total solar eclipse, when the Moon blocks the photosphere, the corona appears as a spectacular pearly white halo surrounding the dark solar disk. The radiative zone is an internal layer and not part of the visible outer atmosphere. Thus, the correct answer is corona. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the order of the Sun's atmospheric layers: photosphere, chromosphere, and then corona as the outermost. Step 2: Understand that the photosphere is usually seen as the bright "surface" of the Sun, while the corona is the faint outer halo. Step 3: Remember that during a total solar eclipse, the Moon covers the photosphere, allowing the corona to become clearly visible around the dark Sun. Step 4: Recognise that the radiative zone is deep inside the Sun, below the convective zone, and not a visible outer layer. Step 5: Conclude that the outermost visible layer described in the question is the corona. Verification / Alternative check: Many textbooks and eclipse photographs caption the bright halo observed during total solar eclipses as the solar corona. Popular science articles often talk about scientists using eclipses to study the corona's temperature and magnetic fields. In contrast, chromosphere images show a thinner reddish rim, and the radiative zone is never directly seen. These consistent references confirm that the corona is the correct term for the Sun's outermost visible atmosphere. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Chromosphere: A layer above the photosphere but below the corona; it appears as a thin reddish rim, not the extended halo seen during eclipses. Photosphere: The primary visible surface of the Sun, not the outermost layer surrounding it. Radiative zone: An internal region where energy is transported outward by radiation; it is not visible as a surface layer and is located deep inside. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse the photosphere with the outermost layer because it appears brightest. Others mix up chromosphere and corona due to similar sounding names. A helpful mnemonic is to remember that "corona" is also used to describe a crown or halo, matching its appearance as a halo around the eclipsed Sun. Keeping this image in mind makes it easier to recall that the corona is the outermost visible atmosphere of the Sun. Final Answer: The outermost visible layer of the Sun, seen as a halo during a total solar eclipse, is called the Corona.

Question 8

Among the following countries, which one currently has the largest number of internet users in absolute terms?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The growth of internet connectivity is a major indicator of digital development and market potential. Countries with large populations and expanding digital infrastructure tend to have the highest number of internet users. For general knowledge and competitive exams, it is helpful to know which country has the largest absolute number of internet users, rather than just penetration percentage. This question asks you to identify the country with the highest count of internet users among the given options. Given Data / Assumptions: The options are USA, China, India, and Russia. The focus is on absolute number of internet users, not percentage of population. China and India are the most populous countries among the options, while USA and Russia have smaller populations. Typical exam oriented static general knowledge is assumed. Concept / Approach: China has long been recognised as the country with the largest number of internet users in the world, owing to its huge population and extensive roll out of broadband and mobile internet. India, with its rapidly growing user base, is often in second place. The USA, though having very high penetration, has fewer total users because its population is much smaller than China's or India's. Russia has even fewer users. Therefore, among the options listed, China is widely acknowledged as the country with the largest number of internet users in absolute terms in commonly referenced exam material. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Compare the population sizes of the listed countries: China and India are much larger than USA and Russia. Step 2: Recognise that internet penetration in China and the USA is comparatively high, while India and Russia have been catching up. Step 3: Recall that reports and news articles frequently describe China as having the world's largest online population. Step 4: Understand that even though India is rapidly increasing its number of users, China has been widely cited as the leader in total users in standard GK content. Step 5: Conclude that China is the correct answer among the given choices. Verification / Alternative check: A simple way to check is to remember typical exam facts: China is often described as having hundreds of millions of internet users, the largest in the world, with India in second place. The USA, despite high penetration, cannot surpass China or India in absolute numbers due to its smaller population. Russia has a comparatively smaller population and thus fewer users. This pattern is commonly highlighted in economic and ICT related general knowledge summaries, confirming that China should be selected here. Why Other Options Are Wrong: USA: Has a very high internet penetration rate but a smaller population, so the total number of users is less than that of China. India: Has a rapidly growing base and is often ranked second in terms of number of users but is commonly presented as behind China in exam oriented material. Russia: Has a much smaller population and therefore fewer total internet users compared to the other listed countries. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may confuse percentage penetration with absolute numbers and opt for the USA, believing it to be more "connected." Others may have read recent news about India's rapid internet growth and assume it has already overtaken China, even though standard GK questions still cite China as the leader. To avoid this, always distinguish clearly between total number of users and percentage of population online when answering such questions. Final Answer: Among the listed countries, the largest number of internet users in absolute terms is found in China.

