Question 1

Which technology company acquired Flipgrid, an education start up whose app allows students to record and share short videos on specific topics with classmates and teachers?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question is from technology and business current affairs. It concerns the acquisition of Flipgrid, an educational technology start up that offers a platform where students can record and share short topic based videos, often used in classrooms and distance learning. Knowing which major technology company acquired this platform helps candidates stay updated on important developments in the global tech and education sector. Given Data / Assumptions: Flipgrid is an education focused start up with a video based discussion app. The question asks which larger technology company acquired it. The options are Microsoft, Wipro, TCS, and Google. We assume the acquisition in question is the widely reported one covered in technology news. Concept / Approach: Flipgrid became popular among teachers as a simple way to promote student engagement through video responses. Large technology companies that have strong education platforms and cloud services are the most likely acquirers. Among the options, Microsoft and Google are global tech giants with substantial education offerings. Wipro and TCS are major Indian IT services firms but are less commonly associated with acquiring well known consumer education apps. News reports specifically highlighted Microsoft acquisition of Flipgrid and integration with its education ecosystem. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall reading about an education app called Flipgrid being taken over by a large technology company.Step 2: Evaluate each option. Wipro and TCS mainly provide IT services and business solutions and are not commonly in the news for acquiring global classroom apps that target schools worldwide.Step 3: Google does invest in education tools like Classroom and G Suite for Education but was not the company named in this particular acquisition story.Step 4: Microsoft was reported to have acquired Flipgrid and made the service free for educational institutions, integrating it into its Office and education offerings.Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is Microsoft. Verification / Alternative check: Why Other Options Are Wrong: Wipro: A major IT services company headquartered in India, but not the acquirer of Flipgrid. TCS: Another large Indian IT services firm that focuses on enterprise projects rather than buying global classroom apps like Flipgrid. Google: Well known in education technology but in this case was not the company that acquired Flipgrid. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may quickly choose Google because they associate it strongly with online video and education through platforms like YouTube and Google Classroom. Others may confuse different acquisitions in the busy education technology space. Carefully recalling the specific news that Flipgrid became part of the Microsoft education ecosystem helps avoid this confusion. Final Answer: The education start up Flipgrid, which lets students share short topic based videos, was acquired by Microsoft.

Question 2

In basic religious studies, the belief in only one God is called by which of the following terms?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Beliefs about how many gods exist are a core topic in basic religious studies and general knowledge. Many competitive exams test whether candidates know the correct technical term for belief in a single, all powerful deity. Understanding this term also helps you differentiate between major world religions and their theological positions. This question asks you to identify the correct label for the belief that there is only one God, and to distinguish it from other common belief systems that involve multiple gods or no god at all. Given Data / Assumptions: • The question refers to belief in only one God. • No specific religion is mentioned, so the term must be a general theological concept. • Options include terms that describe different types of religious belief systems. • You are expected to know standard terminology used in basic religious studies and general knowledge books. Concept / Approach: The key concept here is the number of deities believed to exist. Belief in one God, many gods, or no god at all each has a specific term. The approach is to match the definition in the question with the correct technical word. The term for belief in one God is widely used in discussions of major Abrahamic religions such as Christianity, Islam, and Judaism. Other options describe belief in many gods or total disbelief in any deity, so the strategy is elimination based on accurate definitions of each term. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Read the stem carefully and note the phrase “belief in only one God”. This phrase is the central clue. Step 2: Recall the standard terms: monotheism, polytheism, pantheism, and atheism. Each describes a different stance about deities. Step 3: Monotheism is defined as the belief that there is only one God who is usually seen as supreme and unique. Step 4: Polytheism is belief in many gods, so it does not match “only one God”. Step 5: Pantheism is the belief that God and the universe are identical, or that everything collectively is divine, which is not the same as belief in a single separate deity. Step 6: Atheism is the belief that there is no God at all, which is the complete opposite of the given definition. Step 7: Therefore the only option that exactly matches “belief in only one God” is Monotheism. Verification / Alternative check: A quick verification method is to break the word into parts. The prefix “mono” means “one” and the root “theos” means “god” in Greek. So monotheism literally means “belief in one god”. In contrast, “poly” means “many”, so polytheism literally means “belief in many gods”. This etymology confirms that monotheism must be the correct choice. You can also check your school level social studies or religious studies notes where monotheistic religions are clearly defined as religions that believe in one God. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Polytheism: This refers to belief in many gods or deities, which contradicts the “only one God” condition, so it is not correct. Pantheism: This is the belief that the divine is identical with the universe or that everything collectively is God, and it does not focus on a single separate personal deity, so it does not match the question. Atheism: This is the position that no gods exist at all, which is the exact opposite of belief in one God, so it is clearly wrong here. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is confusing monotheism with polytheism because the words look similar. Candidates may rush and choose the wrong option without carefully noticing the prefixes “mono” and “poly”. Another pitfall is misinterpreting pantheism as belief in one universal God when it actually emphasises that everything is divine, not that there is a single separate deity. Some learners also mix up atheism and monotheism because they focus only on religious versus non religious belief and ignore the exact wording about “one God”. Reading the entire question slowly helps to avoid these misinterpretations. Final Answer: The belief in only one God is called Monotheism.

Question 3

Headquarters of the Competition Commission of India (CCI) are located in which Indian city?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Competition Commission of India, commonly known as CCI, is a key regulatory body that promotes fair competition and prevents anti competitive practices in Indian markets. Many general knowledge and banking exams include direct questions about the headquarters of important statutory bodies and regulators. Knowing where CCI is headquartered helps you build a mental map of important institutions and their locations, which is especially useful in economics and governance sections of competitive exams. Given Data / Assumptions: • The organisation mentioned is the Competition Commission of India (CCI). • CCI is an Indian statutory body that deals with competition law and fair trade practices. • The question asks specifically for the city where its headquarters are located. • The options list four major Indian cities: New Delhi, Hyderabad, Bangalore, and Kolkata. Concept / Approach: The approach is to connect the regulator with its typical administrative centre. Many key regulatory and constitutional bodies in India, such as the Election Commission of India and the Union Public Service Commission, are based in the national capital. CCI is also established under the Competition Act to oversee markets across the country, and its headquarters follow this pattern. If you remember that many union level regulators sit in New Delhi, you can quickly shortlist the most likely answer and then confirm it from standard GK references or economic survey notes. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify the organisation in question, which is the Competition Commission of India (CCI). Step 2: Recall the nature of CCI as a national level statutory body responsible for enforcing competition law across India. Step 3: Note that most central government regulators and commissions are headquartered in the national capital city. Step 4: Among the options, New Delhi is the city that serves as the capital of India and hosts many such regulators. Step 5: Check that Hyderabad, Bangalore, and Kolkata are important metropolitan cities but are not known as the main base for CCI. Step 6: Conclude that New Delhi is the correct choice for the headquarters of CCI. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by referring to the official website or any standard India Year Book style reference, which clearly mentions that the office of the Competition Commission of India is located in New Delhi. Many exam preparation books also group regulatory bodies with their locations, and CCI is consistently listed with New Delhi. Using this cross check not only confirms the answer but helps reinforce memory through repetition from multiple trusted sources. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Hyderabad: Although it is a major city and a growing technology and service hub, it is not the headquarters location for CCI. Bangalore: This city is known as India software and start up capital but does not house the main office of the Competition Commission of India. Kolkata: While Kolkata is historically significant and hosts various institutions, it is not associated with CCI headquarters, which are located in the national capital. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is overthinking and assuming that a business and technology hub like Bangalore or Hyderabad must host market regulators. Another pitfall is confusion between different commissions, such as mixing up the headquarters of CCI with those of other bodies like SEBI or various public sector undertakings. To avoid such errors, it is useful to remember a simple rule that most union level commissions and regulatory authorities are based in New Delhi unless there is a well known reason otherwise, such as SEBI which is headquartered in Mumbai due to its focus on capital markets. Final Answer: The headquarters of the Competition Commission of India are in New Delhi.

