Question 1

Skoda, the automobile manufacturer that launched the sedan model 'Rapid', belongs to which country?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question tests knowledge of global automobile brands and their home countries. Many competitive exams ask about the origin of famous companies because it combines business awareness with geography. The brand Skoda, which produces the Rapid sedan, is an important European automobile manufacturer with a distinctive national origin. Given Data / Assumptions: The company name is Skoda. The specific product mentioned is the sedan model called Rapid. The options list Japan, France, South Korea, Czech Republic and Germany as possible home countries. The question asks about the country where the manufacturer is based, not where cars are sold or assembled. Concept / Approach: The concept needed here is brand origin. Skoda Auto is historically a European company founded in Central Europe. It later became part of the Volkswagen Group, but its roots and headquarters remain in the same country of origin. Remembering that it is a Czech brand helps locate the correct answer among the options. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the full name, Skoda Auto, which is often described as a Czech automobile manufacturer. Step 2: Skoda's headquarters are in Mlada Boleslav, a city in Central Europe. Step 3: Mlada Boleslav is located in the Czech Republic. Step 4: Although Skoda is part of the larger Volkswagen Group, which is German, the brand itself is Czech in origin. Step 5: Therefore, the correct country in the options is Czech Republic. Verification / Alternative check: When reading about European car makers, Skoda is usually grouped with brands from Central and Eastern Europe, not with Japanese, French or Korean manufacturers. Moreover, Germany is represented by brands like Volkswagen, BMW and Mercedes Benz. France has companies like Renault and Peugeot, while South Korea has Hyundai and Kia. This separation of well known car makers by country makes Czech Republic the only suitable option for Skoda. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A (Japan) is wrong because Japanese brands include Toyota, Honda, Nissan and Suzuki rather than Skoda. Option B (France) is incorrect because French car manufacturers include Renault and Peugeot, not Skoda. Option C (South Korea) is wrong; Korean manufacturers are mainly Hyundai and Kia. Option E (Germany) seems tempting because Skoda is part of the Volkswagen Group, but the brand was originally founded and is headquartered in the Czech Republic, so German origin is not correct for this question. Common Pitfalls: A common error is to confuse the origin of a brand with the country of its parent company or with major markets where it sells cars. Students must distinguish between a brand that is Czech but owned by a German group, and a brand that was originally founded in Germany. Careful reading of automotive news and company profiles can help avoid such confusion in exams. Final Answer: Skoda, the manufacturer of the Rapid sedan, is based in the Czech Republic.

Question 2

In which Indian city was the country's first water metro public transport project recently launched?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question checks knowledge of recent infrastructure developments in India, specifically innovative forms of urban public transport. The term water metro refers to a system of modern, organised boat based transport that connects island and coastal regions in a city, similar to how a metro rail connects suburbs on land. Knowing where the first such project was launched is useful for current affairs and regional development questions. Given Data / Assumptions: The project is described as India's first water metro. It is a public transport system using waterways within a city. The options list Kolkata, Kochi, Visakhapatnam, Mumbai and Chennai. The question is about the launch city, not about states or future proposals. Concept / Approach: The approach is to link the idea of a water metro with coastal cities that have many backwaters or interconnected waterways. Among the listed cities, Kochi in Kerala is well known for its backwaters, islands and ferry routes, and it has actively developed metro rail as well as water based transport. Remembering news about Kochi Water Metro helps to quickly pick the correct answer. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify which cities have the right geography for a water metro. Kochi, Mumbai and Visakhapatnam are coastal, but Kochi is most famous for inland waterways and backwaters. Step 2: Recall that Kochi already has a modern metro rail project and has been experimenting with integrated transport solutions. Step 3: News reports about India first water metro highlighted Kochi as the launch city and spoke about connecting various islands in the Kochi region. Step 4: There have been no widely reported water metro launches in Kolkata, Mumbai, Chennai or Visakhapatnam on the same scale. Step 5: Therefore, the correct city is Kochi. Verification / Alternative check: A quick mental cross check comes from remembering that Kochi Metro Rail Limited and related agencies were closely involved in planning and implementing the water metro as a companion to the land based metro. This was described as a first of its kind integrated water based metro service in India. No similar first water metro branding exists for the other cities listed, confirming Kochi as the answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A (Kolkata) is wrong; although Kolkata has ferry services on the Hooghly river, they have not been branded as the first water metro of India. Option C (Visakhapatnam) is incorrect; it is a major port city, but it has not been highlighted for a water metro project of this type. Option D (Mumbai) does have coastal ferry routes and proposals for water transport, but the specific first water metro project is associated with Kochi, not Mumbai. Option E (Chennai) is also incorrect; Chennai focuses more on land based metro rail and bus systems rather than a dedicated water metro network. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes assume that the largest or most famous coastal city must be the answer, leading them to pick Mumbai or Kolkata without checking details. Another pitfall is to confuse ferry services with a structured water metro system. To avoid such mistakes, candidates should read current affairs carefully and pay attention to phrases like first in India and pilot project attached to specific city names. Final Answer: India first water metro public transport project was launched in the city of Kochi.

Question 3

In which Indian city was the country's first Post Office ATM facility opened for customers?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question relates to financial inclusion and modernisation of postal services in India. India Post has been upgrading post offices with core banking solutions and Automated Teller Machines (ATMs) to provide banking like services. Knowing where the first Post Office ATM was opened helps aspirants understand milestones in the digital transformation of government services. Given Data / Assumptions: The question refers to India first Post Office ATM. It asks for the city where this pioneering facility was opened. The options include Chennai, New Delhi, Hyderabad, Mumbai and Bengaluru. We assume the context of Department of Posts rolling out ATM services linked to postal savings accounts. Concept / Approach: The concept here is to connect India Post modernisation with the cities selected for early pilot projects. Historically, Chennai has often been used as a testing ground for new postal banking initiatives. The first Post Office ATM was widely reported as being inaugurated at a prominent head post office in that city. Remembering these news reports leads to the correct option. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that India Post began installing ATMs after implementing core banking in selected post offices. Step 2: News articles highlighted that the first such postal ATM was opened in Chennai at an important head post office. Step 3: There were later inaugurations of Post Office ATMs in New Delhi, Hyderabad, Mumbai and other cities, but they came after the Chennai launch. Step 4: Since the question asks specifically for the first in the country, only the earliest launch city is relevant. Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is Chennai. Verification / Alternative check: If candidates have read about India Post core banking initiatives, they may remember that Tamil Nadu and Chennai often feature in pilot projects due to a high density of postal savings account holders and strong infrastructure. Furthermore, many exam oriented current affairs compilations explicitly mention that the first postal ATM was opened in Chennai, reinforcing this memory when revising for tests. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option B (New Delhi) is wrong because although it is the national capital and many new schemes are highlighted there, the first postal ATM was not launched in Delhi. Option C (Hyderabad) is incorrect because it was among later cities to receive the facility, not the earliest. Option D (Mumbai) is also wrong; while Mumbai is a major financial centre, the first postal ATM was not opened there. Option E (Bengaluru) is not correct; it too received facilities later as part of the expansion of postal ATMs and India Post Payments Bank services. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes guess that national level firsts are linked to New Delhi or Mumbai simply because of their prominence. However, government departments often pilot new service models in other big cities where operational conditions are suitable. To avoid such errors, it is helpful to maintain a small notebook of first in India facts related to banking, postal services and transport infrastructure. Final Answer: India first Post Office ATM facility was opened in the city of Chennai.

