Question 1

Who was appointed as the Secretary General of the United Nations in January 2017?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question tests knowledge of major global institutions and their leadership, specifically the United Nations. The Secretary General is the chief administrative officer of the UN and a prominent international figure. Knowing who assumed this role in January 2017 is a frequent current affairs and general knowledge requirement for many competitive examinations. Given Data / Assumptions: The role under discussion is the Secretary General of the United Nations. The time reference is January 2017, when a new Secretary General assumed office. The options list four individuals who all served as United Nations Secretary Generals at different times. Concept / Approach: The United Nations Secretary General is appointed by the General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council. Ban Ki Moon of South Korea served two terms from January 2007 to December 2016. His successor from January 2017 is Antonio Guterres of Portugal, who previously served as Prime Minister of Portugal and as UN High Commissioner for Refugees. Kofi Annan and Boutros Boutros Ghali were earlier Secretaries General in the late twentieth and early twenty first century. Matching the periods of service with the date given in the question leads to the correct answer. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Ban Ki Moon completed his second term as UN Secretary General at the end of December 2016. Step 2: Remember that Antonio Guterres from Portugal was chosen as his successor. Step 3: Note that Antonio Guterres formally took office on 1 January 2017. Step 4: Compare with the options and identify Antonio Guterres as the only person whose tenure began in January 2017. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative check is to remember the chronological order of these leaders: Boutros Boutros Ghali, then Kofi Annan, then Ban Ki Moon, and finally Antonio Guterres. Since the question mentions January 2017, the only possible answer after Ban Ki Moon is Antonio Guterres. This sequence helps avoid confusion when similar names are listed together. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Ban Ki-Moon: He completed his tenure in December 2016 and was not newly appointed in January 2017. Kofi Annan: He served as Secretary General from 1997 to 2006, so he is from an earlier period. Boutros-Boutros Ghali: He served from 1992 to 1996 and therefore does not match the date in the question. Common Pitfalls: Learners often remember the names but not the precise order or years of service. This can lead to confusion between Ban Ki Moon and Antonio Guterres. Another mistake is to focus only on familiarity; names like Kofi Annan may feel more familiar, but exam questions depend on exact timelines. Keeping a simple mental list of Secretaries General in chronological order is very helpful for such questions. Final Answer: The person appointed as Secretary General of the United Nations in January 2017 is Antonio Guterres.

Question 2

In the context of promoting electronics manufacturing in India, what is the full form of the scheme known as M-SIPS?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question focuses on economic and industrial policy related to the electronics manufacturing sector in India. M SIPS is an important scheme launched by the Government of India to encourage investments in electronic systems design and manufacturing. Competitive examinations often ask the full forms of key schemes and acronyms that are central to recent policy initiatives. Given Data / Assumptions: The acronym given is M-SIPS. It is mentioned in the context of attracting investment in electronics manufacturing. Several plausible full forms are given, but only one exactly matches the official expansion. Concept / Approach: M SIPS stands for Modified Special Incentive Package Scheme. It was designed to promote large scale investments in electronic systems design and manufacturing by providing financial incentives such as capital subsidies and reimbursement of duties and taxes. The words that define the acronym are important: Modified, Special, Incentive, Package and Scheme. Any alternative that changes these core words is not correct, even if it sounds similar. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Break the acronym M-SIPS into parts: M, S, I, P and S. Step 2: Recall that in government scheme terminology, SIPS here stands for Special Incentive Package Scheme. Step 3: Understand that M represents Modified, because the scheme was revised from an earlier version. Step 4: Combine these parts to get Modified Special Incentive Package Scheme. Step 5: Compare this with the options and choose the one that matches exactly. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, think about how government schemes in the field of industry and manufacturing are typically named. They usually use the word Incentive rather than Information, Sustainable or Socialist, especially when offering financial benefits. Also, Special Package Scheme is common wording for a group of incentives. Remembering that this scheme targets electronics manufacturing and design helps confirm that Modified Special Incentive Package Scheme is the official expansion. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Modified Sustainable Investment Package Scheme: Uses the words Sustainable and Investment, which do not match the official scheme name. Modified Special Information Package Scheme: Information does not reflect the provision of financial incentives. Modern Socialist Incentive Package Scheme: Modern and Socialist are not part of the official name and do not describe this specific electronics scheme. Common Pitfalls: Learners may rely on guesswork and focus only on one or two words like Modified or Package, ignoring the exact composition of the acronym. Another pitfall is confusing M-SIPS with other economic schemes that use similar sounding terms like Sustainable or Investment. For exam success, it is important to memorise the core acronyms precisely, especially in the fields of industry, finance and digital initiatives. Final Answer: The full form of M-SIPS is Modified Special Incentive Package Scheme.

Question 3

Due to increased weapon and missile launching missions of North Korea, which country launched a spy satellite to monitor North Korean activities?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question relates to international security and defence related current affairs. North Korea has carried out multiple missile and nuclear tests, creating concern in the East Asian region. Neighbouring countries and global powers have responded with measures such as deploying missile defence systems and launching spy satellites. The question asks which specific country launched a spy satellite to monitor North Korean weapon activities. Given Data / Assumptions: North Korea is conducting increased weapon and missile launch missions. A neighbouring or concerned country launched a spy satellite for monitoring. The options are South Korea, USA, China and Japan. Concept / Approach: Japan has repeatedly launched reconnaissance satellites to monitor developments in North Korea, particularly its ballistic missile and nuclear programmes. These satellites are often referred to as information gathering satellites. While countries like the United States and South Korea also closely watch North Korea using various means, the specific news item generally highlighted Japan as the country launching a dedicated spy satellite in response to North Korean tests. Thus, the correct answer is Japan. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Japan is geographically close to North Korea and is directly threatened by its missile tests. Step 2: Japan has developed and launched several information gathering satellites for reconnaissance purposes. Step 3: News reports of the period highlighted a Japanese launch of a spy satellite to monitor North Korea. Step 4: Compare this with other options. While the USA and South Korea track North Korea, the question refers to a specific satellite launch used in many exam questions. Step 5: Conclude that Japan is the country referred to in the question. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, you can connect each option to typical responses to North Korean activity. The USA deploys strategic assets and missile defence systems, but the exam question in standard preparation material focuses on the Japanese information gathering satellite launch. South Korea relies more on alliance based intelligence and missile defence. China tends to call for dialogue and stability rather than launching spy satellites specifically targeting North Korea. This pattern of behaviour helps confirm Japan as the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: South Korea: It is directly affected and has defence systems, but the famous satellite launch highlighted in many questions was by Japan. USA: The United States has global reconnaissance capability, but the specific report associated with this question refers to a Japanese satellite. China: China is a regional power and neighbour but did not feature in this commonly asked news item as the launcher of a spy satellite dedicated to monitoring North Korea. Common Pitfalls: A frequent mistake is to choose the USA simply because it is known for powerful spy satellites, or South Korea because of its direct conflict with North Korea. However, exam questions often focus on news items that highlight new steps taken by countries that earlier did not have such capability at large scale. Remembering that Japan has its own information gathering satellite programme aimed partly at North Korea is the key to avoiding this error. Final Answer: The country that launched a spy satellite to monitor North Korean weapon activities is Japan.