Question 4

Which of the following factors can damage a healthy interpersonal relationship over time?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Healthy relationships, whether friendships, family relationships, or romantic partnerships, rely on certain core ingredients such as trust, time, communication, and respect for expectations. This question tests basic life skills and emotional intelligence by asking you to identify which listed factors can damage a relationship. Such questions are common in school level general knowledge, life skills education, and competitive exams that include a component on soft skills or personality development. Given Data / Assumptions: • The topic is interpersonal relationships between people. • Options mention trust, expectations, and spending time together. • The question asks which factors can damage a relationship, so more than one option can be harmful. • One option explicitly says “All of the above”. Concept / Approach: The concept is that relationships are dynamic and need regular care. Trust is the foundation, time together helps maintain connection, and meeting reasonable expectations keeps both people feeling valued. The approach is to analyse each option and see whether it would weaken or damage a relationship if it persisted. If every individual factor is harmful, then the best answer will be the combined option “All of the above”. This style of reasoning is very common in soft skills questions where multiple statements contribute to a single outcome. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Evaluate option A: no trust. Without trust, people feel insecure and suspicious, which almost always damages the relationship. Step 2: Evaluate option B: not meeting expectations. When promises and expectations are repeatedly not met, resentment and disappointment build up, which harms the bond. Step 3: Evaluate option C: people not spending time together. If people rarely interact, the emotional connection weakens and misunderstandings increase. Step 4: Note that all three factors clearly have a negative impact on a relationship. Step 5: Since A, B, and C are each damaging, the most inclusive and therefore correct choice is option D, “All of the above”. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify the reasoning by imagining real life situations. Consider two close friends: if they stop trusting each other, stop keeping promises, and no longer spend time together, the friendship will almost certainly fade or break. Similarly, in a family or workplace context, relationships suffer when there is no trust, unmet expectations, and very little shared time. Each factor independently weakens the bond, and together they accelerate damage. This confirms that it is not just one factor but all of them that can damage a relationship. Why Other Options Are Wrong: No trust between people: While this alone can damage a relationship, it is not the only correct factor. The question asks for the most complete answer, so selecting only this factor ignores other harmful influences. People not spending time with one another: Lack of time together can weaken a bond, but again, it is not the only damaging factor. Selecting only this option underestimates the impact of trust and expectations. Not meeting expectations in the relationship: Repeatedly failing to meet expectations can cause serious strain, but the question is about all damaging factors, so focusing on a single one is incomplete. Common Pitfalls: A common pitfall is to select just one option that seems most serious, such as lack of trust, and overlook the fact that the question is asking broadly about factors that can damage a relationship. Another mistake is assuming that “All of the above” is a trick option and avoiding it automatically. In reasoning based questions, if each individual statement is clearly correct, then “All of the above” is often the best choice. Carefully evaluating every option and checking whether more than one is valid helps avoid these errors. Final Answer: A relationship can be damaged by all the listed factors, so the correct answer is All of the above.

Question 5

A cavern is an underground chamber typically formed by which geological process?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Caverns are fascinating underground features that appear in many geography and earth science questions. They are large natural chambers beneath the Earth surface and are most commonly found in regions with limestone or similar rocks. Examiners often test whether you understand the basic geological processes responsible for forming such landforms. This question specifically asks which process typically creates caverns, so you must connect the correct process with the slow transformation of rock over long periods of time. Given Data / Assumptions: • The landform in question is a cavern, which is an underground chamber. • The options list four processes: erosion, runoff, deposition, and evaporation. • We assume standard school level definitions for these geological processes. • The question requires identifying the main process, not every minor contributing factor. Concept / Approach: The core concept is that most caverns, especially those in limestone regions, are produced by the long term action of water dissolving and eroding rock. Slightly acidic groundwater percolates through cracks, slowly enlarging them into tunnels and chambers. This is primarily an erosion process, specifically chemical erosion or solution. Runoff refers mainly to surface flow, deposition is about dropping sediments, and evaporation is about phase change of water, none of which fits the dominant mechanism behind cavern formation. The approach is therefore to recall how groundwater shapes underground landscapes and to eliminate processes that do not match. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the definition of a cavern as a large natural underground chamber, often found in limestone regions. Step 2: Think about how water interacts with rock beneath the surface. Slightly acidic rainwater seeps down and dissolves minerals in the rock. Step 3: Recognise that this dissolving and wearing away of rock is a type of erosion, more specifically chemical erosion or solution erosion. Step 4: Compare this with runoff, which describes surface water flow and is not the main process creating large underground chambers. Step 5: Consider deposition, which involves the laying down of sediments, the opposite of removing rock to create empty space. Step 6: Note that evaporation involves water changing from liquid to gas and does not create hollow chambers in rock. Step 7: Conclude that erosion is the correct answer because it best describes the long term removal of rock material that forms caverns. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by consulting standard physical geography topics such as karst topography. These lessons explain that underground features like caves, caverns, stalactites, and stalagmites are associated with solution activity in limestone areas. Maps and diagrams show water percolating through joints, dissolving rock, and carving out large voids. All of these descriptions emphasise erosion rather than deposition or evaporation. If you recall such diagrams and note the repeated mention of erosion and solution, this confirms that erosion must be the correct choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Runoff: Refers primarily to surface water flowing across the land to rivers and lakes. While runoff can cause surface erosion, it does not mainly describe the underground processes that create caverns. Deposition: Involves the accumulation of sediments as water or wind slows down. Deposition fills spaces rather than creating them, so it cannot usually explain the formation of large underground cavities. Evaporation: Describes water changing from liquid to vapour, playing a role in the water cycle, but it does not carve out chambers in rock. Common Pitfalls: One pitfall is to think of erosion only as surface wearing away by rivers and wind, and to forget that chemical erosion also happens underground. Another mistake is to pick deposition because stalactites and stalagmites grow by deposition of minerals, but those features grow inside caverns that have already been formed by earlier erosion. Some students may also pick runoff simply because it involves water, without noticing that the question is specifically about underground chambers. Careful reading of definitions and attention to whether the process creates or fills spaces helps avoid these errors. Final Answer: A cavern is an underground chamber formed mainly by rock being worn away, so the correct process is Erosion.