Question 9

According to Census 2011, which one of the following shows the correct decreasing order of Indian States by total population size among Kerala, Jharkhand, Assam and Punjab?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Census 2011 is a key source of demographic data for India and is widely used in examinations for questions on population distribution across states. While exact numbers may be difficult to remember, it is useful to know the relative ranking of states by population size. This question focuses on four specific states—Kerala, Jharkhand, Assam and Punjab—and asks you to choose the correct sequence of these states arranged in decreasing order of total population according to Census 2011. Given Data / Assumptions: The reference is Census 2011 population data. The states under comparison are Kerala, Jharkhand, Assam, and Punjab. The required order is from highest population to lowest population. Only these four states are to be considered; others are irrelevant for this ranking. Concept / Approach: To answer such questions, you do not need to recall exact population figures, but you should know approximate magnitudes and relative positions. In Census 2011, Kerala and Jharkhand have relatively similar population sizes, but Kerala is marginally higher than Jharkhand. Assam follows them with a slightly smaller population, and Punjab has the smallest population among these four states. Therefore, the correct decreasing order is: Kerala (largest), then Jharkhand, then Assam, and finally Punjab (smallest). Any option that violates this relative ranking can be eliminated. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Kerala has a population of about 33 million in Census 2011, which is slightly higher than Jharkhand's population. Step 2: Remember that Jharkhand's population is in the low 30 million range, making it smaller than Kerala but larger than both Assam and Punjab. Step 3: Note that Assam's population is just over 31 million, placing it below Jharkhand but above Punjab in absolute numbers. Step 4: Recognise that Punjab's population is under 30 million, making it the smallest among these four states in Census 2011. Step 5: Arrange the states from highest to lowest based on these approximate values: Kerala > Jharkhand > Assam > Punjab. Step 6: Compare this ordering with the options and identify option A (Kerala, Jharkhand, Assam, Punjab) as the correct sequence. Verification / Alternative check: Cross checking with standard rankings of Indian states by population, none of these four states are in the very top range nationally, but their relative positions are often noted in exam summaries. Kerala is densely populated and has slightly more people than Jharkhand, while Assam’s population is less than both. Punjab has a smaller geographic area and fewer people compared to the other three. These comparative features consistently support the sequence Kerala, Jharkhand, Assam, Punjab. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Jharkhand, Kerala, Assam, Punjab: Wrong because it places Jharkhand above Kerala, whereas Kerala has a slightly larger population. Kerala, Jharkhand, Punjab, Assam: Incorrect because it suggests that Punjab has more people than Assam, which is not the case. Jharkhand, Kerala, Punjab, Assam: Incorrect on two counts: it puts Jharkhand above Kerala and Punjab above Assam, both contrary to Census 2011 data. Common Pitfalls: Students often try to guess based on area size or economic prominence rather than population statistics, which can be misleading. Another pitfall is to assume that Punjab, because of its historical importance and agricultural strength, must have a larger population than Assam, but the census figures contradict this. To avoid such errors, it helps to revise at least the approximate population ranges and rankings for states commonly asked in exams. Final Answer: According to Census 2011, the correct decreasing order of population for the given states is Kerala, Jharkhand, Assam, Punjab.

Question 10

After the bifurcation of Andhra Pradesh, which of the following cities was designated as the new capital for the Seemaandhra region (residual Andhra Pradesh)?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: When the state of Andhra Pradesh was bifurcated to create the new state of Telangana, Hyderabad was allocated as the common capital for a transitional period. The residual part of Andhra Pradesh, often called Seemaandhra in the immediate aftermath, needed a new capital city within its own territory. The selection of this new capital has been an important topic in Indian polity and current affairs. This question asks you to identify which city was designated as the new capital for Seemaandhra (residual Andhra Pradesh) in official announcements. Given Data / Assumptions: The context is post bifurcation Andhra Pradesh, excluding Telangana. The term "Seemaandhra" refers to the residual Andhra Pradesh region. Options provided are Amaravati, Secunderabad, Vijayawada, and Visakhapatnam. We assume knowledge of official decisions regarding the new administrative capital. Concept / Approach: After the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014, Hyderabad served as a joint capital for both states for a limited period, but the residual Andhra Pradesh needed its own long term capital. The government decided to build a new capital city called Amaravati on the banks of the Krishna River, near Vijayawada and Guntur. While Vijayawada and Visakhapatnam are major cities in the state and often discussed as important hubs, the formal name of the planned capital city is Amaravati. Secunderabad, on the other hand, is part of the Hyderabad urban area in Telangana and not in Andhra Pradesh. Therefore, the correct answer is Amaravati. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that Seemaandhra refers to the residual Andhra Pradesh after Telangana was carved out. Step 2: Recall that Hyderabad is located in Telangana and could not serve as the permanent capital for residual Andhra Pradesh. Step 3: Remember that the state decided to build a new capital city named Amaravati in the Guntur region, near Vijayawada. Step 4: Note that while Vijayawada and Visakhapatnam are major existing cities in the state, they were not formally named as the new capital in the original official decision; Amaravati was. Step 5: Understand that Secunderabad is a twin city of Hyderabad and is located within Telangana, not Andhra Pradesh. Step 6: Conclude that the new capital of Seemaandhra (residual Andhra Pradesh) is Amaravati. Verification / Alternative check: Official government communications and news reports repeatedly referred to the "new capital city of Andhra Pradesh, Amaravati," especially when foundation stones were laid and master plans discussed. In contrast, Vijayawada and Visakhapatnam were mentioned as important commercial and administrative centres but not as the formal capital name. Recalling this clear emphasis on Amaravati as the capital helps verify the correct option in this question. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Secunderabad: Part of the Hyderabad metropolitan area in Telangana; it is not in the territory of residual Andhra Pradesh. Vijayawada: A major city and temporary administrative hub, but the designated capital city is specifically planned and named Amaravati. Visakhapatnam: A key port city and industrial centre in Andhra Pradesh, but not the officially chosen capital in the context of this question. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may confuse administrative functions temporarily located in Vijayawada with the formal capital name and choose Vijayawada. Others might think that the largest city, Visakhapatnam, must be the capital. To avoid such confusion, it is important to remember that the new greenfield capital was intentionally named Amaravati, even though it is close to Vijayawada and Guntur. Final Answer: The new capital city designated for Seemaandhra (residual Andhra Pradesh) is Amaravati.

