Question 1

Which of the following banks announced a facility allowing its customers to make card-less cash withdrawals at over 1,000 automated teller machines (ATMs) across India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Indian banks have been introducing innovative digital services such as card-less cash withdrawals, which allow customers to withdraw money from automated teller machines without using a physical debit card. This question asks you to identify the bank that rolled out such a facility at more than 1,000 ATMs across India. Given Data / Assumptions: The question refers to a specific card-less cash withdrawal facility. The service covers over 1,000 ATMs nationwide. The options include Bank of Baroda, ICICI Bank, AU Small Finance Bank and State Bank of India. We assume the question relates to a widely reported banking awareness news item from the competitive exam period. Concept / Approach: Card-less cash withdrawal services generally work by generating a code or reference number through internet banking or a mobile app. The customer then uses this code at an ATM to withdraw cash, thereby reducing the risk associated with lost or skimmed cards. To answer, we need to recall which bank, among the options, was highlighted in current affairs for extending such a facility to more than 1,000 of its ATMs. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall recent banking news related to card-less withdrawals and small finance banks.Step 2: Remember that AU Small Finance Bank introduced a card-less cash withdrawal facility and extended it to over 1,000 ATMs across India.Step 3: Check the options: Bank of Baroda, ICICI Bank, AU Small Finance Bank and State Bank of India.Step 4: Match the news item with AU Small Finance Bank, which is specifically associated with this roll-out.Step 5: Conclude that AU Small Finance Bank is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: This information appears in many banking awareness compilations and competitive exam memory-based questions, which note that AU Small Finance Bank enabled customers to withdraw cash without a card from over 1,000 of its ATMs using secure authentication from mobile channels. Larger banks such as SBI and ICICI Bank also have digital innovations, but this particular statistic of more than 1,000 ATMs is linked to AU Small Finance Bank. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Bank of Baroda: Although it offers digital services, it was not the bank highlighted for this particular card-less withdrawal expansion. ICICI Bank: ICICI has introduced several digital banking features, but the specific figure of over 1,000 ATMs in this news item is associated with AU Small Finance Bank. State Bank of India: SBI has its own digital platforms like YONO, yet the question is targeting the smaller private institution that recently expanded its ATM network with card-less withdrawals. Common Pitfalls: Candidates may assume that the largest public sector or private sector bank is always behind new initiatives. However, smaller and newer banks, especially small finance banks, often innovate aggressively to attract customers. This can cause confusion if one does not read the details of current affairs carefully. It is helpful to remember that the card-less cash withdrawal at more than 1,000 ATMs was a notable achievement of AU Small Finance Bank. Final Answer: The bank that launched a facility for card-less cash withdrawals at over 1,000 ATMs across India is AU Small Finance Bank.

Question 2

Under the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY), what is the maximum overdraft amount available per household to an account holder after six months of satisfactory conduct of the account?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is India's flagship financial inclusion scheme, aimed at providing basic banking facilities to every household. One of its key features is an overdraft facility offered to eligible account holders after they demonstrate satisfactory account operation. The question asks about the maximum overdraft amount per household under the original scheme design. Given Data / Assumptions: We are referring to the basic savings bank deposit accounts opened under PMJDY. The overdraft is available after at least six months of satisfactory account conduct. The limit is applied on a per household basis, not per individual if multiple members have accounts. We consider the original limit that is widely tested in general awareness exams. Concept / Approach: The overdraft facility under PMJDY is intended as a small credit line to meet emergency needs and encourage formal financial behaviour. The scheme initially allowed an overdraft of up to Rs 5,000 per eligible household. Later improvements and higher limits have been discussed, but exam questions on static aspects usually refer to the original design. To answer correctly, we recall the standard figure mentioned in government notifications and exam material. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that PMJDY offers an overdraft facility linked to successful use of the account.Step 2: Recall that, after at least six months of satisfactory conduct, one account holder in a household becomes eligible for an overdraft.Step 3: The widely quoted overdraft ceiling is Rs 5,000 per household under the original scheme.Step 4: Compare this with the options: Rs 5,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 2,000 and Rs 15,000.Step 5: Match the remembered figure to Rs 5,000 and select it as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Government press releases and PMJDY official summaries clearly mention that the overdraft facility is up to Rs 5,000 per household, after satisfactory operation of the account for six months, with preference given to the woman of the household. Many competitive exam guides repeat this number in their banking awareness sections. This confirms that Rs 5,000 is the figure expected in such questions. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Rs 10,000: Some later enhancements discussed higher limits, but the original and most tested limit in exams is Rs 5,000. Rs 2,000: This is significantly below the officially notified overdraft ceiling and is not the standard figure. Rs 15,000: This amount is far higher than what is offered under PMJDY and does not match any widely known policy provision. Common Pitfalls: A frequent mistake is to confuse PMJDY overdraft limits with other microcredit schemes or Kisan Credit Card limits. Another issue is mixing up later policy discussions with the values that actually appeared in official notifications at the time. To remain accurate, students should link PMJDY with a basic overdraft of up to Rs 5,000, life and accident insurance components, and the emphasis on at least six months of satisfactory account conduct. Final Answer: The maximum overdraft available under PMJDY after six months of satisfactory account conduct is Rs 5,000 per household.