Question 6

In psychology, cognitive psychology primarily focuses on the scientific study of which aspect of human functioning?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Psychology is a broad field that studies behaviour and mental processes. Within it, different branches focus on different aspects of human experience. Cognitive psychology is one of the most important subfields and often appears in general knowledge and introductory psychology questions. This question checks whether you know what cognitive psychology primarily studies. Having a clear idea of this helps you interpret research findings, understand learning theories, and answer questions on memory, attention, and problem solving more effectively. Given Data / Assumptions: • The branch named in the question is cognitive psychology. • The question asks what this branch focuses on in terms of scientific study. • Options include mental processes, physical growth, social customs, and genetic inheritance. • We assume standard textbook definitions of psychological subfields at school or undergraduate level. Concept / Approach: The key concept is the word “cognitive”. In psychology, cognition refers to mental processes such as perception, attention, memory, language, problem solving, and decision making. Therefore, cognitive psychology is the scientific study of those mental processes. It is not primarily about physical development, social norms, or genetics, although those topics can influence cognition. The approach is to match the term “cognitive” with the correct domain and to eliminate options that belong to other branches like developmental, social, or biological psychology. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify the branch: cognitive psychology. Step 2: Recall that cognition refers to processes of knowing, such as thinking, remembering, understanding, and problem solving. Step 3: Check option A, which mentions mental processes such as thinking, memory, and perception. This exactly matches the meaning of cognition. Step 4: Examine option B, which focuses on physical growth and bodily changes. That is more closely related to developmental or biological psychology rather than cognitive psychology. Step 5: Examine option C, which talks about social customs and cultural traditions. Those topics fall mainly under social or cultural psychology. Step 6: Examine option D, which refers to genetic inheritance and biological evolution. Those topics belong mainly to biological psychology or behavioural genetics. Step 7: Conclude that option A is the only one that correctly captures the focus of cognitive psychology. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, you can recall common topics covered in courses labeled “Cognitive Psychology” or in chapters titled “Cognition and Memory”. They usually include perception, attention, short term and long term memory, language processing, reasoning, and problem solving. These chapters rarely focus on height, weight, puberty, or physical development, which are covered in developmental psychology. They also do not focus mainly on group behaviour or cultural norms, which are handled by social psychology. This clear separation of topics across subfields confirms that cognitive psychology is centred on mental processes. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Physical growth and bodily changes across the lifespan: This is the domain of developmental psychology and sometimes health psychology, not cognitive psychology. While development can affect cognition, it is not the central focus of this branch. Social customs and cultural traditions in a society: These belong to social and cultural psychology, which study how people behave and think in groups and under cultural influences. They are not the primary focus of cognitive psychology. Genetic inheritance and biological evolution: These are studied in biological psychology, behavioural genetics, and evolutionary psychology. Cognitive psychology uses such findings but does not centre on them. Common Pitfalls: A frequent mistake is to choose an option that sounds broadly related to psychology without focusing on the specific branch named in the question. For example, some learners pick physical growth or social customs because they associate psychology with general human behaviour. Another pitfall is ignoring the root word “cognitive” and failing to connect it with thinking and mental processes. To avoid these errors, always break down the technical term into its meaning and match that meaning to the correct option. Remembering simple associations like “cognitive equals thinking and memory” helps you answer such questions quickly. Final Answer: Cognitive psychology focuses on the scientific study of mental processes such as thinking, memory, and perception.

Question 7

Followers of the religion of Islam are commonly known by which of the following names?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: World religions and their followers are a basic part of general knowledge for students and exam candidates. Knowing how to correctly refer to followers of major religions is important for respectful communication and for scoring marks in GK sections. This question focuses on Islam and asks what the followers of Islam are called. It tests your familiarity with common religious terms that often appear in school textbooks and competitive exam preparation material. Given Data / Assumptions: • The religion mentioned is Islam. • The question asks for the correct collective term for its followers. • Options include several names that might sound related but are not all correct. • We assume standard, widely accepted usage in general knowledge and social studies. Concept / Approach: The key concept is basic religious terminology. The followers of Islam are called Muslims. They believe in one God, Allah, and accept Prophet Muhammad as the final prophet. The approach is straightforward recall. You must recognise the correct word and avoid distractors that may include names of prophets or other biblical figures. Options that simply use the name of a prophet or ancestor are not standard labels for followers of the religion and should be rejected. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify the religion given in the question, which is Islam. Step 2: Recall from basic general knowledge that the followers of Islam are called Muslims. Step 3: Check option B and see that it uses the correct term, Muslims. Step 4: Examine option A, Abrahams, which refers to the prophet Abraham and not to general followers of Islam. Step 5: Examine option D, Muhammads, which would be the plural of the prophet name Muhammad, not the accepted term for followers of the religion. Step 6: Note that option C, Ishas, does not correspond to any recognised term for followers of Islam. Step 7: Conclude that option B, Muslims, is the correct and widely used term. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by thinking of common phrases you encounter in news, textbooks, or documentaries, such as “Muslim community”, “Muslim nations”, or “Muslim festivals”. All of these show that Muslims is the accepted term. In contrast, you rarely see terms like Abrahams or Muhammads used to describe followers in everyday language or in formal writing. Checking any standard school social science book or reliable online encyclopedia will confirm that Islam followers are called Muslims. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Abrahams: Abraham is an important prophet in Judaism, Christianity, and Islam, but the general followers of Islam are not called Abrahams. This option is a distractor that plays on the common heritage of Abrahamic religions. Ishas: This term is not recognised as a standard label for followers of Islam and does not appear in common usage or textbooks. Muhammads: Prophet Muhammad is central to Islam, but followers of the religion are called Muslims, not Muhammads. Using the prophet name in plural form is incorrect terminology. Common Pitfalls: Some learners may be confused by the presence of prophet names in the options and assume that followers are named directly after them. Another pitfall is rushing through the question and picking any option that sounds vaguely related to the religion without recalling the exact term. To avoid such mistakes, focus on what you have seen consistently in credible sources. Remember simple pairs like Christianity and Christians, Islam and Muslims, Hinduism and Hindus, which help you quickly match religions with the correct names for their followers. Final Answer: Followers of the religion of Islam are called Muslims.

Question 8

Which subatomic particle found in an atom has no electric charge?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Atoms are the basic building blocks of matter, and understanding their structure is an essential part of school level physics and chemistry. Atoms contain three main subatomic particles: protons, neutrons, and electrons. Each has a characteristic electric charge, which determines how atoms interact in chemical reactions and electrical phenomena. This question asks you to identify which one of these subatomic particles carries no electric charge at all, a fact that is frequently tested in basic science and general knowledge exams. Given Data / Assumptions: • The topic is the structure of an atom and its subatomic particles. • Options include electron, neutron, proton, and a combined option, all of the above. • You are expected to know the charges associated with each particle. • Standard textbook definitions of charge are assumed: positive, negative, or zero. Concept / Approach: The concept is that in a neutral atom, positively charged protons and negatively charged electrons balance each other, while neutrons have no charge. Protons carry a positive charge, electrons carry a negative charge, and neutrons are electrically neutral. The approach is to recall the charge of each particle and then choose the one that matches “no electric charge”. Since only one subatomic particle among the three is neutral, the correct answer is straightforward once you remember their basic properties. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that an atom consists mainly of protons, neutrons, and electrons. Step 2: Remember that protons are located in the nucleus and carry a positive electric charge. Step 3: Recall that electrons move in regions around the nucleus and carry a negative electric charge. Step 4: Identify that neutrons are also located in the nucleus but are defined as electrically neutral, meaning they have no charge. Step 5: Compare this information with the options given. Step 6: Electron and proton are both charged particles, so they do not match the condition of having no charge. Step 7: Neutron has no electric charge, so it is the only correct answer, and therefore the combined option, all of the above, is incorrect. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by recalling common representations of atomic structure from diagrams in science textbooks. These show protons marked with a plus sign, electrons with a minus sign, and neutrons with no sign at all. Additionally, when calculating the net charge of an atom, only protons and electrons are counted, while neutrons affect mass but not charge. These facts confirm that neutrons are neutral. Any standard periodic table or atomic structure chapter repeats this information, which reinforces the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Electron: Electrons carry a negative charge and are responsible for many electrical and chemical properties, so they are not neutral. Proton: Protons carry a positive charge and contribute to the atomic number, so they are also not neutral. All of the above: Since both electrons and protons are charged, it is impossible that all three particles have no charge. This option contradicts basic atomic theory. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to confuse the names because neutron contains the word “neutral” only indirectly. Some students might quickly choose electron since they often hear about electric current and electrons in the same context, but they forget the key detail that electrons are negatively charged. Another pitfall is marking all of the above without carefully evaluating each particle. To avoid these errors, always recall the simple summary: protons positive, electrons negative, neutrons neutral. This three word pattern makes it easy to answer such questions in a few seconds. Final Answer: The subatomic particle that has no electric charge is the Neutron.