Question 4

India has a long standing land border dispute near Tawang along the Himalayas with which of the following countries?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question checks knowledge of Indian geography and international relations, specifically territorial disputes. Tawang is a region in Arunachal Pradesh in the eastern Himalayas. It has strategic, cultural and religious significance and features prominently in discussions about the India China border dispute, especially in the eastern sector. Given Data / Assumptions: The disputed area mentioned is near Tawang. The dispute involves a land border along the Himalayas. Options list Pakistan, China, Afghanistan and Bangladesh as possible neighbouring countries. Concept / Approach: The Tawang region lies in Arunachal Pradesh, which is claimed almost entirely by China as part of south Tibet. India considers Arunachal Pradesh an integral part of its territory. This disagreement creates a longstanding land border dispute between India and China in the eastern sector. Pakistan borders India in the west, Bangladesh in the east plains and Afghanistan touches India only through the small Wakhan corridor claim, but none of these involve the Tawang sector. Therefore the correct answer is China. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Locate Tawang in basic Indian geography. It lies in Arunachal Pradesh in north eastern India, close to the border with China. Step 2: Recall that China disputes India's sovereignty over Arunachal Pradesh, calling it south Tibet. Step 3: Recognise that this leads to repeated mentions of Tawang in news reports about India China border tensions. Step 4: Compare the geographic positions of Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan and notice that none of them share the Tawang border region. Step 5: Conclude that the dispute near Tawang is with China. Verification / Alternative check: Another way to check is to recall major Indian border disputes: in the west, India disputes parts of Jammu and Kashmir with Pakistan; in the east and north east, India has boundary issues with China in Aksai Chin and Arunachal Pradesh. Bangladesh and India previously had enclaves and land boundary agreement issues but not near Tawang. Associating each dispute with its region helps confirm that the Tawang dispute is specific to China. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Pakistan: Border dispute with Pakistan concerns mainly Jammu and Kashmir in the western Himalayas, not Tawang in the eastern sector. Afghanistan: India has only a very narrow contact historically through the northern areas and no active dispute near Tawang. Bangladesh: Bangladesh shares plains borders with India in the east but not a Himalayan sector involving Tawang. Common Pitfalls: Some learners may automatically choose Pakistan whenever a border dispute with India is mentioned, because of the prominence of the Kashmir issue. Others may be confused between different Himalayan sectors. To avoid such mistakes, it is crucial to link particular regions with the correct neighbouring country: Aksai Chin and Arunachal Pradesh disputes involve China, whereas the line of control issues involve Pakistan. Tawang is clearly associated with the India China boundary. Final Answer: India has a land border dispute near Tawang with China.

Question 5

In constitutional and administrative law, what is the literal meaning of the writ of certiorari issued by a higher court?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question belongs to the area of Indian polity and constitutional law. It focuses on the literal meaning of one of the important writs that superior courts issue to control subordinate courts and tribunals. Aspirants for civil services, law entrance exams and other competitive tests should know both the purpose and the literal meaning of writs like habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto. Given Data / Assumptions: The writ under discussion is certiorari. The question asks specifically for its literal meaning, not just its functional use. Options include literal meanings of various other writs like mandamus and habeas corpus. Concept / Approach: Certiorari is a Latin term. Literally, it means to be certified or to be informed. As a writ, certiorari is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal, either to transfer a case or to quash a decision when the lower body has acted without jurisdiction, exceeded jurisdiction or violated principles of natural justice. The other Latin terms used in writ jurisprudence are mandamus meaning we command, habeas corpus meaning to have the body of, and prohibition meaning to forbid. Recognising these standard meanings is the key to answering the question correctly. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the list of five main writs recognised in Indian constitutional law: habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto. Step 2: Match each writ with its literal Latin meaning. Step 3: Remember that mandamus means we command, habeas corpus means to have the body of and prohibition means to forbid. Step 4: Note that certiorari literally means to be certified or to be informed. Step 5: Select the option that exactly captures this meaning. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative memory aid is to link the literal meaning with the function. When a higher court issues certiorari, it asks to be informed and certified about the record of a case so it can review the decision of a lower court or tribunal. The idea of being certified or informed aligns logically with the process of calling for the records and possibly quashing the order. This association helps verify that the correct literal meaning for certiorari is to be certified or to be informed. Why Other Options Are Wrong: We command: This is the literal meaning of mandamus, another writ directing a public authority to perform its duty. To have the body of: This is the literal meaning of habeas corpus, a writ to produce a person who is detained. To forbid: This is the literal meaning of prohibition, which restrains a lower court from continuing a proceeding beyond its jurisdiction. Common Pitfalls: Students often mix up the meanings of different Latin terms. Confusion between certiorari and prohibition is particularly common because both involve higher courts supervising lower courts or tribunals. A good practice is to create a small table of writ names, their literal Latin meanings and their purpose, and revise it regularly. This helps in avoiding last minute confusion during the examination. Final Answer: The literal meaning of the writ of certiorari is to be certified or to be informed.