Question 4

In India, the widespread arsenic contamination problem in certain regions is primarily due to which of the following reasons?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question examines environmental geography and public health issues in India. Arsenic contamination of drinking water is a serious problem in several regions, especially in parts of West Bengal and neighbouring states. Understanding the primary cause behind this contamination helps in designing better policies and in answering environment and geography based questions in competitive exams. Given Data / Assumptions: The focus is on arsenic contamination in Indian conditions, especially in groundwater used for drinking and irrigation. Options mention overexploitation of coal, arsenopyrite, ground water, surface water and sea water irrigation. We assume natural geologic presence of arsenic in some aquifers. The question asks for the primary, most important reason for the problem. Concept / Approach: The key concept is the relationship between groundwater dynamics and geochemical mobilisation of arsenic. In many affected areas, arsenic is naturally present in sediment layers. When groundwater is heavily pumped through tube wells, it changes the chemical environment in the aquifer, leading to release of arsenic into the water. Therefore, human activity in the form of over extraction of groundwater acts as a trigger for an existing natural hazard. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that arsenic contamination is mostly detected in tube well and hand pump water rather than in surface water bodies. Step 2: Understand that large scale drilling of shallow and deep tube wells for drinking and irrigation has significantly increased groundwater withdrawal. Step 3: Overexploitation of groundwater alters the oxidation reduction balance in the aquifer and can release arsenic from sediments into the water. Step 4: The problem is not primarily due to coal mining, arsenopyrite mining or sea water, which are not widespread activities in all the affected rural regions. Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is overexploitation of groundwater in the affected areas. Verification / Alternative check: Environmental reports and government documents on arsenic affected districts in India repeatedly mention tube well proliferation as a major contributing factor. The pattern is that as more bore wells are installed for agriculture and domestic use, arsenic levels in groundwater rise. In contrast, there is no similar large scale link with surface water use or with coal mining in all such regions. This broader evidence supports the conclusion that groundwater over extraction is the primary driver. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A (Overexploitation of coal deposits) is wrong because coal mining is concentrated in specific mining belts, while arsenic affected regions include many agricultural plains where coal is not mined. Option B (Overexploitation of arsenopyrite) is incorrect because arsenopyrite is not commercially mined and overused at the scale that would explain the wide spread rural contamination. Option D (Overexploitation of surface water) is wrong because rivers and ponds are generally less affected compared to groundwater; in fact, surface water is sometimes recommended as a safer alternative. Option E (Release of arsenic from sea water) is not supported by evidence; the major arsenic problems are inland, far from coastal areas, and arise from geologic sediments, not from sea water irrigation. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to assume that any pollution problem must come from mining or industrial activities, but arsenic contamination in India is mainly a natural geologic issue worsened by human groundwater use. Students should remember that not all environmental problems are industrial; agricultural and domestic water use can also trigger serious contamination when combined with sensitive geology. Final Answer: The arsenic problem in India is primarily due to overexploitation of ground water in the affected areas.

Question 5

Which economist is credited with giving the General Equilibrium Theory in economics?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question deals with basic economic theory and the history of economic thought. General Equilibrium Theory is an important concept that explains how supply and demand in many markets interact simultaneously. Knowing which economist first formulated this theory helps students link names to foundational ideas in microeconomics. Given Data / Assumptions: The concept in question is General Equilibrium Theory. The options list J. M. Keynes, Leon Walras, David Ricardo, Adam Smith and Alfred Marshall. We assume standard textbook level definitions of general and partial equilibrium. Concept / Approach: General equilibrium studies the simultaneous interaction of many markets and agents, rather than focusing on a single market. The pioneering formal model of general equilibrium in mathematical form is associated with the French Swiss economist Leon Walras. Keynes is more associated with macroeconomics and aggregate demand; Ricardo with comparative advantage; Adam Smith with the invisible hand and classical economics; Marshall with partial equilibrium analysis. Therefore, the answer requires matching each economist with their main contributions. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Leon Walras developed a system of equations to describe the simultaneous determination of prices in many markets. Step 2: This framework is called General Equilibrium Theory and is a cornerstone of neoclassical economics. Step 3: J. M. Keynes is best known for The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money and for macroeconomic theories, not for the original general equilibrium model. Step 4: David Ricardo developed ideas such as comparative advantage and rent, not the general equilibrium framework. Step 5: Adam Smith and Alfred Marshall contributed to classical and partial equilibrium analysis but are not credited with the first general equilibrium theory. Step 6: Therefore, Leon Walras is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Many microeconomics textbooks introduce partial equilibrium analysis with Marshall and then move to general equilibrium with Walras. When reading history of economic thought, Walras is consistently mentioned as the pioneer who turned economics into a mathematical system of simultaneous equations. This repeated association across multiple sources confirms that general equilibrium theory is attributed to Walras. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A (J. M. Keynes) is wrong because although he transformed macroeconomics, his work focused on aggregate demand, not on multi market equilibrium in the Walrasian sense. Option C (David Ricardo) is incorrect because his main contributions relate to international trade and distribution, not general equilibrium modelling. Option D (Adam Smith) is wrong; he introduced powerful ideas like the invisible hand but did not create the mathematical general equilibrium system. Option E (Alfred Marshall) is also incorrect; Marshall developed partial equilibrium analysis in which one market is studied while assuming other markets remain unchanged. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse the phrase General Equilibrium with Keynes General Theory, which can lead to a wrong association with Keynes. Others may guess Adam Smith because he is a famous name. To avoid such confusion, it is helpful to remember that Walras is linked to mathematical general equilibrium, Marshall to partial equilibrium, and Keynes to macroeconomic demand management. Final Answer: The economist who gave the General Equilibrium Theory is Leon Walras.