Question 9

In New Delhi, the IT ministry launched the desktop software e Aksharayan during a conference for the Indian Languages Technology Industry named what?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: India has rich linguistic diversity, and many government initiatives focus on promoting technology that supports Indian languages. The software e Aksharayan is one such tool, designed to make working with text in Indian scripts easier by converting scanned documents into editable text. The Information Technology ministry launched this software at a specific conference focused on the Indian Languages Technology Industry. This question tests your awareness of that event and the name of the conference where the launch took place. Given Data / Assumptions: • The software mentioned is e Aksharayan, a desktop application for converting scanned text into editable form. • The launch took place in New Delhi at a conference dedicated to the Indian Languages Technology Industry. • Four possible conference names are provided as options. • We assume the question refers to a widely reported official event connected with language technology. Concept / Approach: The approach here is factual recall of current affairs related to Indian language technology initiatives. The key is to remember that e Aksharayan was launched at a conference named Bhashantara, which focuses on language technologies. The word “Bhasha” itself means “language” in many Indian languages, which makes this name thematically appropriate for an Indian languages technology conference. Using this language based clue helps you choose the option that best fits the context even if you do not recall the event in full detail. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify the software in question, e Aksharayan, which is related to handling text from scanned documents in Indian languages. Step 2: Note that the software was launched at a conference focused on the Indian Languages Technology Industry. Step 3: Look at the options and recognise that the term “Bhasha” means language, so Bhashantara is strongly connected to the idea of languages. Step 4: Compare this with the other terms, which do not clearly relate to language technology in the same direct way. Step 5: Recall, if you have read current affairs, that the conference where e Aksharayan was launched was indeed named Bhashantara. Step 6: Use both thematic reasoning and factual recall to confirm that option B, Bhashantara, is correct. Verification / Alternative check: A quick verification method is to connect the name of the conference with its purpose. Since the conference was for the Indian Languages Technology Industry, it is logical that its name would directly reference language. Bhashantara includes the root “Bhasha” and suggests a focus on languages and translation or transformation. This alignment between the word meaning and the conference objective adds confidence to the answer. Checking reliable current affairs summaries or official announcements would confirm that e Aksharayan was launched at the Bhashantara conference in New Delhi. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Parivartana: This word suggests change or transformation in general, but it is not specifically associated with the Indian Languages Technology Industry conference linked to e Aksharayan. Aksharantara: While it contains “Akshar”, meaning letter, this is not the name of the conference mentioned in official reports about the software launch. Akshara: This term also refers to letters or syllables, but again, it is not the name used for the Indian languages technology conference where the software was unveiled. Common Pitfalls: A common pitfall is to focus only on the parts of the options that mention letters, such as Akshara or Aksharantara, and assume they must be correct because the software deals with text. Another mistake is to guess randomly without using linguistic clues. To avoid errors, pay attention to how government initiatives are usually named. For language technology events, names with the root “Bhasha” are very typical. This pattern based reasoning can guide you to the correct answer even if you only vaguely remember the news event. Final Answer: The IT ministry launched e Aksharayan at the Indian Languages Technology Industry conference named Bhashantara.

Question 10

The scientific study of volcanoes and volcanic activity is known by which term?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Volcanoes are powerful natural features that affect Earth surface, climate, and human societies. Scientists study volcanoes to understand how eruptions occur, how to predict them, and how to reduce risk to people living in volcanic regions. The branch of earth science that deals specifically with volcanoes has a standard name, and this often appears as a straightforward one line question in school exams and competitive tests. This question asks you to select that correct term from among several similar looking options. Given Data / Assumptions: • The focus is on the scientific study of volcanoes and volcanic activity. • Options include word forms that resemble technical terms but are not all recognised branches of science. • We assume standard earth science terminology used in textbooks and reference materials. • Only one option is a widely accepted name for this field of study. Concept / Approach: The key concept is that the word “volcano” forms the root of the field name, and the suffix “logy” means study of. Therefore, the study of volcanoes is called volcanology. The alternative options are distractors that combine lava, magma, or chemistry with the same suffix but do not correspond to official scientific disciplines. The correct approach is to recognise the familiar pattern that many branches of science follow, such as geology for the study of the Earth and seismology for the study of earthquakes, and then apply it to volcanoes. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Focus on the phrase “study of volcanoes” in the question. Step 2: Recall that “logy” is a common suffix meaning study of, as in biology and geology. Step 3: Link the root “volcano” with this suffix to get the term volcanology. Step 4: Examine option A, Volcanology, and notice that it exactly fits this pattern. Step 5: Check option B, Lavology, which seems to derive from lava, but it is not a recognised standard term. Step 6: Check option C, Magmalogy, which appears to come from magma, again not a standard branch name. Step 7: Check option D, Chemicology, which is not the accepted name for any major field and does not refer specifically to volcanoes. Step 8: Conclude that volcanology is the only correct and widely used term. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by recalling references to volcanologists in documentaries or textbooks. These scientists monitor volcanic activity, measure gases, study lava flows, and analyse eruption histories. The term volcanology appears in many earth science chapters dealing with natural hazards and plate tectonics. None of the other words in the options are used in standard scientific literature to describe this branch. A quick check of school level geography or geology books would confirm that volcanology is the accepted term. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Lavology: While lava is closely related to volcanoes, this term is not recognised as an official field name in earth science. It is used here only as a distractor. Magmalogy: Similar to lavology, this word appears to come from magma but is not an established discipline name, so it is not correct. Chemicology: This does not correspond to any standard scientific branch and does not specifically refer to volcanoes or volcanic activity. Common Pitfalls: A possible pitfall is being misled by new or unfamiliar sounding words and overthinking the question. Some students may try to interpret lava or magma based options as more precise, even though those terms are not actually used as names of scientific disciplines. Another mistake is to ignore the clear pattern of “subject name plus logy” that many sciences follow. To avoid these errors, rely on what you have already seen and read, and remember that volcanology is commonly mentioned in books and documentaries about volcanic hazards. Final Answer: The scientific study of volcanoes and volcanic activity is called Volcanology.