Question 6

Where was the Azad Hind Fauj, also known as the Indian National Army, originally founded during the Second World War?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This history question relates to the Indian freedom struggle in the context of the Second World War. The Azad Hind Fauj, or Indian National Army, was an armed force formed to fight against British rule with support from Axis powers. Knowing where it was founded is a standard fact asked in many competitive examinations. Given Data / Assumptions: The organisation mentioned is Azad Hind Fauj, also known as the Indian National Army. The question asks for the place of its original founding. Options list Singapore, Thailand, Britain and Italy. Concept / Approach: The Indian National Army was first formed under the leadership of Mohan Singh with support from the Japanese in South East Asia. It was founded in Singapore in 1942 from Indian prisoners of war captured by Japanese forces. Later, Subhas Chandra Bose reorganised and strengthened the army, but the foundational place remains Singapore. Understanding the South East Asian theatre of the Second World War and Indian expatriate involvement helps in answering this correctly. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Indian National Army emerged among Indian soldiers captured by Japan in South East Asia. Step 2: Singapore was a major British base captured by Japan early in the war, with many Indian soldiers stationed there. Step 3: Mohan Singh formed the first version of the Indian National Army in Singapore in 1942. Step 4: Subhas Chandra Bose later took leadership and reorganised the force, but did not change the fact of its founding place. Step 5: Therefore, select Singapore as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: A quick verification method is to recall Subhas Chandra Bose's famous slogan and visits to Singapore, where he gave speeches, inspected troops and established the Provisional Government of Azad Hind. South East Asian Indian communities in Singapore and Malaya were central to the INA movement. There is no historical record of the INA being founded in Britain or Italy, which were part of the Allied and Axis powers respectively but not the base for Indian prisoners of war in this context. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Thailand: It was used for troop movements and campaigns, but the formal founding of the INA was in Singapore. Britain: Britain was the colonial ruler against whom the INA fought, so this cannot be the founding place. Italy: Italy was an Axis power in Europe, but it was not the base of Indian prisoners of war who formed the INA. Common Pitfalls: Some learners confuse different locations in South East Asia and may choose Thailand or another country. Others mix up the founding place with later campaign locations such as Burma. To avoid this, remember the simple sequence: formation in Singapore, campaigns through Burma and North East India, and trials of INA officers in Red Fort after the war. Final Answer: The Azad Hind Fauj or Indian National Army was originally founded in Singapore.

Question 7

Which Indian state was the first to implement the solar powered irrigation scheme known as the Saur Sujala Yojana?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question deals with rural development and renewable energy initiatives in India. Saur Sujala Yojana is a scheme that promotes the use of solar powered irrigation pumps for farmers. Knowing which state implemented it first reflects awareness of state level innovation in agriculture and energy policy. Given Data / Assumptions: The scheme mentioned is Saur Sujala Yojana. It involves solar based irrigation facilities. The question asks for the first Indian state to implement this scheme. Options are Chhattisgarh, Uttaranchal, Gujarat and Maharashtra. Concept / Approach: Saur Sujala Yojana was launched to provide solar powered irrigation pumps to farmers, reducing dependence on diesel and grid electricity. Chhattisgarh became the first state to implement this scheme on a significant scale. The programme was publicised as a pioneering effort in combining solar energy and agriculture, and is often mentioned in competitive exam material as an example of innovative state level schemes. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Associate Saur with solar energy and Sujala with irrigation or water related benefits. Step 2: Recall that Chhattisgarh has been highlighted in news reports for providing solar pumps to its farmers through Saur Sujala Yojana. Step 3: Recognise that the question asks for the first state, not just any state that might also adopt solar schemes later. Step 4: Note that while states like Gujarat and Maharashtra have solar and irrigation programmes, this specific scheme by name is usually associated first with Chhattisgarh. Step 5: Select Chhattisgarh as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative way to verify is to recall major speeches and national events where the scheme was mentioned. Chhattisgarh was frequently cited as an example for other states, showing how solar irrigation could reduce energy subsidies and improve farmer incomes. If you review lists of important state schemes for exam preparation, Saur Sujala Yojana is typically categorised under Chhattisgarh. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Uttaranchal: While it may use renewable energy, it is not known as the first state to implement Saur Sujala Yojana. Gujarat: Gujarat is a leader in solar power generally, but this particular scheme by this name is identified with Chhattisgarh. Maharashtra: It also runs various schemes for farmers, but it is not recorded as the first state for Saur Sujala Yojana. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to choose Gujarat because it is widely known for solar parks and innovative energy policies. However, exam questions are often about the specific naming of schemes, which are tied to particular states. Keeping a small summary list of important state schemes and their firsts helps in avoiding such confusions. Final Answer: The first Indian state to implement Saur Sujala Yojana was Chhattisgarh.