Question 6

What is the name used for tropical cyclones that form over the China Sea and the western Pacific Ocean?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question belongs to physical geography and climatology. Tropical cyclones are powerful low pressure systems that form over warm ocean waters, but they are known by different names in different ocean basins. Competitive exams often ask candidates to match regional names such as hurricane, cyclone and typhoon with their locations. Here, the focus is on the China Sea and the western Pacific Ocean. Given Data / Assumptions: The region mentioned is the China Sea and the western Pacific. The options include Hurricanes, Tornado, Twister, Typhoon and Willy willy. The question is about the standard meteorological name for tropical cyclones in that region, not about local nicknames for other weather events. Concept / Approach: The concept is that the same type of weather system has different regional names. In the North Atlantic and eastern Pacific, such systems are called hurricanes. In the Indian Ocean and South Pacific, they are usually called cyclones. In the western Pacific and regions around the China Sea, they are called typhoons. Tornadoes and twisters are different, smaller scale rotating storms over land, and willy willy is a term used in Australia for dust storms or small cyclones. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify the region in question: the China Sea and the western Pacific Ocean near East and Southeast Asia. Step 2: Recall the standard naming convention: hurricanes in the Atlantic, cyclones in the Indian Ocean, and typhoons in the western Pacific. Step 3: Recognise that tornado and twister are short lived violent rotating columns of air, not broad oceanic tropical cyclones. Step 4: Remember that willy willy is associated with Australian usage, not specifically the China Sea. Step 5: Therefore, the correct term for tropical cyclones in the China Sea region is typhoon. Verification / Alternative check: Weather bulletins and international news regularly refer to powerful storms striking the Philippines, Japan or coastal China as typhoons. The same type of storm hitting the United States or Caribbean is called a hurricane. This consistent usage has become a standard exam point in geography, and it confirms that typhoon is the term associated with the China Sea and western Pacific. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A (Hurricanes) is wrong because that word is used mainly for storms in the North Atlantic and eastern Pacific near the Americas, not near China and Japan. Option B (Tornado) is incorrect; tornadoes are localised, funnel shaped storms over land, different from large scale tropical cyclones over the sea. Option C (Twister) is also wrong; it is another word for tornado, again not the same phenomenon as a tropical cyclone. Option E (Willy willy) refers to dust storms or small whirlwinds in Australia and is not the standard term for western Pacific cyclones. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to think that hurricane is a general name for all strong storms, but geography for exams requires using region specific terms. Another pitfall is not distinguishing between tornadoes and tropical cyclones. Students should remember a simple mapping: hurricane (Atlantic), cyclone (Indian Ocean), typhoon (western Pacific). This quick memory aid makes questions like this easy to answer. Final Answer: Tropical cyclones that form over the China Sea and the western Pacific Ocean are called Typhoon.

Question 7

The Bishnoi movement, one of the earliest organised environmental movements in India, was originally started against which of the following actions?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question belongs to Indian environmental history and social movements. The Bishnoi community is well known for its deep respect for nature, including trees and wild animals. One famous incident in the eighteenth century led to a major sacrifice by Bishnoi villagers in Rajasthan and is remembered as an early environmental movement in India. Understanding what they opposed helps candidates connect moral values with environmental protection in Indian society. Given Data / Assumptions: The question asks specifically about the Bishnoi movement. The focus is on the original action that the movement opposed. Options include cutting of trees, inequality of women, killing of animals, increasing pollution and illegal mining. We assume familiarity with the well known Khejarli incident. Concept / Approach: The Bishnoi movement is often linked to the Khejarli massacre, where many Bishnoi villagers gave up their lives to protect trees from being cut down for royal projects. While Bishnois also protect wildlife, the origin story of the movement is usually described as resistance to the felling of sacred Khejri trees. Therefore, candidates must identify the primary action being resisted: cutting of trees. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Bishnois follow a set of rules that emphasise protection of living beings and conservation of nature. Step 2: The most famous historical episode related to the Bishnois is the Khejarli incident in Rajasthan. Step 3: In this incident, royal officers arrived to cut Khejri trees for wood, and the Bishnoi villagers protested. Step 4: Many villagers sacrificed their lives by hugging the trees to stop them from being cut. Step 5: This movement is therefore remembered mainly as a stand against the cutting of trees. Verification / Alternative check: Textbooks on Indian environmental movements often connect the Bishnoi struggle with later movements like Chipko, which also used tree hugging as a method of protest. The Khejarli story is retold as an example of resistance to deforestation, not as a campaign about gender equality or industrial pollution. This parallel with the Chipko movement confirms that tree felling is at the core of the Bishnoi movement narrative. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option B (Inequality and discrimination against women) is wrong; although the community may have social norms regarding women, the famous Bishnoi movement is not primarily about gender justice. Option C (Killing of animals) is partially related, since Bishnois also protect wildlife, but the iconic historical movement referred to in exam questions is about villagers sacrificing their lives to save trees from being cut. Option D (Increasing industrial pollution) is incorrect, because the original movement took place before modern industrialisation in India. Option E (Illegal mining in forest areas) is also wrong, as mining was not the triggering issue in the classic Bishnoi story. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes know that Bishnois protect both trees and animals and may choose killing of animals instead of cutting of trees. However, exam questions usually focus on the specific Khejarli incident and its similarity to the later Chipko movement. Remembering that people physically hugged trees to stop them from being cut is an easy way to recall the correct answer. Final Answer: The Bishnoi movement was originally started against the cutting of trees.

Question 8

Which of the following countries is not a member of the BRICS association of major emerging economies?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question belongs to international organisations and groups of countries. BRICS is a well known association of major emerging economies that often appears in current affairs and general knowledge questions. To answer correctly, candidates must recall the expansion and membership of BRICS and identify which country among the given options does not belong to this group. Given Data / Assumptions: The question is about the BRICS association. Options list Brazil, Russia, Iceland, China and South Africa. We assume that the standard BRICS members are known: Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa. India is not listed among the options, so the task is to spot the outsider country. Concept / Approach: BRICS originally began as BRIC, consisting of Brazil, Russia, India and China, and later included South Africa. It is an informal grouping focused on economic cooperation, development banks and political dialogue. The key is to remember all five official members and then identify the country in the options that is not on that list. Iceland, a small Nordic country, is clearly not a BRICS member. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: List the full BRICS members: Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa. Step 2: Compare this list with the answer options. Step 3: Brazil appears as option A and is a founding BRIC member. Step 4: Russia appears as option B and is also a founding member. Step 5: China appears as option D and is a major BRICS member. Step 6: South Africa appears only in option E and is the fifth BRICS member. Step 7: Iceland does not appear in the BRICS list and is therefore the country that is not a member. Verification / Alternative check: Documents on BRICS summits and the New Development Bank always mention the same five member countries. Iceland is geographically a small island nation in the North Atlantic, often associated with Nordic cooperation and the European region rather than emerging economy groupings. This geographical and economic context makes it unlikely to be a BRICS member and confirms that it is the odd one out in the list. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A (Brazil) is wrong because Brazil is a founding BRIC country and a core member of BRICS. Option B (Russia) is incorrect; Russia is also a founding BRIC member and remains part of BRICS. Option D (China) is wrong, as China is one of the largest and most influential BRICS economies. Option E (South Africa) is also incorrect because South Africa joined later to expand BRIC into BRICS, where S stands for South Africa. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may confuse BRICS with other groupings such as G20 or OECD and may not maintain a clear mental list of members. Another mistake is to overthink and assume that perhaps some new country joined BRICS recently. For exam purposes, it is safer to memorise the five BRICS countries and periodically update knowledge using recent current affairs, but Iceland has never been part of this group. Final Answer: The country that is not a member of the BRICS association is Iceland.

