Question 1

Which of the following animals does not belong to the same group as the others when they are classified by their usual food habits as herbivores or carnivores?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question tests basic biology and logical grouping skills. Many reasoning and general science questions ask which item does not fit with the others in a list. Here the grouping is based on food habits, a very common way to classify animals as herbivores, carnivores, or omnivores, which you learn in school science. Given Data / Assumptions: - The animals listed are fox, goat, horse, zebra, and deer. - We are asked to find the one that does not belong to the same group as the others. - The most natural grouping used in such questions is by eating habits, for example plant eaters versus meat eaters. - We assume usual, natural diet in the wild and not rare or forced feeding situations. Concept / Approach: Herbivores mainly eat plants, grass, leaves, and other vegetation. Carnivores primarily eat meat and hunt other animals. Omnivores eat both plants and animals. Goat, horse, zebra, and deer are classic examples of grazing or browsing herbivores. A fox is a small carnivorous mammal that hunts rodents, birds, and other small animals, and may also scavenge. Thus one clear odd item appears when we classify them by diet. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Examine goat. A goat feeds mainly on grass, leaves, and shrubs, so it is a herbivore. Step 2: Examine horse. A horse eats grass, hay, and grains, so it is also a herbivore. Step 3: Examine zebra. A zebra is a grazing animal that eats grasses in the savanna and is a herbivore. Step 4: Examine deer. Deer live in forests and meadows and feed on leaves, grass, and shoots, so they are herbivores. Step 5: Examine fox. A fox hunts rabbits, rodents, birds, insects, and may sometimes eat fruits, so its primary behaviour is that of a carnivore or omnivore with strong carnivorous habits. This makes fox different from the other four. Verification / Alternative Check: Another way is to remember habitat and feet structure. Goat, horse, zebra, and deer all have hooves adapted for running and grazing. Fox has paws with claws suited to hunting, and a body shape typical of a predator. Both diet and body form confirm that fox is in a different category than the four hoofed herbivores. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Goat is a domestic herbivore used for milk and meat but naturally eats plants. Horse is a herbivorous animal used for riding and work, with a plant based diet. Zebra is a wild herbivore found in Africa, feeding on grasses. Deer is another herbivore that feeds on leaves and grass in forests and fields. All four share similar vegetarian diets and similar limb structure, so they form one group. Common Pitfalls: Some students try to group the animals by domestic versus wild or by where they live. While that can work in some questions, here both domestic and wild animals appear on both sides, so that method becomes confusing. Focusing on the usual food habit is the simplest and most reliable approach. Whenever you see mixed animals in an odd one out question, first check herbivore versus carnivore classification. Final Answer: The correct answer is Fox, because it is the only animal in the list that is primarily carnivorous, while the others are herbivores.

Question 2

Which Chief Minister of an Indian state received the Transfonnative Chief Minister Award from the US India Business Council (USIBC) in May 2017 for leadership in economic reforms and investment promotion?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question checks your knowledge of awards given by international business bodies to Indian political leaders. The Transfonnative Chief Minister Award by the US India Business Council (USIBC) recognises reforms that improve the investment climate and promote economic growth. Questions like this link Indian politics, governance, and international business engagement. Given Data / Assumptions: - The award mentioned is the Transfonnative Chief Minister Award. - It was given by USIBC in May 2017. - The options list well known Chief Ministers of different Indian states. - We assume the award honoured reforms related to ease of doing business, investment, and infrastructure. Concept / Approach: In 2017, Andhra Pradesh was widely praised for topping several ease of doing business rankings in India. Its government promoted investor friendly policies, improved power supply, and focused on infrastructure. N Chandrababu Naidu, then Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh, was recognised by USIBC for such reforms. Remembering which state was highlighted globally for reforms helps identify the correct leader. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall which state was a leader in ease of doing business and smart governance around 2016 and 2017. Andhra Pradesh and Telangana often topped the charts. Step 2: Link the name N Chandrababu Naidu with Andhra Pradesh and with strong promotion of investment at international forums. Step 3: Remember media coverage that USIBC conferred the Transfonnative Chief Minister Award on N Chandrababu Naidu. Step 4: Check other options: K Chandrashekhar Rao led Telangana, Nitish Kumar led Bihar, Yogi Adityanath led Uttar Pradesh, and Devendra Fadnavis led Maharashtra. They did not receive this specific USIBC award in May 2017. Step 5: Conclude that N Chandrababu Naidu is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative Check: Another check is to recall that N Chandrababu Naidu was often called a tech friendly Chief Minister, with strong connections to the United States and global technology firms. Awards from US based industry groups naturally align with his profile. News reports about the USIBC summit specifically mentioned him as the recipient of the Transfonnative Chief Minister Award for his role in transforming Andhra Pradesh into a preferred investment destination. Why Other Options Are Wrong: K Chandrashekhar Rao implemented several policies in Telangana, but this particular USIBC award in 2017 was not given to him. Nitish Kumar is known for governance changes in Bihar but is not associated with this specific Transfonnative Chief Minister Award. Yogi Adityanath became Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh in 2017 but did not receive this award from USIBC at that time. Devendra Fadnavis, Chief Minister of Maharashtra, played a key role in state reforms but was not the recipient of this exact award in May 2017. Common Pitfalls: A common error is to pick a current or more familiar Chief Minister instead of the leader actually named in the award citation. Another mistake is mixing up different awards from different bodies, such as NITI Aayog or Indian chambers of commerce. To avoid confusion, link the name of the award, the awarding body, and the state that was especially visible in investor summits for that period. Final Answer: The correct answer is N. Chandrababu Naidu, who received the Transfonnative Chief Minister Award from USIBC in May 2017.