Question 3

For the first time, the Indian Air Force (IAF) participated in which multinational air exercise, codenamed PB-18 (Pitch Black 2018), held in Australia and hosted by the Royal Australian Air Force (RAAF)?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Modern air forces regularly participate in multinational exercises to improve interoperability, practice complex air operations and build strategic partnerships. One such important exercise is held in Australia and is known by the codename Pitch Black. The question asks which named exercise, identified as PB-18 for the 2018 edition, saw the Indian Air Force (IAF) taking part for the first time. Given Data / Assumptions: The event occurred in 2018 and carried the code PB-18. The host country was Australia, specifically the Royal Australian Air Force (RAAF). The Indian Air Force participated for the first time in that particular edition. The options list different well known military exercises. Concept / Approach: Pitch Black is a large-scale biennial air combat exercise hosted by the Royal Australian Air Force. It involves many nations and focuses on air combat, large formation operations and night flying. When the suffix “PB” and the year 2018 are mentioned together, they clearly point to Exercise Pitch Black 2018. Other named exercises such as Yudh Abhyas and Nomadic Elephant are Indo-United States and Indo-Mongolia joint army exercises, respectively, not air force exercises centred in Australia. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Note the key hints: code PB-18, year 2018, host Royal Australian Air Force and first time participation by the Indian Air Force.Step 2: Recall that PB stands for Pitch Black, a major air combat exercise hosted by Australia.Step 3: Recognise that the full name is Exercise Pitch Black.Step 4: Compare with the given options: Exercise Pitch Black, Exercise Desert Strike, Exercise Yudh Abhyas and Exercise Nomadic Elephant.Step 5: Select Exercise Pitch Black as the only option that matches all the clues. Verification / Alternative check: Defence news reports from 2018 clearly state that the Indian Air Force participated for the first time in Exercise Pitch Black 2018 in Australia, deploying aircraft such as Sukhoi Su-30 MKI fighters. The exercise involved several air forces and aimed at enhancing joint air operations. None of the other listed exercises are Australian-hosted multinational air force drills, which confirms that Exercise Pitch Black is the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Exercise Desert Strike: This name does not correspond to the Australian Pitch Black series and is not associated with PB-18. Exercise Yudh Abhyas: This is a bilateral army exercise between India and the United States, not a multinational air combat exercise held in Australia. Exercise Nomadic Elephant: This is an army exercise between India and Mongolia, again not linked to Australian air operations. Common Pitfalls: Candidates may confuse different military exercises because many sound similar and involve India with various partner countries. A good exam strategy is to categorise them: Pitch Black as a multinational air force exercise in Australia, Yudh Abhyas as an India–United States army drill, and Nomadic Elephant as India–Mongolia army cooperation. Keeping a small table of host country, service branch and partner country helps avoid such confusion. Final Answer: The Indian Air Force first participated in the Australian multinational air exercise known as Exercise Pitch Black in 2018 (PB-18).

Question 4

Within the Asia and Pacific (ASPAC) region, India ranks as which largest country in terms of the number of UNESCO World Heritage properties it has?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: UNESCO World Heritage properties are sites of cultural or natural importance considered to have outstanding universal value. Many competitive exams test awareness of India's position relative to other countries in terms of the number of such sites. Specifically, there is interest in how India ranks within the Asia and Pacific, often abbreviated as ASPAC, region. Given Data / Assumptions: The question is restricted to the Asia and Pacific region, not the entire world. We are counting total UNESCO World Heritage properties (both cultural and natural). India has a significant number of recognised sites, second only to a leading country in the ASPAC region. The options list ordinal ranks: fourth, third, second and fifth. Concept / Approach: China and India are both rich in heritage, with China having the highest number of World Heritage Sites in the ASPAC region. India comes next with a large portfolio of cultural monuments like the Taj Mahal and natural reserves like Kaziranga National Park. This places India at the second position in ASPAC with respect to the number of World Heritage properties, which is a point highlighted in many government and tourism publications. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that China holds the top position in the ASPAC region for total number of UNESCO World Heritage Sites.Step 2: Note that India follows China with a substantial but smaller count of listed properties.Step 3: Therefore, India is ranked immediately after the first, which means it is in the second position.Step 4: Look at the options: fourth, third, second, fifth.Step 5: Select “second” as it correctly reflects India's position in the ASPAC region. Verification / Alternative check: Lists of World Heritage Sites by country compiled from UNESCO data show China leading in the Asia and Pacific region, followed by India. Exam-oriented summaries and official cultural reports from India's Ministry of Culture also emphasise that India is the second largest in ASPAC in terms of recognised World Heritage properties. This consistent reporting confirms that the rank “second” is accurate. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Fourth: This underrates India's position and would place at least two more countries between China and India, which is not supported by UNESCO statistics. Third: This still suggests one more ASPAC country has more sites than India, which is incorrect. Fifth: This is even lower and clearly inconsistent with India's strong cultural and natural heritage footprint. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse India's global rank with its regional rank. While India is high on the world list, the question is strictly about the Asia and Pacific region, where China is first and India is second. Another pitfall is to mix up the number of sites with the number of countries in an organisation. Always pay attention to the region (ASPAC), the ranking basis (count of World Heritage properties) and the type of ranking (first, second and so on). Final Answer: In the Asia and Pacific region, India stands in the second position in terms of the number of UNESCO World Heritage properties.

Question 5

Which aircraft is the second supersonic fighter developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) after the indigenous HAL HF-24 Marut?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) is India's premier aerospace and defence public sector company. It has played a key role in both license production and indigenous development of fighter aircraft. Historically, HAL HF-24 Marut was India's first indigenous supersonic fighter. The question asks which aircraft is recognised as the second supersonic fighter developed by HAL after that milestone. Given Data / Assumptions: HF-24 Marut is accepted as the first indigenous supersonic fighter developed by HAL. The question concerns development by HAL, not licensed production of foreign designs. Options include HAL Tejas, MiG-21 Bison, Jaguar IS and Sukhoi Su-30 MKI. We treat “developed by HAL” as indicating indigenous design responsibility, not only assembly or upgrade. Concept / Approach: The MiG-21 Bison, Jaguar IS and Sukhoi Su-30 MKI are foreign designs produced or upgraded under licence by HAL, but they were not originally designed by HAL. In contrast, HAL Tejas, previously known as the Light Combat Aircraft (LCA), is an indigenous multirole supersonic fighter designed and developed in India with HAL as the principal industrial partner. Therefore, after HF-24 Marut, HAL Tejas is regarded as the second indigenous supersonic fighter aircraft in India. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify the key phrase “developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited after the HAL HF-24 Marut”.Step 2: Recognise that HF-24 Marut was India's first indigenous supersonic fighter.Step 3: Note that HAL Tejas is an indigenous light combat aircraft program with HAL as the industrial lead and is a supersonic fighter.Step 4: Recall that MiG-21 Bison, Jaguar IS and Su-30 MKI are imported designs manufactured under licence or heavily upgraded in India but are not original HAL developments.Step 5: Conclude that HAL Tejas is the correct answer as the second supersonic fighter developed by HAL after HF-24 Marut. Verification / Alternative check: Standard defence literature and many competitive exam notes describe the Light Combat Aircraft Tejas as India's second indigenous supersonic fighter after the HF-24 Marut. HAL's own communications highlight its role as the design and production agency for Tejas in collaboration with the Aeronautical Development Agency. This reinforces that Tejas is the intended answer when a question mentions “second supersonic fighter developed by HAL”. Why Other Options Are Wrong: MiG-21 Bison: This is an upgraded version of the Soviet MiG-21, developed originally by Mikoyan-Gurevich. HAL produces and upgrades it under licence, but it is not an indigenous HAL development. Jaguar IS: This aircraft is of Anglo-French origin (SEPECAT Jaguar) and is built under licence in India. HAL did not originate the design. Sukhoi Su-30 MKI: This is a Russian Sukhoi design, customised for India. HAL assembles it under licence but does not own the core design. Common Pitfalls: Students often confuse “manufactured by HAL” with “developed by HAL”. Many combat aircraft in the Indian Air Force fleet are assembled or overhauled by HAL but are not HAL's indigenous designs. The key to answering correctly is to focus on indigenous development efforts: HF-24 Marut is the first, followed by HAL Tejas as the second. Keeping this distinction in mind helps avoid selecting license-produced aircraft as answers to such questions. Final Answer: The second supersonic fighter developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited after the HF-24 Marut is the HAL Tejas.