Question 9

With which of its neighbouring countries does India have the Kalapani territorial dispute?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question relates to political geography and India foreign relations. Territorial disputes over small border regions often appear in news and in exam questions. Kalapani is one such disputed area in the Himalayan region. Knowing which neighbouring country disputes this area with India is useful for questions on maps, geopolitics and current affairs. Given Data / Assumptions: The disputed territory is named Kalapani. The question asks which neighbouring country is involved in this dispute with India. Options include Nepal, Bangladesh, Pakistan, Sri Lanka and Bhutan. We assume basic familiarity with India neighbours and border disputes. Concept / Approach: The approach is to recall the major territorial disputes between India and each neighbour. With Pakistan, disputes include Jammu and Kashmir and Sir Creek. With China, issues include Aksai Chin and Arunachal Pradesh (McMahon Line), but China is not listed among the options. With Bangladesh, earlier disputes focused on enclaves and maritime boundaries, which have been largely settled. Kalapani, however, is specifically mentioned in the context of India Nepal border, making Nepal the correct choice. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that Kalapani is a region in the Himalayan area, near the tri junction of India, Nepal and China. Step 2: Remember that Nepal claims this region as part of its territory, while India administers it as part of Uttarakhand state. Step 3: Local maps and political discussions in Nepal often show Kalapani, Lipulekh and Limpiyadhura as areas of dispute. Step 4: Compare this with disputes involving other neighbours: Pakistan is associated with Kashmir, Bangladesh with river and enclave issues, Sri Lanka with maritime fishing disputes, and Bhutan with friendly relations and limited border issues. Step 5: Only Nepal clearly matches the Kalapani context. Verification / Alternative check: Exam oriented articles on India border disputes often list Kalapani as India Nepal dispute, along with descriptions of how the river source and historical treaties are interpreted differently by the two countries. India considers the Kali river to originate at one point, and Nepal at another, leading to overlapping territorial claims. This specific India Nepal context confirms that Nepal is the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option B (Bangladesh) is wrong because India Bangladesh disputes earlier centred on enclaves like Dahagram and Angarpota and on river water sharing, not on Kalapani. Option C (Pakistan) is incorrect; although India Pakistan have major disputes, they concern regions such as Jammu and Kashmir and Sir Creek, not Kalapani. Option D (Sri Lanka) is wrong; issues there focus more on fishing rights and maritime boundaries, not on Himalayan land borders. Option E (Bhutan) is incorrect; India and Bhutan have close ties and no prominently known dispute over the specific area named Kalapani. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to associate any disputed name with India Pakistan or India China disputes because they are widely covered in news. However, exam questions often test knowledge of lesser known disputes such as Kalapani with Nepal, and border agreements with Bangladesh and Myanmar. Students should map each named disputed area to its correct neighbouring country while revising political geography. Final Answer: India has the Kalapani territorial dispute with its neighbour Nepal.

Question 10

In which group of Indian coastal states is the Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM) Project being implemented as a pilot investment?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question is from environmental planning and geography. The Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM) Project is an initiative designed to manage and protect coastal and marine resources in a holistic way. It involves pilot projects in selected Indian coastal states. For exam purposes, it is important to know which states were chosen for these initial investments. Given Data / Assumptions: The project mentioned is the Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM) Project. The question specifies that the implementation is as a pilot investment. Several groups of coastal states are given as options. You must select the exact combination of states where the pilot ICZM project was implemented. Concept / Approach: ICZM aims to address coastal erosion, habitat loss, pollution and unplanned development. For the pilot phase, the government and development partners selected states with long coastlines and diverse coastal ecosystems. Those states were Gujarat on the west coast, and Odisha and West Bengal on the east coast. By remembering this specific combination, candidates can answer similar questions confidently. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the ICZM Project in India began with a focus on selected states rather than the entire coastline. Step 2: The chosen states represent both western and eastern coasts to capture varied ecological and socio economic conditions. Step 3: Gujarat, with its long coastline and Gulf regions, was selected on the west coast. Step 4: Odisha and West Bengal, with sensitive delta and cyclone prone coastal zones, were selected on the east coast. Step 5: This combination Gujarat, Odisha and West Bengal matches option C. Verification / Alternative check: Reports on ICZM financing and project documents list the three pilot states repeatedly as Gujarat, Odisha and West Bengal. They describe specific demonstration sites like the Gulf of Kachchh in Gujarat, the Chilika region in Odisha and the Sunderbans region in West Bengal. None of the other state groupings in the options align exactly with this standard list, which confirms that option C is correct. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A (Gujarat, Kerala and Goa) is wrong; although all are coastal states, Kerala and Goa were not part of the initial ICZM pilot project group. Option B (Kerala, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh) is incorrect as none of these three form the official pilot combination. Option D (Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu) is also wrong; these states may have coastal management programmes but are not the designated ICZM pilot trio. Option E (Goa, Tamil Nadu and West Bengal) is incorrect; this grouping does not match the official ICZM pilot selection either. Common Pitfalls: Candidates often try to guess based on general familiarity with coastal states and their environmental issues. However, ICZM pilot states are a specific memorisation item and cannot be deduced simply from coastline length. Another pitfall is confusing ICZM with other coastal projects or disaster management programmes that involve different states. Creating a short list of such specific combinations during revision helps avoid confusion. Final Answer: The ICZM Project is being implemented as a pilot investment in the states of Gujarat, Odisha and West Bengal.