Question 3

Which country was selected to host the 2019 Combined World Cup for shooting events, bringing rifle, pistol, and shotgun competitions together in a single integrated tournament?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question checks your awareness of major international sports events hosted by India. The Combined World Cup for shooting is an important competition organised under the world shooting federation, and hosting rights reflect a country status in that sport. Such questions commonly appear in general awareness and sports sections of competitive exams. Given Data / Assumptions: - The event mentioned is the 2019 Combined World Cup for shooting. - Combined World Cup implies that rifle, pistol, and shotgun events are held together. - The options list South Asian countries including India and its neighbours. - We assume the question refers to the official decision to award hosting rights for this competition. Concept / Approach: India has emerged as a strong nation in shooting sports, with many medals in Commonwealth Games, Asian Games, and World Cups. New Delhi has repeatedly hosted ISSF shooting World Cups. Around 2017 and 2018, news reported that India would host a Combined World Cup in 2019 that brings multiple shooting disciplines to one venue. Recognising India as a regular host for ISSF events leads to the correct answer. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall whether any of the neighbouring countries listed have a record of hosting large shooting World Cups. Pakistan, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Bangladesh are less frequently mentioned in this context. Step 2: Remember that India, especially New Delhi, has dedicated shooting ranges such as the Dr Karni Singh Shooting Range, suitable for world level events. Step 3: Connect this memory with announcements that India was given rights to host a Combined World Cup in 2019 that included rifle, pistol, and shotgun events. Step 4: Among the options, only India fits this description, making it the logical and factual choice. Verification / Alternative Check: You can also verify by process of elimination. Pakistan, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Bangladesh rarely appear in news about hosting World Cup level shooting events. By contrast, India has repeatedly appeared as host for ISSF World Cups, junior competitions, and other shooting championships. Combining this background with the year mentioned in the question confirms that India was selected to host the 2019 Combined World Cup for shooting. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Pakistan has participated in shooting but has not hosted this specific Combined World Cup in 2019. Nepal does not have a strong record of hosting world level shooting World Cup events of this scale. Sri Lanka also does not match the reported host country for the 2019 Combined World Cup in shooting. Bangladesh has organised some international competitions in cricket and other sports but not this particular Combined World Cup for shooting in 2019. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may overthink the term Combined World Cup and assume that a smaller country was selected to promote the game there. Others may confuse this event with cricket or football world cups and get misled by familiar sporting nations. The key is to connect the event to shooting sports and recognise that India has invested heavily in shooting infrastructure and has hosted several ISSF events. Final Answer: The correct answer is India, which was chosen to host the 2019 Combined World Cup for shooting disciplines.

Question 4

Under a 120 million United States dollar loan agreement to improve India railway network, with which international financial institution did the Government of India sign a deal to complete double tracking and electrification of railway lines along h…

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question assesses your understanding of international financial institutions and their support for Indian infrastructure projects. Railways are a core part of Indian transport, and improvements such as double tracking and electrification often use external funding. Exams frequently test which agency funded a specific project or signed a particular loan agreement with India. Given Data / Assumptions: - The loan amount is about 120 million United States dollars. - The purpose is double tracking and electrification of railway lines along high density corridors in India. - The question asks which international institution signed this loan agreement with the Government of India. - The options list various major global financial bodies. Concept / Approach: The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has a long history of supporting Indian infrastructure, including railway modernisation, power transmission, and urban projects. For railways, ADB has financed projects to improve efficiency, safety, and capacity. In contrast, the International Monetary Fund focuses more on macroeconomic stability, and African Development Bank works mainly with African countries. Therefore the pattern of past collaboration strongly points to ADB as the correct answer. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall which agencies commonly fund Indian railway infrastructure. ADB and the World Bank often appear in such news. Step 2: Notice that the loan amount of 120 million United States dollars and the specific mention of double tracking and electrification match reported ADB support projects. Step 3: Compare roles: IMF gives balance of payments support, while ADB provides long term development loans for physical infrastructure. Step 4: Recognise that African Development Bank mainly finances projects in Africa, and the European Bank in European regions, making them less likely choices for Indian railway corridors. Step 5: Conclude that the correct partner in this loan agreement is the Asian Development Bank. Verification / Alternative Check: A quick elimination method also works. An institution focused on macroeconomic stabilisation rather than project level financing, such as the IMF, usually does not fund specific double tracking projects. Similarly, a bank with a regional mandate for Africa cannot be the main financer for Indian railways. News on India development cooperation regularly mentions ADB as a partner for rail, metro, and energy related investments, confirming the choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: European Bank is a vague label in the options and does not match the typical name of a global development institution funding Indian rail projects. African Development Bank concentrates on African countries and does not usually finance large Indian rail upgrading projects. International Monetary Fund (IMF) supports countries through macroeconomic programmes and not dedicated double tracking and electrification lines of credit. World Bank has funded Indian rail related projects but in this specific 120 million United States dollar agreement mentioned in the question, the primary partner is ADB, not the World Bank. Common Pitfalls: Many candidates confuse the roles of multilateral institutions. It is easy to pick IMF or World Bank simply because they are well known. To avoid this, remember that ADB often focuses on infrastructure in Asia, including transport corridors, urban services, and energy. Linking each institution to its region and typical project type makes these questions much more manageable. Final Answer: The correct answer is Asian Development Bank, which signed the 120 million United States dollar loan agreement with India to support double tracking and electrification of high density railway routes.

Question 5

As of the year 2018, who was serving as the Union Minister in charge of the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) in the Government of India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question checks basic political and administrative awareness. Knowing which leader held which Union ministry at a given time is important for current affairs sections of many exams. The Ministry of Women and Child Development plays a central role in policies related to nutrition, protection, and welfare of women and children in India. Given Data / Assumptions: - The time reference is the year 2018. - The ministry is the Ministry of Women and Child Development, often abbreviated as MWCD. - The options include leaders who have held this or related portfolios in different governments, along with other well known politicians. - We assume the question refers to the central government in office around 2018. Concept / Approach: Maneka Gandhi served as the Union Minister for Women and Child Development in the cabinet formed under Prime Minister Narendra Modi from 2014 until 2019. She became the face of many campaigns related to child adoption, nutrition, and prevention of violence against women. Renuka Chowdhury and Krishna Tirath held the portfolio in earlier governments, while Smriti Irani moved to this ministry only later, and Sonia Gandhi has mainly led the Indian National Congress and not this ministry. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Focus on the phrase as of 2018. This limits the timeline to the first term of the National Democratic Alliance government under Prime Minister Narendra Modi. Step 2: Recall that in this period, Maneka Gandhi was widely mentioned as the cabinet minister handling women and child related programmes. Step 3: Compare with Renuka Chowdhury and Krishna Tirath, who were ministers for women and child development in earlier United Progressive Alliance governments. Step 4: Note that Smriti Irani initially served as Human Resource Development Minister and later held other portfolios, and only later took charge of women and child development after 2018. Step 5: Conclude that Maneka Gandhi is the correct answer for the year 2018. Verification / Alternative Check: You can also verify by associating names with major schemes. Programmes such as Beti Bachao Beti Padhao were often discussed with Maneka Gandhi as the spokesperson for the ministry. Her tenure also included debates on child protection laws and adoption regulations. News from 2018 relating to those issues consistently described her as the Union Minister for Women and Child Development, confirming the choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Renuka Chowdhury held this portfolio earlier under a different central government, not during 2018. Krishna Tirath also served as Minister of State with independent charge for women and child development in a previous government, not in 2018. Smriti Irani did not yet hold this ministry for most of 2018, so she does not match the time reference of the question. Sonia Gandhi has been a party president and a member of parliament but has not served as Union Minister for Women and Child Development. Common Pitfalls: A frequent mistake is to ignore the year and pick a name that has recently appeared in the news, even if that person did not hold the portfolio in the time frame asked. Another issue is confusion between ministers in successive governments. To avoid this, always anchor ministerial positions to election years and cabinet reshuffles in your current affairs notes. Final Answer: The correct answer is Maneka Gandhi, who was the Union Minister for the Ministry of Women and Child Development in 2018.