Question 6

To address the twin balance sheet problem of the banking sector and the corporate sector, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has strongly advocated setting up which institution in India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: India has faced a twin balance sheet problem, where the balance sheets of both banks and large corporates become stressed due to high levels of non-performing assets and excessive leverage. In this context, the Reserve Bank of India proposed institutional solutions to improve credit information and reduce future build-up of bad loans. One major proposal was the creation of a centralised credit information repository. Given Data / Assumptions: The question refers to a proposal of the Reserve Bank of India. The aim is to tackle the twin balance sheet problem in banks and borrowing firms. The solution involves setting up a central institution that keeps comprehensive credit data. Options contain similar sounding names: Public Credit Registration, Public Credit Registry, Public Credit Review and Public Credit Reminder. Concept / Approach: The idea behind the RBI initiative is to have a Public Credit Registry, a centralised and near real-time repository of all credit information on borrowers in India. This would include borrowings from banks, non-banking financial companies and other regulated entities. Such a registry improves transparency, helps lenders assess borrower risk more accurately, and reduces the chances of borrowers hiding their total indebtedness by borrowing from multiple institutions. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that the RBI proposal concerns a comprehensive credit information system.Step 2: Recall that the specific term used by RBI is “Public Credit Registry”.Step 3: Note that “registry” correctly describes a database or repository of information, which fits the intended function.Step 4: Examine the options carefully and match this with “Public Credit Registry”.Step 5: Select Public Credit Registry as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: RBI policy documents and committee reports, such as the report of the task force on Public Credit Registry, consistently use the term Public Credit Registry (PCR). Banking awareness notes summarise PCR as a single, extensive database to capture all material events for borrowers and to support better credit culture and supervision. There is no reference to an institution called Public Credit Registration, Review or Reminder, which confirms that Public Credit Registry is the accurate choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Public Credit Registration: This phrase sounds similar but is not the official RBI term. Registration suggests a one-time process rather than an ongoing repository. Public Credit Review: Review refers to periodic assessments, not to a permanent registry of information. Public Credit Reminder: This option is clearly incorrect, as reminders have nothing to do with systemic resolution of balance sheet stress. Common Pitfalls: Because the options differ by only one word, candidates may be tricked by similar sounding names. The key is to recall the exact RBI terminology: Public Credit Registry, often abbreviated as PCR. Another pitfall is confusing PCR with existing credit information companies, such as CIBIL. PCR is meant to complement and enhance those systems by providing a universal, regulator-backed repository of credit data. Final Answer: To tackle the twin balance sheet problem, the RBI proposed setting up a Public Credit Registry in India.

Question 7

As per the 2011 Census of India, what is the child sex ratio, that is the number of girls per 1,000 boys in the 0–6 years age group?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The child sex ratio is an important demographic indicator that shows the number of girls relative to boys in the youngest age group, usually 0 to 6 years. It reflects social attitudes toward girl children and can signal issues like gender discrimination and sex-selective practices. The 2011 Census of India reported a worrying decline in this ratio, making it a key topic in social and economic awareness. Given Data / Assumptions: The child sex ratio is defined for the 0–6 year age group. It is measured as the number of girls per 1,000 boys. The question specifically refers to the 2011 Census, not earlier counts like 2001. Options give different possible values around 920. Concept / Approach: India's overall sex ratio and child sex ratio have been a matter of concern for policymakers. Comparing 2001 and 2011 Census data, the child sex ratio continued to decline in many regions. The widely quoted figure for the 2011 child sex ratio is 919 girls per 1,000 boys, which features in government campaigns such as Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao. To answer, we simply recall this specific statistic. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that child sex ratio for Census 2001 was 927 girls per 1,000 boys.Step 2: Note that the ratio declined further by the time of Census 2011.Step 3: Remember that the 2011 child sex ratio was 919 girls per 1,000 boys.Step 4: Compare this value with the given options: 919, 921, 927 and 925 females.Step 5: Select 919 females as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Official Census 2011 documents and numerous government presentations state that the child sex ratio declined from 927 in 2001 to 919 in 2011. Many exam-oriented summaries repeat this contrast to highlight the worsening situation. Seeing both numbers together helps confirm that 919 is the correct figure for 2011, while 927 belongs to the earlier 2001 Census. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 921 females: This number does not match any headline child sex ratio from Census 2001 or 2011 and appears only as a distractor. 927 females: This was the child sex ratio recorded in the 2001 Census, not in 2011. 925 females: This is another distractor, slightly below 927 and above 919, used to confuse those who only roughly remember the number. Common Pitfalls: Candidates often mix up the figures for overall sex ratio and child sex ratio or confuse the numbers for different Census years. A simple memory trick is to pair them: overall sex ratio in 2011 (940 females per 1,000 males) and child sex ratio in 2011 (919 girls per 1,000 boys). Associating the decline in the child sex ratio from 927 in 2001 to 919 in 2011 helps cement both numbers in memory. Final Answer: According to Census 2011, the child sex ratio in India is 919 females per 1,000 males in the 0–6 years age group.