Question 11

Extrusive volcanoes, which erupt lava onto the Earth's surface, are notably absent from which one of the following major mountain ranges?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question belongs to physical geography and the study of mountains and volcanoes. Extrusive volcanoes are those where magma reaches the surface and solidifies as lava flows or pyroclastic materials. Some mountain ranges are strongly volcanic, while others are mainly formed by tectonic collision. Recognising which range lacks active extrusive volcanoes helps students understand plate tectonics and mountain building processes. Given Data / Assumptions: The question asks where extrusive volcanoes are not found. Options include Alaska Range, Rocky Mountains, Andes Mountains, Himalayas and the Cascade Range. We assume a basic understanding of tectonic plate boundaries and orogeny (mountain building). Concept / Approach: Volcanic mountain ranges usually occur along convergent or divergent plate boundaries where subduction or rifting allows magma to reach the surface. Examples include the Andes in South America and volcanic arcs in Alaska and the Cascades. The Himalayas, however, are primarily a result of continent continent collision between the Indian and Eurasian plates, which produces very high mountains but relatively little modern volcanic activity. Therefore, extrusive volcanoes are effectively absent from the central Himalayan range. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify ranges that are part of active volcanic belts. The Andes are known for many active volcanoes like Cotopaxi and Aconcagua region. Step 2: The Alaska Range and the Cascade Range in North America are also part of the Pacific Ring of Fire with multiple active volcanoes. Step 3: Some segments of the Rocky Mountains have volcanic features or are close to volcanic provinces. Step 4: The Himalayas, in contrast, are mainly fold mountains formed by collision, not by subducting oceanic plates directly beneath the range in a way that produces surface volcanoes. Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is the Himalayas, where extrusive volcanoes are not found as a major characteristic. Verification / Alternative check: Study of world volcano maps typically shows dense clusters along the western edge of the Americas, in Alaska, in the Andes and in the Cascades, but very few active volcanoes inside the main Himalayan belt. Instead, some volcanic activity occurs north of the Himalayas on the Tibetan Plateau or in other neighbouring regions. This clear pattern on global maps confirms that the Himalayas are not a typical volcanic mountain range with extrusive volcanoes. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A (Alaska Range) is wrong because Alaska is part of the Pacific Ring of Fire and includes several active volcanoes. Option B (Rocky Mountains) is incorrect; while not as volcanic as the Andes, there are volcanic fields and related activity in and around the Rockies. Option C (Andes Mountains) is wrong because the Andes form a classic volcanic arc with many extrusive volcanic peaks. Option E (Cascade Range) is also incorrect, since it includes famous volcanoes such as Mount St Helens and Mount Rainier. Common Pitfalls: Some learners assume that very high mountains like the Himalayas must be volcanic, but height alone does not determine volcanic activity. Others may not differentiate between fold mountains and volcanic mountains. To avoid this, it is useful to classify major ranges into categories: Himalayas as young fold mountains formed by continental collision, Andes and Cascades as volcanic arcs, and so on. Final Answer: Extrusive volcanoes are not found in the Himalayas.

Question 12

In information and communication technology, what does the acronym WIMAX stand for?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question is from computer and communication technology. WIMAX is a standard related to broadband wireless access. Many exams test the full forms of common communication and networking acronyms. Knowing what each letter stands for helps candidates avoid confusion with similar sounding terms and shows familiarity with basic telecom concepts. Given Data / Assumptions: The acronym in question is WIMAX. All options expand the letters into phrases involving wireless, wired, worldwide and microwave access. We assume standard usage based on international telecommunication standards. Concept / Approach: WIMAX is associated with the IEEE 802.16 family of standards and is designed for long range wireless broadband connections. The correct expansion highlights both its global standardisation and the use of microwave spectrum. The word Interoperability emphasises that various equipment can work together under the same standard. Hence the correct full form is Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Break down the acronym: WI and MAX. Step 2: Recall that WIMAX was promoted as a global standard, so the term Worldwide fits correctly. Step 3: The standard emphasises interoperability between equipment from different vendors. Step 4: The technology works over microwave frequencies for broadband wireless access. Step 5: Combining these ideas gives the standard expansion Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access, which corresponds to option C. Verification / Alternative check: Technical literature and exam guides often show WIMAX alongside Wi-Fi. The full form is written as Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access and is tied to the WIMAX Forum, an industry alliance that certifies interoperability. None of the alternative expansions are used in official documents, confirming that option C is the only correct one. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A (Wireless Interoperability for Microwave Access) is close but incorrect because it replaces Worldwide with Wireless, which does not match the official standard name. Option B (Wired Interoperability for Microwave Access) is wrong since WIMAX is a wireless standard, not wired. Option D (Worldwide Infrastructure for Microwave Access) is incorrect; the key word infrastructure is not part of the official expansion. Option E (Wireless Internet for Mobile Access Exchange) is also wrong and appears to be a distractor with loosely related words. Common Pitfalls: A common pitfall is to misremember Worldwide as Wireless in the expansion because both words begin with W and the technology is wireless. Another mistake is to assume that any combination of plausible sounding words is acceptable. For full form based questions, exact wording matters, so candidates should memorise the correct expansions from reliable sources during revision. Final Answer: WIMAX stands for Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access.

Question 13

India is developing the strategically important Chabahar Port in which of the following countries?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question concerns India foreign policy and strategic infrastructure projects. Chabahar Port is an important example of India investment in overseas port infrastructure to improve regional connectivity. Competitive exams often ask where this port is located and why it matters. Identifying the correct country is the first step in understanding its strategic significance. Given Data / Assumptions: The port under discussion is Chabahar Port. The question asks in which country this port is being developed by India. Options include Iraq, Oman, Iran, Afghanistan and the United Arab Emirates. We assume awareness that Chabahar is on the coast, not landlocked. Concept / Approach: Chabahar is a port on the coast of the Gulf of Oman. India collaborates with the government of Iran to develop this port as a gateway for trade with Afghanistan and Central Asia, bypassing certain other routes. Therefore, remembering that Chabahar is an Iranian port helps select the correct option. Afghanistan is a landlocked country, which automatically rules it out as the location of a seaport. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Chabahar is repeatedly referred to as an Iranian port in news and exam materials. Step 2: Note that the port lies on the coast of the Gulf of Oman, which borders Iran. Step 3: The project is seen as important for giving India sea land access to Afghanistan and Central Asia through Iranian territory. Step 4: Since Afghanistan is landlocked, it cannot itself host a major seaport like Chabahar. Step 5: Therefore, the correct country where India is developing Chabahar Port is Iran. Verification / Alternative check: Reports about India signing agreements with Iran for Chabahar, and about trilateral agreements among India, Iran and Afghanistan, all describe Chabahar as an Iranian port. Maps of the region clearly place Chabahar on the southeastern coast of Iran. None of the other listed countries match this geographic description, confirming Iran as the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A (Iraq) is wrong because Chabahar is not located on the Iraqi coast; Iraq coastline is short and lies on the northern Gulf, not the Gulf of Oman. Option B (Oman) is incorrect; Oman does have important ports such as Muscat and Salalah, but Chabahar is not one of them. Option D (Afghanistan) is wrong because Afghanistan has no coastline on any sea or ocean; it uses ports in neighbouring countries for sea access. Option E (United Arab Emirates) is also incorrect; major ports there include Dubai and Abu Dhabi, not Chabahar. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse Chabahar with Gwadar Port, which is being developed in Pakistan with support from China. It is important to remember that Chabahar is linked to India and Iran, while Gwadar is linked to Pakistan and China. Keeping a small mental map of these strategic ports helps avoid confusion in general knowledge exams. Final Answer: India is developing Chabahar Port in the country of Iran.

