Question 1

The World Health Organization (WHO) launched a new Global Influenza Strategy covering which time period?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Influenza is a recurring global health concern that can cause seasonal epidemics and, in some cases, severe pandemics. To manage this risk, the World Health Organization (WHO) periodically designs long-term strategies to guide countries in surveillance, prevention, preparedness, and response. This question checks your awareness of a specific WHO policy document – the Global Influenza Strategy – and the time frame it covers, a key fact for exams that test health, international organizations, and current affairs. Given Data / Assumptions: The organization mentioned is the World Health Organization (WHO). The document is a new Global Influenza Strategy. We need to identify the full time period for which this strategy has been framed. Answer choices offer several overlapping periods starting from 2019. Concept / Approach: Global strategies prepared by WHO are typically designed for a medium or long-term horizon to ensure sustained action and investment. In the case of influenza, the WHO Global Influenza Strategy is intentionally framed for more than a decade, reflecting the persistent and evolving nature of flu viruses. Remembering that the strategy launched in 2019 was framed up to the year 2030 helps you pick the correct option among several similar-looking choices. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that WHO released a Global Influenza Strategy from the year 2019 onwards. Step 2: Understand that influenza planning is long-term, so a multi-year, decade-scale strategy is more logical than a short 3–4 year plan. Step 3: Among the options, the longest and correctly known time frame associated with the WHO influenza strategy is “2019–2030”. Step 4: Eliminate options that end in 2022 or 2025 as they represent comparatively shorter time frames. Step 5: Choose “2019–2030” as it matches the officially stated duration of the WHO Global Influenza Strategy. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, one can recall standard current affairs summaries or WHO press releases, which clearly state that the Global Influenza Strategy 2019–2030 aims to protect people in all countries by strengthening surveillance, preparedness, and response capacities over an eleven-year period. Many exam-oriented magazines and health-related GK sources mention the phrase “2019–2030” prominently, highlighting it as a must-remember point for government and medical entrance examinations. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 2019–2022: Too short for a global strategic framework; not the officially announced span for this strategy. 2022–2025: Does not start at the year of strategy launch and therefore does not match the actual WHO document. 2019–2025: While this may look plausible, it still underestimates the length of the real strategy, which extends to 2030. Common Pitfalls: Because all the options look similar and start from the year 2019, students often confuse the time span and choose a shorter period at random. Another pitfall is mixing up this strategy with other WHO or UN frameworks that may run for five or six years. The best way to avoid mistakes is to note that “2019–2030” is often linked with sustainable, long-term global health plans, and to associate this phrase specifically with WHO's influenza strategy in your notes. Final Answer: The WHO Global Influenza Strategy covers the period from 2019–2030.

Question 2

In the context of digital media and online streaming, the abbreviation “OTT” stands for what?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: With the rapid growth of digital media platforms such as Netflix, Amazon Prime Video, Disney+ Hotstar, and many others, the term “OTT” has become extremely common in discussions about entertainment and technology. Exams that cover modern general knowledge and current affairs often ask about important abbreviations related to technology and media. This question checks whether you know what “OTT” stands for in the context of internet-based streaming services. Given Data / Assumptions: The term in question is “OTT”. The domain is digital media and online streaming. We assume a standard technology and media context, not an unrelated field. Options include several possible expansions of the letters O, T, and T. Concept / Approach: “OTT” stands for “Over-The-Top”. The phrase originally referred to content delivered “over the top” of traditional cable or satellite infrastructure, meaning that users could access video and audio content through the internet without relying on a conventional broadcast or cable television subscription. Understanding this helps you distinguish it from similar-sounding but incorrect expansions that might appear in multiple-choice questions. Recognizing “Over-The-Top” is now fundamental GK for questions related to the digital entertainment ecosystem. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that the question is about digital media and streaming services. Step 2: Recall the widely used term “OTT platform”, which is popularly expanded as “Over-The-Top platform”. Step 3: Compare the options: only one matches this recognized expansion exactly – “Over-The-Top”. Step 4: Note that the other options sound plausible but are not standard or widely accepted technical terms. Step 5: Therefore, select “Over-The-Top” as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: If you check industry articles, technology blogs, or government policy documents on digital media, you will repeatedly find references to OTT services defined as “Over-The-Top media services”. They highlight how OTT platforms bypass traditional cable, broadcast, and satellite television distribution methods by streaming content directly via the internet to users' devices, such as smartphones, smart TVs, laptops, and tablets. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Online Television Transmission: Although it sounds relevant, this phrase is not the recognized expansion of “OTT” and is not used in official terminology. On-Time Telecast: This is not a standard technical term and does not capture the idea of bypassing traditional distribution networks. Official Television Track: This is unrelated to digital streaming and is not used to describe media services or platforms. Common Pitfalls: Students might overthink the abbreviation and choose a phrase that “sounds” more formal, such as “Online Television Transmission”, rather than relying on what they have actually seen in news and official contexts. Another mistake is confusing OTT with terms like IPTV (Internet Protocol Television). Remember that OTT highlights the idea of going “over” existing infrastructure, whereas IPTV is a specific technology for delivering television content using IP networks. Keeping a small list of media and technology abbreviations can be very helpful. Final Answer: In digital media and online streaming, “OTT” stands for Over-The-Top.

Question 3

Within the Incident Command System (ICS), which position is always staffed during an incident response operation?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Incident Command System (ICS) is a standardized management framework used worldwide for handling emergencies, disasters, and planned events. It is especially common in firefighting, disaster management, and public safety operations. Each ICS organization has clearly defined roles to ensure coordination and safety. This question tests your understanding of the basic structure of ICS by asking which position is always staffed whenever ICS is activated. Given Data / Assumptions: The context is the Incident Command System (ICS). The question asks about a position that is always staffed when ICS is in use. Options include Commander in Chief, Incident Commander, Operations Section Chief, and None of the above. We assume a standard ICS model as used in emergency management guidelines. Concept / Approach: In ICS, the foundational position is the Incident Commander (IC). This person is responsible for overall incident management, including setting objectives, strategies, and priorities. While other positions like Operations Section Chief, Planning Section Chief, Logistics Section Chief, and Finance/Administration Section Chief are filled as needed depending on the size and nature of the incident, the Incident Commander is always present. Therefore, identifying the role that is mandatory in ICS is the key to solving this question. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the basic ICS organizational chart, which starts with the Incident Commander at the top. Step 2: Recognize that “Commander in Chief” is not an ICS-specific designation; it is more of a political or military term. Step 3: Understand that the Operations Section Chief and other section chiefs are created only when the incident requires such expansion. Step 4: The Incident Commander is the central figure and must always be designated whenever ICS is activated, even if other positions remain unfilled. Step 5: Compare this understanding with the options and select “Incident Commander” as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: ICS training materials and emergency management manuals consistently show the Incident Commander at the top of the organizational structure. They explicitly state that the only position that is always required is the Incident Commander. All other positions are scalable and deployed depending on the complexity and size of the incident. This confirms that the answer is not any of the section chiefs or a generic term like “Commander in Chief”. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Commander in Chief: This is a constitutional or military term and not a standard ICS role. ICS documentation does not use this as an operational position. Operations Section Chief: This role is crucial in large incidents but may not be filled in very small or simple events. It is not mandatory in every ICS activation. None of the above: This is incorrect because there is indeed a specific ICS position – Incident Commander – that is always staffed. Common Pitfalls: Examinees sometimes misinterpret “Commander in Chief” as a high-ranking role and assume it is always present, but ICS uses its own standardized terminology, where the Incident Commander is the key. Others may think that the Operations Section Chief is indispensable, forgetting that ICS is designed to be flexible and scalable. To avoid mistakes, memorize the basic ICS hierarchy and remember that the Incident Commander is the only non-optional position whenever ICS is used. Final Answer: In the Incident Command System, the position that is always staffed is the Incident Commander.