Question 6

In basic first aid for everyday science, which of the following solutions is commonly used to treat a bee sting in order to neutralise the acidic venom and reduce pain?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question tests very practical science knowledge connected with first aid. Bee stings are common, and knowing the basic chemistry behind treating them helps in both real life and exam situations. Understanding whether the sting is acidic or alkaline allows you to choose the right neutralising agent among household substances. Given Data / Assumptions: - The pain is caused by a bee sting, not a wasp sting. - Bee venom is mildly acidic in nature. - The options list kitchen items such as lemon juice, milk, vinegar, baking soda solution, and salt water. - The question mentions neutralising the venom and reducing pain, which hints at an acid base reaction. Concept / Approach: Bee venom contains acids such as formic acid. To reduce the effect, a mild alkali can be applied to the affected area. Baking soda, also known as sodium hydrogen carbonate, is a weak base that can neutralise the acid. In contrast, lemon juice and vinegar are acidic liquids, which would not be suitable for neutralising another acid. Milk and salt water do not specifically neutralise the toxin. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall from school chemistry that acids can be neutralised by bases and vice versa. Step 2: Remember that the sting of a bee is generally treated as acidic, so a basic or alkaline substance is needed to counter it. Step 3: Identify which option is basic. Baking soda solution is alkaline, while lemon juice and vinegar are acidic, and milk and salt water are close to neutral. Step 4: Therefore, a paste or solution of baking soda applied to the sting area helps neutralise the acid and gives relief from pain. Step 5: Conclude that baking soda solution is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative Check: Another quick check is to recall standard first aid tips. Textbooks and health guides often say bee stings can be soothed with a weak baking soda paste, whereas wasp stings, which are more alkaline, may be treated with acidic substances like vinegar. Linking that rule of thumb with the nature of bee venom confirms that baking soda is the appropriate choice in this question. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Lemon juice is acidic because it contains citric acid, so it does not neutralise acidic bee venom and may even increase irritation. Milk is nearly neutral and is not mentioned as an effective neutralising agent for bee stings in basic science references. Vinegar is also acidic due to acetic acid, and thus is usually suggested for wasp stings, not bee stings. Salt water has no special neutralising property for this purpose and mainly cleans the skin rather than reacting with the venom. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes mix up bee and wasp stings and reverse the correct treatments. Another common mistake is to guess any kitchen liquid that feels soothing without thinking about acid base chemistry. To avoid such confusion, remember one simple rule: bee sting is treated with baking soda solution, while wasp sting is treated with a mild acid such as vinegar or lemon juice. Final Answer: The correct answer is Baking soda solution, which helps neutralise the acidic venom of a bee sting and relieve pain.

Question 7

At the 7th Small Business Awards held in New Delhi, which startup company working in the daily milk and grocery delivery space was honoured with the Startup of the Year 2017 award?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question belongs to the startup and business awareness section of general knowledge. Recognising which Indian startup received important awards shows familiarity with the evolving entrepreneurial ecosystem. The Small Business Awards honour innovative firms that solve everyday problems such as last mile delivery of groceries and milk. Given Data / Assumptions: - The award is Startup of the Year 2017. - The event is the 7th Small Business Awards in New Delhi. - The company operates in the milk and grocery delivery segment. - The options list several names that sound similar, but only one corresponds to a real recognised startup that received this award. Concept / Approach: Milkbasket is a well known Indian startup that provides early morning delivery of milk and groceries based on app orders. It became popular in urban areas for contactless and convenient household essentials. Media coverage highlighted that Milkbasket won the Startup of the Year 2017 award at the Small Business Awards, making it the correct choice in this question. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify which option is the name of a real startup brand in Indian online grocery and milk delivery. Step 2: Recognise Milkbasket as an actual startup backed by venture investors and active in several Indian cities. Step 3: Recall that Milkmaid is a condensed milk product brand, not a separate hyperlocal startup, while Milkdairy, Milkbar, and Milkcrate are not widely known Indian startups in this award context. Step 4: Remember that news about the 7th Small Business Awards specifically mentioned Milkbasket winning Startup of the Year 2017. Step 5: Conclude that Milkbasket is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative Check: A good way to verify is to recall basic brand categories. Milkmaid is associated with a large food company and is a product line, not a standalone startup. By contrast, Milkbasket operates as an independent platform with a distinct business model of subscription based, app driven delivery. Such a model fits the typical profile of startups that receive awards at events focused on small and new businesses. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Milkmaid is a popular processed milk product and not the name of a startup that received this award. Milkdairy is not recognised as a major Indian startup brand in the grocery delivery segment and does not match award reports. Milkbar is a generic term for a small shop and is not tied to this specific Startup of the Year award in 2017. Milkcrate is not associated with Indian small business awards in this context and is mainly used as a general term in other markets. Common Pitfalls: Exam setters sometimes use similar sounding names to test whether you truly know the brand or are guessing from the pattern. Candidates may also confuse a well known product with a startup company. Always differentiate product brands owned by large corporations and independent startups that offer services via mobile apps and raise venture funding. Final Answer: The correct answer is Milkbasket, which received the Startup of the Year 2017 award at the 7th Small Business Awards in New Delhi.

Question 8

What was the name of the political party launched by Subhash Chandra Bose in 1939 after he resigned from the presidency of the Indian National Congress?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question checks knowledge of the Indian freedom struggle and key organisations formed by its leaders. Subhash Chandra Bose was a prominent nationalist who differed with some policies of the Indian National Congress. Understanding which party he founded after stepping down from Congress leadership is important for modern Indian history exams. Given Data / Assumptions: - The leader mentioned is Subhash Chandra Bose. - The year is 1939, after his resignation from the Congress presidency. - The question asks for the name of the party he launched. - Options list several parties, some real and some stylised or incorrect forms. Concept / Approach: After ideological differences within the Indian National Congress, Subhash Chandra Bose formed a new political grouping to pursue a more radical path to independence. This group was called the All India Forward Bloc. It aimed to consolidate anti imperialist forces and press more aggressively for freedom. The other named parties in the options either existed under different leaders or are not historically accurate in this context. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall important organisations connected with Bose, including the Forward Bloc and the Indian National Army. Step 2: Link the year 1939 with internal disputes in the Congress and his resignation from the post of president. Step 3: Remember that soon after this, he launched the All India Forward Bloc within the Congress, which later acted as an independent force. Step 4: Check the options and locate All India Forward Bloc among them. Step 5: Conclude that All India Forward Bloc is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative Check: Another way is to distinguish between political parties and military organisations. Azad Hind Fauj or Indian National Army was Bose armed force created later outside India and is not a political party. The party that he formed within the political sphere was the All India Forward Bloc. Historical accounts of 1939 events consistently mention this party, confirming the choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Communist Party of India was formed earlier with Marxist ideology and was not launched by Bose in 1939. Azad Bengal Fauj in the options sounds similar to Azad Hind Fauj but is not the correct name and in any case refers to an army, not a political party of 1939. Socialist Party of India emerged from other socialist leaders and not specifically from Bose at that time. Swaraj Party was formed earlier in the 1920s by leaders like C R Das and Motilal Nehru, not by Bose in 1939. Common Pitfalls: Students often confuse the All India Forward Bloc with the Indian National Army because both are linked to Subhash Chandra Bose. Another error is to pick any party whose name sounds revolutionary without paying attention to the year and context. Keeping a simple timeline of key leaders and their organisations helps to avoid these mistakes. Final Answer: The correct answer is All India Forward Bloc, the party launched by Subhash Chandra Bose in 1939 after leaving the Congress presidency.