Question 8

In international finance, the blockchain-operated new debt instrument known as BOND-I (Blockchain Operated New Debt Instrument) was launched by which global institution?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: With the rise of distributed ledger technologies, multilateral institutions have experimented with blockchain for issuing and managing financial securities. One such innovation is BOND-I, which stands for Blockchain Operated New Debt Instrument. Understanding which international institution launched this bond is part of modern banking and financial awareness for competitive exams. Given Data / Assumptions: The instrument is explicitly called BOND-I, expanded as Blockchain Operated New Debt Instrument. It is a bond issued using blockchain technology. The options include various major financial institutions: IMF, RBI, ADB and the World Bank. We assume the context refers to the first global blockchain bond issued by a multilateral lender. Concept / Approach: The World Bank has been a pioneer in issuing innovative debt instruments, including green bonds and more recently blockchain-based bonds. BOND-I was launched as a demonstration of how blockchain could be used to manage the entire life cycle of a bond, from creation to allocation and management. The bond was arranged in partnership with the Commonwealth Bank of Australia, but the issuer was the World Bank. None of the other listed institutions are associated with a product formally named BOND-I. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that BOND-I is a blockchain-based bond.Step 2: Recall that the World Bank issued the first global blockchain bond as part of its efforts to explore financial technology.Step 3: Remember the full form, Blockchain Operated New Debt Instrument, often cited in connection with the World Bank.Step 4: Compare this with the options: IMF, RBI, ADB and World Bank.Step 5: Select the World Bank as the correct issuer of BOND-I. Verification / Alternative check: Press releases and financial news reports describe BOND-I as a World Bank initiative executed on a private blockchain network. They emphasise that this was the first time a global institution issued a bond whose creation, allocation, transfer and management were entirely run on a blockchain platform. No similar references are found for IMF, RBI or ADB under the name BOND-I, confirming that the World Bank is the right choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: International Monetary Fund (IMF): The IMF focuses on macroeconomic stability and lending to member countries, but it does not issue public bonds named BOND-I. Reserve Bank of India (RBI): RBI is a central bank that may experiment with technology but is not the multilateral issuer associated with BOND-I. Asian Development Bank (ADB): ADB issues bonds but is not the institution that branded a blockchain bond as BOND-I. Common Pitfalls: Candidates may quickly associate any innovative multilateral bond with ADB or confuse blockchain projects with central bank digital currency experiments by institutions such as RBI. The key is to focus on the specific acronym BOND-I and its full form. Remembering that the World Bank has a long history of firsts in bond markets, including the first global bond and first green bond, helps link BOND-I correctly to the World Bank as well. Final Answer: BOND-I, the Blockchain Operated New Debt Instrument, was launched by the World Bank.

Question 9

Legendary writer Stan Lee, who passed away recently, was best known as a creator and writer associated with which broad type of comics?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Stan Lee was one of the most influential figures in modern popular culture. As a writer, editor and publisher, he played a central role in shaping an entire genre of comic books and the characters that dominate today's film and television landscape. When he passed away, news reports and tributes emphasised his contributions to a particular category of comics, which is what this question tests. Given Data / Assumptions: Stan Lee worked for decades at a major American comic book publisher. He co-created iconic characters such as Spider-Man, Iron Man, the X-Men, the Fantastic Four and the Hulk. The options list broad categories: science fiction comics, action and adventure comics, manga comics and superhero comics. The question asks for the main type of comics he is associated with, not every theme present in his stories. Concept / Approach: Although Stan Lee's stories often contained science fiction elements and action or adventure, his hallmark contribution was the development of a shared universe of costumed superheroes with human flaws and complex personalities. These characters formed the basis of the Marvel Universe. Therefore, he is most accurately described as a creator and writer of superhero comics rather than of general science fiction or manga. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall Stan Lee's most famous creations: Spider-Man, the Avengers, the X-Men, the Fantastic Four and Black Panther.Step 2: Note that all of these characters are costumed heroes with special powers or abilities, fitting the definition of superheroes.Step 3: Recognise that Marvel Comics, where Stan Lee spent most of his career, is best known as a superhero comic publisher.Step 4: Compare with the options and see that “Superhero comics” best captures this body of work.Step 5: Select “Superhero comics” as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Obituaries, biographies and news articles about Stan Lee almost always refer to him as the co-creator of many Marvel superheroes and as a pioneer of superhero storytelling. They emphasise how he revolutionised the genre by giving heroes everyday problems, emotional depth and shared continuity. While his stories sometimes explored science fiction themes, the dominant label used in media and scholarship is “superhero comics”. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Science fiction comics: Many superhero stories use science fiction ideas, but Stan Lee is not primarily remembered as a science fiction writer separate from the superhero genre. Action and adventure comics: This category is very broad and could include westerns, war stories or crime comics. It does not capture the specific nature of his contributions. Manga comics: Manga refers to Japanese comics and graphic novels, whereas Stan Lee was an American writer associated with Marvel Comics in the United States. Common Pitfalls: Students may overthink the question and try to link Stan Lee to science fiction because many stories involve technology, space and mutants. However, exams usually focus on the core category widely associated with him, which is the superhero genre. Remembering that Marvel is often contrasted with another superhero publisher, DC Comics, helps lock in that Stan Lee's legacy is firmly in superhero comics. Final Answer: Stan Lee is best known as a creator and writer of superhero comics.

Question 10

According to Reserve Bank of India licensing guidelines, what is the minimum paid-up equity capital required to set up a small finance bank in India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Small finance banks are a category of niche banks introduced by the Reserve Bank of India to further financial inclusion by providing basic banking services to small business units, small and marginal farmers, micro and small industries and unorganised sector entities. For licensing such banks, RBI has laid down specific conditions, including a minimum paid-up equity capital requirement. Given Data / Assumptions: The question is about small finance banks, not payments banks or universal commercial banks. We are asked for the minimum paid-up equity capital needed at the time of setting up such a bank. The options include Rs 10 crore, Rs 500 crore, Rs 100 crore and Rs 200 crore. We assume the standard guideline figure used for static banking awareness. Concept / Approach: The licensing guidelines for small finance banks specify that the minimum paid-up equity capital shall be Rs 100 crore. This ensures that the bank has a reasonable financial base without creating too high a barrier for smaller entities such as micro finance institutions that may wish to convert into small finance banks. Larger figures like Rs 500 crore are associated more with universal banks, while much smaller figures would be considered inadequate for a regulated bank. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall RBI's guidelines for small finance banks, which include promoter eligibility, business focus and capital requirements.Step 2: Focus on the clause concerning minimum paid-up equity capital.Step 3: Remember that the guidelines prescribe a minimum capital of Rs 100 crore.Step 4: Compare this figure with the options provided.Step 5: Select Rs 100 crore as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: RBI's official notifications and exam preparatory materials on small finance banks unequivocally state that the minimum paid-up equity capital requirement is Rs 100 crore. Multiple banking awareness books repeat this figure as a key fact to remember. There is no conflicting official figure for small finance banks, which confirms that Rs 100 crore is correct. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Rs 10 crore: This is far too low for a scheduled commercial bank and does not match any RBI guideline for small finance banks. Rs 500 crore: Such a high threshold would resemble that for larger universal banks and would not align with the inclusion objective of small finance banks. Rs 200 crore: This amount is not the standard number used in RBI's small finance bank licensing guidelines. Common Pitfalls: A frequent confusion is between requirements for different bank types: payments banks, small finance banks and regular commercial banks. Another issue is mixing up net worth requirements with paid-up capital figures. To avoid errors, remember the trio: small finance banks need at least Rs 100 crore paid-up equity capital, payments banks originally required Rs 100 crore as well, but their operational rules about deposits and activities differ significantly. Final Answer: The minimum paid-up equity capital required to start a small finance bank in India is Rs 100 crore.