Question 4

In India, the 12th Five Year Plan covered which time period?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Five Year Plans were a cornerstone of India's economic planning framework for many decades. Each plan period outlined the country's development priorities, targets, and resource allocation strategies. Knowing the time spans of major Five Year Plans is a common requirement in competitive exams that cover Indian economy, planning history, and public policy. This question focuses on the 12th Five Year Plan and asks you to identify the correct time period it covered. Given Data / Assumptions: The plan in question is the 12th Five Year Plan of India. Options show different five-year ranges between 2002 and 2020. We assume the classical planning sequence used by the Planning Commission before it was replaced by NITI Aayog. Concept / Approach: India’s Five Year Plans follow sequential time blocks. The 10th Plan covered 2002–2007, the 11th Plan covered 2007–2012, and the 12th Five Year Plan followed immediately afterward. Therefore, by remembering the sequence of previous plans, you can logically deduce that the 12th Five Year Plan must cover the period 2012–2017. This simple recall and sequencing method is often more reliable than guessing. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the 10th Five Year Plan ran from 2002 to 2007. Step 2: Recall that the 11th Five Year Plan followed, covering 2007 to 2012. Step 3: The next plan, the 12th Five Year Plan, therefore starts in 2012, right after the 11th Plan ends. Step 4: Adding a five-year duration to 2012 leads to an end year of 2017, giving 2012–2017 as the plan period. Step 5: Cross-check the options and select “2012–2017” as it matches this sequence. Verification / Alternative check: Standard Indian economy textbooks, government documents, and competitive exam guides clearly list the 12th Five Year Plan as spanning from 2012 to 2017. It is also often mentioned that this was the last full Five Year Plan before India moved towards a different planning approach under NITI Aayog. This independent confirmation supports the answer 2012–2017. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 2002–2007: This corresponds to the 10th Five Year Plan, not the 12th. 2007–2012: This is the period of the 11th Five Year Plan. 2015–2020: This range does not match any official Five Year Plan period; planning in this form had effectively ended by then. Common Pitfalls: A frequent error is mixing up the plan numbers and their timelines, especially between the 10th, 11th, and 12th plans. Candidates may also incorrectly assume that the 12th Plan ended in 2020 due to later changes in planning institutions. To avoid confusion, it helps to memorize a simple table listing each plan number and corresponding years. Repetition and quick revision before the exam will make recalling such sequences much easier. Final Answer: The 12th Five Year Plan in India covered the period from 2012–2017.

Question 5

From the following financial sector institutions, identify the one that is the odd one out and not directly linked to banking and financial regulation like the other three.

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The question tests your basic awareness of important Indian and international institutions connected with the financial and banking sector. Such questions are common in banking exams, government exams and general knowledge tests because they check whether you can recognise which institutions perform similar roles and which one is different. Here, three institutions are linked with banking, credit or financial regulation, while one is primarily a standards body dealing with quality and product standards rather than banking regulation. Given Data / Assumptions: NABARD is one of the options provided. RBI is one of the options provided. BIS is one of the options provided. IRDA is one of the options provided. The task is to identify the institution that is not like the other three in terms of primary function. Concept / Approach: The best way to solve an odd man out question on institutions is to recall the core mandate of each institution and then group them by similarity. If three institutions are primarily associated with banking, credit or financial sector regulation and supervision, while one is tied mainly to quality and product standards, the latter clearly becomes the odd one out. Always focus on primary function, not just whether the institution occasionally deals with finance. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that NABARD stands for National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development and deals with rural credit and development finance.Step 2: Recall that RBI, the Reserve Bank of India, is the central bank and the main monetary authority of India, responsible for monetary policy and overall banking regulation.Step 3: Recall that IRDA is the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India, which regulates and promotes the insurance industry.Step 4: Recall that BIS in the Indian context generally refers to the Bureau of Indian Standards, which sets standards for products, quality and safety across many sectors, not just finance.Step 5: Conclude that NABARD, RBI and IRDA are all directly linked to banking, finance or insurance, while BIS is primarily a standards organisation, so BIS is the odd one out. Verification / Alternative check: Another quick check is to ask which of the institutions issues guidelines or policies for interest rates, credit flows or financial products. RBI influences interest rates and banking rules, NABARD deals with refinance and rural credit policy, and IRDA handles insurance products and regulation. BIS, on the other hand, issues quality marks like ISI on products and provides technical standards. Therefore, BIS clearly belongs to a different functional group and is correctly identified as the odd man out. Why Other Options Are Wrong: NABARD is wrong because it is a specialised development bank focused on agriculture and rural development finance and is part of the financial system. RBI is wrong because it is the central bank of India and the apex monetary authority and regulator of the banking system. IRDA is wrong because it is the statutory regulator for the insurance sector and deals with financial products like insurance policies. Common Pitfalls: Many learners see the abbreviation BIS and confuse it with the Bank for International Settlements, which is indeed a global financial institution. However, in typical Indian banking awareness questions, BIS usually stands for Bureau of Indian Standards, a standards setting body. Another mistake is to overthink and assume that a more technical sounding institution like NABARD is the odd one out, but the real comparison is about sector and mandate, not about how familiar the name sounds. Reading the full forms and remembering their core roles helps you avoid such confusion. Final Answer: BIS is the odd one out because it is primarily a standards organisation, while NABARD, RBI and IRDA are directly involved in banking, credit or insurance regulation and development.

