Question 1

With which country has India recently signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to cooperate on water conservation projects and efficient water management in India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This general knowledge question tests awareness of recent international cooperation related to water conservation in India. Water scarcity, climate change and inefficient usage have made water management a central policy priority, so India has been signing Memorandums of Understanding with technologically advanced countries. The question specifically asks the learner to recall which country recently signed an MoU with India for water conservation efforts within India, making it a common topic in competitive examinations that focus on current affairs and environmental governance. Given Data / Assumptions: India has signed a recent Memorandum of Understanding for cooperation on water conservation. The cooperation is aimed at water conservation activities within India. The listed partner countries are France, Germany, Israel and Bangladesh. The question refers to a widely reported recent MoU on water conservation and efficient water use. Concept / Approach: To answer this question correctly, a learner must connect current affairs about international cooperation in water technology with India. Israel is globally known for its advanced water management practices, including drip irrigation, desalination, wastewater recycling and efficient agricultural water use. News about India Israel water cooperation has been particularly prominent. Therefore, the conceptual approach is to recall which of the listed countries has a reputation for advanced water technology and was highlighted in news related to Indian water conservation initiatives. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Read the question carefully and note that it is about an MoU on water conservation in India. Step 2: Observe the options: France, Germany, Israel and Bangladesh. Step 3: Recall which country is globally recognised for leading techniques in drip irrigation, desalination and water recycling. Step 4: Remember that Israel and India have recently expanded cooperation in agriculture, water conservation and irrigation technologies through official agreements. Step 5: Cross check mentally that France, Germany and Bangladesh have important relations with India but are not the primary partners highlighted for cutting edge water conservation MoUs in recent current affairs. Step 6: Conclude that the correct option is Israel. Verification / Alternative check: A second way to verify the answer is to rely on thematic association. When thinking about modern water management, micro irrigation and desert agriculture, students often recall Israel as a model country that transformed arid regions into productive farmland. News reports have repeatedly mentioned India seeking Israeli expertise in drip irrigation and efficient water use. None of the other options have such a strong, distinctive global identity in this specific field, which further confirms that Israel is the partner country mentioned in the question. Why Other Options Are Wrong: France: France cooperates with India in several sectors, but it is not the country most prominently associated with recent water conservation MoUs in India. Germany: Germany supports environmental projects, but the notable water conservation technology cooperation highlighted in Indian current affairs is with Israel, not Germany. Bangladesh: Bangladesh shares rivers and water concerns with India, but the question refers to a formal MoU on water conservation technology and management, for which Israel is the recognised partner. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to guess a country based only on general diplomatic ties rather than specific issue based cooperation. Learners sometimes choose France or Germany because they are advanced economies. Another error is to overthink the geographical closeness of Bangladesh and assume that a neighbouring country must be the answer. The safe strategy is to link water technology leadership with Israel and recall news about India Israel agreements on water conservation and agriculture. Paying attention to sector specific cooperation in current affairs helps avoid such confusion in similar questions. Final Answer: The correct answer is Israel as the country with which India recently signed a Memorandum of Understanding for cooperation on water conservation in India.