Question 11

Which of the following countries was chosen to host the 11th BRICS Summit that was scheduled for 2019?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: BRICS is a grouping of five major emerging economies: Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa. The BRICS Summit is held annually, with the host country rotating among member nations. General awareness questions often ask which member hosted a particular summit, such as the 11th BRICS Summit held in 2019. Given Data / Assumptions: BRICS members are Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa. The question is specifically about the 11th BRICS Summit in 2019. The options list four countries, all of which are BRICS members. We assume standard knowledge that summits rotate and that the 2019 summit was planned and held in one of these countries. Concept / Approach: The order of BRICS Summit hosts typically follows the sequence of member countries. In 2018, South Africa hosted the 10th BRICS Summit in Johannesburg. Following the rotation, Brazil was next in line to host the 11th Summit in 2019. The event took place in Brazil, reinforcing that Brazil was the designated host country for that year. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the 10th BRICS Summit in 2018 was held in Johannesburg, South Africa.Step 2: Understand that the chairmanship and hosting duties rotate among BRICS members.Step 3: The next summit, the 11th in 2019, therefore moved to Brazil.Step 4: Compare this understanding with the options: India, China, South Africa and Brazil.Step 5: Select Brazil as the correct host for the 2019 summit. Verification / Alternative check: International news archives and official BRICS communications confirm that the 11th BRICS Summit was held in Brazil in 2019, with discussions covering trade, investment and cooperation among member states. South Africa had already hosted the previous summit in 2018, while India and China had been hosts earlier in the cycle, which validates that Brazil was the correct host for 2019. Why Other Options Are Wrong: India: India hosted earlier summits, such as the 2016 meeting in Goa, but it was not the host for the 11th Summit in 2019. China: China hosted the 2017 BRICS Summit in Xiamen, so the rotation had already moved on. South Africa: South Africa hosted the 10th Summit in 2018, not the 11th in 2019. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes remember that a country has hosted a BRICS Summit but forget the exact year or sequence. Another common confusion is between annual summits and other BRICS-related ministerial meetings that may take place in different countries. To avoid such errors, it helps to link each summit number with both the host country and the year, for example: 2018 – South Africa (10th), 2019 – Brazil (11th). Final Answer: The 11th BRICS Summit in 2019 was hosted by Brazil.

Question 12

Who headed the Government of India's alternative mechanism committee set up to examine and approve proposals for the merger of public sector banks?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: To strengthen the banking sector, the Government of India explored consolidation of public sector banks through mergers. For this purpose, an alternative mechanism or committee of ministers was formed to consider and approve proposals for such mergers. Competitive exams often ask who headed this committee, since it is important in the context of banking reforms. Given Data / Assumptions: The committee was formed to examine merger proposals of public sector banks. It is referred to as an alternative mechanism set up by the Union Government. The options list well known economic and financial leaders: Raghuram Rajan, Bimal Jalan, Arun Jaitley and Y. V. Reddy. We assume the question refers to the period when major PSB merger decisions were announced. Concept / Approach: Bank merger decisions are ultimately political and policy choices, so the head of such a committee is expected to be the finance minister of the time rather than a central banker or former governor. During the key phase of public sector bank consolidation, Arun Jaitley was the Union Finance Minister and headed the alternative mechanism committee. This was widely reported in economic and banking news. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that the committee relates to government-driven mergers of public sector banks.Step 2: Recall that such high level committees are usually chaired by the sitting finance minister.Step 3: During the period in question, Arun Jaitley served as the Finance Minister of India.Step 4: Check the options and locate Arun Jaitley among them.Step 5: Choose Arun Jaitley as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: General awareness summaries and exam memory-based questions clearly state that the committee to oversee merger of public sector banks was headed by Finance Minister Arun Jaitley. Other figures listed in the options, such as former RBI Governors Raghuram Rajan, Bimal Jalan and Y. V. Reddy, are associated with monetary policy and central banking, not with this particular government merger panel. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Raghuram Rajan: A former RBI Governor known for monetary policy stance and financial sector insights, but he did not chair the ministerial merger committee. Bimal Jalan: Another former RBI Governor who chaired committees on central bank reserves and related matters, not this PSB merger mechanism. Y. V. Reddy: Also a former RBI Governor with important contributions, yet he was not the head of the government's PSB merger committee. Common Pitfalls: Candidates may see familiar names of central bank governors and incorrectly associate them with any banking reform committee. The key is to distinguish between technical committees (often headed by former governors) and ministerial committees or alternative mechanisms (usually headed by serving cabinet ministers, especially the finance minister). Remembering that the finance minister at that time, Arun Jaitley, led the PSB merger committee helps avoid confusion. Final Answer: The committee for examining and approving public sector bank mergers was headed by Arun Jaitley.