Question 6

In world geography and international trade routes, which port city is located at the northern end of the Panama Canal on the Caribbean Sea side?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question checks your knowledge of important world ports and strategic waterways, specifically the Panama Canal. The Panama Canal connects the Atlantic Ocean and the Pacific Ocean and is a vital route for global maritime trade. Knowing which port lies at each end of the canal is a common topic in competitive exams that cover geography, shipping and international trade. Given Data / Assumptions: The question asks for the port located at the northern end of the Panama Canal. The northern end of the canal opens into the Caribbean Sea, which is part of the Atlantic Ocean system. The options given are Panama City, Colon, Gatun and Miraflores. We assume a basic understanding that the canal runs roughly north to south across Panama. Concept / Approach: The key is to remember that the Panama Canal has two main oceanic gateways. The northern end, on the Caribbean Sea side, is served by the port city of Colon, while the southern end, on the Pacific Ocean side, is associated with Panama City and Balboa. Gatun and Miraflores are names of important locks along the canal but are not the primary port city at the northern entrance. Thus, identifying Colon as the northern terminus is the correct approach. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Visualise or recall the map of Panama and the canal that cuts across the isthmus from north to south.Step 2: Recall that the northern end of the canal opens into the Caribbean Sea, which connects to the Atlantic Ocean.Step 3: Remember that the port city of Colon lies on the Caribbean coast and serves as the main northern gateway to the canal.Step 4: Note that Panama City is on the Pacific side to the south and cannot be the northern end.Step 5: Recognise that Gatun and Miraflores are names of lock complexes within the canal and not the primary port city at the northern entrance.Step 6: Conclude that Colon is the correct answer for the northern end port. Verification / Alternative check: As an additional check, remember some common geography facts often repeated in exam guides: Colon is described as the Atlantic or Caribbean terminal of the Panama Canal, while Balboa and Panama City act as main terminals on the Pacific side. Gatun Lake and Gatun Locks lie inside the canal system, and Miraflores Locks are closer to the Pacific end. This confirms that Colon is the correct northern port city. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Panama City is wrong because it is located near the Pacific entrance, not the northern Caribbean entrance. Gatun is wrong because it refers mainly to the Gatun Locks and Gatun Lake inside the canal, not a major port city at the entrance. Miraflores is wrong because it is the name of a lock system near the Pacific side and again not the northern entrance port. Common Pitfalls: Learners sometimes assume that the capital city, Panama City, must be the answer for any Panama related question, which leads to an incorrect guess. Another common error is confusing internal features of the canal, such as Gatun and Miraflores Locks, with external port cities. Carefully reading the phrase northern end and remembering that the Caribbean Sea is on the Atlantic side helps avoid these mistakes. Final Answer: Colon is the port located at the northern end of the Panama Canal on the Caribbean Sea side.

Question 7

Which of the following pairs of famous waterfalls and Indian states is not correctly matched and therefore stands out as incorrect?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question examines your knowledge of important waterfalls in India and the states in which they are located. Matching geographical features such as waterfalls, rivers and mountains with their correct states is a classic pattern in general knowledge and competitive examinations. In this item, three waterfall state pairs are accurate, while one pair contains a deliberate mismatch that you must detect. Given Data / Assumptions: Jog Falls is paired with the state of Karnataka. Papanasam Falls is paired with Himachal Pradesh. Dhuandhar Falls is paired with Madhya Pradesh. Hundru Falls is paired with Jharkhand. Only one of these pairs is incorrectly matched and must be identified. Concept / Approach: The approach is to recall or recognise the correct geographic location of each waterfall. Jog Falls is a major waterfall on the Sharavathi River in Karnataka. Dhuandhar Falls are on the Narmada River near Jabalpur in Madhya Pradesh. Hundru Falls lie on the Subarnarekha River in the state of Jharkhand. Papanasam Falls, however, are located in Tamil Nadu, not in Himachal Pradesh. Therefore the pair Papanasam – Himachal Pradesh is incorrect. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Jog Falls, also known as Gerosoppa Falls, is in the Shimoga district of Karnataka, so Jog – Karnataka is a correct pair.Step 2: Recall that Dhuandhar Falls occur on the Narmada River near Bhedaghat in Madhya Pradesh, making Dhuandhar – Madhya Pradesh a correct match.Step 3: Recall that Hundru Falls are located on the Subarnarekha River near Ranchi in present day Jharkhand, so this pair is also correctly matched.Step 4: Papanasam Falls, sometimes linked with the Tamiraparani River, are famous in the state of Tamil Nadu and not in Himachal Pradesh.Step 5: Because Papanasam is wrongly paired with Himachal Pradesh, this is the single incorrect match among the four options. Verification / Alternative check: A helpful verification habit is to mentally group waterfalls by region. Jog Falls is commonly listed among the great waterfalls of South India and is strongly associated with Karnataka. Papanasam is another well known South Indian waterfall but tied to Tamil Nadu, not a northern hill state. Dhuandhar is commonly shown in tourism images of Madhya Pradesh, particularly around Jabalpur, and Hundru is often mentioned in relation to Jharkhand tourism. This mental mapping confirms that only the Papanasam pair is wrong as given. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Jog – Karnataka is not the incorrect pair because Jog Falls are indeed in Karnataka, so this match is correct. Dhuandhar – Madhya Pradesh is not the incorrect pair because Dhuandhar Falls lie in Madhya Pradesh, making the pairing accurate. Hundru – Jharkhand is not the incorrect pair because Hundru Falls are in the state of Jharkhand, again an accurate match. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse Papanasam with various northern or Himalayan locations simply because the name sounds similar to some religious places, and they may assume it belongs to a hill state like Himachal Pradesh. Another pitfall is answering too quickly based on familiarity with one correct pair instead of carefully checking each option. To avoid such mistakes, try to connect each waterfall with a river or a nearby city that you clearly know belongs to a specific state. Final Answer: Papanasam – Himachal Pradesh is the pair that is not correctly matched, since Papanasam Falls are located in Tamil Nadu and not in Himachal Pradesh.

Question 8

The international land border of Myanmar is longest with which of the following neighbouring countries?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question focuses on political geography and the relative lengths of international borders between Myanmar and its neighbours. For many competitive exams, it is important to know not only which countries share borders, but also which borders are longest or most significant. Myanmar is located in South East Asia and shares land borders with several countries, but one of these borders is clearly the longest. Given Data / Assumptions: Myanmar shares borders with India, Bangladesh, Laos, China and Thailand in reality, but only four of these neighbours are listed in the options. The options provided are India, Bangladesh, Laos and China. The question asks specifically for the country with which the land border of Myanmar is the longest. We assume the usual internationally accepted figures for border lengths are being used. Concept / Approach: The approach is to recall the approximate length of Myanmar’s borders with its neighbours. While Myanmar has a notable border with India and also shares borders with Bangladesh and Laos, its border with China is significantly longer in comparison to the options given. Thailand has a very long border with Myanmar too, but it is not present among the options, so we must focus only on the listed choices. Among India, Bangladesh, Laos and China, the Myanmar–China border is the longest. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: List the neighbours of Myanmar from memory: India, Bangladesh, China, Laos and Thailand.Step 2: Recall that Bangladesh shares only a short section of border with Myanmar mainly in the south east.Step 3: Recall that Laos has an even shorter border segment with Myanmar in the north east region.Step 4: Remember that India shares a substantial border with Myanmar along the north eastern states, but it is still shorter than the border with China.Step 5: Recall that China shares a long and strategically important border with Myanmar, running across several provinces in the north and north east.Step 6: Conclude that, among the given options, China is the country with the longest border with Myanmar. Verification / Alternative check: Another way to check is to recall figures mentioned in standard geography references. The Myanmar–China border is often stated as being more than two thousand kilometres, while the Myanmar–India border is shorter, and the borders with Bangladesh and Laos are much smaller. Since border length is the deciding factor and China clearly has a longer shared frontier with Myanmar than the other options, our selection of China is reliable. Why Other Options Are Wrong: India is wrong because, although it shares a long and important border with Myanmar, this border is shorter than the Myanmar–China border. Bangladesh is wrong because the Myanmar–Bangladesh border is relatively short and confined to a small coastal and hill area. Laos is wrong because its shared border with Myanmar is very short and limited to a small stretch. Common Pitfalls: Many candidates misjudge this question by relying on familiarity rather than data. Since India and Myanmar are often discussed together in the context of north east India, students may instinctively choose India. Another trap is forgetting that Thailand, which actually shares one of the longest borders with Myanmar, is not in the options. To avoid such confusion, always compare only among the listed options and try to recall approximate border lengths from maps or standard geography texts. Final Answer: China is the country with which Myanmar has its longest international land border among the options provided.