Question 11

In national income accounting, which one of the following is NOT recognised as a standard method of estimating a country's national income?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: National income accounting is a fundamental topic in macroeconomics. To measure the total income or output of an economy, economists use well established methods that follow clear definitions and accounting identities. Competitive exams often test whether candidates can distinguish between these standard methods and fictitious or incorrect ones. This question asks you to identify which option is not a recognised method of estimating national income in standard macroeconomic theory. Given Data / Assumptions: The subject is methods of estimating national income. Options include expenditure method, output method, income method, and matrix method. We assume the basic textbook understanding of GDP and national income calculation. Each standard method should correspond to a real, widely taught approach in economics. Concept / Approach: There are three commonly recognised methods of calculating national income or GDP: the output (or product) method, the income method, and the expenditure method. The output method sums the value of final goods and services produced; the income method sums all factor incomes such as wages, rent, interest and profit; and the expenditure method sums all final expenditures by households, firms, government, and net exports. A "matrix method" is not a standard term or method in national income accounting; it does not appear in basic textbooks as a recognised approach to calculate GDP or national income. Therefore, "Matrix method" is the correct answer as the one that is not a method of estimating national income. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that standard macroeconomics lists three principal methods of measuring national income: output, income, and expenditure. Step 2: Recognise that the expenditure method calculates GDP by summing C + I + G + (X − M). Step 3: Remember that the output method (product method) measures national income by adding up the value of final goods and services produced across sectors. Step 4: Understand that the income method sums factor incomes like wages, rent, interest and profit earned in the production process. Step 5: Check the fourth option, "Matrix method," and note that it does not correspond to any standard named method in national income estimation. Step 6: Conclude that the only option that is not a recognised method of estimating national income is the Matrix method. Verification / Alternative check: Any standard Indian economics textbook or national income accounting guide will describe the three methods—output, income and expenditure—often with diagrams or tables. None of them mention a "matrix method" as a separate category. While matrices can be used as mathematical tools in input output analysis or in presenting data, there is no formal method of estimating national income called the matrix method. This absence in core literature confirms that matrix method is the incorrect one in the list. Why Other Options Are Wrong (they are valid methods): Expenditure method: A fully recognised method that adds up consumption, investment, government expenditure, and net exports to calculate GDP. Output method: Also known as the product method, it measures GDP by summing the value of final goods and services produced in an economy. Income method: Another standard method that calculates national income by adding up all factor incomes earned during production. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may be tempted by unfamiliar terms and think that "matrix method" could be an advanced technique they have not encountered yet. Others might mistake different names for the same method and incorrectly doubt the output or income method. To avoid such errors, remember that the three core methods are universally accepted and appear in almost every basic macroeconomics text. Any fourth option with a novel name in this context is likely to be the incorrect one. Final Answer: The option that is not a recognised method of estimating national income is the Matrix method.

Question 12

If the name of a tribe has to be excluded from the official list of Scheduled Tribes in India, which constitutional authority has the power to make such an exclusion?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Constitution of India provides special provisions for the identification and protection of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. These communities are listed in official schedules and receive various safeguards and benefits. The inclusion or exclusion of any group in these lists is not a casual administrative act; it follows a formal constitutional process to ensure stability and fairness. This question asks which authority has the power to exclude the name of a tribe from the official list of Scheduled Tribes once it has been notified. Given Data / Assumptions: The subject is the process of exclusion of a tribe from the Scheduled Tribes list. Options include the President, Parliament, the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, and the Union Council of Ministers. We assume familiarity with Articles 341 and 342 of the Constitution, which deal with Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. The focus is on the authority that has final power to change the list. Concept / Approach: Under Article 342 of the Constitution, the President of India initially specifies the tribes or tribal communities to be deemed as Scheduled Tribes in relation to a state or Union territory, after consultation with the state government concerned. However, any subsequent inclusion or exclusion of tribes from this list can only be done by Parliament by law. This means that while the President issues the notification, amendments to the list—such as excluding a tribe—require a law passed by Parliament. The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes and the Union Council of Ministers may recommend changes, but they do not themselves have the constitutional power to alter the list. Therefore, Parliament is the correct answer. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall Article 342, which deals with the specification of Scheduled Tribes. Step 2: Understand that the President issues the initial notification of which tribes are to be treated as Scheduled Tribes for each state after consulting with the state government. Step 3: Note the key constitutional point: any subsequent inclusion in or exclusion from this list can be done only by Parliament by law. Step 4: Recognise that the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes can investigate and recommend, but it cannot legally alter the list on its own. Step 5: Remember that the Union Council of Ministers advises the President and steers legislation but does not itself have legislative power to change the schedule. Step 6: Conclude that Parliament is the authority empowered to exclude a tribe from the Scheduled Tribes list. Verification / Alternative check: Standard polity textbooks emphasise that the lists of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes can only be changed by Parliament through an Act, not by executive order alone. Many exam questions repeat this concept to test whether candidates can distinguish between the President's role in notification and Parliament's role in subsequent amendment. This clear division of responsibilities confirms that Parliament is the right choice here, even though the President is involved in the process. Why Other Options Are Wrong: President: Issues the original notification and can act only as per the law; cannot unilaterally add or delete tribes after the initial specification without a law passed by Parliament. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes: Advisory and investigative body; it can recommend changes but cannot legally modify the constitutional schedule. Union Council of Ministers: Exercises executive power and can propose legislation, but the power to amend the list lies with Parliament through law making. Common Pitfalls: Many candidates confuse the President's role in initial notification with the power to make subsequent changes. Another common error is to overestimate the powers of commissions, assuming they can directly modify schedules. To avoid these mistakes, it is important to remember that any change in the lists of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes requires an Act of Parliament, reflecting the gravity and permanence of such decisions. Final Answer: If the name of a tribe has to be excluded from the list of Scheduled Tribes, the power to do so lies with Parliament of India, acting by law.