Question 14

What is the name of the deadly volcano in Indonesia that erupted again in May 2016, causing significant damage and loss of life?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question focuses on world geography and natural disasters. Indonesia lies in the Pacific Ring of Fire and experiences frequent volcanic eruptions. One of its dangerous volcanoes, Mount Sinabung, erupted multiple times in the last decade, including a deadly eruption in May 2016. Knowing the names and locations of such volcanoes is a common requirement in general knowledge exams. Given Data / Assumptions: The eruption in question occurred in May 2016. It was described as deadly and located in Indonesia. Options list Mount Sinabung, Mount Merapi, Mount Rinjani, Mount Agung and Krakatau. We assume familiarity with major Indonesian volcano names. Concept / Approach: The approach is to recall which volcano had a notable eruption in 2016 that was widely covered in news as Mount Sinabung. Merapi, Rinjani, Agung and Krakatau have also erupted in various years, but the specific deadly eruption around May 2016 is associated with Sinabung on the island of Sumatra. Remembering the time line helps to separate this event from other eruptions. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that the question refers to Indonesia, which has many active volcanoes. Step 2: Recall that Mount Sinabung reawakened after a long dormant period and has been erupting intermittently since around 2010. Step 3: A significant eruption in May 2016 from Mount Sinabung caused casualties and destruction, making international headlines. Step 4: Although Mount Merapi, Rinjani, Agung and Krakatau are also famous, their major recent eruptions occurred in different years. Step 5: Therefore, the volcano that erupted again in May 2016 is Mount Sinabung, corresponding to option A. Verification / Alternative check: Checking summaries of global natural disasters by year shows that 2016 lists a fatal eruption of Mount Sinabung in Indonesia, while Merapi major eruptions are noted in 2010 and other years, and Agung in later years like 2017. This date based cross check helps confirm that Sinabung is the correct match for the May 2016 eruption mentioned in the question. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option B (Mount Merapi) is wrong because its most deadly recent eruption occurred in 2010, not in May 2016. Option C (Mount Rinjani) is incorrect; although active, its notable eruptions do not match the specific 2016 event described here. Option D (Mount Agung) is wrong; its modern eruptions that gained attention occurred in later years. Option E (Krakatau) is also incorrect; while historically famous for its massive 1883 eruption and later activity, it is not the volcano referenced by the May 2016 event. Common Pitfalls: Candidates may confuse names of Indonesian volcanoes because many questions mention Merapi or Krakatau in other contexts. Another pitfall is to ignore the year mentioned and rely only on familiarity, which can lead to wrong choices. Always pay attention to the time frame in disaster related questions, as it often distinguishes one event from several similar ones. Final Answer: The deadly Indonesian volcano that erupted again in May 2016 is Mount Sinabung.

Question 15

In the context of industrial and economic development in India, SIDO is an organisation related primarily to the development of which sector?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question relates to Indian economic institutions and their focus sectors. SIDO stands for Small Industries Development Organisation. It was created to promote, support and coordinate the growth of small scale industries across India. Many competitive exams ask such questions to test familiarity with the institutional framework of industrial development. Given Data / Assumptions: The acronym SIDO is used without expansion in the question. The options list small industries, steel industry, soap industry, sugar industry and shipbuilding industry. We assume a standard understanding that SIDO is a government body dealing with small scale industrial development. Concept / Approach: The key concept is that SIDO is specifically concerned with micro, small and medium scale enterprises rather than with any single product industry such as steel, sugar or soap. The organisation works under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, focusing on policy, training, technology upgradation and support schemes for small units. Recognising this link guides us to the correct option. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that SIDO stands for Small Industries Development Organisation. Step 2: The name itself indicates a focus on small industries rather than large scale industries. Step 3: Small industries include a wide range of manufacturing and service units that are below a certain investment or turnover threshold. Step 4: The role of SIDO is to provide support, training, cluster development and policy advice for these small units. Step 5: Therefore, SIDO is related primarily to the development of small industries. Verification / Alternative check: If you look at standard Indian economy textbooks for competitive exams, you will find SIDO described as a central agency responsible for coordinating development of small scale industries. The organisation is not tied to a single product like steel or sugar, but rather to the size category of industries. This broad mandate for small industries confirms the correctness of option A. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option B (Steel industry) is wrong because steel is a capital intensive, large scale industry, usually handled by separate public sector undertakings and ministries. Option C (Soap industry) is incorrect; while some small units may make soap, SIDO role is not restricted to this product. Option D (Sugar industry) is wrong because sugar production is managed mainly by large mills and cooperatives, not by an organisation focused only on small industries. Option E (Shipbuilding industry) is also incorrect; shipyards are large, strategic industrial units beyond the typical scale of enterprises that SIDO targets. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may not remember the full form of SIDO and may guess randomly. Others might confuse SIDO with sector specific boards or corporations that handle commodities. A useful strategy is to memorise a few key industrial development bodies and their sectors, such as SIDO for small industries, KVIC for village industries and cooperative bodies for sugar and dairy sectors. Final Answer: SIDO is related primarily to the development of small industries.