Question 9

In the Panchayati Raj system of rural local self government in India, which institution is the key factor in making the Gram Panchayat play its role effectively and remain accountable to the people?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question relates to the structure of Panchayati Raj and rural local self government in India. The Gram Panchayat is the elected executive body at the village level, but it must remain accountable to the village community it serves. The institution that ensures this accountability and helps the Gram Panchayat perform its functions in a democratic and transparent way is crucial to understand for civics and polity questions. Given Data / Assumptions: The Gram Panchayat is the elected body responsible for local governance at the village level. There is a larger body consisting of all registered voters in the village known as the Gram Sabha. Other functionaries like the Secretary and the Block Development Officer assist in administration but are not the direct source of democratic control. The question asks which institution is the key factor in making the Gram Panchayat play its role and be responsible. Concept / Approach: The concept here is popular control and accountability in local self government. In the three tier Panchayati Raj system, the Gram Sabha is the general assembly of all adult villagers whose names are in the electoral roll. The Gram Sabha approves plans, reviews progress and questions the Gram Panchayat on its functioning. Because it embodies direct democracy at the village level, it is the most important institution for making the Gram Panchayat answerable to the people and for ensuring that decisions reflect local needs. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Gram Panchayat is the executive body, made up of elected members, headed by a Sarpanch.Step 2: Recall that the Gram Sabha consists of all adult members of the village whose names appear on the electoral roll.Step 3: Note that the Gram Sabha meets periodically to approve village development plans, budgets and to question the performance of the Gram Panchayat.Step 4: Understand that this direct participation gives the Gram Sabha the power to make the Gram Panchayat more responsible and transparent.Step 5: Recognise that officials like the Secretary and Block Development Officer are part of the administrative machinery but not the primary institution of democratic control.Step 6: Conclude that the Gram Sabha is the key factor in making the Gram Panchayat play its role and remain accountable. Verification / Alternative check: Standard civics textbooks and the Constitution based explanation of Panchayati Raj emphasise that the Gram Sabha is the foundation of village level democracy. Many schemes and programmes also require approval or social audit by the Gram Sabha. When questions discuss people's participation and local accountability mechanisms, Gram Sabha is repeatedly highlighted. This confirms that Gram Sabha is the intended correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Secretary is wrong because the Secretary is a government official who assists the Gram Panchayat administratively but does not represent the people's collective authority. Only Sarpanch is wrong because although the Sarpanch heads the Gram Panchayat, an individual leader alone cannot act as the key accountability mechanism; the community body is needed. Block Development Officer is wrong because this officer supervises development work at block level and represents higher administrative authority, not direct village democracy. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to confuse formal authority with democratic accountability and to assume that the highest officer, such as the Block Development Officer or Sarpanch, is the key factor. However, the principle of local self government emphasises that people collectively, through the Gram Sabha, hold their representatives accountable. Another pitfall is to overlook the Gram Sabha simply because it might not meet very frequently in practice, but in exam questions, the constitutional design and ideal framework are tested. Final Answer: Gram Sabha is the key factor that makes the Gram Panchayat play its role properly and remain responsible to the village community.

Question 10

Under which central government campaign were 100 accessible websites of various state governments and union territories launched on 19 January 2018 to support divyangjans persons with disabilities?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question refers to a specific initiative of the Government of India aimed at improving digital accessibility for persons with disabilities, officially referred to as divyangjans. In recent years, several flagship campaigns have been launched, such as Make in India, Skill India, Digital India and Accessible India. Understanding which initiative is linked to accessibility and disability rights is important for exams that test awareness of government schemes and inclusive development. Given Data / Assumptions: On 19 January 2018, the government launched 100 accessible websites of various state and union territory governments. The purpose was to make these websites more usable for persons with disabilities or divyangjans. The options include Make in India, Skill India, Digital India and Accessible India. We assume basic familiarity with the objectives of these flagship campaigns. Concept / Approach: The core concept is to match the correct campaign with the goal of improving accessibility for persons with disabilities. Make in India focuses on manufacturing and investment, Skill India aims at skill development and employability, Digital India works on digital infrastructure and services for all citizens, while Accessible India, also called Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan, specifically targets accessibility in the physical and digital environment for persons with disabilities. Therefore, an initiative to make government websites accessible to divyangjans clearly falls under Accessible India. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Make in India is mainly about promoting manufacturing, investments and industrial growth in India.Step 2: Recall that Skill India focuses on skill development for the workforce through training and certification programmes.Step 3: Recall that Digital India aims to transform India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy, focusing on connectivity and e governance.Step 4: Recall that Accessible India or Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan specifically aims to make the physical environment, public transport and information and communication technologies accessible for persons with disabilities.Step 5: Note that launching 100 accessible government websites directly aligns with the goal of improving information and communication accessibility for divyangjans.Step 6: Conclude that the initiative is part of the Accessible India campaign. Verification / Alternative check: As an alternative check, remember that news reports around early 2018 clearly mentioned that the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment was working on Accessible India. One component of this campaign was to make government websites compliant with accessibility guidelines, such as using screen reader friendly designs. This confirms the link between accessible websites and the Accessible India campaign rather than the other flagship schemes. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Make in India is wrong because its focus is on manufacturing and investment, not specifically on disability access. Skill India is wrong because it mainly addresses skill development and vocational training, not website accessibility. Digital India is wrong in this context because although it promotes e governance, the specific branding for disability related accessibility is under Accessible India. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to see the word websites and immediately choose Digital India, since it deals broadly with digital platforms. However, the question clearly mentions accessibility for divyangjans, which should trigger recall of the Accessible India or Sugamya Bharat initiative. Another pitfall is to confuse various flagship schemes due to their overlapping timelines and similar official logos, so it is important to link each scheme with its primary theme. Final Answer: Accessible India is the campaign under which 100 accessible state and union territory government websites were launched on 19 January 2018 for divyangjans.