Question 2

Which neighbouring country of India is currently recognised as the largest producer of opium in the world?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This general knowledge question focuses on narcotics production and geography, specifically the major global producer of opium that also shares a border region with India. Issues related to opium cultivation, illegal drugs, cross border smuggling and their impact on security often appear in competitive examinations. Knowing which neighbouring country produces the largest quantities of opium helps students understand regional security challenges and international efforts against drug trafficking. Given Data / Assumptions: We are concerned with opium production at the world level. The country in question must be a neighbour of India. Options provided are Pakistan, Afghanistan, Sri Lanka and Maldives. The question is based on widely known international narcotics reports and statistics. Concept / Approach: The approach is to combine geographical knowledge with awareness of global narcotics trends. United Nations and other international agencies repeatedly highlight Afghanistan as the largest producer of illicit opium in the world. Although Pakistan also faces drug related issues, it is not the largest producer. Sri Lanka and Maldives are island nations with no major opium cultivating reputation. Therefore, by linking the concept of major opium cultivation with the correct geographical neighbour, we can arrive at the correct answer. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify which of the four countries share some type of regional neighbourhood relation with India. All four are part of the broader South Asian region, but opium cultivation is concentrated in specific areas. Step 2: Recall which country is repeatedly described in reports as the largest producer of opium in the world. Step 3: Recognise that Afghanistan has vast areas under illegal opium poppy cultivation and has been at the centre of the global opium trade. Step 4: Note that Pakistan has trafficking routes but not the largest cultivation share, and that Sri Lanka and Maldives are not known for large scale opium production. Step 5: Conclude logically that the only option that fits the description of the largest global opium producer is Afghanistan. Verification / Alternative check: To verify the answer, one can recall that the term Golden Crescent is often used for the region comprising Afghanistan, Iran and Pakistan, which is associated with opium production and trafficking. Within this crescent, Afghanistan dominates in terms of cultivated area and output. International drug control reports consistently emphasise Afghanistan as responsible for the overwhelming majority of global illicit opium production. As none of the other listed neighbours have similar statistics, this serves as an alternative confirmation that Afghanistan is the correct choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Pakistan: Although Pakistan is a transit and sometimes cultivation area, it is not recognised as the largest producer of opium in the world. Sri Lanka: This island country does not have large scale opium cultivation and is not identified as a major opium producing nation. Maldives: This small island nation is primarily a tourist destination and has no reputation as a significant opium cultivating country. Common Pitfalls: A frequent mistake is to confuse transit routes with production centres. Some learners may choose Pakistan due to news about drug smuggling across borders, forgetting that actual large scale cultivation is concentrated in Afghanistan. Others may overlook the requirement that the country must be a leading global producer, not just a regional neighbour. Keeping track of key phrases like largest producer and comparing them with known narcotics geographies helps prevent such errors in current affairs based questions. Final Answer: The correct answer is Afghanistan, which is widely recognised as the largest producer of opium in the world among the neighbouring countries of India.

Question 3

Which two major water bodies are connected by the Suez Canal, an important man made shipping route in world geography?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question checks understanding of basic world geography and important man made waterways. The Suez Canal is one of the most famous artificial canals on Earth because it drastically reduces sea travel time between Europe and Asia. Knowing which two major water bodies it connects is a standard part of geography syllabi for school level and competitive examinations, especially topics about international trade routes and strategic chokepoints. Given Data / Assumptions: The canal mentioned is the Suez Canal. We need to identify the two water bodies linked by this canal. Options list different pairs of oceans and seas. The Suez Canal is located in Egypt in the region that lies between Africa and Asia. Concept / Approach: The key concept is that the Suez Canal provides a direct sea passage between Europe and Asia without going around the Cape of Good Hope in Africa. The Mediterranean Sea lies to the north of Egypt and connects to Europe, while the Red Sea lies to the east and provides access to the Indian Ocean region. Therefore, by recalling the geographical location of Egypt and the terminus ports of the Suez Canal, we can identify the exact pair of water bodies that the canal connects. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Remember that the Suez Canal is situated in Egypt, running roughly north to south across the Isthmus of Suez. Step 2: Identify which water body lies on the northern side of the canal. That water body is the Mediterranean Sea, which borders southern Europe and the northern coast of Africa. Step 3: Identify which water body lies on the southern side of the canal. That water body is the Red Sea, which extends towards the Arabian Peninsula and eventually links by sea routes to the Indian Ocean. Step 4: Examine the options and find the pair that exactly matches Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea. Step 5: Select Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: To verify the answer, recall that ships traveling from European ports to ports in the Indian Ocean region use the Mediterranean Sea, enter the Suez Canal in Egypt, and exit into the Red Sea, after which they proceed through the Gulf of Aden and Arabian Sea. No other option fits this widely known trade route. The Black Sea connects to the Mediterranean through the Bosporus and Dardanelles, not through the Suez Canal. The Indian and Pacific Oceans are linked by routes around Southeast Asia, and the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans are connected by another famous canal, the Panama Canal, not the Suez Canal. This cross check confirms the correct pair. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Indian Ocean and Pacific Ocean: These are not directly linked by the Suez Canal; they are connected through routes in Southeast Asia. Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea: These seas are linked by the Bosporus and Dardanelles straits, not by the Suez Canal. Atlantic Ocean and Pacific Ocean: These are connected by the Panama Canal in Central America, not by the Suez Canal in Egypt. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse the Suez Canal with the Panama Canal because both are major artificial waterways. Another common error is mixing up seas and oceans around Europe and Asia, especially the Black Sea and the Red Sea. A good strategy is to visualise a world map and associate each canal with its continent; Suez belongs to Africa Asia region connecting the Mediterranean with the Red Sea, whereas Panama belongs to the Americas linking the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans. Reinforcing such mental maps can prevent confusion in similar questions. Final Answer: The correct answer is Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea, which are connected by the Suez Canal.