Question 9

In the context of India food security system, which of the following is a key component that involves maintaining large government held stocks of food grains to ensure stability of supply and prices?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question belongs to the economics and social studies area of general knowledge. The food security system in India aims to ensure that the population has reliable access to sufficient, safe, and nutritious food. Understanding its main components is important for exams that cover development, poverty reduction, and public distribution policies. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question asks for a component of the food security system in India. - The options include buffer stock, minimum support price, fair price shops, and mid day meals, along with food coupons as an additional distractor. - We assume the term component refers to a structural part of the system as described in school level curricula and government descriptions. Concept / Approach: The food security system in India traditionally has two central pillars: buffer stock and the public distribution system. Buffer stock is the quantity of food grains that the government procures and stores to meet emergencies, stabilise prices, and supply the public distribution system. While minimum support price helps farmers by guaranteeing procurement rates, it is more of a price policy tool. Mid day meals are a nutrition programme for school children, and fair price shops are retail outlets under the public distribution system rather than the whole component itself. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall standard textbook definitions. The food security system is described as consisting mainly of buffer stock and public distribution system. Step 2: Understand that buffer stock refers to large warehouses and storage maintained by agencies like the Food Corporation of India. Step 3: Notice that minimum support price is a policy mechanism to support farmers, not a physical or institutional component of food security. Step 4: Recognise that fair price shops are part of the public distribution system but the question usually expects the broader term buffer stock as one of the pillar components. Step 5: Conclude that buffer stock is the best answer in line with exam oriented definitions. Verification / Alternative Check: Another way is to check which term directly implies storage of food grains. Buffer stock clearly does so, while minimum support price is about procurement rates, and mid day meals are about cooked food served in schools. Government documents and school textbooks list buffer stock as the central mechanism through which the state maintains food reserves to manage scarcity and price spikes. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Minimum support price helps farmers by assuring a minimum rate at which the government will buy crops, but it is not itself a structural component like buffer stock or public distribution system. Fair price shops are outlets through which grains from buffer stock are distributed. They are a part of the public distribution system, but the question focuses on the high level component described in theory, not on individual shop units. Mid day meals are a food based welfare programme for school children and are not a core structural element of the national food security architecture as defined in textbook diagrams. Food coupons appear in some international systems but are not typically described as one of the main components of India food security system in standard curricula. Common Pitfalls: A frequent error is to select minimum support price because it is often discussed in the same chapters as food security. However, minimum support price primarily concerns farm income and procurement decisions rather than food distribution itself. Another confusion arises between fair price shops and the entire public distribution system. To answer correctly, always think of the broad pillars, which are buffer stock and public distribution, rather than sub elements. Final Answer: The correct answer is Buffer stock, a key component of India food security system that involves government storage of food grains to stabilise supply and prices.

Question 10

Vikalp is a scheme launched by Indian Railways to help wait listed passengers. Which of the following statements about the Vikalp scheme is NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question examines your understanding of a specific passenger friendly scheme of Indian Railways called Vikalp, also known as the Alternate Train Accommodation Scheme. Many exams test fine details of such schemes, especially when one option subtly misstates the scope or conditions of the facility. Given Data / Assumptions: - Vikalp is meant for wait listed passengers. - It offers accommodation in alternate trains when seats are available. - The options describe key features such as confirmed berths, extra charges, booking mode, and eligible trains. - You must identify the statement that is not correct in the context of the original design of the scheme. Concept / Approach: When launched, the Vikalp scheme was intended to provide confirmed accommodation to wait listed passengers in alternate trains of the same category, mainly within the pool of mail and express trains on selected routes. The facility was introduced for e tickets booked through the IRCTC website and did not promise automatic accommodation in premium trains like Rajdhani or Shatabdi for passengers who booked normal mail or express trains. Therefore any statement that suggests guaranteed use of high end premium trains as part of the basic scheme is not correct. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Check statement a. The core idea of Vikalp is that wait listed passengers may get confirmed berths in alternate trains without extra cost, so statement a correctly reflects the scheme. Step 2: Examine statement b. Indian Railways announced that no extra charges would be taken if you are shifted under Vikalp, so this is also correct. Step 3: Look at statement d. At the time of introduction, the scheme was indeed limited to e tickets booked online, which matches official announcements, so statement d is correct. Step 4: Consider statement e. One clear objective of the scheme was to reduce the number of vacant seats running in other trains while some trains remained overbooked, so statement e is also correct. Step 5: Evaluate statement c. The original scheme did not broadly allow automatic shifting from ordinary mail and express trains to high end premium trains like Rajdhani or Shatabdi. It largely applied across trains of similar category on chosen routes. Therefore statement c overstates the benefit and is not correct. Verification / Alternative Check: To verify, think of the pricing and reservation logic of Indian Railways. Rajdhani and Shatabdi trains have higher fares and different quota structures compared to regular mail or express trains. A scheme that routinely shifted passengers from cheaper trains to expensive premium services without any extra charge would be very difficult to manage financially. Official press notes on Vikalp carefully describe the eligible trains and emphasise same class and similar train categories, not automatic upgrades into all premium services. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option a is a core feature and therefore correct, not the incorrect statement. Option b correctly states that no additional fare is charged for accommodation through Vikalp, so it is true. Option d correctly mentions that Vikalp started for e tickets booked online, making it a true statement. Option e expresses the rational goal of using available capacity in alternate trains more efficiently, which is a correct description of the scheme objective. Common Pitfalls: Many learners do not read scheme details closely and may assume that any facility automatically applies to all types of trains. This leads to the belief that every wait listed passenger can be shifted into premium trains such as Rajdhani or Shatabdi, which is not the case. Another pitfall is to pick a statement that looks new or unfamiliar, rather than carefully checking the logic of each feature against how rail pricing works. Final Answer: The statement that is NOT correct is Wait listed passengers can avail travel in Rajdhani, Shatabdi, or special trains under Vikalp even when the original booking is in a different mail or express train, because the scheme does not broadly guarantee such premium shifts.