Question 13

At the time this question was framed, what was the reverse repo rate of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The reverse repo rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) borrows funds from commercial banks in India. It is an important monetary policy tool used alongside the repo rate to manage liquidity in the banking system. General awareness questions often test the prevailing reverse repo rate at the time the question set was created. Given Data / Assumptions: The question is time specific and refers to the reverse repo rate when this set of questions was prepared. Options provided are 5.75 percent, 6.25 percent, 6 percent and 5.40 percent. We rely on exam-period data where the repo rate was 6.5 percent and the reverse repo rate was 6.25 percent, or similar configurations. We treat this as a static general awareness fact from that period, not the current live rate. Concept / Approach: In corridor based monetary policy, the reverse repo rate is usually set below the repo rate. During the relevant exam period, the RBI had fixed the repo rate at a level where the reverse repo rate stood at 6.25 percent. Many competitive exams from that time asked both the repo rate and the reverse repo rate as direct recall questions in banking awareness sections. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that reverse repo rate is generally repo rate minus a small spread, typically 0.25 percent or similar in that policy regime.Step 2: From exam memory-based data, remember that the reverse repo rate around that time was 6.25 percent.Step 3: Compare this recollection with the options: 5.75 percent, 6.25 percent, 6 percent and 5.40 percent.Step 4: Match 6.25 percent as the correct figure.Step 5: Select 6.25 percent as the answer. Verification / Alternative check: Banking awareness compilations that summarise key monetary policy rates for that exam cycle list the reverse repo rate as 6.25 percent, along with the repo rate and marginal standing facility rate. Memory-based questions from banking exams confirm that 6.25 percent was being asked as the reverse repo rate, indicating that this was the intended value at the time. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 5.75%: This figure has been associated with repo rate or policy changes in other periods, not with the reverse repo rate in the particular exam timeframe. 6%: This may be a tempting guess because it lies between other options, but it does not match the official reverse repo rate used then. 5.40%: This rate belongs to a different monetary policy phase when rates were lowered, and it is clearly not aligned with the referenced exam period. Common Pitfalls: Many candidates confuse the repo rate with the reverse repo rate, or try to remember both without linking them to a specific date. Since policy rates change over time, it is essential to learn them in context, typically the latest Monetary Policy Committee decision before the exam for which the question set was prepared. Here, the important takeaway is that the reverse repo rate asked in this question was 6.25 percent, distinct from the repo rate. Final Answer: At the time this question was framed, the reverse repo rate of the RBI was 6.25%.

Question 14

According to the Reserve Bank of India's report on demonetisation, what percentage of the demonetised Rs 500 and Rs 1,000 banknotes returned to the banking system?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: On 8 November 2016, the Government of India demonetised the existing Rs 500 and Rs 1,000 banknotes. One of the most discussed aspects of this exercise was how much of the demonetised currency eventually returned to the banking system. The Reserve Bank of India, in its annual report, disclosed the percentage of notes that were deposited back. Given Data / Assumptions: The question is about demonetised Rs 500 and Rs 1,000 notes. We are asked for the percentage of such notes that returned to the banks. The options are 79.30 percent, 93.30 percent, 88.30 percent and 99.30 percent. We assume the figure is taken from RBI's official annual report on demonetisation. Concept / Approach: When demonetisation was announced, expectations varied regarding how much of the old currency would be returned. Some anticipated that a significant portion would stay outside the system and become cancelled value, thereby generating a windfall for the central bank. However, RBI's data showed that almost all demonetised notes came back. The widely quoted figure was 99.30 percent of the value of Rs 500 and Rs 1,000 banknotes returned to the banking system. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that RBI's report indicated that a very high proportion of demonetised currency returned to banks.Step 2: The precise proportion was reported as 99.30 percent of the total value of demonetised notes.Step 3: Compare this figure with the answer choices 79.30 percent, 93.30 percent, 88.30 percent and 99.30 percent.Step 4: Identify 99.30 percent as the correct value.Step 5: Select 99.30 percent as the final answer. Verification / Alternative check: RBI's annual report on the outcome of demonetisation explicitly states that 99.30 percent of the demonetised Rs 500 and Rs 1,000 notes, by value, were returned. This result was widely reported in national and international media, highlighting that only a very small fraction did not come back to the formal banking system. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 79.30%: This would imply that over 20 percent of the notes did not return, which contradicts official data. 93.30%: While high, it still understates the actual return rate as per RBI reports. 88.30%: This is another distractor value far below the figure of 99.30 percent. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates generalise from early speculative estimates rather than relying on the final numbers published by the RBI. Others may mix up the exact decimal value, remembering only that “almost all” notes returned. To avoid confusion, it is helpful to remember the exact figure as 99.30 percent, which underlines how small the amount of unreturned currency actually was. Final Answer: According to RBI data, 99.30% of the demonetised Rs 500 and Rs 1,000 banknotes returned to the banking system.

Question 15

The Khelo India Youth Games 2019 (earlier known as the Khelo India School Games) were held in which Indian city?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Khelo India is a flagship programme of the Government of India to revive the sports culture at the grassroot level and promote young sporting talent. The Khelo India School Games were rebranded as the Khelo India Youth Games as the scope widened. Questions in competitive exams often ask about the host city for specific editions, such as the 2019 Khelo India Youth Games. Given Data / Assumptions: The event in question is Khelo India Youth Games 2019. It is a national level multi-disciplinary sports event for under-17 and under-21 age groups. The options list New Delhi, Lucknow, Pune and Jaipur. We assume the question refers to the main venue for the 2019 edition. Concept / Approach: The first Khelo India School Games were held in New Delhi. From 2019, the event was rebranded as the Khelo India Youth Games, and the 2019 edition was hosted in Pune, Maharashtra. This change of venue and name was widely covered in sports news and government announcements. Remembering this shift helps in correctly identifying the host city. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the initial Khelo India School Games took place in New Delhi.Step 2: Note that from 2019, the games were called Khelo India Youth Games.Step 3: Remember that the 2019 edition was hosted in Pune, Maharashtra.Step 4: Compare this with the options New Delhi, Lucknow, Pune and Jaipur.Step 5: Select Pune as the correct host city. Verification / Alternative check: Official information from the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports and media reports confirm that the Khelo India Youth Games 2019 were held in Pune. Coverage highlighted the facilities in Pune and the participation of athletes from across India. Exam memory-based questions in banking and insurance recruitment tests also identify Pune as the correct host for the 2019 edition. Why Other Options Are Wrong: New Delhi: This city hosted the first Khelo India School Games, not the 2019 Khelo India Youth Games. Lucknow: While an important sports centre, it did not host the 2019 Khelo India Youth Games. Jaipur: Similarly, Jaipur is not associated with the 2019 edition of Khelo India Youth Games. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to assume that all editions of an event are held in the capital city, especially when one remembers only the inaugural edition in New Delhi. Another pitfall is confusing later or earlier host cities of different tournaments with Khelo India venues. It helps to pair the event and year clearly: 2018 – New Delhi (School Games), 2019 – Pune (Youth Games). Final Answer: The Khelo India Youth Games 2019 were held in Pune, Maharashtra.