Question 4

According to the classical Malthusian theory of population, how do population growth and food supply increase in relation to each other over time?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question examines understanding of the classical Malthusian theory of population, an important idea in economics and demography. Thomas Robert Malthus proposed a relationship between population growth and food supply that had deep implications for resource scarcity, poverty and policy debates. Many competitive exams include at least one conceptual question on this theory, so it is important for learners to remember the exact way in which Malthus described the relative growth rates of population and food production. Given Data / Assumptions: The question refers to the original Malthusian theory, not later modifications by other economists. We need to compare how population and food supply increase over time. Options mention different combinations of geometric, arithmetic and harmonic types of growth. The correct option must match the classical statement made by Malthus. Concept / Approach: According to Malthus, population, if unchecked, tends to grow in a geometric ratio, meaning it can double at regular intervals, similar to exponential growth. In contrast, food supply, limited by land and technology, was assumed to increase only in an arithmetic ratio, that is, by a fixed amount each period. This imbalance between a potentially very rapid population increase and slower growth of food resources leads to pressure on resources, resulting in famine, disease and other checks. The approach to answering is simply to recall this exact pairing: population geometric, food supply arithmetic. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the core statement of the Malthusian theory. Malthus wrote that population tends to grow faster than the means of subsistence. Step 2: Remember the technical description he used: population increases in a geometric ratio (for example 1, 2, 4, 8, 16) while food supply increases in an arithmetic ratio (for example 1, 2, 3, 4, 5). Step 3: Check the options and identify which one states population increases in geometric ratio and food supply increases in arithmetic ratio. Step 4: Option a clearly states population increases in geometric ratio and food supply increases in arithmetic ratio. Step 5: Confirm that none of the other options represent the original Malthusian formulation and select option a. Verification / Alternative check: A quick mnemonic to verify is to think that geometry is associated with shapes that can grow quickly in size, so geometric ratio is linked with rapid growth. Arithmetic suggests simple addition by the same amount. In Malthusian reasoning, population is the dynamic, fast growing factor, while food supply is the slower changing factor. Therefore, population must correspond to geometric growth, and food supply to arithmetic growth. If any option reverses this pair or introduces harmonic growth, that option is inconsistent with the original theory and can be rejected. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Population increases in arithmetic ratio, food supply increases in geometric ratio: This option completely reverses the Malthusian idea, suggesting food grows faster than population, which is not what Malthus argued. Population increases in a harmonic mean, food supply increases in geometric ratio: Harmonic growth is not a term used in the classical formulation of this theory, so this option does not match the standard description. Population increases in a harmonic ratio, food supply increases in an arithmetic ratio: Again, harmonic ratio is not part of the original theory, which only uses geometric and arithmetic comparisons. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse which one is geometric and which one is arithmetic, especially under time pressure. Another common error is overcomplicating the theory by imagining more advanced mathematical patterns than Malthus actually used. A simple way to avoid this is to memorise the phrase population grows geometrically, food grows arithmetically. This short association helps keep the pairing clear and improves accuracy when facing similar questions in exams that focus on economics, population studies or human geography. Final Answer: The correct statement is that population increases in geometric ratio, food supply increases in arithmetic ratio according to the classical Malthusian theory of population.