Question 11

Hunar Haat is an exhibition launched to showcase and promote the traditional arts and artisans from minority communities in India. At which major event was the first Hunar Haat organised?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question connects culture, minority welfare, and trade fairs. Hunar Haat is a platform created by the Ministry of Minority Affairs to promote craftsmen and artisans from minority communities by providing them marketing support and exposure. Knowing where it was first launched helps you track important government initiatives and cultural events. Given Data / Assumptions: - Hunar Haat showcases traditional handicrafts, handlooms, and culinary arts of minority communities. - The question asks at which event the first Hunar Haat exhibition was organised. - The options list a mix of fairs and festivals in India that receive national level attention. - We assume the first edition aimed for maximum visibility by tying up with a major trade fair in the national capital. Concept / Approach: The India International Trade Fair (IITF) in New Delhi is a very large annual event where state and central government pavilions showcase products, schemes, and cultural displays. Hunar Haat was first introduced at IITF 2016 to highlight skills of artisans from minority communities and connect them to buyers from across India and abroad. While other events like Pushkar Fair or Surajkund Crafts Mela are also important, they were not the launch venues for this government initiative. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the nature of Hunar Haat. It is not just a local fair but a national level initiative under the Ministry of Minority Affairs. Step 2: Think about which event provides a large national and international audience for such a launch. IITF held at Pragati Maidan in New Delhi is a strong candidate. Step 3: Remember that in 2016, news reports highlighted Hunar Haat as a special feature at IITF New Delhi. Step 4: Compare with other options. Pushkar Fair is mainly a cattle and cultural fair in Rajasthan, Surajkund is a crafts mela in Haryana, and Kumbh Mela is a religious gathering, none of which were mentioned in this specific context. Step 5: Conclude that the first Hunar Haat was organised at the India International Trade Fair (IITF), New Delhi, in 2016. Verification / Alternative Check: You can verify by associating ministries with venues. Ministry of Minority Affairs often uses IITF pavilions to display schemes and initiatives because the fair already attracts central and state government departments. Launching Hunar Haat there ensures good footfall and media coverage. In contrast, Pushkar Fair and Kumbh Mela are not primarily trade and government exhibition platforms. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Pushkar Fair, 2016, is a famous cultural and cattle fair in Rajasthan but was not the starting point for Hunar Haat. Surajkund Crafts Mela, 2017, showcases crafts from different states but is separate from the initial government branded Hunar Haat organised by the minority affairs ministry. Kumbh Mela, 2015, is a religious gathering with a different focus, and Hunar Haat was not launched there. Republic Day Parade, 2016, features tableaux and marching contingents, not an exhibition format like Hunar Haat. Common Pitfalls: Many learners may see the word artisans and quickly think of Surajkund Crafts Mela, which is a well known craft fair. However, Surajkund is a state level initiative, whereas Hunar Haat is a ministry level scheme that took advantage of the huge platform of IITF for its first edition. Paying attention to whether an event is mainly cultural or trade policy focused can help avoid such confusion. Final Answer: The correct answer is India International Trade Fair (IITF), New Delhi, 2016, where the first Hunar Haat was organised.

Question 12

What was the real name of Swami Vivekananda, the famous Indian monk and spiritual leader who represented India at the Parliament of the World Religions in Chicago in 1893?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question belongs to Indian culture and modern history. Swami Vivekananda is one of the most respected spiritual leaders from India, known worldwide for his speech at the 1893 Parliament of the World Religions. Many saints and leaders received new names after joining monastic orders, so exams often ask about their original names. Given Data / Assumptions: - The figure in question is Swami Vivekananda. - The question asks for his real or birth name before he became a monk. - The options list several Bengali sounding names, only one of which is correct. - We assume basic familiarity with teachings and life story of Swami Vivekananda as part of Indian cultural studies. Concept / Approach: Swami Vivekananda was born in a Bengali family in Kolkata. His birth name was Narendranath Datta, sometimes written as Dutta or Datt in transliteration. When he became a disciple of Sri Ramakrishna and later took monastic vows, he adopted the name Swami Vivekananda. Recognising this link between his monastic name and his given name is the key to answering the question. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall basic biography. Swami Vivekananda was born as Narendranath Datta in 1863. Step 2: Connect that he studied in Kolkata, was influenced by Sri Ramakrishna, and later became a monk. Step 3: Observe the options and notice that Narendranath Datta appears exactly as a choice. Step 4: Confirm that none of the other names match the commonly known birth name of Swami Vivekananda. Step 5: Conclude that Narendranath Datta is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative Check: Another check is to remember that many books and institutions associated with him use the name Narendranath in early chapters or sections when describing his childhood. Biographical films, school textbooks, and the Ramakrishna Mission literature all consistently refer to Swami Vivekananda childhood name as Narendranath Datta. The spelling with double t or single t at the end can vary in English, but the pronunciation and identity remain the same. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Surendranath Bose is a different name and does not match Vivekananda biography. Vidyadhar Roy, Shyamal Bose, and Debendranath Sen are not historically associated as the birth name of Swami Vivekananda and appear here only as distractors. None of these names appear in standard biographies of Swami Vivekananda. Common Pitfalls: Sometimes candidates confuse Narendranath Datta with other leaders whose names also end with nath. Another mistake is to misread the spelling and discard the correct option because of minor variations like Datta or Dutta. The key is to recognise the core name Narendranath, which clearly identifies the young Vivekananda before he took monastic vows. Final Answer: The real name of Swami Vivekananda was Narendranath Datta.

Question 13

India signed an Open Skies air services agreement with which of the following countries, allowing designated airlines of both sides to operate more freely between the two nations?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question tests your awareness of India international aviation agreements and strategic partnerships. Open Skies agreements relax restrictions on routes, capacity, and pricing, and they encourage tourism and business travel. Identifying the partner country in such an agreement shows knowledge of foreign relations and economic cooperation. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question refers to an Open Skies air services agreement signed by India with a specific country. - The purpose is to allow designated airlines of both countries to operate more freely on certain routes. - Options list major partner countries of India in Asia and Europe. - We assume the agreement mentioned is the one that received wide coverage in relation to improved aviation ties and strategic partnership. Concept / Approach: India and Japan have developed a strong strategic and economic partnership. As part of this relationship, the two countries agreed to liberalise air services and signed an Open Skies agreement, especially for routes involving major cities. Such agreements are often announced during high level bilateral summits. While India also has air service agreements with other countries, the notable Open Skies liberalisation referred to in many general knowledge sources is with Japan. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall which countries are highlighted frequently in news with India for advanced aviation and strategic partnerships. Japan stands out in this list. Step 2: Consider Singapore, Russia, France, and Germany. India has strong relations with them but the specific phrase Open Skies in many exam oriented materials is most commonly associated with India Japan discussions. Step 3: Remember that during India Japan summits, announcements included liberalisation of air services that allow designated carriers more rights on certain routes. Step 4: Based on these associations, select Japan as the most appropriate answer. Verification / Alternative Check: A verification approach involves linking Open Skies agreements with the idea of strategic partners in Asia who share interests in connectivity and economic corridors with India. Japan has worked closely with India in infrastructure projects such as high speed rail and industrial corridors. Open Skies in aviation complements this wider partnership. While detailed treaty texts can be complex, exam oriented summaries typically highlight the India Japan Open Skies understanding on designated sectors. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Singapore has close aviation ties with India, but the specific Open Skies question in many basic general knowledge sets is not commonly framed around India and Singapore in this form. Russia has defence and energy cooperation with India but is not usually cited in entry level exam questions as the country in an Open Skies agreement with India. France and Germany have strong aviation industries and defence partnerships with India but exam focused summaries seldom emphasise them as the Open Skies counterpart in this basic question format. Common Pitfalls: One pitfall is guessing Singapore because of its role as a regional aviation hub. Another is over associating France with aviation due to companies like Airbus, even though that is about aircraft manufacturing, not air services treaties. To avoid confusion, it helps to maintain a short list of key countries linked with specific high profile agreements such as high speed rail and Open Skies, where Japan appears prominently with India. Final Answer: India signed the Open Skies air services agreement in this context with Japan.