Question 11

In safe driving and travel planning, careful trip planning mainly helps to reduce which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Safe and efficient travel depends not only on driving skills but also on good planning before you start a trip. Many road safety courses and driving manuals highlight the importance of planning your route, checking traffic conditions, and estimating travel time. This question asks what careful trip planning can help reduce. It appears in general knowledge and driver education contexts to emphasise the benefits of preparation for both mental well being and practical efficiency on the road. Given Data / Assumptions: • The topic is trip planning for safe driving and travel. • The options list stress, driving distance, both A and B, and insurance costs. • We assume that proper planning includes choosing suitable routes and realistic schedules. • The question aims to highlight direct, practical outcomes of planning before driving. Concept / Approach: Trip planning has two major benefits. First, it reduces stress because you know your route, expected traffic, and timing. Second, it can reduce driving distance by helping you choose the shortest or most efficient path to your destination. Insurance costs, however, are not directly reduced by individual trip planning in the short term, because they are usually determined by policies, claims history, and other factors. The correct approach is to evaluate each option logically and see which ones are directly influenced by planning your route and schedule. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Consider stress. If you plan your trip, you are less likely to feel rushed, lost, or surprised by delays, so stress naturally reduces. Step 2: Consider driving distance. With maps and navigation tools, planning helps you avoid unnecessary detours and choose shorter or faster routes, reducing total distance. Step 3: Examine insurance costs. These do not usually change just because of one well planned trip and are more related to long term driving record and insurance terms. Step 4: Observe that planning clearly affects both stress and distance but not directly insurance costs. Step 5: Notice that option C, Both A and B, combines stress and driving distance, the two factors that planning can reduce. Step 6: Conclude that the best and most complete answer is option C, Both A and B. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by thinking of a trip where you did not plan versus one where you did. Without planning, you might get stuck in traffic, miss turns, or arrive late, all of which increase stress and may cause you to drive extra kilometres. With planning, you can check alternate routes, avoid peak congestion, and schedule rest breaks, which makes the journey smoother and often shorter. Insurance premiums will not fluctuate from one trip to another based on your planning, so they are not directly affected in the way the question describes. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Stress: While trip planning does reduce stress, choosing only this option ignores the second major benefit of reduced driving distance. Driving distance: Planning can indeed cut distance, but this option alone ignores the clear mental benefit of lower stress that the question expects you to recognise. Insurance costs: These are largely determined by policy terms, claim history, vehicle type, and long term driving behaviour, not by individual instances of route planning, so this option is not correct. Common Pitfalls: Some learners may select only one of the two benefits because they focus strictly on safety or strictly on time and distance. Others might be tempted by insurance costs, thinking that safer driving indirectly lowers costs, but this effect is very long term and is not directly tied to a single act of trip planning. To avoid such mistakes, pay attention to options that combine correct statements. When two separate options are clearly true and there is a combined option that includes both, that combined option is often the best answer. Final Answer: Careful trip planning helps reduce Both A and B, that is, stress and total driving distance.

Question 12

According to the Global Liveability Index for 2018, which city was ranked the most liveable city in the world?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Global Liveability Index, often associated with the Economist Intelligence Unit, ranks cities around the world based on factors such as stability, healthcare, culture, environment, education, and infrastructure. These rankings frequently appear in general knowledge and current affairs questions. In 2018, there was a significant change at the top of the index, as a European city overtook a long standing leader. This question asks you to recall which city achieved the number one position as the most liveable city in the world in that year. Given Data / Assumptions: • The index mentioned is the Global Liveability Index for 2018. • The options list Melbourne, Vienna, Damascus, and Dhaka. • We assume that you have basic awareness of major news about city rankings around that time. • Only one of the listed cities occupied the top spot in the 2018 ranking. Concept / Approach: For several years, Melbourne in Australia had been ranked as the most liveable city. However, in 2018, Vienna, the capital of Austria, took the top position. The approach is to remember this widely discussed change and to connect the year 2018 with Vienna move to number one. The other cities listed are known for different reasons and do not appear near the top in standard liveability rankings, making them easier to eliminate if you recall basic world geography and economic conditions. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Global Liveability Index evaluates cities on quality of life indicators such as stability, healthcare, culture, education, and infrastructure. Step 2: Remember that Melbourne had previously dominated the top spot for several years. Step 3: Focus on the specific year given, 2018, which is known for Vienna taking over the number one ranking. Step 4: Identify Vienna in the options as a European capital with a strong reputation for culture, safety, and infrastructure. Step 5: Note that Damascus and Dhaka have faced challenges related to conflict, pollution, and infrastructure that place them low on liveability scores. Step 6: Recognise that Melbourne, while very highly ranked, was pushed to second place by Vienna in 2018. Step 7: Conclude that the correct answer is Vienna. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by remembering headlines from 2018 that highlighted the fact that Vienna overtook Melbourne to become the most liveable city. These news items often mentioned that Vienna scored highly on stability, public services, culture, and transportation. Many current affairs compilations and year end reviews for 2018 also emphasised this change in ranking. If you recall such coverage, it reinforces your choice of Vienna as the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Melbourne: This city topped the index for several years in a row but slipped to second place in 2018, so it is not correct for that specific year. Damascus: Due to conflict and instability, Damascus ranks very low on safety and liveability, making it far from the top of the index. Dhaka: Dhaka faces challenges related to congestion, pollution, and infrastructure, which result in low liveability scores, so it is not near the top of the rankings. Common Pitfalls: The main pitfall is remembering Melbourne long history at the top and choosing it out of habit, without paying attention to the year specified in the question. Another mistake is ignoring broader world conditions and not realising that cities experiencing conflict or severe infrastructure issues are unlikely to rank first on a liveability index. To avoid such errors, always read the year or time frame mentioned and think about any well known changes that occurred during that period. Final Answer: In 2018, the Global Liveability Index ranked Vienna as the most liveable city in the world.

Question 13

The protective ozone layer in Earth atmosphere is located primarily in which atmospheric layer?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The ozone layer plays a critical role in protecting life on Earth by absorbing most of the harmful ultraviolet radiation from the Sun. Understanding where this layer is located within the atmosphere is fundamental in school level geography and environmental science. This question tests your knowledge of atmospheric layers and the vertical distribution of important gases, especially ozone, which is concentrated in a particular region rather than being evenly spread throughout the atmosphere. Given Data / Assumptions: • The focus is the ozone layer, known for absorbing ultraviolet radiation. • The question asks in which atmospheric layer this ozone concentration mainly occurs. • Options list stratosphere, troposphere, mesosphere, and ionosphere. • We assume the standard division of the atmosphere into layers based on temperature changes with altitude. Concept / Approach: Earth atmosphere is divided into several layers: troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere, and exosphere, with special regions like the ionosphere overlapping some of these layers. The ozone layer is found primarily in the stratosphere, at altitudes roughly between 10 and 50 kilometres above the surface, with maximum concentration in the lower stratosphere. The approach is therefore to match your knowledge of where the ozone layer is located to the correct layer name and to eliminate layers that have different primary properties or functions. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the atmosphere is divided into layers based on temperature gradient: troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, and higher regions. Step 2: Remember that most weather phenomena like rain and storms occur in the troposphere, closest to the surface. Step 3: Recall from environmental science lessons that the ozone layer, which absorbs ultraviolet radiation, is concentrated in the stratosphere. Step 4: Note that the mesosphere is higher than the stratosphere and is known for burning up meteors, not for maximum ozone concentration. Step 5: Understand that the ionosphere is a region with ionised particles affecting radio waves, overlapping several layers, but it is not the main label used for the ozone layer. Step 6: Conclude that the correct atmospheric layer for the ozone layer is the stratosphere. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by recalling diagrams of the atmosphere in geography or environmental science textbooks. These diagrams usually show a band labelled “ozone layer” within the stratosphere, above the troposphere and below the mesosphere. The text often mentions that depletion of this ozone layer leads to more ultraviolet radiation reaching the Earth surface. Such descriptions consistently associate the ozone layer with the stratosphere, providing independent confirmation of your answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Troposphere: This is the lowest layer where weather occurs, and while it contains ozone in small amounts, it is not where the protective ozone layer is primarily located. Mesosphere: Higher than the stratosphere, this layer is known for meteor burning and temperature decrease, not for having the main ozone concentration. Ionosphere: This region consists of ionised gases that affect radio communication and extends through parts of the mesosphere and thermosphere. It is not the specific layer where the ozone layer is concentrated. Common Pitfalls: A common error is confusing the troposphere and stratosphere because they are adjacent layers. Some learners also mix up the ionosphere with other atmospheric layers simply because the term sounds technical. To avoid these mistakes, remember simple associations: troposphere equals weather, stratosphere equals ozone, mesosphere equals meteors, and ionosphere equals radio waves. These memory links make it easier to match concepts with the correct layers in multiple choice questions. Final Answer: The ozone layer is located primarily in the Stratosphere.