Question 8

Which one of the following pairs of famous Indian artists and their art forms is incorrect?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question assesses knowledge of Indian art and culture, particularly prominent personalities and their main fields of contribution. Examinations often ask for correct or incorrect matches between famous artists and their art forms. Recognising each person helps in understanding broader cultural heritage. Given Data / Assumptions: Four pairs of names and art forms are provided. The question asks which pair is incorrect. The personalities listed include Muthuswami Dikshitar, Parveen Sultana, M. S. Gopalakrishnan and Nandalal Bose. Concept / Approach: Muthuswami Dikshitar was one of the trinity of Carnatic music composers, so pairing him with Carnatic music is correct. Parveen Sultana is a renowned Hindustani classical vocalist, so describing her simply as a singer is broadly correct. M. S. Gopalakrishnan was a legendary violinist from the Carnatic as well as Hindustani traditions. Nandalal Bose, however, was a famous painter and an important figure in modern Indian art, not a flute player. Therefore, the pair Nandalal Bose – Flute is incorrect. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Match Muthuswami Dikshitar with Carnatic music. He was a major composer, so this pair is correct. Step 2: Recognise Parveen Sultana as a celebrated classical vocalist, thus the description as a singer is broadly correct. Step 3: Recall that M. S. Gopalakrishnan is widely known as a violin maestro, so that pair is correct. Step 4: Identify Nandalal Bose as a noted painter and art educator of the Bengal school, not associated with playing the flute. Step 5: Conclude that the pair Nandalal Bose – Flute is the incorrect match. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, you can recall common references: Muthuswami Dikshitar is frequently mentioned alongside Thyagaraja and Syama Sastri in Carnatic music history. Parveen Sultana's recordings are well known in Hindustani classical music. M. S. Gopalakrishnan is honoured in programmes and awards for violin performance. Nandalal Bose appears prominently in discussions about Indian painting, especially for his role in illustrating important works and collaborating with national movements, which clearly confirms his association with painting, not flute playing. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Muthuswami Dikshitar – Carnatic music: This is a correct match; he is a key Carnatic composer. Parveen Sultana – Singer: She is indeed a famous classical singer, so the pair is correct. M. S. Gopalakrishnan – Violinist: This is correct; he is celebrated as a violin maestro. Common Pitfalls: Sometimes candidates are not very familiar with Nandalal Bose and may assume he is also a musician because the other options are musical. This is a deliberate trap. Remember that exam setters often include one personality from another art form, such as painting, to test depth of knowledge. Building a small reference list of major figures in music, dance, painting and cinema helps avoid such mix ups. Final Answer: The incorrect pair is Nandalal Bose – Flute, because Nandalal Bose was a painter, not a flute player.

Question 9

Which of the following countries announced its exit from the Trans Pacific Partnership (TPP) in January 2017?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question concerns international trade agreements and recent geopolitical developments. The Trans Pacific Partnership, or TPP, was a major proposed trade agreement among several Pacific Rim nations. In January 2017, a significant event occurred when one major country withdrew from the agreement, creating wide media coverage and exam relevance. Given Data / Assumptions: The agreement in question is the Trans Pacific Partnership, abbreviated as TPP. The time frame is January 2017. The options are Japan, USA, Mexico and Brunei. Concept / Approach: The USA, under the new administration in January 2017, decided to withdraw from the TPP, arguing that it did not sufficiently benefit American workers. This decision was announced soon after the new President took office and became a major headline in global trade news. Japan, Mexico and Brunei remained in the grouping that later moved towards alternative structures without the USA. Thus, the correct answer is the United States of America. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the TPP was initially championed by the United States under an earlier administration. Step 2: In January 2017 a new administration in the USA issued an order withdrawing from the TPP. Step 3: Note that Japan strongly supported keeping the agreement alive even after the USA exit. Step 4: Mexico and Brunei were among other member countries that did not leave at that time. Step 5: Therefore identify the USA as the country that exited the TPP in January 2017. Verification / Alternative check: Another verification method is to recall economic discussions from that period, where media and analysts debated the impact of United States withdrawal from the TPP on its influence in Asia Pacific trade. The withdrawal was linked to domestic political promises in the USA. No major news of Japan, Mexico or Brunei exiting at that time exists in common exam resources, which confirms that the USA is the correct response. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Japan: Japan stayed committed to the TPP framework and later helped promote an alternative version without the USA. Mexico: Mexico remained a participant and did not announce an exit in January 2017. Brunei: Brunei is a smaller member state and did not withdraw in that period. Common Pitfalls: Learners sometimes confuse the TPP with other agreements like NAFTA or later trade discussions involving these countries. Another pitfall is assuming that a smaller country might have left rather than the largest economy, but in reality the news significance was precisely because the largest economy in the group withdrew. Remembering that it was the USA that walked away from the TPP in early 2017 will help avoid confusion. Final Answer: The country that exited the Trans Pacific Partnership in January 2017 was the USA.

Question 10

Which of the following country and famous tourist place combinations does not match correctly?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question checks knowledge of world geography and famous tourist destinations. Each option pairs a country with a well known landmark. The task is to identify which pair is incorrect. Such questions frequently appear in general knowledge sections to ensure that candidates know the approximate locations of major cultural and historical sites. Given Data / Assumptions: Four pairs of country and tourist place are given. China is paired with the Great Wall of China. Bhutan is paired with Paro Taktsang. Nepal is paired with Pashupatinath Temple. Sri Lanka is paired with Padmanabhaswamy Temple. Concept / Approach: The Great Wall of China is indeed in China. Paro Taktsang, also called Tiger's Nest Monastery, is in Bhutan. The Pashupatinath Temple is a famous Hindu temple located in Kathmandu, Nepal. Padmanabhaswamy Temple, however, is located in Thiruvananthapuram in Kerala, India, not in Sri Lanka. Therefore, the pair Sri Lanka – Padmanabhaswamy Temple is incorrect. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Match Great Wall of China to China. This is obviously correct. Step 2: Recall that Paro Taktsang monastery, perched on a cliff, is one of the most iconic sites in Bhutan. Step 3: Remember that Pashupatinath Temple is a major Hindu temple complex on the Bagmati River in Kathmandu, Nepal. Step 4: Recognise that Padmanabhaswamy Temple is a famous temple in Thiruvananthapuram, India, not in Sri Lanka. Step 5: Therefore the mismatched pair is Sri Lanka – Padmanabhaswamy Temple. Verification / Alternative check: Another way to verify is to recall pilgrimage maps. Devotees from India and abroad visit Padmanabhaswamy Temple as part of tours of south India, especially in Kerala. It is not listed under Sri Lankan tourism. On the other hand, Sri Lanka has famous sites such as the Temple of the Tooth in Kandy and Sigiriya rock fortress, which are not mentioned here. This confirms that pairing Padmanabhaswamy with Sri Lanka is incorrect. Why Other Options Are Wrong: China – Great Wall of China: This is correct; the wall extends across northern China. Bhutan – Paro Taktsang: This is correct; the monastery is a symbol of Bhutan. Nepal – Pashupatinath Temple: This is correct; it is in Kathmandu, Nepal. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may not have heard of Paro Taktsang and may suspect that pair. Others may only focus on the word Temple and guess. The key is to remember that Padmanabhaswamy Temple is a very famous site in Kerala and often appears in Indian news, especially related to its treasure vaults. Associating each landmark with an approximate region or capital city can help in such matching questions. Final Answer: The mismatched pair is Sri Lanka – Padmanabhaswamy Temple, because Padmanabhaswamy Temple is in India, not Sri Lanka.