Question 14

Pitch Black is a large scale multilateral air combat exercise hosted by the Royal Australian Air Force. In questions related to India defence cooperation, this exercise is often described as an air exercise between India and which country?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question checks your knowledge of defence exercises and military cooperation. Pitch Black is a well known air combat exercise that brings together aircraft and crews from several countries. For exam purposes, it is often simplified and described as an air exercise between India and the host country that organises it regularly. Given Data / Assumptions: - The exercise name is Pitch Black. - It is an air exercise involving fighter aircraft and air forces. - The question focuses on which country, along with India, is mainly associated with this exercise as host or key partner. - The options list several countries that have defence relations with India. Concept / Approach: Pitch Black is hosted by the Royal Australian Air Force and conducted in Australia. It has participation from many friendly air forces. India has taken part in this exercise, which is therefore described in exam material as an air exercise between India and Australia, highlighting the bilateral aspect even though the exercise itself is multilateral. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Pitch Black is regularly associated with Australian air bases such as those in Darwin. Step 2: Remember that the Royal Australian Air Force is the primary organiser and host for the exercise. Step 3: India has participated in the exercise with fighter aircraft, strengthening defence relations with Australia. Step 4: Among the options, only Australia matches this host role, while Japan, France, Nepal, and the United Kingdom are not the central hosts of the exercise. Step 5: Conclude that the exercise is mainly described as between India and Australia. Verification / Alternative Check: Another check is to think of other major air exercises in which India participates. For example, Garuda is associated with France, and Malabar is a naval exercise with the United States and Japan. Pitch Black is distinctively linked with Australia, as it is held in Australian airspace under the Royal Australian Air Force. Remembering these associations helps confirm the correct pairing. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Japan participates with India in other defence activities but is not the host of Pitch Black. France has its own air exercise with India, but it is not the primary organiser of Pitch Black. Nepal does not conduct such a large scale multilateral air combat exercise with India under this name. The United Kingdom is not associated as the main host of Pitch Black in standard defence exam questions. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes mix up the names of defence exercises because many sound similar or involve the same partners. To avoid confusion, it is useful to memorise a small list of key exercises and their host countries or partner pairs. For example, Pitch Black is linked with Australia, Garuda with France, and Indra with Russia. Final Answer: Pitch Black is commonly described in exam questions as an air exercise between India and Australia.

Question 15

Which of the following statements about the Union territories of Goa, Daman and Diu, and Dadra and Nagar Haveli is INCORRECT in the context of their colonial history and constitutional changes?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question combines geography, colonial history, and constitutional amendments. The western coastal region of India includes territories that were under Portuguese control before their integration into India. Understanding which European power ruled which area and how these regions were reorganised under the Constitution is important for many general studies exams. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question lists statements about Goa, Daman and Diu, and Dadra and Nagar Haveli. - You have to identify which statement is incorrect. - The statements refer to statehood, geographical features, constitutional amendments, and colonial rulers. - We assume familiarity with basic timelines of decolonisation on the western coast of India. Concept / Approach: Goa, Daman, Diu, Dadra, and Nagar Haveli were all under Portuguese rule, not French rule, before they joined the Indian Union. Goa attained full statehood in 1987. Diu is indeed an island near the coast of Gujarat in the Gulf of Khambhat. The Fifty Sixth Amendment of the Constitution in 1987 separated Daman and Diu from Goa when Goa became a state. Therefore any statement claiming that Dadra and Nagar Haveli were under French colonial rule is historically incorrect. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Evaluate statement a. Goa became a state on 30 May 1987, which is correct. Step 2: Evaluate statement b. Diu is a small island off the coast of Gujarat in the Gulf of Khambhat, so this statement is correct. Step 3: Evaluate statement c. The Fifty Sixth Amendment dealt with granting statehood to Goa and making Daman and Diu a separate Union territory, so this statement is also correct. Step 4: Evaluate statement d. Dadra and Nagar Haveli were enclaves under Portuguese rule, not French rule. Therefore this statement is incorrect. Step 5: Evaluate statement e. It is correct that these territories were formerly Portuguese possessions before integration with India. Verification / Alternative Check: To verify, remember that French colonial possessions in India included Pondicherry, Karaikal, Mahe, and Chandernagore. Portuguese control extended over Goa, Daman, Diu, Dadra, and Nagar Haveli. Dadra and Nagar Haveli were liberated from Portuguese rule in 1954 by local freedom fighters and later integrated into India. No part of Dadra and Nagar Haveli was under French administration, which confirms that statement d is wrong. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option a is a true statement about Goa statehood, so it cannot be the incorrect one. Option b correctly states the geographical location of Diu as an island in the Gulf of Khambhat. Option c correctly mentions the Fifty Sixth Amendment as the constitutional change that separated Daman and Diu from Goa when Goa became a state. Option e accurately notes that these territories were Portuguese, not French, before integration into India. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse French and Portuguese colonial regions because both countries had enclaves in India. Another common mistake is to forget which constitutional amendment granted statehood to Goa and reorganised the territories. A simple way to remember is to list French enclaves separately and associate Goa, Daman, Diu, Dadra, and Nagar Haveli exclusively with Portuguese rule. Doing so makes the incorrect statement in this question easy to spot. Final Answer: The incorrect statement is Dadra and Nagar Haveli were under French colonial rule till 1954, because they were actually under Portuguese rule until their liberation and subsequent integration with India.