Question 16

The Reserve Bank of India constituted a high-level task force on Public Credit Registry (PCR) for India. Who was appointed as the head of this task force?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question relates to Indian banking reforms and institutional initiatives by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). A Public Credit Registry (PCR) is planned as a comprehensive database of credit information to improve transparency and reduce risks in the financial system. RBI set up a high level task force to design a road map for this registry. Knowing who chaired this group is a typical current affairs question. Given Data / Assumptions: The body mentioned is a high level task force on Public Credit Registry for India. It was constituted by the Reserve Bank of India. Options list names including Sekar Kamam, Vishakha Mulye, Sriram Kalyanaraman, Y. M. Deosthalee and Urjit Patel. We assume candidates are familiar with key figures in the Indian banking and financial sector. Concept / Approach: The approach is to recall announcements by RBI regarding the setting up of a task force on PCR. The chairperson appointed was Y. M. Deosthalee, a senior banker with experience in financial services. Other names in the options are included as distractors but did not head this particular task force. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Remember that the Public Credit Registry is intended to provide a single, comprehensive source of credit information. Step 2: RBI formed a high level task force to examine international best practices and propose a design for India. Step 3: The RBI announcement named Y. M. Deosthalee as the chairperson of this task force. Step 4: Other individuals listed in the options are associated with different roles in banking but not with chairing this specific task force. Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is Y. M. Deosthalee. Verification / Alternative check: Reading RBI press releases and exam oriented banking awareness material shows that the task force on PCR was headed by Y. M. Deosthalee. This information was widely quoted in banking magazines and current affairs digests for bank exams. None of the other names are mentioned in connection with this particular committee, which confirms the answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A (Sekar Kamam) is wrong; there is no widely known RBI task force on PCR headed by this person. Option B (Vishakha Mulye) is incorrect; although a senior banker, she did not chair this task force. Option C (Sriram Kalyanaraman) is also wrong; he has been associated with housing finance but not with the PCR task force. Option E (Urjit Patel) is incorrect in this context; he was the RBI Governor at the time but the question specifically asks for the head of the task force, which is a separate appointment. Common Pitfalls: Candidates may assume that the RBI Governor automatically leads every major committee and incorrectly choose Urjit Patel. However, the RBI often appoints independent chairpersons or senior experts to head specific task forces. It is essential to remember the exact names linked with high profile committees like the Public Credit Registry task force when preparing for banking examinations. Final Answer: The high level RBI task force on Public Credit Registry for India was headed by Y. M. Deosthalee.

Question 17

In remote sensing and GIS, which of the following is one of the most common ways of representing remotely sensed data as useful information?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question comes from the field of remote sensing and geographical information systems (GIS). Satellites capture large volumes of data that must be processed and presented in a form that users can understand. One of the most widely used output products is a thematic map, which shows the spatial distribution of a particular theme such as land use, vegetation or soil type. Given Data / Assumptions: The focus is on forms of representing remote sensing data as information. The options include thematic maps, political maps, distribution maps, land use maps and road atlas sheets. We assume that thematic maps can include specialised maps such as land use maps as subtypes. Concept / Approach: A thematic map is a map designed to highlight a specific theme or subject area. Remote sensing output is often classified and then displayed as maps showing categories such as water bodies, forest types, urban areas or crop patterns. These are all forms of thematic mapping. Political maps and road atlases are more conventional cartographic products that may not require remote sensing data. Land use maps are a specific type of thematic map, so the broader and more accurate answer is thematic maps. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify what remote sensing data usually provides: images and spectral information over large areas. Step 2: Recognise that this data is processed into categories such as land cover, vegetation index or soil moisture. Step 3: These categories are then presented as maps that emphasise one theme at a time, such as a land use map, forest cover map or rainfall map. Step 4: All such maps are examples of thematic maps, where the map is built around a single theme. Step 5: Hence, the most general and correct term in the options is thematic maps. Verification / Alternative check: Standard textbooks on remote sensing and GIS explicitly mention thematic mapping as a major application of remotely sensed data. Examples include agriculture maps, geological maps and land degradation maps. While political maps and road atlases can use some geographic data, they are not the primary output of satellite based remote sensing programmes. This confirms that thematic maps is the appropriate term. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option B (Political maps) is wrong because these maps focus on administrative boundaries and are not typically derived directly from spectral remote sensing data. Option C (Distribution maps) sounds similar but is less precise. Distribution maps may be produced using many data sources, whereas the standard term used in remote sensing is thematic map. Option D (Land use maps) is partially correct in content but is a specific example rather than the general category. Land use maps themselves are a type of thematic map. Option E (Road atlas sheets) are collections of road maps intended for navigation and are usually not direct products of remote sensing analysis in the context tested here. Common Pitfalls: Students may be tempted to choose land use maps because remote sensing is frequently used for land use and land cover studies. However, the question asks for one of the common forms of representing remote sensing data in general, so the broader term thematic maps is more accurate. When in doubt, pick the term that best describes the wider category rather than a single example. Final Answer: One of the most common ways of representing remote sensing data as information is through thematic maps.

Question 18

Which of the following statements about the India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) is or are correct? 1. It has been incorporated as a public limited company. 2. It started operations by establishing two pilot branches at Hyderabad and Varanasi.

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question tests banking awareness and knowledge of India Post Payments Bank (IPPB), a key initiative to extend digital and financial services through the postal network. The question presents two statements about the legal status of IPPB and the locations of its initial pilot branches. Candidates must determine which statements are factually correct. Given Data / Assumptions: Statement 1: IPPB has been incorporated as a public limited company. Statement 2: IPPB started operations by establishing pilot branches at Hyderabad and Varanasi. Options range from 1 only, 2 only, both, neither, or one being partially correct. We assume standard information from official releases on IPPB formation. Concept / Approach: IPPB is a payments bank set up under the Department of Posts. It was incorporated under the Companies Act 2013 as a public limited company with government shareholding. The initial pilot branches, however, were not in Hyderabad and Varanasi; widely reported pilot locations were in other cities. Therefore, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct, leading us to choose the option that reflects this combination. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Evaluate statement 1. Official information confirms that IPPB is incorporated as a public limited company under the Companies Act, so statement 1 is correct. Step 2: Evaluate statement 2. The statement claims that pilot branches were started at Hyderabad and Varanasi. Step 3: Cross check with known facts about IPPB pilot operations. The first pilot branches were opened in other selected cities, not in this exact combination. Step 4: Therefore, statement 2 is not correct as given. Step 5: The correct combination is that only statement 1 is true, which corresponds to option A. Verification / Alternative check: Banking awareness guides and government communication about IPPB emphasise that it is a public sector company with 100 percent government ownership and a public limited structure. They also specify the exact locations of the initial pilot branches, which do not match the Hyderabad and Varanasi pairing mentioned in the question. This mismatch clearly invalidates statement 2 while supporting statement 1. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option B (2 only) is wrong because statement 2 about Hyderabad and Varanasi as pilot branch locations is not correct. Option C (Both 1 and 2) is incorrect because it treats the false statement 2 as correct. Option D (Neither 1 nor 2) is also wrong since statement 1 is in fact correct about the legal structure of IPPB. Option E (Only 1 is partially correct) is misleading; statement 1 is fully correct rather than partially correct, so this option does not accurately represent the situation. Common Pitfalls: Candidates may focus only on the idea that IPPB had pilot branches and assume the cities named are right, without verifying the specifics. Another mistake is to think that public limited company status applies only to private sector firms, whereas government owned companies can also be incorporated as public limited companies. It is important to read each statement carefully and to remember that factual precision about branch locations and legal status matters in such questions. Final Answer: Only the first statement is correct, so the right choice is 1 only.