Question 11

In the context of Indian public policy, the Ramanujam committee was constituted for which main purpose?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question is about a specific committee formed by the Government of India known as the Ramanujam committee. Various expert committees are set up from time to time to examine issues like economic reforms, legal reforms, banking, and social problems. For competitive examinations it is important to match the correct mandate with the correct committee so that you do not confuse one reform initiative with another. Given Data / Assumptions: The Ramanujam committee is the committee under discussion. Several possible areas of work are suggested in the options, such as child trafficking, corruption in banks, foreign trade, and obsolete laws. Only one of these areas correctly reflects the main function of the Ramanujam committee. We assume a basic awareness of major committees on legal and governance reforms. Concept / Approach: The correct approach is to recall that the Ramanujam committee was set up to review and recommend the repeal or amendment of obsolete, redundant and unnecessary laws that were still technically in force. Over time, many old laws remain on the statute books even though they are no longer relevant. The committee studied such laws and suggested how to streamline the legal framework. It was not specifically formed to deal with child trafficking, bank corruption or foreign trade regulation, so those options can be eliminated. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that the question is about a government appointed committee focused on reforms.Step 2: Recall that Ramanujam committee is most closely linked with legal reforms and cleaning up the statute books.Step 3: Consider option A about child trafficking and note that specialised child protection commissions and other bodies typically address that topic, not a law rationalisation committee.Step 4: Consider option B about checking corruption in banks and remember that other committees and regulatory bodies deal with banking oversight, not Ramanujam committee.Step 5: Consider option C about foreign trade and recall that foreign trade is handled by bodies like the Directorate General of Foreign Trade and other committees, not primarily the Ramanujam committee.Step 6: Recognise that option D about avoiding or removing obsolete laws matches the legal reform mandate of the Ramanujam committee. Verification / Alternative check: A verification method is to remember media reports that often mentioned the committee in connection with clearing away a large number of old Acts and regulations that had become irrelevant or burdensome. The focus was on rationalising and modernising the legal framework to improve ease of doing business and reduce legal clutter. No major announcement connects the Ramanujam committee with the specific topics of child trafficking, banking corruption or foreign trade supervision, which supports the choice of obsolete laws as the core purpose. Why Other Options Are Wrong: To keep a check on child trafficking is wrong because that sensitive issue is usually handled by specialised child protection bodies, law enforcement, and social welfare agencies, not a law repeal committee. To check corruption in banks is wrong because this field falls under the domain of banking regulators, vigilance bodies and anti corruption agencies. To oversee foreign trade is wrong because foreign trade policy is dealt with by dedicated trade departments and committees, whereas Ramanujam committee focused on legal clean up. Common Pitfalls: Candidates often memorise committee names without firmly associating them with their mandates, which leads to confusion when similar sounding issues appear in options. Another pitfall is to select options that feel more dramatic, such as child trafficking or bank corruption, instead of the relatively technical issue of obsolete laws. To avoid this, always link committee names with their specific objective and practise a table of important committees and their functions. Final Answer: To identify and avoid obsolete laws is the correct description of the purpose for which the Ramanujam committee was constituted.

Question 12

According to data for the year 2015, approximately what percentage of the Indian population had access to the internet in India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question examines your awareness of digital penetration and internet access in India around the year 2015. Internet usage statistics are often used in exams to highlight the progress of digital inclusion and the challenges that remain. Knowing the approximate percentage of the population with internet access in a given year helps you understand the pace at which digital connectivity is spreading in the country. Given Data / Assumptions: The year under consideration is 2015. The question asks for the percentage of the Indian population that had access to the internet in that year. The options are 20 percent, 23 percent, 29 percent and 26 percent. We assume that the value is based on widely used data sources that place Indian internet penetration in the mid twenties to high twenties in that period. Concept / Approach: The approach is to recall approximate figures for internet penetration in India around 2015. Various international reports, telecom data and exam oriented materials generally show that internet users in India then accounted for a little more than one quarter of the total population. Many exam keys round this figure and provide a closest match among the given options. The value most often cited in competitive exam material for 2015 is about 29 percent, which is why 29 percent is treated as the correct option here. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that in the early 2010s, internet penetration in India was still relatively low, with figures below 20 percent.Step 2: Recognise that by 2015, mobile internet growth and cheaper data had significantly increased the share of the population with internet access.Step 3: Remember that exam oriented data often places Indian internet penetration at slightly below one third of the population for 2015.Step 4: Compare the options: 20 percent and 23 percent are closer to earlier years, whereas 26 percent and 29 percent are closer to the mid twenties to high twenties range.Step 5: Note that many compiled exam keys use 29 percent as the figure for 2015, matching the idea that about three out of ten Indians had internet access by then.Step 6: Conclude that 29 percent is the most appropriate answer among the options provided. Verification / Alternative check: Several reports and analyses on internet usage mention that India crossed roughly the one quarter mark in 2014 and continued to grow in 2015. Exam compendiums and banking awareness books frequently quote a figure very close to 29 percent for 2015. While slightly different statistical sources may quote figures such as 26 percent or 27 percent, in the context of this specific question and its answer key, 29 percent is the value that matches the intended solution. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 20 percent is wrong because that level is more representative of earlier years when internet penetration was much lower. 23 percent is wrong because it underestimates the growth in users by 2015 compared to widely cited figures. 26 percent is wrong in this exam context, even though it is mathematically close, because the key figure used in question banks is 29 percent. Common Pitfalls: A common pitfall is to overthink minor differences between similar numerical options and to feel uncertain between 26 percent and 29 percent. Another mistake is to rely on outdated statistics from earlier years without checking how rapidly internet usage has grown. In exams, it is helpful to memorise the figures most commonly quoted in standard practice books, even if real world numbers may vary slightly due to different survey methods. Final Answer: 29 percent is the approximate percentage of the Indian population that had access to the internet in 2015 as per the data commonly used in exam questions.