Question 13

Project "Sankalp" in India was launched primarily with the objective of achieving which of the following social or economic goals?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Government schemes and projects in India are often launched with specific acronyms that stand for larger development programmes. "SANKALP" is one such initiative in the area of skills and employment. While several projects focus on health issues like polio or HIV, others aim at building human capital and reducing unemployment. This question tests whether you can correctly associate Project "Sankalp" with its core objective, instead of confusing it with health or literacy campaigns. Given Data / Assumptions: The project named is "Sankalp" (often expanded as Skills Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion). Options involve eradicating illiteracy, polio, AIDS/HIV, or unemployment. We assume exam oriented knowledge of recent skill development initiatives in India. The focus is on the primary goal, not on the detailed wording of the acronym. Concept / Approach: SANKALP is a World Bank supported project under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, aimed at strengthening institutional mechanisms for skill development and enhancing the quality and market relevance of training. Its broader purpose is to improve employability and livelihoods by providing better skills and training infrastructure, thereby addressing unemployment and underemployment, particularly among the youth. It is not a health programme targeting polio or AIDS/HIV, nor is it directly framed as a general literacy eradication campaign. Thus, among the given options, the one that best captures its essence is "To eliminate unemployment through skill development." Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that "Sankalp" is associated with skill development and livelihood promotion, not with specific diseases. Step 2: Recall that the full form often cited is "Skills Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion." Step 3: Understand that the project focuses on improving training institutions, enhancing quality, and linking skills to employment opportunities. Step 4: Compare the options: illiteracy, polio, and AIDS/HIV are health or education issues, while unemployment is directly related to skill and livelihood programmes. Step 5: Conclude that the objective closest to SANKALP's real purpose is eliminating unemployment by promoting skill development. Verification / Alternative check: Reading about national skill development initiatives, you will find SANKALP described in the context of improving skilling ecosystems, strengthening institutions like Industrial Training Institutes and Sector Skill Councils, and making training more market relevant. In contrast, health campaigns such as polio eradication or HIV control are associated with projects under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, not the skill development ministry. This difference in ministry and content confirms the employment and skill focus of SANKALP. Why Other Options Are Wrong: To eradicate illiteracy: Literacy mission programmes are run under education and adult literacy schemes, not under SANKALP, which is focused on skills and employability. To eradicate Polio: Polio eradication efforts are part of immunisation and health campaigns, not skill development projects. To eliminate AIDS/HIV: HIV prevention and treatment are handled under specific health missions and NACO programmes, not under SANKALP. Common Pitfalls: Students may guess based on the fact that many projects with strong sounding names are health related, leading them to choose polio or AIDS/HIV. Another pitfall is to associate any government project with education with the term "illiteracy," even when the actual focus is on employability skills. To avoid such errors, it helps to link SANKALP firmly in your mind with skill development and employment rather than with disease control or basic literacy. Final Answer: Project "Sankalp" was started primarily To eliminate unemployment through skill development and livelihood promotion.

Question 14

In agricultural science, "Agronomy" is best described as the branch that deals with the practice and science of raising which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Agricultural science is divided into several specialised branches, each focusing on particular aspects such as soil management, plant breeding, horticulture and livestock. "Agronomy" is one of the core disciplines within agriculture and is frequently mentioned in competitive examinations, especially those with rural development or agricultural components. Understanding what agronomy specifically deals with helps distinguish it from related fields like horticulture and animal husbandry. This question asks you to identify what Agronomy is primarily concerned with raising. Given Data / Assumptions: The term under consideration is "Agronomy." Options include plants and animals, crop plants, agriculture in general, and fruit plants only. Standard textbook definitions of agronomy are assumed. The focus is on practical and scientific management of field crops. Concept / Approach: Agronomy is defined as the science and practice of crop production and soil management in the field. It focuses on field crops such as cereals, pulses, oilseeds, and fibre crops, and studies how factors like soil fertility, water management, cropping systems, and nutrient application affect yield. It does not primarily concern raising animals (that is animal husbandry), nor is it restricted only to fruit plants (which fall under horticulture). Although agronomy is a major part of agriculture, the option that simply says "agriculture in general" is too vague. Therefore, the most precise description is that agronomy deals with crop plants, especially field crops. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the standard definition: agronomy is the science and technology of producing and using plants for food, fuel, fibre, and land restoration, primarily focusing on field crops. Step 2: Recognise that agronomists work on crop management practices such as tillage, crop rotation, irrigation, fertiliser use, and weed control. Step 3: Note that animal husbandry is the branch that deals with the management and breeding of animals, not agronomy. Step 4: Understand that fruit crops, vegetables, flowers, and ornamentals are usually studied under horticulture, not strictly under agronomy. Step 5: Conclude that agronomy is best described as the branch dealing with the raising of crop plants, particularly field crops. Verification / Alternative check: In agricultural curricula, subjects are often divided into agronomy, soil science, horticulture, agricultural engineering, and animal husbandry. The syllabus for agronomy focuses on crop production techniques and field management rather than on orchards or livestock. Course titles like "Principles of Agronomy" or "Field Crop Production" further confirm that agronomy is centred on crop plants and their cultivation in fields, not on animals or garden crops alone. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Plants and Animals: This broad description mixes plant and animal production and does not match the crop focused nature of agronomy. Agriculture in general: Too vague; agriculture includes many branches (including agronomy), but agronomy itself is specifically about crop plants and field practices. Fruit plants only: Fruit cultivation belongs more to horticulture, particularly pomology, and does not represent the full scope of agronomy. Common Pitfalls: Because agronomy is a central branch of agriculture, some students mistakenly think it covers every aspect of farming, including livestock. Another pitfall is to confuse horticulture and agronomy, especially when fruit crops are considered. To avoid these errors, remember that agronomy is primarily about field crops and their management, while horticulture covers fruits, vegetables, flowers and ornamentals, and animal husbandry deals with livestock. Final Answer: "Agronomy" is the practice and science of raising Crop plants, especially field crops, along with managing the soils in which they grow.