Question 16

Who serves as the non-executive chairman of HDFC Bank, one of India's leading private sector banks?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: HDFC Bank is one of India's largest private sector banks and a key player in the banking and financial services sector. In general awareness and banking exams, questions often distinguish between the chairman of the board and the managing director or chief executive officer. This question specifically asks about the non-executive chairman of HDFC Bank. Given Data / Assumptions: The institution in question is HDFC Bank, not HDFC Limited or another financial entity. The role is chairman, which is a board level position, typically non-executive. The options include Aditya Puri, Deepak Parekh, Shikha Sharma and Amitabh Chaudhary. We assume the time period when Aditya Puri was MD and CEO of HDFC Bank and Deepak Parekh served as chairman of HDFC group entities, including association with the bank. Concept / Approach: Aditya Puri became widely known as the long-serving managing director and chief executive officer of HDFC Bank. Deepak Parekh, on the other hand, is a prominent banker and the long-time chairman of Housing Development Finance Corporation (HDFC) and associated with the overall HDFC group as chairman. In exam material covering this period, Deepak Parekh is identified as chairman, while Aditya Puri is clearly described as MD and CEO of HDFC Bank. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that the question is about the non-executive chairman, not the managing director.Step 2: Recall that Aditya Puri is known mainly for his role as MD and CEO of HDFC Bank.Step 3: Identify Deepak Parekh as the senior banker who is chairman within the HDFC group.Step 4: Check the options and match this information to Deepak Parekh.Step 5: Choose Deepak Parekh as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Banking awareness materials and general knowledge compilations for the relevant exam period list Aditya Puri separately as MD and CEO of HDFC Bank and Deepak Parekh as chairman. This distinction appears consistently, reducing ambiguity about who holds which role. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Aditya Puri: He served as managing director and chief executive officer, not as the non-executive chairman. Shikha Sharma: She was associated with Axis Bank as MD and CEO, not with HDFC Bank's chairmanship. Amitabh Chaudhary: He became MD and CEO of Axis Bank, and is not the chairman of HDFC Bank. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes confuse designations across banks, especially between chairman and managing director roles. Another common error is mixing up leadership positions across different private sector banks. A good strategy is to memorise pairs like “Deepak Parekh – HDFC group chairman” and “Aditya Puri – HDFC Bank MD and CEO” for the period in question. Final Answer: The non-executive chairman associated with HDFC Bank is Deepak Parekh.

Question 17

The Indian Banks' Association (IBA) is the representative body of banking managements in India. Who is the chairman of IBA at the time referred to in this question?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Indian Banks' Association (IBA) is an industry body that represents banking institutions in India and works on policy advocacy, coordination and development of best practices. Exam questions frequently ask who holds key positions in such bodies, including the chairman of IBA during a particular period. Given Data / Assumptions: The organisation is the Indian Banks' Association. The role in question is chairman of IBA. The options list Jatinder Bir Singh, Dinabandhu Mohapatra, Sunil Mehta and Rajnish Kumar. We assume the timeframe when Sunil Mehta, then managing director and chief executive officer of Punjab National Bank, was chairman of IBA. Concept / Approach: The chairman of IBA is typically chosen from among senior executives of member banks. During the exam period relevant to this question, Sunil Mehta, who was MD and CEO of Punjab National Bank, was appointed as the chairman of IBA. This was widely covered in banking news and general awareness notes. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that the question refers to the chairman of Indian Banks' Association.Step 2: Recall that, for the period in question, Sunil Mehta of Punjab National Bank held this position.Step 3: Check the options and confirm that his name is present.Step 4: Distinguish other names: Jatinder Bir Singh (associated with EXIM Bank), Dinabandhu Mohapatra (associated with Bank of India) and Rajnish Kumar (chairman of State Bank of India at that time).Step 5: Select Sunil Mehta as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: General awareness question compilations from competitive exams explicitly state that Sunil Mehta is the chairman of IBA. They typically list his designation as MD and CEO of Punjab National Bank and associate him with leading the industry body. This corroborates that Sunil Mehta is the intended answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Jatinder Bir Singh: He has served in other senior financial roles but is not known as IBA chairman for the period in question. Dinabandhu Mohapatra: While an important banker, he did not serve as chairman of IBA during that exam cycle. Rajnish Kumar: He served as chairman of State Bank of India at that time, a separate and distinct position from IBA chairman. Common Pitfalls: Because several of the names listed are senior bankers, candidates may confuse who headed IBA with who headed SBI or other institutions. A useful memory aid is to connect Sunil Mehta both with Punjab National Bank and with the industry association, while linking Rajnish Kumar specifically with SBI. Keeping a short list of “who is who” in banking before exams can prevent such mix-ups. Final Answer: At the time referenced in this question, the chairman of the Indian Banks' Association was Sunil Mehta.

Question 18

Angelique Kerber is a professional tennis player and former world No. 1 from which country?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Angelique Kerber is a prominent name in women's professional tennis. She has reached the world number one ranking and has won multiple Grand Slam singles titles. Sports general knowledge questions often ask about the nationality of famous players, and this question focuses on which country Angelique Kerber represents. Given Data / Assumptions: Angelique Kerber is a top level professional tennis player. She has been ranked world number one on the Women's Tennis Association tour. The options list four nationalities: German, American, French and Swiss. We are asked to identify her country of representation in international tennis. Concept / Approach: Kerber has long been associated with German tennis. She has represented Germany in Fed Cup competitions and at the Olympic Games. Media coverage of her Grand Slam victories, such as titles at the Australian Open, US Open and Wimbledon, routinely describes her as a German player. There is no major ambiguity regarding her sporting nationality. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall Angelique Kerber's appearances in Grand Slam finals and her national flag during trophy ceremonies.Step 2: Note that she competes under the German flag and is reported as a German tennis player.Step 3: Compare this with the options: German, American, French and Swiss.Step 4: Identify “German” as the only option that matches her known nationality.Step 5: Select German as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Player profiles on official tennis websites and major sports news outlets introduce Angelique Kerber as a German tennis player. Her participation for Germany in team events such as the Fed Cup and her representation of Germany in the Olympic Games further confirm this. There is no record of her playing for the United States, France or Switzerland. Why Other Options Are Wrong: American: She has played many tournaments in the United States but does not represent America in international tennis. French: She has competed in the French Open but is not a French player. Swiss: This option may remind students of famous Swiss players such as Roger Federer or Stan Wawrinka, but it does not apply to Angelique Kerber. Common Pitfalls: Sometimes candidates confuse Kerber with other players of different nationalities or assume that players who train abroad represent that country. Another possible confusion is between Kerber and other top women's players like Serena Williams (American) or Martina Hingis (Swiss). A clear memory hook is to link Angelique Kerber with German tennis history and to remember that she is often mentioned alongside other German players such as Steffi Graf as part of Germany's strong tennis tradition. Final Answer: Angelique Kerber is a professional tennis player from Germany, so the correct option is “German”.