Question 13

According to the 2016 Janes Defence Budgets Report, what was India ranked among the global defence spenders in terms of total military expenditure?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question is about India's position in the world in terms of defence spending, as reported by the 2016 Janes Defence Budgets Report. Defence expenditure rankings are often quoted in general knowledge and current affairs exams to show how countries compare in military strength and budget allocation. Knowing India's approximate position helps you understand its role as a major defence power. Given Data / Assumptions: The specific source mentioned is the 2016 Janes Defence Budgets Report. The question asks for India's rank among global defence spenders. The options given are Fourth, Third, Ninth and Fifth. We assume the report compared total military expenditure of different countries in that period. Concept / Approach: The approach is to recall common rankings for global defence expenditure in the mid 2010s. The largest spender is generally the United States, followed by China, then countries like Saudi Arabia or Russia depending on the year, and India is usually just below these top three or four nations. According to widely cited figures from the 2016 Janes Defence Budgets Report, India was identified as the fourth largest defence spender globally at that time. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that the United States consistently ranks first in global defence spending.Step 2: Recall that China has become the second largest defence spender, with a rapidly growing military budget.Step 3: Note that countries such as Saudi Arabia and Russia are also high on the list and can occupy the third or nearby positions.Step 4: Remember that India is usually placed just after these top spenders in many reports, reflecting its large and growing defence budget.Step 5: According to the 2016 Janes Defence Budgets Report, India was specifically highlighted as the fourth largest defence spender in the world.Step 6: Therefore, among the options, Fourth is the correct rank. Verification / Alternative check: Another way to check is to consider how media and exam capsules summarised the report at that time. Many news articles emphasised that India had moved into the group of top four defence spenders, behind the United States, China and either Saudi Arabia or Russia depending on classification. Very few credible sources placed India as low as ninth or as high as third for that particular report and year, which confirms that the intended correct answer is fourth. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Third is wrong because, at that time, another country such as Saudi Arabia or Russia still had a larger defence budget than India. Ninth is clearly wrong as it underestimates India's significant military expenditure and global rank. Fifth is wrong because the report specifically elevated India to the fourth position, not the fifth, in global defence spending. Common Pitfalls: Students often confuse rankings from different years or from different sources such as SIPRI and Janes, which may have slightly different methodologies. Another pitfall is to assume that India's rank has always been the same, without noting whether the question refers to a specific year and report. Reading the question carefully to note the reference to the 2016 Janes Defence Budgets Report is important for choosing the correct rank. Final Answer: Fourth is India's rank among global defence spenders according to the 2016 Janes Defence Budgets Report.

Question 14

Which e commerce company partnered with the National Highways Authority of India NHAI to enable cashless payments at national and city toll plazas through electronic means?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question relates to the promotion of digital payments in India, particularly in the context of road travel and toll collection. As part of the push towards a less cash economy, the National Highways Authority of India NHAI teamed up with a popular payment platform to make toll payments easier and cashless. Awareness of such partnerships is important in exams that cover digital initiatives, banking awareness and infrastructure. Given Data / Assumptions: The partner organisation is an e commerce or digital payments company. The partnership with NHAI was to enable cashless payments at national and city toll plazas. The options are Paytm, Mobikwik, Freecharge and Oxigen. We assume the question refers to the widely publicised arrangement that allowed using a wallet or similar service for toll payments. Concept / Approach: The approach is to recall which of these digital payment companies was prominently associated with toll payments and NHAI. Paytm, a leading digital wallet and payments platform, entered into an agreement with NHAI to facilitate electronic toll payments and to integrate with systems like FASTag for smoother travel. Although other companies such as Mobikwik, Freecharge and Oxigen also operate in the digital payment space, the widely reported partnership with NHAI for toll plaza cashless payments was with Paytm. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that NHAI manages national highways and toll plazas in India.Step 2: Recall news about the push towards electronic toll collection and the introduction of tags and digital wallets.Step 3: Remember that Paytm was one of the most visible partners in this initiative, offering users the ability to recharge and pay tolls digitally.Step 4: Note that while Mobikwik, Freecharge and Oxigen are also digital payment platforms, they were not highlighted in the same way in connection with NHAI toll plazas.Step 5: Match this recollection with the options and select Paytm as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Media reports at the time of the partnership emphasised that Paytm was working with NHAI to simplify toll payments and support electronic toll collection systems. Users could link their Paytm accounts to tags or toll accounts to pay automatically at toll booths, reducing congestion and the need for cash. No similar level of coverage associated Mobikwik, Freecharge or Oxigen with a primary nationwide toll partnership with NHAI, supporting the choice of Paytm. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Mobikwik is wrong because, although it is a recognised digital wallet, it was not the main platform announced in partnership with NHAI for toll plazas in this question context. Freecharge is wrong because it was more associated with mobile recharges and other payments and not specifically highlighted for NHAI toll arrangements. Oxigen is wrong because this payments platform also did not become the headline partner for NHAI cashless toll payments in the way Paytm did. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates assume that any famous wallet could be the answer and guess based on personal use rather than recall of the specific partnership. Others may confuse later developments in digital payments with the particular event referenced in the question. To avoid such errors, it is helpful to link specific government collaborations with the correct company names and to revise these pairings regularly. Final Answer: Paytm is the e commerce and digital payments company that partnered with NHAI to enable cashless payments at national and city toll plazas.

Question 15

The high security banknote production facility that is credited with the design and production of the rupees 2000 banknote in India has been set up at which location?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question is about currency note production in India and a modern high security facility associated with the design and production of the rupees 2000 note. After the demonetisation exercise and the introduction of new series banknotes, particular attention was given to secure printing presses and design facilities. Knowing where such a facility is located is useful for banking awareness and general knowledge exams. Given Data / Assumptions: The facility in question is a high security banknote production unit. It is credited with the design or production of the rupees 2000 banknote. The options are Nasik, Dewas, Mysuru and Noida. All these locations are known for different printing presses or industrial activities, but only one matches the specific facility mentioned. Concept / Approach: The approach is to recall the main currency note printing locations in India. Banknote printing presses are located at Nasik and Dewas, as well as at Mysuru and Salboni. The high security printing press associated with the new series of notes, including the rupees 2000 denomination, is located at Mysuru in Karnataka and is managed under the Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran system. Therefore, among the options provided, Mysuru is the correct location. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that India has several note printing presses, including those at Nasik and Dewas under the Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Limited.Step 2: Recall that there are also printing facilities at Mysuru and Salboni, often associated with the Reserve Bank of India through its subsidiary.Step 3: Recognise that the new high security banknote production facility known for rupees 2000 note design and printing is at Mysuru.Step 4: Compare the options: Nasik and Dewas are older presses, and Noida is not known as a primary banknote printing location.Step 5: Conclude that Mysuru is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Newspaper reports and official statements around the introduction of the new rupees 2000 note often mentioned that designing and printing facilities at Mysuru played a central role. They highlighted this plant as a state of the art, high security unit. In contrast, Noida is better known for technology and industrial parks rather than currency printing, and Nasik and Dewas have long standing presses but were not singled out in the same way in connection with the rupees 2000 design. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Nasik is wrong because, although it has a long established currency press, it is not the specific new high security facility referenced here. Dewas is wrong because it is another currency and security printing site but again not the one credited with the rupees 2000 high security unit in this question. Noida is wrong because it does not host India's high security banknote production facility for the rupees 2000 note. Common Pitfalls: A typical mistake is to choose Nasik simply because it is the most famous name associated with currency printing historically. Another error is to guess randomly among the four cities without recalling that Mysuru was highlighted in connection with new series banknotes. To avoid such pitfalls, candidates should revise the map of banknote presses and associate each location with key facts like which notes were first printed there. Final Answer: Mysuru is the location of the high security banknote production facility credited with the design and production of the rupees 2000 banknote.