Question 11

With which country has India recently decided to partner for strategic storage of crude oil in underground facilities in southern India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question relates to energy security and international economic cooperation. India has been developing strategic petroleum reserves in underground rock caverns in southern states such as Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. To optimise costs and strengthen ties, India has partnered with certain oil producing countries to store crude oil in these facilities. The question asks which country partnered with India for such strategic crude storage in southern India. Given Data / Assumptions: India is developing strategic crude oil storage in underground caverns in southern India. The arrangement involves a partnership with a foreign country. Options given are Iran, Iraq, United Arab Emirates and Saudi Arabia. Concept / Approach: India signed an agreement with the United Arab Emirates, specifically with Abu Dhabi National Oil Company, to store crude oil in the strategic reserve at Mangalore in Karnataka. Part of this stored crude can be used by India in emergencies, thereby enhancing energy security. The partnership is also beneficial to the UAE, as it gets a storage and distribution base in Asia. This widely reported cooperation forms the basis of the question and leads to the correct answer. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that India's strategic petroleum reserves are located in places like Mangalore, Padur and Visakhapatnam in southern India. Step 2: Remember that Abu Dhabi National Oil Company of the United Arab Emirates agreed to store crude in one of these caverns. Step 3: Understand that this arrangement allows India to use a part of the stored crude during supply disruptions. Step 4: Compare the options and identify that United Arab Emirates matches this agreement. Step 5: Therefore choose United Arab Emirates as the correct partner country. Verification / Alternative check: A quick check is to link major oil suppliers with strategic agreements. While India imports oil from Iran, Iraq and Saudi Arabia, the agreement for storing crude in Indian caverns was specifically reported with Abu Dhabi National Oil Company of the UAE. Reading standard current affairs compilations on energy security and strategic petroleum reserves usually confirms this fact. None of the other listed countries were highlighted in that specific context. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Iran: India imports oil from Iran, but the strategic storage partnership in southern caverns was not primarily associated with Iran. Iraq: Iraq is another supplier of crude, but it did not feature as the partner for storing crude in Indian strategic reserves in the specific news item. Saudi Arabia: Saudi Arabia is a major oil exporter and partner, but the arrangement mentioned in exam oriented material focuses on the UAE and its national oil company. Common Pitfalls: Because all the options are oil rich countries, candidates may choose randomly or pick the country they most associate with oil exports, such as Saudi Arabia. To avoid this, remember that this question is not about which country exports the most oil to India, but specifically about which country has stored crude in India's strategic caverns. Keeping a small list of India's strategic reserve locations and partner countries is useful. Final Answer: India partnered with the United Arab Emirates for strategic storage of crude oil in southern India.

Question 12

According to the Constitution of India, what is the minimum age required to be appointed as the Governor of a state?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question tests knowledge of the constitutional qualifications for high offices in India. The Governor is the constitutional head of a state, similar to the President at the Union level. Knowing the minimum age requirement for this office is part of basic polity awareness for various competitive exams. Given Data / Assumptions: The office in question is that of a state Governor. The requirement being asked is minimum age. Options range from 25 years to 40 years. Concept / Approach: Article 157 of the Constitution of India lays down the qualifications for the office of Governor. It states that a person shall be eligible for appointment as Governor only if he or she is a citizen of India and has completed the age of 35 years. This confirms that the minimum age is 35 years, which is higher than the minimum age for membership of the Lok Sabha or for the post of Chief Minister. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Article 157 specifies the basic qualifications for the Governor. Step 2: Note that the person must be a citizen of India and must have completed 35 years of age. Step 3: Compare this with the options 25, 30, 35 and 40 years. Step 4: Identify 35 years as the correct minimum age. Step 5: Therefore, select 35 years as the answer. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by comparing with other constitutional age limits. For Lok Sabha membership and the post of Chief Minister, the minimum age is 25 years. For Rajya Sabha membership, it is 30 years. For the posts of President, Vice President and Governor, the minimum age is 35 years. Remembering these groupings helps as a cross check and ensures that there is no confusion during the exam. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 25 years: This is the minimum age for membership of the Lok Sabha or a state Legislative Assembly, not for Governor. 30 years: This is the minimum age for membership of the Rajya Sabha or a state Legislative Council. 40 years: The Constitution does not require 40 years for the Governor; 35 years is sufficient. Common Pitfalls: A common error is to mix up the age limits for different offices, especially between 30 and 35. Another pitfall is assuming that the Governor must be older than the President, which is not true because both require a minimum of 35 years. Creating a simple table of age requirements for MP, MLA, MLC, Governor, President and Vice President can help in quick revision. Final Answer: The minimum age required to be appointed as a Governor of a state in India is 35 years.