Question 16

BRAHMOS is a joint Indo Russian missile system in service with the Indian armed forces. What type of missile is BRAHMOS most correctly classified as?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question lies in the defence and technology section of general knowledge. BRAHMOS is one of India most famous missile systems, and understanding its classification helps you answer many related questions. Knowing whether it is a cruise or ballistic missile, and at what speed regime it operates, is essential for defence awareness. Given Data / Assumptions: - The missile is BRAHMOS, a joint venture between India and Russia. - It is deployed by Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force in certain variants. - The options provide different categories of missiles by range and flight profile. - We assume awareness that cruise missiles fly within the atmosphere and follow a guided path, while ballistic missiles follow a ballistic trajectory after initial boost. Concept / Approach: BRAHMOS is designed as a supersonic cruise missile. Supersonic means it travels faster than the speed of sound. Being a cruise missile, it flies at low to medium altitudes under continuous powered flight and can be guided accurately to its target. It is not a ballistic missile, which would travel in a high arc. The term ultrasonic in everyday speech is not used for missile classification, and BRAHMOS is not a submarine launched ballistic missile by default, although there are ship and submarine launched cruise variants. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that BRAHMOS was advertised as the world fastest operational supersonic cruise missile. Step 2: Supersonic suggests speeds around two to three times the speed of sound, which fits BRAHMOS performance band. Step 3: The term cruise indicates sustained powered flight within the atmosphere, with guidance and relatively low altitude compared to ballistic missiles. Step 4: Compare with ballistic missiles, which are boosted and then follow a largely free fall path, which does not match BRAHMOS flight profile. Step 5: Therefore, classify BRAHMOS as a supersonic cruise missile and pick option b. Verification / Alternative Check: A second check is to recall deployment. BRAHMOS is mounted on ships and coastal batteries as a ship and land attack cruise missile, and there are air launched variants carried by fighter aircraft. Such roles are typical for cruise missiles. Ballistic missiles like Agni and Prithvi are used differently and do not match the guidance and low altitude characteristics of BRAHMOS. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Medium range ballistic missile describes systems like some Agni variants, not BRAHMOS, which follows a cruise trajectory. Short range tactical missile is a vague term and does not capture the specific cruise type and supersonic feature of BRAHMOS. Ultrasonic cruise missile is not a standard classification term in this context, and BRAHMOS is specifically described as supersonic, not ultrasonic. Submarine launched ballistic missile refers to missiles like some K series missiles, which are launched from submarines and follow ballistic paths, not the ship or aircraft launched cruise behaviour of BRAHMOS. Common Pitfalls: Many candidates see the word missile and immediately select ballistic options because those are more frequently mentioned in nuclear and strategic discussions. Another pitfall is confusion between cruise speed descriptions. Remember that supersonic refers to speeds beyond Mach 1 but not necessarily hypersonic. BRAHMOS fits neatly into the category of supersonic cruise missile, which makes it easy to recall for defence questions. Final Answer: BRAHMOS is most correctly classified as a supersonic cruise missile.

Question 17

Which Indian ruler from ancient history is often described by historians as the Napoleon of India because of his extensive and successful military campaigns across northern India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question is from ancient Indian history and focuses on the military achievements of major rulers. Historians sometimes compare Indian kings with famous foreign figures to highlight particular qualities. The phrase Napoleon of India refers to a king whose campaigns were swift and wide ranging, similar to those of Napoleon Bonaparte in Europe. Given Data / Assumptions: - The nickname in question is Napoleon of India. - It comes from modern historians, not from inscriptions of the time. - The options list Ashoka, Samudragupta, Chandragupta Maurya, Harshavardhana, and Pulakeshin II. - We assume some knowledge of each ruler conquests and style of rule. Concept / Approach: Samudragupta of the Gupta dynasty is famous for a long list of military conquests. The Allahabad pillar inscription, composed by Harisena, describes his campaigns across northern India, central India, and parts of south India. Because of his vigorous expansion and military success, some historians, such as Vincent Smith, referred to him as the Napoleon of India. The other rulers also had significant achievements but are associated with different reputations and titles. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Ashoka is mainly remembered for adopting Buddhism and promoting non violence after the Kalinga war, not for being compared to Napoleon. Step 2: Chandragupta Maurya founded the Mauryan Empire and defeated the Nanda dynasty and the forces of Seleucus, but he is not commonly called Napoleon of India. Step 3: Harshavardhana ruled north India in the seventh century but did not expand to the same extent as Samudragupta, and the title is not linked with him. Step 4: Samudragupta is widely known for his conquest campaigns recorded in the Allahabad pillar inscription, leading historians to liken him to Napoleon. Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is Samudragupta. Verification / Alternative Check: A helpful verification is to connect each ruler with a key description used in history texts. Ashoka is associated with the title Devanampriya and with rock and pillar edicts. Chandragupta Maurya is linked with Chanakya and the foundation of the Mauryan Empire. Harsha is linked with the writer Banabhatta and the book Harshacharita. Samudragupta is consistently described as an outstanding conqueror, and the phrase Napoleon of India appears in many introductions to the Gupta period, confirming the correct option. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Ashoka emphasised dharma and renounced aggressive warfare after Kalinga, so he is not compared to Napoleon, who is known for continuous wars. Chandragupta Maurya created a large empire but is not given the specific label Napoleon of India in standard textbooks. Harshavardhana had military achievements but did not match the geographic spread and campaign style that led to the comparison used for Samudragupta. Pulakeshin II defeated Harshavardhana in the south but is not commonly called Napoleon of India in exam oriented materials. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse Samudragupta and Chandragupta because they belong to different dynasties with similar sounding names. Another mistake is to pick Ashoka simply because he is the most famous Mauryan ruler. To avoid confusion, link Samudragupta with the Allahabad inscription and with the phrase Napoleon of India, which highlights his role as a great military conqueror. Final Answer: The ruler known as the Napoleon of India is Samudragupta.

Question 18

The Indian Institute of Science (IISc) in Bangalore, one of India leading institutions for scientific research and higher education in science and engineering, was founded with the support and vision of which industrialist?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question combines industrial history and the development of higher education in India. The Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bangalore, is a premier research university. Knowing which industrialist played a key role in its founding highlights the link between philanthropy, industry, and scientific progress in India. Given Data / Assumptions: - The institution is IISc, located in Bangalore. - The question asks which industrialist is credited with founding it. - The options list notable scientists and industrialists. - We assume familiarity with early industrial pioneers and their philanthropic activities. Concept / Approach: Jamsetji Tata, the founder of the Tata group, had a vision to create a world class institute of research in India. He set aside funds and worked with leading figures of his time to make this vision real. After his death, the idea took shape with support from the Tata family, the Government of India, and the Princely State of Mysore, leading to the establishment of IISc. C V Raman and Vikram Sarabhai were eminent scientists but not the founding industrialists of IISc. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Jamsetji Tata is often mentioned in connection with IIT like institutions and scientific research, especially IISc. Step 2: Remember that he donated funds and engaged experts to plan such an institute. Step 3: Note that C V Raman and Vikram Sarabhai were later scientists associated with physics and space research respectively, not founders of IISc. Step 4: Recognise that Homi J Bhabha is known for atomic energy programmes, not for establishing IISc. Step 5: Therefore select Jamsetji Tata as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative Check: Biographical sketches of Jamsetji Tata frequently highlight three great dreams: creating a modern steel plant, setting up a world class educational institution for research, and a luxury hotel in Bombay. IISc Bangalore is directly linked with his second dream. Historical accounts of IISc founding repeatedly mention him by name, while scientists like C V Raman are credited for later achievements such as Nobel Prize winning work that happened at or after the institute development. Why Other Options Are Wrong: C. V. Raman did path breaking work in physics and was associated with IISc as a scientist and director, but he was not the founding industrialist who initiated the idea. Vikram Sarabhai is known for setting up space research institutions like the Indian Space Research Organisation origins, not IISc. Homi J. Bhabha led the development of nuclear research facilities and atomic energy programmes rather than founding IISc. The Birla family has contributed to many educational institutions but is not primarily associated with the creation of IISc Bangalore. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates choose C V Raman because they associate him with IISc and science, forgetting that the question asks specifically about the founder industrialist, not a later scientist. Another mistake is to think of Vikram Sarabhai due to his strong connection with research institutions. Careful reading of the phrase founded by or founded with the support of an industrialist leads directly to Jamsetji Tata. Final Answer: The Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore, was founded with the support and vision of Jamsetji Tata.