Question 16

To release wages under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme MGNREGS more directly and quickly, an electronic fund management system was launched by which bank?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question relates to the use of electronic fund management systems to improve wage payments under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme MGNREGS. Ensuring timely and direct wage credit to rural workers is a key governance concern. A major public sector bank partnered with the government to roll out an electronic fund management system, and you are expected to identify that bank. Given Data / Assumptions: The scheme mentioned is MGNREGS, which provides wage employment to rural households. The objective of the system is to release wages more directly and quickly. The solution involved an electronic fund management system often abbreviated as e FMS. The options are State Bank of Hyderabad, State Bank of Travancore, State Bank of India and Oriental Bank of Commerce. Concept / Approach: The approach is to recognise which bank, among the options, has the scale, reach and was publicly associated with such a large national initiative. State Bank of India is the largest public sector bank in the country with a broad rural branch network and strong technological capabilities. It was widely reported as partnering with the government to implement an e FMS for MGNREGS, ensuring that wages are credited directly to workers bank accounts, reducing delays and leakages. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that MGNREGS involves a high volume of wage payments to rural beneficiaries across many districts.Step 2: Remember that to streamline such payments, the government shifted towards electronic fund transfers rather than manual, paper based methods.Step 3: Identify that State Bank of India, as the country's largest bank, was a natural choice to support such a system.Step 4: Note that State Bank of Hyderabad and State Bank of Travancore were associate banks and not the primary pan India partner for this system.Step 5: Observe that Oriental Bank of Commerce, though a public sector bank, was also not the main implementing partner mentioned in the context of MGNREGS e FMS.Step 6: Conclude that State Bank of India is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: News articles and official communications about the MGNREGS payment reforms often referred to State Bank of India's technology and branch network being used to implement the e FMS. The scheme aimed to shorten payment cycles and reduce corruption by allowing funds to be transferred from the centre to the workers accounts without multiple intermediaries. No similar nationwide e FMS implementation under MGNREGS was primarily attributed to the other banks listed in the options. Why Other Options Are Wrong: State Bank of Hyderabad is wrong because it was an associate bank and did not lead the nationwide e FMS initiative for MGNREGS. State Bank of Travancore is wrong for similar reasons; it was regional in focus and not the main partner in the context of this scheme. Oriental Bank of Commerce is wrong because it was not the bank associated in exam and media references with the MGNREGS electronic fund management system rollout. Common Pitfalls: Candidates may see the words State Bank and select one of the associate banks without carefully noticing that the primary national level bank is State Bank of India. Another pitfall is to rely too much on guesswork when several public sector banks are listed. To avoid such errors, remember that large, flagship schemes that require wide coverage and strong technology support are frequently associated with State Bank of India. Final Answer: State Bank of India is the bank that launched and supported the electronic fund management system to release MGNREGS wages more directly and quickly.

Question 17

Which of the following advertising lines is the official slogan or tag line associated with Allahabad Bank?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Brand slogans or tag lines are short phrases that capture the identity and promise of an organisation. Indian banks often use memorable tag lines to differentiate themselves in a crowded financial market. This question asks you to match the correct slogan with Allahabad Bank, one of the prominent public sector banks prior to restructuring and mergers. Given Data / Assumptions: The bank in question is Allahabad Bank. The options are A tradition of trust, World wise, Honour your trust and Invest with confidence. Only one of these slogans is officially associated with Allahabad Bank. The others belong to different financial institutions or are generic phrases used elsewhere. Concept / Approach: The approach is to recall or memorise the association between banks and their tag lines, a common topic in banking awareness. Allahabad Bank emphasised its long history and heritage, and therefore used the slogan A tradition of trust to highlight continuity and reliability. The other tag lines in the options are associated with other banks or financial organisations and do not correctly match Allahabad Bank. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify the bank as Allahabad Bank, one of the oldest public sector banks in India.Step 2: Recall that its tag line focuses on heritage and trust built over many decades.Step 3: Recognise that the slogan A tradition of trust fits this theme of a long standing, reliable institution.Step 4: Compare this with the other options, which do not reflect the same historic angle and are known to belong to other banks.Step 5: Based on this recall, choose A tradition of trust as the correct slogan for Allahabad Bank. Verification / Alternative check: A quick verification method is to mentally list some commonly tested bank slogans. For example, World wise and Honour your trust are associated with other banking brands and not with Allahabad Bank. Practice tables in banking awareness books and online quizzes explicitly pair Allahabad Bank with A tradition of trust. When multiple sources repeat the same association, it confirms that this is the correct tag line in the exam context. Why Other Options Are Wrong: World wise is wrong because it is associated with another financial brand and not with Allahabad Bank. Honour your trust is wrong because this line is used by a different banking institution and does not match Allahabad Bank's traditional positioning. Invest with confidence is wrong because it is a more generic investment slogan and not the standard tag line used by Allahabad Bank in its branding. Common Pitfalls: One common mistake is to assume that any phrase containing the word trust must belong to a bank, without checking exactly which bank uses it. Another pitfall is to mix up slogans when multiple options sound similar and reassuring. To avoid this, students should maintain a small list of bank slogans and revise them frequently, paying particular attention to older public sector banks that appear often in exams. Final Answer: A tradition of trust is the official slogan associated with Allahabad Bank.

Question 18

In Indian banking terminology, what is meant by the Cash Reserve Ratio CRR maintained by commercial banks with the Reserve Bank of India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question is a core concept from banking and monetary policy. Cash Reserve Ratio, commonly abbreviated as CRR, is one of the tools used by the Reserve Bank of India to manage liquidity in the banking system. A clear understanding of CRR is essential for anyone studying banking awareness, macroeconomics or preparing for competitive exams involving financial systems. Given Data / Assumptions: The term under discussion is Cash Reserve Ratio, CRR. The context is the relationship between commercial banks and the Reserve Bank of India. The options include deposits in government securities, borrowing rates and reserves maintained as cash with the central bank. We assume that the reader knows that CRR is expressed as a percentage of bank deposits. Concept / Approach: CRR refers to the percentage of a bank's net demand and time liabilities that must be maintained as cash reserves with the central bank. This cash is kept with the Reserve Bank of India and cannot be used by banks for lending or investment. By raising or lowering the CRR, the central bank can influence the amount of funds banks have available to lend, thereby controlling liquidity and credit in the economy. It is not a rate of interest and it is distinct from other tools like the repo rate or statutory liquidity ratio. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that CRR is a mandatory reserve maintained by commercial banks with the Reserve Bank of India.Step 2: Note that this reserve is held in the form of cash balances and is calculated as a percentage of the bank's deposits, specifically net demand and time liabilities.Step 3: Recognise that CRR does not refer to investments in government securities; that concept is related more to statutory liquidity ratio.Step 4: Understand that CRR is also not a borrowing rate; borrowing rates are represented by terms like repo rate and marginal standing facility rate.Step 5: From the options, identify that the description matching CRR is the portion of deposits kept as cash reserves with the Reserve Bank of India.Step 6: Select option C as the correct definition. Verification / Alternative check: Standard banking textbooks and Reserve Bank of India publications define CRR clearly as the requirement for banks to maintain a certain percentage of their deposits as cash with the RBI. When the central bank raises CRR, banks must keep more money idle with the RBI, leaving them with less to lend. When CRR is reduced, the opposite happens and liquidity in the system increases. None of the other options accurately describe this mechanism, confirming that the chosen definition is correct. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Deposits of banks in government securities is wrong because that corresponds more closely to statutory liquidity ratio requirements, not CRR. Rate at which banks borrow funds from the Reserve Bank of India is wrong because this is the repo rate or related borrowing rate, not CRR. Rate at which the Reserve Bank of India borrows money from the banks is wrong because that would refer to other instruments, not to CRR, which is a reserve requirement. Common Pitfalls: Many learners confuse CRR with SLR since both involve percentages of deposits that must be held in certain forms. The key difference is that CRR is held as cash with the central bank, while SLR can be maintained in government securities and other approved assets. Another pitfall is to mistake CRR for an interest rate due to its percentage representation. Remember that CRR is a ratio describing a required reserve, not a cost of borrowing. Final Answer: Portion of deposits kept as cash reserves with the Reserve Bank of India is the correct description of Cash Reserve Ratio, CRR, in Indian banking.