Question 13

What is the name of the health scheme for Employees State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) beneficiaries launched in the Delhi region?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question relates to social security and healthcare schemes for workers in India. The Employees State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) provides health and social security benefits to organised sector workers. A specific scheme was launched in the Delhi region to improve access to medical services for ESIC beneficiaries, and this question asks for the name of that scheme. Given Data / Assumptions: The scheme is meant for ESIC beneficiaries. It was launched in the Delhi region. The options are Sakushal Humesha, Kahin Bhi Kabhi Bhi, Jeevan Arogya and Shramik Kalyan. Concept / Approach: ESIC introduced a scheme called Kahin Bhi Kabhi Bhi, which translates roughly to Anytime Anywhere. It aims to allow insured persons to access outpatient services in any ESIC dispensary or hospital, not just the one originally attached to their address. This improves flexibility and convenience for workers who may move within the city or work in different locations. Remembering the catchy name helps answer the question correctly. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that ESIC schemes often use Hindi phrases that reflect ease of access and worker welfare. Step 2: Recall that Kahin Bhi Kabhi Bhi was launched to allow ESIC beneficiaries to seek medical services from any ESIC facility in the region. Step 3: Check each option and see which name matches this intention of anytime anywhere service. Step 4: Sakushal Humesha, Jeevan Arogya and Shramik Kalyan sound like generic welfare names but are not the specific ESIC scheme widely reported from Delhi. Step 5: Therefore, choose Kahin Bhi Kabhi Bhi as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, think of how the phrase Kahin Bhi Kabhi Bhi directly expresses the benefit of being able to visit any ESIC facility at any time, which was the main feature of the scheme. Exam preparation notes on labour welfare and social security schemes often mention this name along with its objective, linking it clearly with the ESIC and the Delhi region. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Sakushal Humesha: This phrase suggests always safe or always capable, but it is not the official name of the ESIC scheme in question. Jeevan Arogya: This name suggests life and health but is not the specific ESIC scheme launched in Delhi. Shramik Kalyan: It means worker welfare, but the particular scheme referred to in the question is Kahin Bhi Kabhi Bhi. Common Pitfalls: Since all the options are Hindi sounding welfare type names, candidates may guess without recalling the exact scheme. To avoid such errors in exam conditions, try to connect each scheme name with its main feature. Kahin Bhi Kabhi Bhi is easy to remember when you think of flexible access to healthcare facilities for insured workers. Final Answer: The ESIC health scheme launched in the Delhi region is called Kahin Bhi Kabhi Bhi.

Question 14

Which country approved the construction of more than 500 new settler homes in East Jerusalem, as widely reported in international news?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question relates to international politics and the long running conflict in the Middle East. East Jerusalem is a contested area with significant religious and political importance. Announcements of new settler homes in East Jerusalem often attract global media attention. The question asks which country approved the construction of more than 500 such homes. Given Data / Assumptions: The location is East Jerusalem. The issue involves approval of more than 500 new settler homes. The options given are USA, UAE, Israel and United Kingdom. Concept / Approach: East Jerusalem was occupied by Israel in the 1967 war and later annexed. Israel considers all of Jerusalem as its capital, while Palestinians claim East Jerusalem as the capital of a future Palestinian state. Therefore, when news refers to the approval of settler homes in East Jerusalem, it refers to decisions taken by Israeli authorities. No other country among the options has direct administrative control over construction there, which makes Israel the correct answer. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that East Jerusalem is under Israeli control and is at the heart of the Israeli Palestinian conflict. Step 2: Understand that settler homes refer to housing built for Israeli settlers in contested or occupied territories. Step 3: Recognise that planning approvals for construction in East Jerusalem are given by Israeli authorities. Step 4: Compare this understanding with the options USA, UAE, Israel and United Kingdom. Step 5: Conclude that the country approving the settler homes must be Israel. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative check is to think about the political positions of each country. The United States and United Kingdom may comment on or react to such decisions, but they do not issue building approvals in East Jerusalem. The UAE is a Gulf country with no jurisdiction there. Only Israel exercises de facto authority over East Jerusalem and is therefore the only realistic option for approving settler housing projects. Why Other Options Are Wrong: USA: It is an important diplomatic player in the region but does not administer East Jerusalem. UAE: It has no territorial or planning authority over Jerusalem. United Kingdom: It has historical connections to the region before 1948 but no present day control over building approvals there. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may overthink and wonder whether a foreign ally such as the United States might be involved indirectly. However, in exam questions related to settler homes and building approvals in East Jerusalem, the straightforward answer is Israel. Remembering that east Jerusalem construction approvals are part of Israeli domestic planning decisions helps avoid confusion. Final Answer: The country that approved the construction of more than 500 new settler homes in East Jerusalem is Israel.

Question 15

Which of the following countries is not a member of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question checks awareness of regional groupings, specifically the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation, commonly known as SAARC. Knowing which countries are members and which are not is a frequent requirement in general awareness sections for competitive exams. Given Data / Assumptions: The organisation in question is SAARC. Options provided are Nepal, Maldives, China and Afghanistan. The task is to identify the country that is not a SAARC member. Concept / Approach: SAARC is a regional organisation established in 1985 to promote cooperation among South Asian countries. Its member states are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. China has observer status in SAARC but is not a full member. Since Nepal, Maldives and Afghanistan are full members, the only non member in the options is China. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: List SAARC members: Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. Step 2: Check each option against this list. Step 3: Nepal is a founding SAARC member. Step 4: Maldives is also a SAARC member. Step 5: Afghanistan joined SAARC later and is a member too, leaving China as the non member option. Verification / Alternative check: As a quick check, remember that SAARC is focused strictly on South Asia. China is geographically a large neighbour but is generally associated with broader groupings such as Shanghai Cooperation Organisation or BRICS, not SAARC membership. Many exam guides clearly mention that China is an observer state in SAARC but not a full member, which confirms this answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Nepal: It is a founding member of SAARC and often hosts SAARC meetings. Maldives: It is a small island state but a full SAARC member. Afghanistan: It became a member in 2007 and participates fully in SAARC activities. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes think Afghanistan is not a member because it joined later, or they may assume that China is included because of its strong regional influence. It is important to memorise the exact list of eight SAARC member states and to distinguish between full members and observer countries such as China, Iran and the European Union. Final Answer: The country that is not a member of SAARC is China.