Question 19

In Indian demographic statistics, the sex ratio is conventionally measured in which of the following ways?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The concept of sex ratio is central to population studies and social statistics in India. It is frequently used in Census reports, demographic surveys, and discussions on gender balance. Understanding the correct definition of sex ratio is important because it helps in interpreting data on gender composition and in assessing social issues such as gender discrimination, female foeticide, and migration patterns. This question tests your familiarity with the standard way in which sex ratio is expressed in official Indian statistics. Given Data / Assumptions: The term being defined is "sex ratio" in India. The options provide different possible ways of expressing the ratio between males and females. The context is official demographic usage, especially Census of India. No special regional variation is implied; the question is about the national convention. Concept / Approach: In demographic terminology, sex ratio can be expressed in various ways, but each country often adopts a standard convention. In India, the sex ratio is defined as the number of females per 1,000 males in the population. This convention is followed consistently in Census documents and demographic analyses. By contrast, some other countries may define sex ratio as the number of males per 100 females, but that is not the Indian practice. Therefore, the correct option must match "number of females per thousand males." Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the standard expression used by the Census of India for sex ratio. Step 2: Note that sex ratio figures are quoted as, for example, 943 or 991, meaning 943 or 991 females per 1,000 males. Step 3: Compare this with the options: some mention males per thousand females, others females per thousand males, and some use per hundred. Step 4: Match the official convention: females per 1,000 males. Step 5: Select the option that states "Number of females per thousand males." Verification / Alternative check: If you recall headlines about the sex ratio in India, they often say things like "sex ratio improves to 943 females per 1,000 males." This phrasing clearly shows that females are in the numerator and 1,000 males in the base. Also, you will almost never see Indian demographic reports talk about "males per thousand females," which confirms that the officially accepted definition is the other way around. Checking any Census table on sex ratio would verify this understanding. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Number of males per thousand females: This reverses the convention and is not how Indian Census data present sex ratio. Number of males per hundred females: Uses males in the numerator and a base of 100, which does not match the Indian standard. Number of females per hundred males: Although closer, it uses a base of 100, not 1,000, and so does not reflect the exact official definition. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to assume that any ratio can be expressed either way, so the direction does not matter. However, in examinations, the accepted definition must match the official standard. Another pitfall is to mix up per 100 and per 1,000 due to mental shortcuts. To avoid this, remember a simple rule: in India, sex ratio = females per 1,000 males. Fixing this phrase in memory will help you answer quickly and accurately in the exam. Final Answer: In India, the sex ratio is measured as the Number of females per thousand males.

Question 20

According to the Union Budget for 2016–17, which of the following was the single largest source of money for financing the Government of India's expenditure?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Understanding the structure of the Union Budget is an important part of Indian economy and public finance questions in competitive exams. The Government of India finances its expenditure from several sources such as tax revenues, non tax revenues, and borrowing. In some years, borrowings and related liabilities form the largest single component of total receipts, highlighting the extent of fiscal deficit. This question asks you to recall, specifically for the 2016–17 Budget, which source contributed the largest share of money to the government’s overall receipts. Given Data / Assumptions: The reference year is the Union Budget 2016–17. The focus is on the largest single source of total receipts for the Government of India. Options include Income Tax, Corporation Tax, Non tax revenues, and Borrowings and other liabilities. Standard classification of budget receipts into revenue and capital heads is assumed. Concept / Approach: The Budget divides government receipts into revenue receipts (tax and non tax) and capital receipts (including borrowings and other liabilities). Although tax revenues such as corporation tax and income tax are substantial, they may still be smaller than the amount raised through borrowings in a particular year. In the 2016–17 Budget documents, the largest single component of total receipts was the head "Borrowings and other liabilities," reflecting the fiscal deficit that needed to be financed. Therefore, among the options given, "Borrowings and other liabilities" is the correct answer. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that total government receipts include both revenue receipts and capital receipts. Step 2: Identify that tax revenues are split mainly into direct taxes (like income tax and corporation tax) and indirect taxes, while non tax revenues include dividends, fees, and interest receipts. Step 3: Remember that "Borrowings and other liabilities" appears under capital receipts and effectively represents the fiscal deficit that must be financed. Step 4: For the 2016–17 Budget, note that the largest single entry on the receipts side was borrowings and other liabilities, exceeding individual tax heads. Step 5: Conclude that "Borrowings and other liabilities" was the largest source of money for financing expenditure that year. Verification / Alternative check: When revising budgetary data, many exam guides present pie charts showing the composition of receipts. For 2016–17, these charts typically highlight that borrowing formed the biggest slice, larger than corporation tax or income tax. This visual memory of borrowings as the largest component helps verify the correct option in this question. Also, reading about the fiscal deficit target and the amount to be financed through borrowing reinforces why this figure is so large. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Income Tax: A major direct tax but did not surpass borrowings and other liabilities as a share of total receipts in 2016–17. Corporation Tax: Another crucial direct tax, often the single largest tax head, but still smaller than the borrowing requirement in that year. Non-tax revenues: Include dividends from public sector enterprises and the Reserve Bank of India, but the volume here was lower than both major tax heads and borrowings. Common Pitfalls: Candidates often assume that corporation tax must be the largest component because it is the biggest tax head. Another pitfall is to ignore capital receipts and focus only on tax revenue when thinking about "sources of money." However, the budget’s total receipts clearly show that fiscal deficit financing through borrowing can exceed any single tax source. To avoid this mistake, always distinguish between the largest tax head and the largest overall source, including borrowings. Final Answer: As per the Union Budget for 2016–17, the largest source of money for the Government of India was Borrowings and other liabilities.

Basic General Knowledge Questions