Question 5

In the context of Indian agriculture, the impact of the Green Revolution was felt most strongly in the production of which crop?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question examines knowledge of the Green Revolution in India, a major agricultural transformation that took place mainly during the late 1960s and 1970s. High yielding varieties, chemical fertilisers, improved irrigation and modern agronomic techniques led to dramatic increases in the output of certain crops. Examinations often ask which particular crop benefited the most from the Green Revolution, because the answer highlights both the strengths and limitations of that period of agricultural change. Given Data / Assumptions: The question specifically focuses on the impact of the Green Revolution in India. We are asked which crop experienced the strongest positive impact. Options include wheat, rice, pulses and oil seeds. The time period is the first phase of the Green Revolution, when new seed varieties were introduced. Concept / Approach: The Green Revolution in India is closely associated with the introduction of high yielding varieties of wheat and, to a lesser extent, rice. The most dramatic and immediate gains in production occurred in wheat, especially in states such as Punjab, Haryana and parts of western Uttar Pradesh. Pulses and oil seeds did not initially benefit as much, and their productivity growth remained relatively slow. Therefore, the approach is to recall which crop had the largest increase in yield and production during the early Green Revolution period, which is wheat. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Green Revolution introduced high yielding varieties of seeds along with fertilisers and irrigation. Step 2: Think about the regions where the Green Revolution first took off, such as Punjab and Haryana. Step 3: Recall which crop is commonly associated with these regions and the initial success stories. The famous images and statistics of bumper harvests were mainly for wheat. Step 4: Notice that while rice also saw gains, especially later and in certain areas, the earliest and most significant impact was seen in wheat production. Step 5: Recognise that pulses and oil seeds did not experience comparable yield jumps during the early Green Revolution. Step 6: Therefore, select wheat as the correct option. Verification / Alternative check: A quick way to verify is to recall common textbook statements that describe the Green Revolution as wheat centred. Many statistical charts show a sharp upward curve for wheat production beginning in the late 1960s. Rice productivity improved more gradually and unevenly across regions, and pulses often continued to lag. If the question mentions impact felt most, the safest answer is wheat. This matches historical evidence and standard summaries in Indian economic and agricultural history. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Rice: Although rice production did improve with newer varieties and irrigation, the earliest and most dramatic impact of the Green Revolution was in wheat, not rice. Pulses: Pulses faced several agronomic challenges and were not the primary beneficiaries of the Green Revolution technologies in the initial decades. Oil seeds: Oil seed crops saw significant initiatives later under separate programmes, but they were not the focus or major success story of the first Green Revolution phase. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes overgeneralise and assume that the Green Revolution equally transformed all crops. Another mistake is to choose rice because it is a staple food for many regions of India. However, exam questions on this topic usually expect recall that wheat was at the centre of the initial Green Revolution gains. Keeping a clear mental note that the first wave of the Green Revolution was wheat dominated helps avoid these errors, while later efforts attempted to spread benefits to other crops. Final Answer: The impact of the Green Revolution in India was felt most strongly in the case of wheat production.