Question 16

Preservation, display and scientific care of historical articles and museum objects is mainly studied under which of the following branches of knowledge?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question concerns specialised branches of historical and cultural studies. Museums play a major role in preserving and displaying historical objects. The academic field that deals with museum management, preservation techniques and exhibition methods has a specific name, and the question asks for that term. Given Data / Assumptions: The focus is on preservation and display of historical articles and museum objects. Options given are iconography, numismatic, museology and epigraphy. Each option refers to a different specialised field in history or art studies. Concept / Approach: Museology is the study of museums. It covers museum organisation, conservation, documentation, exhibition design and public education. Iconography studies images and symbols in art. Numismatics deals with coins and currencies. Epigraphy is the study of inscriptions on stone, metal or other materials. Because the question emphasises preservation and display of historical articles in museums, museology is the correct choice. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Match each term with its core meaning. Step 2: Iconography focuses on interpretation of images and symbols in visual art. Step 3: Numismatics is the systematic study of coins, medals and related objects. Step 4: Epigraphy centres on inscriptions carved or engraved on surfaces. Step 5: Museology specifically deals with museum management, preservation and display of objects. Therefore museology fits the description given in the question. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, simply connect the root word museum with museology. This straightforward link helps you remember that museology is the science of museums. When you read about courses that train museum curators and conservators, they are usually titled master in museology or similar. None of the other terms carry such a direct link to the word museum. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Iconography: Deals with symbolic representation in art, not with museum operations as such. Numismatic: Focuses narrowly on coins and currency, which are only one type of museum object. Epigraphy: Studies inscriptions and scripts, but not the overall preservation and exhibition techniques for all artifacts in museums. Common Pitfalls: Confusion often arises between numismatics and museology because both relate to historical objects. However, numismatics is limited to coins and similar items, whereas museology is broader and covers all aspects of museums, including coins as one category. The safest method is to associate each term with a key word: icons for iconography, coins for numismatics, museums for museology and inscriptions for epigraphy. Final Answer: The study of preservation and display of historical articles in museums is called museology.

Question 17

Which chemical compound is commonly used to artificially ripen mangoes, even though its use is considered hazardous to health?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question relates to food safety and basic chemistry. In many markets, fruits such as mangoes are artificially ripened using chemical agents to reach consumers faster. Some of these chemicals are unsafe and are regulated by food safety authorities. Knowing which compound is commonly misused to ripen mangoes helps raise awareness about health risks. Given Data / Assumptions: The focus is on artificial ripening of mangoes. The options are four calcium based compounds. The question asks which compound is commonly used, despite health concerns. Concept / Approach: Calcium carbide is widely used illegally to ripen fruits such as mangoes, bananas and papayas. It reacts with moisture to release acetylene gas, which mimics the natural ripening hormone ethylene. However, technical grade calcium carbide often contains impurities like arsenic and phosphorus, making it hazardous. Food safety regulations discourage or ban its use. The other calcium compounds listed have different industrial uses and are not typically associated with fruit ripening in this context. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that fruit ripening naturally involves ethylene gas. Step 2: Calcium carbide reacts with water to produce acetylene gas, which acts similarly to ethylene. Step 3: Because of this reaction, traders sometimes use calcium carbide to hasten ripening of mangoes. Step 4: Check other options: calcium sulphide, carbonate and chloride do not have this common ripening use. Step 5: Therefore, identify calcium carbide as the chemical referred to in the question. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, remember that food safety campaigns often mention carbide ripened fruits and warn consumers against them. The phrase carbide ripened mangoes is used in news reports and public advisories. This strongly indicates that the responsible compound is calcium carbide. The other compounds are used for different industrial or laboratory purposes and are not typically highlighted in this context. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Calcium sulphide: Used in certain industrial applications, not widely associated with fruit ripening. Calcium carbonate: Commonly found in limestone and used as an antacid or in construction, not as a ripening agent. Calcium chloride: Used as a desiccant and de icing agent, not typically for artificial ripening of fruits. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may not recall the exact name and attempt to guess based on familiarity with words like carbonate or chloride. Others may assume that any calcium compound can be used for ripening. To avoid this, specifically remember the phrase carbide ripening and connect it with calcium carbide. Also note that regulations encourage the use of safe ethylene based ripening methods instead of calcium carbide. Final Answer: The chemical commonly used to artificially ripen mangoes is calcium carbide.

Question 18

The longest continuous railway line in the world runs across which of the following pairs of cities?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question concerns world geography and transportation. The longest continuous railway line in the world is a famous fact related to the Trans Siberian Railway in Russia. It stretches across a vast distance, connecting the western part of the country with the far eastern region. The question asks which pair of cities represents this line among the given options. Given Data / Assumptions: The focus is on the world's longest railway line. Several city pairs are listed from different countries. The learner must identify the pair that corresponds to the long Trans Siberian route. Concept / Approach: The Trans Siberian Railway is often described from Moscow to Vladivostok, covering about nine thousand kilometres across Russia. In some older general knowledge references, the western terminus is mentioned as Leningrad, the former name of Saint Petersburg, as part of an extended route connecting the Baltic region to Vladivostok in the far east. The key city consistently associated with the eastern end is Vladivostok. Among the options given, the only pair that includes Vladivostok and represents this vast Russian route is Leningrad and Vladivostok. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Trans Siberian Railway crosses Russia from west to east and that Vladivostok is its eastern terminus. Step 2: Check the options to find any city pair including Vladivostok. Step 3: Identify that the pair Leningrad and Vladivostok is the only one with Vladivostok. Step 4: Note that New York and Seattle are in the United States, and Trivandrum and Guwahati are in India, but no single railway line between them is world record length. Step 5: Perth and Sydney are separated by a long distance in Australia, but this railway is shorter than the Trans Siberian route. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, remember that the Trans Siberian Railway is widely cited in atlases and general knowledge books as the longest continuous railway line in the world. It traverses the breadth of Russia and terminates at Vladivostok. Older references use the name Leningrad for Saint Petersburg, and the extended line connecting that region to Vladivostok is used in many exam questions. Therefore, matching Vladivostok with a major Russian city like Leningrad confirms the correct option. Why Other Options Are Wrong: New York and Seattle: These cities are in the USA and are connected mainly by multiple rail and road routes, but not by the longest railway line in the world. Trivandrum and Guwahati: These Indian cities are far apart but do not host the world's longest continuous rail route. Perth and Sydney: Australia has long railways, including the Indian Pacific route, but these are still shorter than the Trans Siberian Railway. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may be tempted by the Australian option because the Indian Pacific route is also famous for its length. Others may be confused by the old name Leningrad and fail to associate it with Russia. To avoid such mistakes, remember that Vladivostok is the signature city linked with the world's longest railway, and any option containing Vladivostok is a strong candidate. Also recall that Leningrad is the old name of Saint Petersburg, linking it clearly to Russia. Final Answer: The longest continuous railway line in the world connects Leningrad and Vladivostok, representing the Trans Siberian route in Russia.