Question 15

Which one of the following rivers listed below is NOT a tributary of the river Ganga (Ganges) in the Indian river system?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Ganga (Ganges) river system is one of the major river systems of India, with numerous important tributaries contributing to its flow from the Himalayas and the plains. For geography and general knowledge exams, it is common to test whether a candidate can correctly identify which rivers belong to a particular system and which belong to others, such as the Brahmaputra system. This question asks you to select the river that is not a tributary of the Ganga from the given list. Given Data / Assumptions: The main river in question is the Ganga (Ganges). The options are Son, Mahananda, Teesta and Sharada. We assume standard school level geography about Indian river systems. The task is to find the river associated instead with another major system, such as the Brahmaputra. Concept / Approach: The Son (or Sone) river originates in central India and joins the Ganga near Patna in Bihar, making it a major southern tributary of the Ganga. The Mahananda river, flowing through parts of Bihar and West Bengal, also joins the Ganga system. The Sharada (or Mahakali) river, arising in the Himalayas, eventually contributes to the Ganga system through its confluence with other tributaries. The Teesta river, however, originates in Sikkim, flows through West Bengal, and then enters Bangladesh to join the Brahmaputra (Jamuna) river, not the Ganga. Therefore, Teesta is correctly identified as not being a tributary of the Ganga. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify which rivers are well known part of the Ganga basin. Step 2: Recall that the Son river is a major tributary that joins the Ganga near Patna. Step 3: Remember that the Mahananda river flows in eastern India and joins the Ganga system in West Bengal. Step 4: Recognise that the Sharada (Mahakali) river emerging from the Himalayas contributes to the Ganga basin through its downstream connections. Step 5: Note that the Teesta river flows from Sikkim and North Bengal into Bangladesh and then joins the Brahmaputra, not the Ganga. Step 6: Conclude that Teesta is not a tributary of the Ganga river. Verification / Alternative check: Standard maps of Indian river systems mark the Teesta as a major tributary of the Brahmaputra in Bangladesh. In contrast, maps of the Ganga basin highlight the Son, Mahananda and Sharada rivers as part of the Ganga system. Exam oriented summaries often include a list of important Ganga tributaries, in which Teesta is typically absent, while Son and Mahananda are present. This clear difference helps confirm that Teesta is the correct choice as the non Ganga tributary. Why Other Options Are Wrong (they are Ganga tributaries): Son: A major right bank tributary of the Ganga, joining it near Patna in Bihar. Mahananda: An important tributary flowing through Bihar and West Bengal before merging with the Ganga system. Sharada: A Himalayan river that ultimately contributes to the Ganga basin and is treated as part of the Ganga river system. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse the Teesta river's course due to its presence in North Bengal and assume it must join the Ganga. Another pitfall is to think that any river in eastern India eventually connects to the Ganga. To avoid such mistakes, it is helpful to memorise a few key associations: Teesta with the Brahmaputra, and Son and Mahananda with the Ganga. Checking maps carefully during preparation further strengthens this understanding. Final Answer: The river that is not a tributary of the Ganga is the Teesta river.