Question 6

In fluvial geomorphology, what is the broad, low embankment built up along the banks of a river channel during floods commonly called?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question is about basic physical geography, specifically landforms created by rivers. During floods, rivers can deposit sediments along their banks, creating natural embankments. Understanding the correct terminology for these features helps students accurately describe river processes and interpret diagrams in geography textbooks. The term commonly used for such a broad, low embankment is an important concept for examinations that include geomorphology and environmental studies. Given Data / Assumptions: The landform is a broad, low embankment. It is formed along the banks of a river channel. It develops during flood events when the river overflows. Options are delta, levee, flood plain and dune. Concept / Approach: When a river overflows during floods, water spills over the banks and loses velocity. As velocity drops, the heavier sediments are deposited close to the channel edges, gradually building up ridges. These natural embankments along the river are called levees. Deltas form at river mouths where they enter a standing body of water. Flood plains refer to the wider low lying area that may be inundated during floods. Dunes are wind formed sand features, usually in deserts or coastal regions. Therefore, the correct term for the embankment along the river banks is levee. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Focus on the key description: a broad, low embankment along the river banks built up during floods. Step 2: Recall from river geomorphology that natural ridges formed by sediment deposition on river banks are called levees. Step 3: Compare this description with the meaning of delta, which forms at the river mouth where it meets seas or lakes, not along the banks. Step 4: Recognise that flood plain refers to a larger flat area adjacent to the river, not the embankment itself. Step 5: Note that dunes are wind shaped sandy hills, not river created embankments. Step 6: Conclude that the only option matching the described landform is levee. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative check is to remember that many flood control structures built by humans to mimic or reinforce natural embankments are also called levees. News reports often mention levees breaking during major floods. This word association reinforces that levee is the term for an embankment adjacent to the river channel. Visual diagrams in school geography books typically label the natural ridge next to the river as a levee, while marking a much wider area as the flood plain. Keeping this picture in mind confirms that levee is the correct term here. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Delta: A delta is a depositional landform at the mouth of a river where it meets an ocean, sea or lake, not an embankment along the banks. Flood plain: A flood plain is the entire low lying area around a river that may be submerged during floods, not just the raised embankment beside the channel. Dune: A dune is a wind formed hill or ridge of sand found mainly in deserts and coastal areas and is not associated with river bank sediment deposition. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse levees, flood plains and deltas because all involve deposition. A typical mistake is to choose flood plain because it is closely connected with floods. Another error is to select delta due to its popularity in exam questions. To avoid confusion, remember that levee is narrow and raised next to the river, flood plain is broader and flat, and delta is at the mouth of the river. Visualising cross sections of a river valley can help keep these terms distinct during exams. Final Answer: The broad, low embankment built up along the banks of a river channel during floods is called a levee.

Question 7

Who conferred the honorary title Mahatma on Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi in recognition of his moral leadership in India freedom struggle?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question belongs to Indian modern history and focuses on an important honorific title used for Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi. The term Mahatma, meaning great soul, became closely associated with Gandhi due to his role in the freedom movement and his emphasis on non violence and truth. Many exams ask who first conferred this title on Gandhi, so remembering the correct personality is essential for aspirants of civil services and other competitive tests. Given Data / Assumptions: The question asks about the person who accorded the title Mahatma to Gandhi. Options include Sardar Patel, Nehru, Sarojini Naidu and Rabindranath Tagore. We assume the commonly accepted historical account used in standard history textbooks. The context is Gandhi leadership in India freedom struggle and moral influence. Concept / Approach: The key concept is to link the title Mahatma with the intellectual and cultural circles of early twentieth century India. Rabindranath Tagore, a Nobel Prize winning poet and thinker, is widely credited with first referring to Gandhi as Mahatma. Over time, this description became popular and was adopted widely. The approach is to recall this widely accepted historical association and distinguish it from the roles of other leaders like Nehru and Sardar Patel, who respected Gandhi but are not known for originating the title. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Read the question carefully and note the exact demand, which is the identity of the person who accorded the title Mahatma to Gandhi. Step 2: Scan the options and recognise all four names as major Indian leaders and personalities. Step 3: Recall from history that Rabindranath Tagore wrote and spoke about Gandhi in deeply respectful terms and is usually credited with first using the term Mahatma for him. Step 4: Check your memory of common exam questions; many standard history question banks mention Tagore as the source of the title Mahatma for Gandhi. Step 5: Conclude that the correct answer is Rabindranath Tagore and choose that option. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, one can recall that Tagore and Gandhi had a rich intellectual relationship, sometimes agreeing and sometimes debating on issues like nationalism and education, yet always maintaining mutual respect. Tagore use of the word Mahatma gave the phrase a literary and moral weight that helped fix it in public imagination. Nehru and Patel, although close political colleagues of Gandhi, are not known in historical records as the first to apply this title. Sarojini Naidu admired Gandhi and often called him Bapu but is not the origin of Mahatma. This cross checking of relationships and famous anecdotes confirms Tagore as the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Sardar Patel: He was a key leader in the freedom struggle and integration of princely states but did not originate the title Mahatma for Gandhi. Nehru: He was the first Prime Minister of independent India and a close associate of Gandhi, but history does not record him as the first person to confer the title Mahatma. Sarojini Naidu: She frequently addressed Gandhi affectionately and played a major role in the movement, but she is not credited with coining the title Mahatma for him. Common Pitfalls: Students may incorrectly guess Nehru or Patel because they were prominent leaders and close to Gandhi. Confusion also arises because many leaders praised Gandhi in different ways, and the title Mahatma became so common that its origin is often forgotten. A simple strategy is to remember the association between poetry, literature and honorific titles; Tagore, as a poet, provided this powerful phrase that captured Gandhi moral stature. Keeping this pairing in mind helps one mark the correct option quickly in an exam. Final Answer: The title Mahatma was accorded to Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi by Rabindranath Tagore.