Question 19

In this letter analogy, find the pair of letters that correctly completes the relation ? : GA :: QR : JI.

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question tests your understanding of letter analogy and positional relationships in the English alphabet. Instead of simple alphabetical order, you must recognize a hidden numerical pattern that links each pair of letters. Such questions are common in reasoning and aptitude tests, where the goal is to check your ability to observe patterns and apply them consistently to find the missing term in an analogy. Given Data / Assumptions: The analogy is ? : GA :: QR : JI. We use the English alphabet positions A = 1, B = 2, …, Z = 26. GA and JI are the second elements in each pair, while ? and QR are the first elements. The same pattern that connects QR to JI must connect ? to GA. Concept / Approach: The key idea is to convert letters into their numerical positions and look for a consistent relationship. One useful technique is to check whether the sum or difference of letter positions is constant across corresponding letters. In this analogy, the first letters of each pair are related to the second letters through a constant sum. Once you find this relationship in the known pair (QR : JI), you can apply it in reverse to find the missing pair corresponding to GA. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Write positions of letters in QR and JI. Q = 17, R = 18, J = 10, I = 9.Step 2: Check sums for corresponding letters: Q + J = 17 + 10 = 27, R + I = 18 + 9 = 27.Step 3: This shows that in the pair QR : JI, the positions of corresponding letters add up to 27.Step 4: Now apply the same rule to the pair ? : GA. Positions: G = 7, A = 1.Step 5: Let the unknown pair be XY. Then X + G must equal 27, and Y + A must equal 27.Step 6: So X = 27 - 7 = 20 and Y = 27 - 1 = 26.Step 7: The 20th letter is T and the 26th letter is Z, so the missing pair is TZ. Verification / Alternative check: We can quickly verify the pattern. If we take the found pair TZ and the given GA, we must maintain the same constant sum of 27. T is the 20th letter and Z is the 26th. Now 20 + 7 = 27 and 26 + 1 = 27, which confirms that the same rule holds. This confirms that TZ : GA follows the same positional relationship as QR : JI, so the analogy is consistent. Why Other Options Are Wrong: KN: K is 11 and N is 14, so 11 + 7 = 18 and 14 + 1 = 15, which does not give a constant sum of 27. RS: R is 18 and S is 19, giving 18 + 7 = 25 and 19 + 1 = 20, again not 27. NQ: N is 14 and Q is 17, giving 14 + 7 = 21 and 17 + 1 = 18, which fails the pattern. Only TZ maintains the constant sum of 27 for both letter pairs. Common Pitfalls: Candidates may focus only on forward or backward shifts in the alphabet and miss the constant sum pattern. Another common mistake is to compare non corresponding letters, such as Q with I or R with J, instead of aligning first letters with first letters and second letters with second letters. Some test takers also guess based on partial similarity instead of fully verifying the pattern numerically. Final Answer: The pair of letters that completes the analogy is TZ.

Question 20

Which of the following films has not received the National Film Award for Best Feature Film in India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question checks your knowledge of the National Film Awards in India, specifically the prestigious National Film Award for Best Feature Film. Recognizing which films have received this honour requires familiarity with important milestones in Indian cinema. The options provided are all critically acclaimed films, but only some of them have actually won the award for Best Feature Film. You must identify the one that has not received this particular award, even though it may have won other awards. Given Data / Assumptions: The National Film Awards are India's official film awards administered by the Government of India. The category in focus is the National Film Award for Best Feature Film. Films listed: Court, Taare Zameen Par, Baahubali: The Beginning, Ship of Theseus. We assume the standard historical record of winners as notified by the Directorate of Film Festivals. Concept / Approach: The idea is to recall or verify which films among the options have actually been awarded Best Feature Film. Sometimes, a film becomes widely popular or wins several other awards, which can create confusion. Therefore, you must distinguish between overall popularity and the specific award category mentioned in the question. Knowing the year and award category is crucial for eliminating the wrong options and finding the correct one. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Marathi film Court won the National Film Award for Best Feature Film at the 62nd National Film Awards.Step 2: Ship of Theseus, an acclaimed independent film, received the National Film Award for Best Feature Film at the 61st National Film Awards.Step 3: Baahubali: The Beginning, the epic Telugu film, also received the National Film Award for Best Feature Film at the 63rd National Film Awards.Step 4: Taare Zameen Par won several National Film Awards, but in categories such as Best Film on Family Welfare, not the main Best Feature Film award.Step 5: Since Court, Ship of Theseus, and Baahubali: The Beginning all won Best Feature Film, the only film in the list that did not receive this specific award is Taare Zameen Par. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative check is to quickly associate each film with its award category. Court is often mentioned in exam books as a Best Feature Film winner. Baahubali: The Beginning is well known for being the first Telugu film to win Best Feature Film. Ship of Theseus is frequently cited as a path breaking independent film that also won the top award. On the other hand, Taare Zameen Par is primarily associated with a National Award for its social and family welfare theme, rather than Best Feature Film. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Court did receive the National Film Award for Best Feature Film, so it cannot be the correct answer. Baahubali: The Beginning also won Best Feature Film, making option C incorrect. Ship of Theseus won Best Feature Film as well, so option D is not correct. These three options are therefore eliminated. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to assume that Taare Zameen Par, because of its popularity and critical acclaim, must have received the main Best Feature Film award. Students often recall that it won National Awards and then incorrectly generalize that to the wrong category. Another pitfall is not differentiating between special categories like Best Film on Family Welfare and the primary Best Feature Film category. Carefully reading the award category in the question helps avoid this confusion. Final Answer: The film that has not won the National Film Award for Best Feature Film is Taare Zameen Par.

Basic General Knowledge Questions