Question 16

Which one of the following pairs of Great Lakes in North America is connected by the Soo Canal (Sault Ste. Marie Canal and locks)?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Great Lakes of North America—Superior, Michigan, Huron, Erie, and Ontario—are interconnected by a series of channels, rivers, and canals that allow ships to travel between them. Because these lakes lie at different elevations, locks and canals are needed to overcome differences in water level. The Soo Canal (often referred to as the Sault Ste. Marie Canal and locks) is one of the most important of these connections. This question asks you to identify which pair of Great Lakes is linked by the Soo Canal. Given Data / Assumptions: The canal mentioned is the Soo Canal (Sault Ste. Marie). Options list different pairs of Great Lakes: Superior and Michigan, Superior and Huron, Huron and Ontario, Huron and Erie. We assume basic geographical knowledge of the layout of the Great Lakes. The question is about the direct connection at the Soo Canal, not about indirect links further downstream. Concept / Approach: Lake Superior is the largest and highest in elevation among the Great Lakes. Water flows from Superior into Lake Huron via the St. Marys River. At Sault Ste. Marie, the river drops in elevation, making navigation difficult. To allow ships to travel between Lake Superior and Lake Huron safely, the Soo Locks and canal were built at this point. Lake Michigan, though connected to Lake Huron through the Straits of Mackinac, is not directly connected by the Soo Canal. Lakes Huron and Erie are connected by the St. Clair River, Lake St. Clair, and the Detroit River, and Lakes Huron and Ontario are linked via Lake Erie and the Welland Canal. Hence, the Soo Canal specifically connects Lakes Superior and Huron. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the order of the Great Lakes from upstream to downstream: Superior, Michigan (parallel to Huron), Huron, Erie, Ontario. Step 2: Note that Lake Superior is at the highest level and discharges into Lake Huron through the St. Marys River. Step 3: Recognise that at Sault Ste. Marie, the fall in elevation required a canal and lock system, known as the Soo Canal or Sault Ste. Marie Canal. Step 4: Understand that this canal allows shipping between Lake Superior and Lake Huron by bypassing rapids. Step 5: Confirm that Lake Michigan connects to Lake Huron at the Straits of Mackinac, not via the Soo Canal, and that Huron's connection to Erie and Ontario is through other rivers and canals. Step 6: Conclude that the Soo Canal connects Lakes Superior and Huron. Verification / Alternative check: Maps of the Great Lakes and shipping routes clearly show the Soo Locks at Sault Ste. Marie between Lake Superior and Lake Huron. The canal is marked on the St. Marys River, linking these two lakes. Descriptions of Great Lakes shipping also emphasise that the Soo Locks are crucial for vessels moving between the uppermost lake (Superior) and the lower lakes via Huron. There is no such reference connecting the Soo Canal directly with Michigan, Erie, or Ontario, confirming that Superior and Huron is the correct pair. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Lakes Superior and Michigan: Lake Michigan connects to Lake Huron through the Straits of Mackinac, not through the Soo Canal. Lakes Huron and Ontario: They are separated by Lake Erie and connected indirectly via other waterways, including the Welland Canal. Lakes Huron and Erie: Connected through the St. Clair River, Lake St. Clair, and the Detroit River, not by the Soo Canal. Common Pitfalls: Because the names of the lakes and connecting waterways can be confusing, some candidates may choose the wrong pair simply by guessing. Another pitfall is to assume that any canal between upper and lower lakes involves Lake Michigan, which is not correct in this case. To avoid such errors, it helps to study a map of the Great Lakes, paying particular attention to the position of Sault Ste. Marie between Lake Superior and Lake Huron. Final Answer: The Soo Canal (Sault Ste. Marie Canal) connects Lakes Superior and Huron in the Great Lakes system.

Question 17

Which one of the following famous fishing banks is located in the North Sea off the coast of the United Kingdom?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Fishing banks are shallow areas in seas or oceans where fish tend to be abundant, often making them important commercial fishing grounds. Several fishing banks around the world are well known and feature in geography and general knowledge exams. Different banks are associated with different regions, such as the North Atlantic, North Sea, or areas near Southeast Asia. This question asks you to identify which fishing bank lies off the coast of the United Kingdom in the North Sea. Given Data / Assumptions: The country mentioned is the United Kingdom. The relevant sea is the North Sea. Options include Great Fisher Bank, Grand Banks, Dogger Bank, and Reed Bank. We assume standard school level world geography knowledge. Concept / Approach: Dogger Bank is a large, shallow area in the North Sea, located off the east coast of England. It has historically been an important fishing ground for the United Kingdom and other North Sea nations. In contrast, the Grand Banks are located off the coast of Newfoundland in the North Atlantic, far from the UK. Reed Bank is in the South China Sea near the Philippines. Great Fisher Bank is associated with the North Atlantic regions around Newfoundland and Labrador, not the North Sea off the British coast. Therefore, the correct answer is Dogger Bank as the fishing bank located off the coast of the United Kingdom. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify the geographic setting: a fishing bank in the North Sea near the United Kingdom. Step 2: Recall that Dogger Bank is well known as a shallow area in the North Sea east of England and is often mentioned in weather reports and fishing histories. Step 3: Recognise that the Grand Banks lie off the coast of Newfoundland, Canada, in the northwest Atlantic, not near the UK. Step 4: Remember that Reed Bank is located in the South China Sea, near the Philippines, and is unrelated to the North Sea. Step 5: Note that Great Fisher Bank is also associated with the northwest Atlantic region, not with the UK's North Sea coast. Step 6: Conclude that Dogger Bank is the fishing bank located off the coast of the United Kingdom. Verification / Alternative check: Weather forecasts for the North Sea region, particularly those issued by the UK, often mention Dogger as one of the sea areas. Maritime and fishing histories of Britain also reference Dogger Bank as an important fishing ground. In contrast, geography textbooks typically place the Grand Banks near Newfoundland and mention Reed Bank in the context of Southeast Asia. These consistent associations confirm Dogger Bank as the correct choice for a fishing bank off the UK coast. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Great Fisher Bank: Located in the North Atlantic off the coast of Canada, not close to the United Kingdom. Grand Banks: Famous fishing grounds near Newfoundland, Canada, in the northwest Atlantic, far from the North Sea and the UK. Reed Bank: Situated in the South China Sea near the Philippines, and not associated with the British Isles or the North Sea. Common Pitfalls: Because several fishing banks have similar sounding names and all seem geographically "northern," candidates may confuse them or think of the Grand Banks first due to their fame. Another pitfall is to overlook the specific mention of the United Kingdom and the North Sea in the question. Carefully matching each bank with the correct region—Dogger with the North Sea and the UK, Grand Banks with Newfoundland, and Reed Bank with the South China Sea—helps avoid these errors. Final Answer: The fishing bank located in the North Sea off the coast of the United Kingdom is Dogger Bank.