Question 19

Beginning from the financial year 2017–18, NITI Aayog plans to replace the traditional Five Year Plans with which long term vision document for India’s development?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question checks awareness about the major change in India's national planning framework after the end of the Twelfth Five Year Plan. The Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog, and instead of continuing the earlier pattern of Five Year Plans, the Government decided to move towards a longer horizon of planning. From the financial year 2017–18 onwards, NITI Aayog proposed a new structure that includes a long term vision document, a medium term strategy and a short term action agenda. The correct option therefore relates to the duration of this long term vision document that replaces the earlier Five Year Plans as the main long range guide to development policy. Given Data / Assumptions: A new planning framework starts from the financial year 2017–18. NITI Aayog replaces the old Five Year Plan system of the Planning Commission. The new framework is based on a long term vision document and not on Five Year Plans. The options give different possible lengths of this vision document in years. We assume the standard description used by NITI Aayog in official statements and reports. Concept / Approach: The required concept is knowledge of Indian economic planning in the post Planning Commission era. NITI Aayog suggested a three tier framework consisting of a 15 year Vision Document, a 7 year Strategy document and a 3 year Action Agenda. The long term vision is meant to provide continuity of goals beyond frequent electoral cycles. To answer the question, we simply need to recall the number of years associated with the vision document that substitutes for the Five Year Plan as the guiding document for long term development objectives. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Planning Commission used to prepare Five Year Plans up to the Twelfth Plan (2012–2017). Step 2: Note that from 2017–18, the Government decided to discontinue new Five Year Plans and rely on NITI Aayog for a new planning architecture. Step 3: NITI Aayog proposed a three level framework consisting of a 15 year Vision Document, a 7 year Strategy and a 3 year Action Agenda. Step 4: The question asks specifically which long term vision document is meant to replace the old Five Year Plans. Step 5: Therefore, among the options 5, 10, 15 and 20 years, the correct duration for the vision document is 15 years. Verification / Alternative check: One way to verify is to recall common exam facts that are frequently repeated in news and government documents. Many economic survey type summaries and NITI Aayog press releases clearly mention a 15 year Vision, 7 year Strategy and 3 year Action Agenda framework. You might also remember the phrase “15 year Vision Document” as a popular objective question in multiple competitive examinations. Since no other duration, such as 10 or 20 years, is associated with the Vision Document in standard references, 15 years is confirmed as the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A (5 year Vision Document) is incorrect because the Five Year horizon belongs to the old Planning Commission model and there is no new 5 year vision document in the NITI Aayog structure. Option B (10 year Vision Document) is incorrect since NITI Aayog never proposed a 10 year vision document. The medium term document is a 7 year strategy, not 10 years. Option D (20 year Vision Document) is incorrect because such a very long horizon is not the one adopted officially. The long term horizon accepted by the Government is 15 years, not 20 years. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to confuse the different time horizons and mix up the Vision, Strategy and Action Agenda. Some learners wrongly think that the vision must be 20 years because that sounds like a very long period. Others may mark 5 years out of habit because they associate planning in India with Five Year Plans. It is important to clearly separate the three numbers that NITI Aayog uses and remember that 15 years is the new long term planning horizon that takes the place of the earlier Five Year Plan system as the main vision document. Final Answer: The long term document that replaces the traditional Five Year Plans from the financial year 2017–18 is a 15 year Vision Document prepared by NITI Aayog.

Question 20

Which one of the following countries was designated as a Focus Country for the mega food event World Food India held in November 2017 in New Delhi?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: World Food India 2017 was a major global event organised in New Delhi to showcase India as a hub for food processing and to attract international investment in the food sector. For such events, the Government of India often nominates Partner Countries and Focus Countries to highlight special relationships and to promote bilateral cooperation. This question checks specific factual knowledge about which country was selected as a Focus Country at World Food India 2017, something that is commonly asked in general awareness and current affairs examinations. Given Data / Assumptions: The event is World Food India, held in November 2017 in New Delhi. Some countries were designated as Partner Countries and some as Focus Countries. The options given are Germany, Japan, Denmark and Italy. We assume the factual details as announced by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries and reported widely in news sources at that time. Concept / Approach: The approach is purely factual recall. However, knowing the broader context can help memory. Germany is a major player in food processing technology and machinery and has strong trade ties with India. Denmark was announced as a Partner Country, while Germany was highlighted as a Focus Country to encourage investment and cooperation with Indian companies. By recalling this division between Partner Country and Focus Country, it becomes easier to pick the correct option. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that World Food India 2017 had specially designated Partner Countries and Focus Countries. Step 2: Remember that Denmark was chosen as a Partner Country for this event. Step 3: Focus Countries were selected to highlight their high potential in the food processing sector and to showcase advanced technology. Step 4: Among the given options Germany, Japan, Denmark and Italy, Germany is widely mentioned as a Focus Country for World Food India 2017. Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is Germany. Verification / Alternative check: If a learner remembers news reports or government press releases, they would recall that official publicity material specifically described Germany as the Focus Country at World Food India 2017, whereas Denmark was called the Partner Country. Japan and Italy were important participants but they were not given the title of Focus Country in this specific event. Cross checking with standard current affairs compilations for the year 2017 would also confirm that Germany is the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option B (Japan) is incorrect because although Japan was present at many Indian investment events, it was not designated as a Focus Country at World Food India 2017. Option C (Denmark) is incorrect because Denmark was honoured as a Partner Country, not as a Focus Country. Confusing these two roles is a common exam error. Option D (Italy) is incorrect since Italy did not hold the formal role of Focus Country at this event, even though Italian companies may have participated. Common Pitfalls: A frequent mistake is to confuse the terms Partner Country and Focus Country. Both sound similar and are used in the same event, so many candidates tend to mark Denmark because they remember reading that Denmark had a special role. Another pitfall is to make a random guess among the four European countries, especially between Germany and Italy, without recalling the exact news wording. Developing a habit of linking such facts with a small story, such as “Germany focuses on technology, so Germany is Focus Country”, can help retention. Final Answer: At World Food India 2017 in New Delhi, Germany was designated as one of the Focus Countries.

Basic General Knowledge Questions