Question 14

For safe boating, when should a personal flotation device (PFD) be discarded and replaced with a new one?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Personal flotation devices, often called life jackets or PFDs, are critical safety equipment for activities on water such as boating, kayaking, or fishing. Safety guidelines emphasise not only wearing a PFD but also ensuring that it is in good condition. This question focuses on when a PFD should be discarded, meaning it should no longer be used because it may not provide adequate protection. Understanding this helps prevent accidents where a damaged PFD fails to keep a person afloat in an emergency. Given Data / Assumptions: • The object in question is a personal flotation device (PFD). • The question asks when it should be discarded and replaced. • Options include different time durations and a condition describing physical damage. Concept / Approach: The key concept is that safety equipment must be structurally sound to function properly. A PFD works by trapping air or buoyant material to keep a person afloat. If the device is physically damaged, for example by a torn strap or ripped material, it may not stay securely attached or work as designed. Time alone, such as one month or one year of use, is not sufficient reason to discard a PFD if it remains in good condition and still meets safety standards. Being too small is a fit issue and means the PFD should not be used by that person, but it still may be safe for someone else of smaller size. The main criterion for discarding is damage that affects performance. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that the purpose of a PFD is to provide flotation and keep the wearer safely above water. Step 2: Consider situations that compromise this function. Physical damage like torn straps or ripped fabric can prevent the PFD from staying on or performing correctly. Step 3: Evaluate the time based options. A PFD does not automatically fail after one month or one year of use if it is properly maintained. Step 4: Evaluate the size issue. If a PFD is too small for one person, it is unsafe for that individual but could still be used by someone who fits the size range. Step 5: Recognise that a torn strap indicates structural damage, meaning the PFD may detach or fail during an emergency. Step 6: Conclude that a PFD should be discarded when it has a torn strap or similar damage that affects its ability to function. Verification / Alternative check: Boating safety guidelines and manuals typically advise users to inspect PFDs regularly for tears, punctures, broken straps, or damaged buckles. They emphasise discarding and replacing any PFD that shows such signs of damage, regardless of its age. These same sources mention that a PFD must also be the correct size for the wearer but do not require discarding a device solely because it is too small for one person, as it can be reassigned to someone else. This guidance confirms that structural damage like a torn strap is the clear trigger for discarding. Why Other Options Are Wrong: When it is too small: A PFD that is too small for one person should not be used by that individual but can still be used by someone else in the correct size range, so it does not automatically need to be discarded. When it has been used 1 year: The age alone does not determine safety. Properly maintained PFDs can be used beyond one year as long as they remain in good condition and meet safety standards. When it has been used 1 month: One month is too short a period to justify discarding a PFD on time alone, so this option is not reasonable. Common Pitfalls: One pitfall is assuming that there is a fixed time limit after which all safety equipment must be thrown away, regardless of condition. Another is confusing fit issues with structural damage. A PFD that is too small is indeed unsafe for a particular wearer but not necessarily unusable for everyone. To avoid mistakes, focus on whether the device is physically intact and functional. Any visible damage that could prevent the PFD from working as designed is a strong reason to discard and replace it. Final Answer: A personal flotation device should be discarded when it is damaged, for example When it has a torn strap.

Question 15

Which airline successfully conducted India first ever test flight powered partly by biojet fuel?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Alternative fuels are increasingly important in aviation as the industry looks for ways to reduce carbon emissions and dependence on conventional fossil fuels. Biojet fuel, derived from renewable biological sources, represents one such alternative. India achieved a milestone when a domestic airline completed the country first test flight using a blend of biojet fuel and conventional aviation fuel. This question asks you to recall which airline conducted that historic test, a topic frequently highlighted in current affairs related to environment and technology. Given Data / Assumptions: • The focus is on India first ever test flight powered partly by biojet fuel. • The question asks which airline carried out this test flight. • Options include SpiceJet, Air India, Kingfisher Airlines, and None of the above. • We assume familiarity with major Indian airlines and news about aviation milestones. Concept / Approach: The key concept is awareness of environmental initiatives in the aviation sector. SpiceJet, a leading low cost carrier in India, conducted a special test flight using a biojet fuel blend, which received widespread media coverage. Air India has also been involved in pioneering routes and services but was not the airline associated with this specific biofuel test in India. Kingfisher Airlines has not been operational for several years and therefore could not have conducted a recent test flight. The correct approach is to eliminate implausible options and recall the specific airline mentioned in environmental and business news reports. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the news item about India first biojet fuel powered test flight on a domestic route. Step 2: Remember that this flight was operated by SpiceJet, which promoted it as a major step towards cleaner aviation. Step 3: Check option A, SpiceJet, and note that it matches this recollection. Step 4: Examine option B, Air India, another major airline, but recall that it was not named in reports about the first Indian biojet test flight. Step 5: Consider option C, Kingfisher Airlines, and remember that this airline has been grounded for years, making it an unlikely candidate. Step 6: Option D, None of the above, is unnecessary because one of the specific airlines listed, SpiceJet, is correct. Step 7: Conclude that the correct answer is SpiceJet. Verification / Alternative check: Verification can be done by recalling that the biojet fuel flight operated by SpiceJet ran on a route between Dehradun and Delhi and was widely reported as India first such test. Articles emphasised that the fuel was developed from plant based sources and that the test was meant to showcase the potential for reducing emissions. Air India news coverage around that period focused more on international operations and financial matters rather than biofuel tests. These details confirm that SpiceJet was the airline responsible for this achievement. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Air India: Although it is a major national carrier, it was not the airline that conducted India first biojet fuel powered test flight mentioned in this context. Kingfisher Airlines: This airline had ceased operations well before the biojet test flight, so it could not have carried out the experiment. None of the above: Since SpiceJet is a correct and specific option, choosing None of the above would contradict the documented event. Common Pitfalls: One pitfall is to choose Air India simply because it is a prominent carrier and often associated with national firsts. Another mistake is overlooking the shutdown status of Kingfisher Airlines and treating it as an option on equal footing with active carriers. To avoid these errors, pay attention to the time frame of the event and recall which airlines have been active in eco friendly initiatives. Remembering that SpiceJet frequently features in news about innovative low cost and environmental projects can guide you to the right choice. Final Answer: India first test flight powered partly by biojet fuel was successfully conducted by SpiceJet.