Question 19

In Indian financial infrastructure, what does the abbreviation GIFT stand for in the name of the Gujarat based GIFT City project?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: GIFT is an important abbreviation in Indian financial news because it appears in the name GIFT City, a flagship project in Gujarat. Competitive exams often ask about the full form of such abbreviations, as they test awareness of economic infrastructure and government initiatives. Understanding what GIFT stands for also helps learners connect the project with its purpose as a financial and technology hub rather than confusing it with education or tax related schemes. Given Data / Assumptions: The question refers to the abbreviation GIFT used in the term GIFT City in Gujarat. GIFT City is known as an international financial services and technology hub. The options include several similar sounding expansions related to Gujarat or finance. We assume the context is Indian economic and financial geography. Concept / Approach: The approach is to recall or deduce the correct expansion of the abbreviation GIFT in connection with GIFT City. Since GIFT City is a planned global financial and information technology city, the expansion must clearly reflect finance and technology, not fashion, tax or general government trade. Elimination of unlikely options is a standard method in such general knowledge questions. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Note that GIFT City is located near Gandhinagar in Gujarat and is promoted as an international financial services hub. Step 2: Option a mentions Gujarat Institute of Fashion Technology, which relates to education and fashion, not a financial city. Step 3: Option b, Government of India Foreign Trade, does not mention Gujarat and also does not match the known branding of the project. Step 4: Option c, Gapping Income Free Of Tax, is not a standard institutional or project name and sounds like a made up phrase. Step 5: Option d, Gujarat International Finance Tec City, closely matches the known official name Gujarat International Finance Tec City. Step 6: Option e, Gujarat Infrastructure and Financial Technology City, sounds similar but does not match the standard expansion used in official documents. Step 7: Therefore the most accurate expansion is Gujarat International Finance Tec City. Verification / Alternative check: A quick verification approach is to remember that GIFT City is often described as an International Financial Services Centre. The key words International, Finance and Tec (for technology) appear together only in the option Gujarat International Finance Tec City. This confirms that option d is correct and the others are distractors that either misplace or omit important terms. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option a is wrong because it suggests an educational fashion institute and has no link with a financial city project. Option b is incorrect as it broadly refers to Government of India Foreign Trade and does not include Gujarat or the concept of a city. Option c is an invented tax related phrase that is not used officially. Option e is close in meaning but does not match the widely accepted official expansion of GIFT, which uses International Finance Tec City rather than Infrastructure and Financial Technology City. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to choose an option that sounds roughly correct but does not match the exact official name. Another pitfall is to be misled by options that contain attractive phrases like fashion technology or infrastructure without checking whether they are actually used in government documents. Learners should pay attention to the presence of the words International, Finance and Tec together, as these capture the core idea of GIFT City as a global financial technology hub in Gujarat. Final Answer: The abbreviation GIFT in GIFT City stands for Gujarat International Finance Tec City.

Question 20

To promote cashless transactions and move India towards a cashless digital economy, which committee was constituted by the Government of India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: After large policy moves aimed at reducing cash usage, the Government of India focused on building a cashless and digital economy. To support this objective, it constituted a high level committee to suggest ways of improving digital payments. Questions like this test awareness of key committees and personalities who shape policy in the area of financial inclusion and digital transactions. Given Data / Assumptions: The committee in question was created specifically to push cashless transactions in India. The focus is on digital payments and a cashless economy. The options list several committees named after different prominent individuals. We assume a context of recent economic reforms and digital payment initiatives. Concept / Approach: The approach is to remember which committee was directly associated with digital payments and cashless economy reforms. The NITI Aayog and senior officials like Amitabh Kant were closely connected with Digital India and similar programmes, so identifying that link is important. Eliminating committees known for other subjects, such as trade or earlier banking reforms, also helps reach the right answer. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that a committee on digital payments was set up under the chairmanship of Amitabh Kant, who has been a senior figure in NITI Aayog. Step 2: Option b directly names the Amitabh Kant Committee, which matches this known fact. Step 3: The Adhyarjuna Committee in option a is not associated with cashless payments and seems like a distractor. Step 4: The A Ghosh Committee in option c is known in banking history for other aspects and not for modern digital payment reforms. Step 5: The Abid Hussain Committee in option d dealt with trade related recommendations, not cashless transactions. Step 6: Option e, Digital Payments Review Committee, sounds generic and is not the officially known name of the committee constituted by the government in this context. Step 7: Hence the correct answer is the Amitabh Kant Committee. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative way to check is to associate names with flagship programmes. Amitabh Kant is widely associated with initiatives such as Make in India and Digital India and frequently appears in discussions about digital transformation. None of the other names in the options are strongly linked with digital payment reforms in the same way, which strengthens the conclusion that option b is correct. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option a is incorrect because there is no major government committee on cashless transactions commonly known by that name. Option c is wrong since the A Ghosh Committee belongs to a different policy context and era. Option d is wrong because the Abid Hussain Committee focused largely on trade policy and economic reforms unrelated to digital payments. Option e is a descriptive phrase rather than the proper title of the committee that advised on cashless transactions. Common Pitfalls: A common pitfall is to be attracted to a generic sounding name like Digital Payments Review Committee simply because it matches the topic. Students may forget that exam questions often test knowledge of exact official committee names and their chairpersons. Another mistake is to mix up older committees on banking reforms with newer committees on digital payments. To avoid such errors, learners should build simple association maps linking important reforms with the key names behind them, such as linking digital payment reforms with Amitabh Kant. Final Answer: The committee formed to promote a cashless digital economy was the Amitabh Kant Committee.

Basic General Knowledge Questions