Question 19

In Indian criminal law, what type of offence is dealt with under Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC)?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) is one of the most discussed provisions in Indian criminal law. It has historically been used to deal with the offence of sedition, that is, acts or words which are alleged to bring hatred or contempt towards the government established by law. Exams often ask this as a direct recall question to check whether aspirants can correctly associate Section 124A with the concept of sedition rather than with other social crimes such as dowry or atrocities against disadvantaged groups. Given Data / Assumptions: The question specifically refers to Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code. Four options are given, each describing a different type of offence. We assume the learner is aware that various sections of the IPC deal with women, dowry, atrocities against Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and offences against the State. The task is simply to recall which offence is covered by Section 124A. Concept / Approach: The key idea is that Section 124A is historically known as the sedition provision. It punishes whoever, by words, signs, visible representation or other means, brings or attempts to bring hatred, contempt or disaffection towards the government established by law in India. Other serious social offences like cruelty towards women, dowry, or atrocities against Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are covered under different laws, such as specific IPC sections, the Dowry Prohibition Act or the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act. Therefore the approach is to identify sedition as the correct match for Section 124A. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the exact heading of Section 124A IPC. It is commonly titled “Sedition”. Step 2: Understand that sedition is treated as an offence against the State because it involves attempts to excite hatred, contempt or disaffection towards the government established by law. Step 3: Compare this with offences against women such as cruelty by husband or relatives, which are dealt with under separate provisions like Section 498A IPC. Step 4: Note that crimes related to dowry are primarily covered by the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 and by allied provisions of the IPC, not by Section 124A. Step 5: Atrocities against Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are principally addressed by the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 and related legal provisions, and not by Section 124A. Step 6: Since only sedition matches the content of Section 124A, the correct answer must be the option that clearly describes sedition against the legally established government. Verification / Alternative check: An easy way to verify is to recall famous historical trials where freedom fighters were prosecuted under Section 124A for speeches or writings critical of colonial rule. These cases are consistently described as “sedition cases”. Modern debates about free speech and national security also frequently mention “Section 124A – sedition”. In contrast, when newspapers report on dowry deaths or atrocities against Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, they refer to different sections and special Acts, never to Section 124A. This pattern reinforces that Section 124A is linked to sedition alone. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Atrocity against women under the IPC is covered by sections such as 498A and other special laws, not by Section 124A. Crimes arising from demanding dowry are dealt with mainly under the Dowry Prohibition Act and related IPC sections, not under sedition. Atrocities against Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are specifically handled by a special Act, the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, and not by Section 124A. Common Pitfalls: A frequent mistake is to mix up section numbers, especially since there are many important provisions scattered throughout the IPC. Candidates may also confuse sedition with general public order offences or hate speech. Another pitfall is to assume that any serious sounding section number must relate to crimes against vulnerable groups. The safest strategy is to memorise a small set of critical sections, including 124A for sedition, 302 for murder and 376 for rape, so that these can be quickly recalled in the exam hall. Final Answer: Sedition against the legally established government

Question 20

Which of the following countries was suspended from the Group of Eight (G8) in 2014, effectively returning the forum to the G7 format?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Group of Eight (G8) was an informal forum of eight major industrialised economies. After political developments in 2014, one of its members was suspended, and the group effectively reverted to the earlier Group of Seven (G7) format. General knowledge and international affairs questions often test familiarity with such changes in global economic groupings. This question checks whether you can correctly identify which country was suspended from the G8 in 2014. Given Data / Assumptions: The question refers specifically to the Group of Eight (G8) and its change back to the G7 format in 2014. Four countries are listed: United States of America, United Kingdom, Germany and Russia. We assume basic awareness of the original G8 membership and the diplomatic developments in 2014. Concept / Approach: Originally, the G8 consisted of the G7 countries (United States of America, United Kingdom, Germany, France, Italy, Japan and Canada) plus Russia. After events in 2014, particularly related to Ukraine and Crimea, the other members suspended Russia participation. Since all the remaining countries continued as part of the G7, the country whose suspension returned the forum to the G7 format must be Russia. The approach is to recall which member joined later and then was suspended. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the list of traditional G7 members: United States of America, United Kingdom, Germany, France, Italy, Japan and Canada. Step 2: Understand that the G8 was created when Russia joined these seven countries, making a group of eight major powers. Step 3: In 2014, after political and security developments, the other members decided to suspend Russia participation in the group. Step 4: When Russia was suspended, the group effectively functioned once again as the G7, comprising the remaining seven original members. Step 5: Examine the options: United States of America, United Kingdom and Germany are core G7 members that were not suspended. Russia was the eighth member whose suspension changed the configuration. Step 6: Therefore, Russia is the correct answer to the question. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, one can remember that news headlines after 2014 referred to “G7 summits” instead of “G8 summits” and explained that Russia participation had been suspended. Historical lists of G8 summits show Russia joining later and then being excluded. No similar change is recorded for the United States of America, the United Kingdom or Germany, which have remained core members throughout. This confirms that the suspension in question applied to Russia alone. Why Other Options Are Wrong: United States of America: It is a founding G7 member and has never been suspended as the cause of reverting back to the G7 format. United Kingdom: Another original G7 member, it continued throughout and was not suspended in 2014. Germany: Also one of the core G7 economies, Germany remained in the group and did not cause the reversion to the G7. Common Pitfalls: A common pitfall is to think of G8 simply as any group of eight major powers and to guess a country at random rather than recalling the exact membership. Another mistake is to confuse the suspension of Russia from the G8 with other international sanctions or diplomatic disputes involving different organisations, such as the Council of Europe or various trade agreements. Keeping a short list of key international groupings and their members in memory helps avoid such confusion. Final Answer: Russia

Basic General Knowledge Questions