Question 16

Which city hosted the fourth Asian Electoral Stakeholders Forum (AESF IV)?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Asian Electoral Stakeholders Forum, often abbreviated as AESF, is a gathering of election management bodies, civil society organisations, and experts who discuss ways to improve election transparency and democratic practices in Asia. The fourth edition, AESF IV, took place in a specific city and was widely reported in regional current affairs. This question checks whether you remember which city hosted that forum, an item commonly included in international and regional organisations sections in competitive exams. Given Data / Assumptions: • The event is the fourth Asian Electoral Stakeholders Forum, or AESF IV. • The question asks for the host city of this edition. • Options include Hyderabad, Colombo, Dhaka, and None of the above. • We assume basic awareness of South Asian political and electoral events. Concept / Approach: The key fact is that AESF IV was hosted in Colombo, the capital city of Sri Lanka. The event focused on electoral transparency and integrity and was organised with support from the Sri Lankan Election Commission and regional partners. Hyderabad and Dhaka are important South Asian cities but were not the venue for this particular forum. The approach is to recall current affairs about regional electoral cooperation and link AESF IV with Colombo, which hosted the event for the first time in South Asia. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify the event as the fourth Asian Electoral Stakeholders Forum (AESF IV). Step 2: Recall from current affairs that AESF IV was held in Sri Lanka. Step 3: Connect Sri Lanka with its capital city, Colombo. Step 4: Scan the options and find Colombo listed as option B. Step 5: Note that Hyderabad is in India and Dhaka is the capital of Bangladesh, but neither was the host of AESF IV. Step 6: Since a correct option is present, None of the above cannot be right. Step 7: Conclude that the correct answer is Colombo. Verification / Alternative check: Verification can be done by remembering that news reports about AESF IV highlighted it as the first time the forum was held in South Asia, specifically mentioning Colombo, Sri Lanka. These reports also quoted the Sri Lankan Election Commission and regional election observers discussing best practices. Such details tie the event clearly to Colombo rather than to any Indian or Bangladeshi city, reinforcing your answer. Reviewing current affairs compilations from the period when AESF IV took place would confirm this information. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Hyderabad: This Indian city is known for technology and conferences but was not the host of AESF IV. Dhaka: As the capital of Bangladesh, Dhaka hosts many regional events but was not the venue for the fourth Asian Electoral Stakeholders Forum. None of the above: Since Colombo is correctly listed and matches the known host city, choosing None of the above would be incorrect. Common Pitfalls: A common error is confusing different international forums and assuming that any major South Asian city might have hosted the event. Some candidates may guess Hyderabad because India often hosts regional meetings. Others might select Dhaka just because it is a capital city. To avoid such mistakes, pay attention to the specific details, such as which country election commission was highlighted in news reports, and link that information to the correct capital city. For AESF IV, that country was Sri Lanka, and the city was Colombo. Final Answer: The fourth Asian Electoral Stakeholders Forum (AESF IV) was hosted in Colombo.

Question 17

In India, Teachers Day on 5 September is celebrated in memory of which great educationist and statesman?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Teachers Day is an important observance in India that honours the contribution of teachers to society. It is celebrated each year on 5 September and is associated with the birthday of a distinguished scholar, teacher, and former President of India. This question checks whether you know in whose memory and honour this day is observed, a fact that frequently appears in school level general knowledge and various competitive examinations. Given Data / Assumptions: • The occasion is Teachers Day in India, celebrated on 5 September. • The question asks which eminent personality is associated with this date. • Options list several notable Indian leaders and statesmen. • We assume basic awareness of national days and their significance. Concept / Approach: The key concept is that 5 September is the birth anniversary of Dr Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, a renowned philosopher, teacher, and the second President of India. When he became President, he suggested that instead of celebrating his birthday separately, it should be observed as a day to honour teachers. As a result, Teachers Day in India is celebrated in his honour. The approach is to recall this well known association and eliminate other leaders whose birthdays are linked to different national observances. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify the date mentioned, 5 September, and link it to Teachers Day celebrations in India. Step 2: Recall that this date is the birth anniversary of Dr Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan. Step 3: Remember that Dr Radhakrishnan was a respected teacher, philosopher, and later the President of India. Step 4: Check option A, which names Dr Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, and see that it matches this association. Step 5: Consider other options: Dr Rajendra Prasad was the first President of India, Jawaharlal Nehru first Prime Minister, and Vallabhbhai Patel a key freedom fighter and leader, none of whose birthdays are marked as Teachers Day. Step 6: Conclude that option A is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by recalling that schools and colleges often refer to Teachers Day as the birthday of Dr Radhakrishnan and share his speeches or quotes on the importance of education. Many textbooks explicitly state that when he became President, he was requested to allow celebration of his birthday, and he instead proposed that the day be dedicated to teachers. This story is widely repeated in educational contexts, confirming the link between Teachers Day and Dr Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Sir Vallabhbhai Patel: His birthday on 31 October is observed as National Unity Day in India, not Teachers Day. Dr Rajendra Prasad: He was the first President of India, but his birthday does not serve as Teachers Day. Jawaharlal Nehru: His birthday on 14 November is celebrated as Children Day in India, focusing on children rather than teachers. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to confuse different national observances and their associated leaders, such as mixing up Children Day and Teachers Day or confusing dates. Another pitfall is selecting a familiar name like Jawaharlal Nehru without carefully considering the context. To avoid such errors, it helps to remember simple pairs: Teachers Day and Dr Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, Children Day and Jawaharlal Nehru, National Unity Day and Vallabhbhai Patel. These associations make it easier to answer questions about national days correctly. Final Answer: Teachers Day on 5 September in India is celebrated in memory of Dr Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan.