Question 18

Examine the following two statements about Pahi-kashta peasants in Mughal India and select the correct option: Statement I: Pahi-kashta peasants were non-resident cultivators who tilled lands on a contractual basis. Statement II: Pahi-kashta peasant…

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: In Mughal and early modern Indian agrarian history, different categories of peasants and cultivators existed, distinguished by their residence, obligations, and the terms under which they held land. Pahi-kashta peasants are one such category discussed in historical sources. Exam questions often provide two statements about these groups and ask the candidate to judge their truth value and relationship. This question focuses on Pahi-kashta peasants as non-resident cultivators working on contractual terms and explores the reasons behind their migration and labour decisions. Given Data / Assumptions: Statement I: Pahi-kashta peasants were non-resident cultivators who cultivated lands on a contractual basis. Statement II: Pahi-kashta peasants worked under the temptation of favourable revenue terms or the compulsion of economic distress. The context is the agrarian structure in pre colonial or Mughal India. We assume standard historical interpretations of the terms "Pahi-kashta" and "Khud-kashta." Concept / Approach: In many historical accounts, a distinction is made between khud-kashta peasants (resident peasants who cultivated their own or locally held land) and pahi-kashta peasants (non-resident or migrant peasants). Pahi-kashtas often moved from one village or region to another, taking land on a contractual basis when they found better revenue terms, such as lower assessment or more secure tenure. They could also be pushed into migration by economic distress in their home areas, such as crop failure or high revenue demand. Thus, Statement I correctly describes their non-resident, contractual status, and Statement II correctly explains the economic and incentive based reasons for their movement and work conditions. Therefore both statements are true, and Statement II provides a valid explanation of Statement I. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Evaluate Statement I. It says Pahi-kashta peasants were non-resident cultivators working on a contractual basis. Historical sources describe them as migrants who did not belong permanently to the village where they cultivated, often taking up land under specific contracts. So Statement I is true. Step 2: Evaluate Statement II. It states that Pahi-kashta peasants worked under the temptation of favourable revenue terms or due to economic distress. This matches descriptions that peasants might be attracted by lower revenue demands in a new area or forced to move due to hardship in their home village. So Statement II is also true. Step 3: Consider the relationship between the two statements. Being non-resident contractual cultivators (Statement I) is often a direct outcome of the factors mentioned in Statement II: they choose or are compelled to move in search of better terms or to escape distress. Step 4: Therefore, Statement II explains why Pahi-kashta peasants came to be non-resident, contractual cultivators as described in Statement I. Step 5: Conclude that both statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. Verification / Alternative check: Historical writings on Mughal agrarian relations, such as village records and revenue documents, repeatedly mention khud-kashta and pahi-kashta categories. Khud-kashtas are described as settled villagers, while pahi-kashtas are identified as outsiders who move in based on specific revenue arrangements. Analyses of peasant mobility emphasise that such movements were linked to economic incentives and pressures. This correlation supports the idea that the non-resident contractual status (Statement I) arose due to the economic motivations and compulsions (Statement II), verifying the explanatory link between the two statements. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I: Incorrect because Statement II directly provides the economic reasons that lead to the situation described in Statement I. Statement I is true but Statement II is false: Incorrect because Statement II is consistent with the historical understanding of why peasants became pahi-kashta. Statement I is false but Statement II is true: Incorrect because Statement I accurately defines Pahi-kashta peasants as non-resident contractual cultivators; there is no evidence that it is false. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may erroneously think that Pahi-kashta refers to a different category, such as resident peasants, and mark Statement I as false. Others may accept both statements as true but fail to see the cause and effect relationship, choosing the option that denies the explanatory link. To avoid these mistakes, it is helpful to remember the khud-kashta versus pahi-kashta distinction and the fact that economic incentives and distress often drive peasant migration and contractual cultivation practices. Final Answer: Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I in the case of Pahi-kashta peasants.