Question 8

In the context of social welfare legislation in India, NREGA is the abbreviation for which of the following full forms?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question belongs to Indian polity and governance and focuses on the full form of NREGA, an important social security legislation that guarantees wage employment in rural areas. Knowing the correct expansion of such abbreviations is necessary for examinations, because many schemes and acts are commonly referred to by acronyms. NREGA played a major role in rural employment generation and is often discussed in economics and public administration, making it an essential term to remember. Given Data / Assumptions: The question asks for the full form of NREGA. Options present similar sounding expansions using words like National, Rural, Revenue, Employment, Guarantee, Act and Association. The correct answer must correspond to the official legal name of the act as passed by the Parliament. The act is related to employment, not revenue. Concept / Approach: NREGA stands for National Rural Employment Guarantee Act. It was later implemented as the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act. The act guarantees a minimum number of days of wage employment to rural households willing to do unskilled manual work. Therefore, the approach is to focus on the words rural, employment, guarantee and act. Any option that uses revenue or association instead of act does not describe the correct legal expansion. By eliminating these incorrect constructions, we identify the correct full form. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Highlight the key concept that NREGA is a law that guarantees employment to rural people. Step 2: Because it is a law, the full form should logically end with the word Act, not Association. Step 3: Among the options, remove any choice that ends with Association because they do not refer to an act of Parliament. Step 4: Further eliminate options that use the word Revenue instead of Rural, since NREGA deals with rural employment rather than revenue collection. Step 5: The remaining option, National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, matches both the subject and the nature of the legislation. Step 6: Mark National Rural Employment Guarantee Act as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Another way to verify is to recall the later name MGNREGA, which expands to Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act. This clearly indicates that NREGA must also stand for National Rural Employment Guarantee Act in its original form. Reference to rural employment and guarantee of work is central to the scheme and appears in the official name. No government publications or standard textbooks refer to NREGA as a revenue or association related body, confirming that only the Act based option is valid. Why Other Options Are Wrong: National Revenue Engagement Guarantee Association: This mixes revenue and engagement and treats NREGA as an association rather than a law, which is incorrect. National Rural Employment Guarantee Association: NREGA is an act, not an association. The term association refers to an organisation, not a statute passed by Parliament. National Revenue Employment Guarantee Act: This suggests a law related to revenue employment, which does not match the actual purpose of providing rural wage employment. Common Pitfalls: Because many abbreviations sound similar, students sometimes overlook small differences like Rural versus Revenue or Act versus Association. Under exam pressure, they may quickly select an option with many correct looking words but miss the precise legal terminology. To avoid this, always associate NREGA with rural employment and the word Act, and remember its later expansion as MGNREGA which reinforces the correct structure of the full form. Final Answer: NREGA stands for National Rural Employment Guarantee Act.