Question 18

Which Indian city is popularly known as the City of Lakes?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Many Indian cities have popular nicknames that reflect their geography, culture, or historical significance. Knowing these nicknames is a standard part of general knowledge and frequently appears in competitive exams. The title City of Lakes is associated with a famous tourist destination in Rajasthan that is known for its beautiful artificial and natural lakes and palaces. This question asks you to identify that city from among four options. Given Data / Assumptions: • The nickname in question is City of Lakes. • The options list Udaipur, Bhubaneswar, Madurai, and Bengaluru. • We assume awareness of major Indian tourist cities and their well known tags. • Only one city is widely and consistently referred to as the City of Lakes. Concept / Approach: The key concept is recognising that Udaipur, located in Rajasthan, is famous for its many lakes such as Lake Pichola, Fateh Sagar Lake, and others, and is widely called the City of Lakes. The approach is to connect each city with its characteristic features and recall which one is associated with prominent lakes and palace complexes built around them. The other cities have different identities and are known by other nicknames, so they can be eliminated based on geographical and cultural knowledge. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall basic facts about Udaipur, a city in Rajasthan known for its lakes and palaces. Step 2: Remember specific lakes like Lake Pichola and Fateh Sagar that draw tourists and contribute to Udaipur charm. Step 3: Recognise that this combination of multiple lakes and scenic surroundings gives Udaipur the nickname City of Lakes. Step 4: Consider Bhubaneswar, which is known as a city of temples in Odisha rather than for lakes. Step 5: Consider Madurai, famous for Meenakshi Amman Temple and historical heritage, not for lakes. Step 6: Consider Bengaluru, which is widely known as the Silicon Valley of India and Garden City, not primarily as the City of Lakes. Step 7: Conclude that the correct answer is Udaipur. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by thinking of travel brochures, tourism websites, or school geography books that describe Udaipur as the City of Lakes. Images of the city often highlight palaces built on or beside lakes, such as the Lake Palace. In contrast, materials describing Bhubaneswar emphasise temples, and Bengaluru is usually associated with technology and parks. These consistent descriptions across different sources confirm that Udaipur is the one popularly called the City of Lakes. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Bhubaneswar: Often called the Temple City of India due to its many historic temples, not the City of Lakes. Madurai: Known for its ancient temples and cultural heritage, it is not widely associated with lakes as a defining feature. Bengaluru: Recognised for its information technology industry and green spaces, it is better known as the Garden City or Silicon Valley of India, not the City of Lakes. Common Pitfalls: Some learners may confuse Udaipur with other cities that have lakes or gardens, particularly Bengaluru, which historically had many tanks and lakes. Another mistake is guessing based on city size or personal familiarity rather than recalling the specific nickname. To avoid these errors, link each city with its primary tourist identity and nickname. Remember that Udaipur equals City of Lakes, Jaipur equals Pink City, and Bhubaneswar equals Temple City, which helps you quickly match questions of this type with correct answers. Final Answer: The Indian city popularly known as the City of Lakes is Udaipur.

Question 19

In political science, an oligarchy is best defined as which type of rule?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Political science uses specific terms to describe different forms of government and power distribution. Understanding these terms helps you analyse how various political systems work. Oligarchy is one such term that often appears in civics and general knowledge exams. This question asks you to select the correct definition for oligarchy by choosing the type of rule it represents. Knowing the exact meaning also helps distinguish oligarchy from other forms such as monarchy and democracy. Given Data / Assumptions: • The term in focus is oligarchy. • The question asks what kind of rule oligarchy refers to. • Options offer rule by one, rule by many, rule by few, and all of the above. • We assume standard textbook definitions of political systems. Concept / Approach: The word oligarchy comes from Greek roots meaning rule of the few. In an oligarchic system, power is concentrated in the hands of a small group of people, often from the same social, economic, or military elite. This differs from monarchy, which is rule by one individual, and democracy, where power broadly rests with many people or the electorate. The approach is to match the root meaning and standard definition with the option that says rule by few and eliminate the others. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Break down the term oligarchy into its Greek components, where “oligos” means few and “arkhein” means to rule. Step 2: Understand that this implies a system where a small group holds political power. Step 3: Compare this concept with the given options: rule by one, rule by many, and rule by few. Step 4: Recognise that rule by one more accurately describes monarchy or autocracy, not oligarchy. Step 5: Recognise that rule by many describes democracy, where a broad portion of the population has a role in decision making. Step 6: Identify rule by few as precisely matching the definition and etymology of oligarchy. Step 7: Since only one option correctly describes oligarchy, all of the above cannot be correct. Verification / Alternative check: Verification can be done by recalling political science chapters where different forms of government are compared. These chapters usually provide a simple table: monarchy equals rule by one, oligarchy equals rule by few, and democracy equals rule by many. Some examples given include ancient city states or modern systems where a small elite controls economic and political power. These consistent definitions across multiple sources confirm that oligarchy is rule by a small group rather than by one person or the entire population. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Rule by one: This refers to monarchy or autocracy, where a single individual, such as a king or dictator, holds central power. It does not describe an oligarchy. Rule by many: This corresponds to democracy or popular rule, where many citizens participate in governance, which is the opposite of oligarchy limited elite control. All of the above: Since oligarchy has a specific meaning, and only rule by few fits that meaning, it is incorrect to say that all types of rule listed describe oligarchy. Common Pitfalls: Some learners may confuse oligarchy with other complex terms such as aristocracy or plutocracy, or may feel uncertain when similar words appear together. Another pitfall is not paying attention to the root word and instead guessing based on a vague memory. To avoid such mistakes, it is helpful to remember simple associations: monarchy equals one, oligarchy equals few, democracy equals many. This three part pattern makes it easy to quickly select the correct definition in multiple choice questions. Final Answer: In political science, an oligarchy is best defined as rule by few.

Question 20

Which statement best describes how relationships among people work in everyday life?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Relationships among people form the basis of family life, friendships, school communities, and workplaces. Life skills education often teaches that relationships require effort, communication, and care. This question tests your understanding of how relationships function by asking you to pick the statement that best describes them in everyday life. It checks basic emotional intelligence and awareness of the fact that good relationships do not maintain themselves automatically but need ongoing attention. Given Data / Assumptions: • The topic is relationships among people in general. • Four statements describe different ideas about relationships. • Only one statement accurately reflects how relationships normally work. • We assume a realistic view of human behaviour and social interaction. Concept / Approach: The central concept is that relationships are dynamic, not static. They change over time depending on how much effort, communication, and respect each person invests. Strong relationships require maintenance, similar to how physical health requires regular care. The approach is therefore to evaluate each statement and choose the one that emphasises the need to maintain relationships. Statements that portray relationships as simple, fixed, or unaffected by attitudes and ideas are unrealistic and can be rejected. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Read option A, which states that relationships must be maintained to stay healthy and strong. This reflects the idea that effort and care are needed over time. Step 2: Read option B, which claims that relationships are usually simple and easy to understand. Real life experience shows that relationships are often complex and sometimes confusing. Step 3: Read option C, which says there are only two types of relationships, social or working. This is an oversimplification because relationships can be family, romantic, community based, and more. Step 4: Read option D, which claims that relationships are not influenced by people ideas and attitudes. This is clearly false, because changes in beliefs and attitudes often affect relationships deeply. Step 5: Compare all options and see that only option A presents a realistic and helpful description. Step 6: Conclude that option A is the best statement about relationships. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by thinking about your own relationships with family, friends, or colleagues. When you invest time, communicate honestly, and show respect, the relationship tends to grow stronger. When you neglect it, misunderstandings and distance often increase. Very few relationships are permanently simple or unaffected by what people think and feel. This everyday evidence supports option A, which stresses the ongoing need to maintain relationships in order to keep them healthy and strong. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Relationships are usually simple and easy to understand: In reality, relationships are often complex, with mixed feelings, conflicting needs, and changing circumstances, so this statement does not describe them well. Relationships are one of two types, social or working: Human connections are varied, including family ties, romantic partnerships, mentorships, and more, making this classification too narrow. Relationships are not influenced by people ideas and attitudes: Ideas, beliefs, and attitudes have a major impact on how people interact, so saying they do not influence relationships is clearly incorrect. Common Pitfalls: Some learners may choose the statement that sounds easiest or most comforting, such as relationships being simple, because they have not considered how complex real life interactions can be. Others may not pay attention to extreme words like not influenced and may overlook the fact that ideas and attitudes obviously affect behaviour. To avoid these mistakes, compare each statement with real experiences and ask whether it fits everyday life. The option that acknowledges the need for ongoing care is usually the most accurate in the context of relationships. Final Answer: The best description is that Relationships are something that must be maintained to stay healthy and strong.

Basic General Knowledge Questions