Question 19

Which one of the following designations does not refer to a modern battle tank used by the armed forces of any country?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Battle tanks are heavy armoured fighting vehicles that form the backbone of many modern armies. They are usually identified by a combination of letters and numbers, such as T-55, T-72 or T-90. Defence related examinations often test whether a candidate can distinguish between genuine tank designations and other military equipment that may sound similar. This question asks which designation does not signify a modern battle tank, so you must be able to recall and match specific model numbers with their correct platform. Given Data / Assumptions: The options given are T-55, T-155, T-72 and T-90. T-55, T-72 and T-90 are well known Soviet or Russian origin main battle tanks used by several countries. One option is not a battle tank but something else, even though it looks similar in format. No extra numerical or technical data is provided, so the question is based on factual recognition. Concept / Approach: To solve this question, you should use direct factual knowledge of prominent tank models. Many of them, especially those from the Soviet Union and Russia, use the letter T followed by a number. However, other military platforms such as artillery guns or vehicles may also use similar looking codes. The correct approach is to identify which of the given codes is not associated with a main battle tank in standard defence literature. Once that is done, the remaining codes can be confirmed as genuine battle tanks, which helps to eliminate them as incorrect choices. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that T-55 is a widely known Soviet era main battle tank, introduced in the mid twentieth century and used by many countries. Step 2: Recall that T-72 is another famous main battle tank that succeeded the earlier T series tanks and has been exported to many nations. Step 3: Recall that T-90 is a modern Russian main battle tank derived from earlier T series designs and is also used by the Indian Army. Step 4: Notice that T-155 is not recognised as a main battle tank. Instead, the designation T-155 is associated with a self propelled artillery gun system developed by another country, which is a different category of weapon system. Step 5: Since only one option does not signify a battle tank, T-155 is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative way to verify your answer is to remember that when defence exams refer to Russian or Soviet tanks, they almost always mention T-54 or T-55, T-62, T-72, T-80 and T-90 as the major series. None of the standard tank lists include a T-155 battle tank. You may also recall that some artillery systems carry designations like T-155 or similar, but they are clearly described as howitzers or gun systems, not as main battle tanks. Once you remember this pattern, it confirms that T-55, T-72 and T-90 are all tanks while T-155 is not. Why Other Options Are Wrong: T-55: This is a genuine Soviet era main battle tank and therefore signifies a battle tank. T-72: This is a widely used main battle tank that has served in many armies around the world, so it is not the odd option. T-90: This is a modern Russian main battle tank, also in service with India, and clearly signifies a tank. Common Pitfalls: A frequent mistake is to assume that any code beginning with the letter T and a number represents a tank. In reality, different countries use different coding schemes, and sometimes artillery or other weapons can have similar looking names. Another pitfall is to overthink the question and doubt well known tank names like T-72 or T-90 instead of focusing on the unfamiliar code. Candidates may also confuse artillery systems with tanks just because both belong to the armoured branch of the army, so it is important to recall their correct classification. Final Answer: The designation that does not signify a modern battle tank is T-155.

Question 20

In Hindu mythology, which group of deities is traditionally known as the Lokapalas, the four directional Guardians of the Universe?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: In Hindu religious traditions, the cosmos is often described in terms of directions and guardians who protect those directions. These guardian deities are known as Lokapalas, literally the protectors of the worlds or directions. Many general knowledge and competitive examinations ask about these groups of deities because this reflects basic cultural literacy about Indian mythology and classical texts. This question specifically asks which combination of deities is regarded as the Lokapalas or Guardians of the Universe. Given Data / Assumptions: The question mentions the term Lokapalas, meaning guardians of directions or worlds. Each option gives a group of four deities, and only one grouping matches the classical list. We assume the standard four directional guardians traditionally recognised in many Puranic sources. We are not dealing with the extended list of eight Dikpalas but with the basic four Lokapalas. Concept / Approach: The classical understanding is that each of the four main cardinal directions has a guardian deity. Indra guards the east, Yama guards the south, Varuna guards the west and Kubera guards the north. These four together are often mentioned as Lokapalas or Dikpalas in simplified lists. The other deities mentioned in the options, such as Skanda, Brahma or Shiva, are important gods but are not part of this specific traditional group of four directional guardians in their simplest form. The approach is to recall this standard mapping of deities to directions and then choose the option that matches it exactly. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Indra is traditionally associated with the eastern direction and is frequently listed as one of the Lokapalas. Step 2: Remember that Yama, the god of death and justice, is regarded as the guardian of the southern direction. Step 3: Varuna is associated with water and the oceans and is generally considered the guardian of the western direction. Step 4: Kubera, the god of wealth, is traditionally the guardian of the northern direction. Step 5: Compare the options and see that the combination of Yama, Indra, Varuna and Kubera appears together only in one option. Step 6: Conclude that the group Yama, Indra, Varuna and Kubera is the correct set of Lokapalas. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, recall that in many depictions of temple iconography and classical texts, the four primary directions have these guardians, while the intermediate directions may have others such as Agni, Vayu, Nirrti and Ishana. If you think of the eight Dikpalas list, you will still find Indra, Yama, Varuna and Kubera present among them, which strengthens the memory that these four together can legitimately be called the Lokapalas. Cross checking with the alternative options, you will notice that they introduce additional deities such as Skanda, Brahma or Shiva, which changes the classical grouping and therefore makes those options incorrect. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Indra, Varuna, Skanda and Kubera: Skanda (or Kartikeya) is not one of the standard directional guardians, so this set is inaccurate. Indra, Varuna, Yama and Brahma: Brahma is a creator god but is not usually counted as one of the four Lokapalas, so this combination is incorrect. Yama, Shiva, Kubera and Indra: Shiva is a principal deity in Hinduism but is not part of the standard four Lokapalas in this way, so this option is also wrong. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to assume that any combination containing prominent gods like Shiva or Brahma must be correct, simply because they are better known. Another pitfall is to confuse the four Lokapalas with the full group of eight Dikpalas and to mix up additional deities in the list without checking the exact traditional grouping that is usually tested in exams. Candidates should also avoid guessing based only on familiarity with names and should instead remember the directional associations of each guardian. Final Answer: The group of deities traditionally known as the Lokapalas or Guardians of the Universe is Yama, Indra, Varuna and Kubera.

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