Question 9

Karrar, often mentioned in defence news, is the unmanned bomber aircraft developed by which of the following countries?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question tests general knowledge related to international defence technology and strategic affairs. Many countries develop indigenous unmanned aerial vehicles and unmanned bomber aircraft for reconnaissance and combat roles. Karrar is one such system that appears in defence news and is relevant in competitive exams focusing on current affairs and security. Identifying which country has produced Karrar helps learners build a mental map of who is developing what type of military technology in different regions. Given Data / Assumptions: Karrar is described as an unmanned bomber aircraft. We are asked to identify the country that developed Karrar. Options listed are Iraq, Iran, Turkey and Pakistan. The question refers to a well known defence project reported widely in news. Concept / Approach: The key concept here is to associate specific weapon system names with the correct countries, similar to how one remembers names of missiles or submarines. Karrar is known as an Iranian unmanned combat aerial vehicle. Iran has repeatedly showcased Karrar in its military parades and media releases as an example of its domestic defence production. The approach is to recall this association and distinguish it from the defence programmes of Iraq, Turkey and Pakistan, which have different aircraft names and systems. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Read the question and confirm that Karrar is an unmanned bomber aircraft, not a missile or manned fighter jet. Step 2: Think of recent news and defence reviews that mention Karrar in connection with a particular country. Step 3: Recall that Iran has publicised Karrar as an indigenous unmanned combat aircraft. Step 4: Compare with Iraq, which has mainly been an importer of defence equipment rather than a developer of such unmanned bombers. Step 5: Recognise that Turkey and Pakistan have their own drones and aircraft names, but Karrar is specifically linked with Iran. Step 6: Mark Iran as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: For verification, one can remember that Iranian defence projects often use names drawn from Persian and regional languages, and Karrar has appeared in discussions of Iranian long range drone capabilities. In contrast, Turkish drones like Bayraktar and Anka have different brand names that are widely reported. Pakistan drones and combat aircraft, such as JF 17 Thunder, also have distinct names. Since Karrar repeatedly appears alongside statements from Iranian defence officials, this cross check supports Iran as the correct country. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Iraq: While Iraq has a history of conflict, it is not widely known for indigenous development of an unmanned bomber aircraft called Karrar. Turkey: Turkey has its own advanced drone programmes but the well known names are different; Karrar is not identified as a Turkish system. Pakistan: Pakistan has developed and procured several unmanned aerial systems, but Karrar is not among the commonly reported Pakistani projects. Common Pitfalls: A common pitfall is to guess based on regional proximity and assume that any Middle Eastern sounding defence name could belong to any state in the region. This can lead to confusing Iran and Iraq or Turkey and Pakistan. To avoid this, aspirants should build a small mental list linking prominent systems to their countries, such as Karrar with Iran, Bayraktar with Turkey and JF 17 with Pakistan. Regular reading of defence news along with revision of these associations helps answer such questions quickly and accurately. Final Answer: Karrar is the unmanned bomber aircraft developed by Iran.

Question 10

Which State Government of India has recently abolished the levy of agriculture income tax within its jurisdiction?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question belongs to Indian economy and public finance and focuses on a specific tax policy decision taken by a state government. Agriculture income is generally exempt from central income tax, but historically a few states imposed their own agriculture income taxes. When a state government announces abolition of such a tax, it becomes a notable current affairs point that may be asked in competitive examinations, particularly those that include state specific or fiscal policy related questions. Given Data / Assumptions: The subject is a state level agriculture income tax. The question asks which state government abolished this tax recently. Options are Karnataka, Rajasthan, Bihar and Assam. We assume the question refers to a widely reported decision covered in national news and exam preparation materials. Concept / Approach: The main concept is to connect agriculture income taxation with particular states that experimented with such policies. Karnataka was one of the few Indian states that historically levied agriculture income tax on certain categories like plantation crops. A major policy decision was taken to abolish this tax, which was widely reported. Therefore, the approach is to recall that Karnataka government is the state known for removing this levy, while the other listed states are not associated with such a specific reform in the same way at the time referred to by the question. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Read the question carefully and note that it focuses on agriculture income tax, not general sales tax or value added tax. Step 2: Consider the states in the options and recall which of them have historically taxed agriculture income. Step 3: Remember that Karnataka is frequently mentioned in exam oriented materials as a state that abolished agriculture income tax. Step 4: Recognise that Rajasthan, Bihar and Assam have been in news for other policy issues but are not as prominently linked with this particular tax abolition. Step 5: Therefore, identify Karnataka as the correct choice. Verification / Alternative check: As an alternative check, recall that agriculture income is generally exempt from central income tax, but plantation rich states such as Karnataka previously levied agriculture income tax on crops like coffee and tea. The decision to abolish this tax was significant because it simplified taxation and was highlighted in analyses of state budgets. No similar headlines about Rajasthan, Bihar or Assam came into exam preparation material for this specific tax. This reinforces that Karnataka is the correct answer for this question. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Rajasthan: Known for various reforms in water management and other sectors, but not for the highlighted abolition of agriculture income tax in the way referred to by this question. Bihar: Associated with several development schemes and governance initiatives, but not widely reported for removing a state level agriculture income tax at the relevant time. Assam: The option spelled Asssam is likely a typographical error and Assam has not been the main state linked in exam materials with agriculture income tax abolition in this context. Common Pitfalls: Students often get confused by similar sounding news items, such as changes in agricultural marketing laws or subsidies, and may incorrectly associate them with this question. Another mistake is to guess based on geographical stereotypes, assuming that any state with substantial agriculture might have been involved. The reliable approach is to create brief notes on major fiscal decisions of states, such as Karnataka abolishing agriculture income tax, and review them regularly. This strengthens memory and reduces guesswork in current affairs based questions. Final Answer: The State Government that has abolished agriculture income tax is Karnataka.

Question 11

In the June 2016 referendum on Brexit, which combination of constituent parts of the United Kingdom voted in favour of leaving the European Union?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question relates to recent world political history and European integration. In June 2016, the United Kingdom held a referendum on whether to remain in or leave the European Union, a process popularly known as Brexit. Different parts of the United Kingdom voted differently, revealing regional political and economic preferences. Understanding which regions supported leaving the European Union is important for exams focused on international relations, geography and current affairs. Given Data / Assumptions: The referendum took place in June 2016 in the United Kingdom. The question asks which parts of the United Kingdom voted for Brexit, that is, voted to leave. Options provide different combinations of England, Scotland, Wales and Northern Ireland. We assume standard official results as reported after the referendum. Concept / Approach: The concept is to recall regional voting patterns. In the Brexit referendum, England and Wales returned majority votes in favour of leaving the European Union. In contrast, Scotland and Northern Ireland had majorities that voted to remain. Therefore, any correct combination must include England and Wales together and must exclude Scotland and Northern Ireland from the leave voting group. The approach is to match this memory with the options given and select the pair that fits. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the overall result: the United Kingdom as a whole voted to leave the European Union. Step 2: Remember regional details: England and Wales had majority leave votes, whereas Scotland and Northern Ireland had majority remain votes. Step 3: Examine the options one by one. Option a lists England and Scotland, but Scotland mainly voted to remain, so this is incorrect. Step 4: Option b lists England and Wales, both of which had leave majorities, which aligns with known results. Step 5: Option c lists Scotland and Northern Ireland, both regions where remain votes dominated, so this cannot be the leave combination. Step 6: Option d lists Wales and Northern Ireland, but Northern Ireland mainly voted to remain, so that combination is also incorrect. Step 7: Therefore, select England and Wales as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: A simple verification is to remember that political debates after Brexit often highlighted tensions because Scotland and Northern Ireland voted differently from the overall United Kingdom result. Scottish leaders discussed the possibility of another independence referendum partly due to this difference. Northern Ireland became central in discussions about borders and the Good Friday Agreement. These discussions confirm that Scotland and Northern Ireland were more pro European Union. In contrast, England and Wales were identified as providing decisive support for leaving, which verifies the chosen answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: England and Scotland: Scotland had a majority remain vote, so pairing it with England as leave supporters is incorrect. Scotland and Northern Ireland: Both regions largely voted to remain in the European Union, not to leave. Wales and Northern Ireland: Wales voted to leave but Northern Ireland mostly voted to remain, so they did not form a joint leave voting combination. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to assume that all parts of the United Kingdom voted in the same direction without recalling regional differences. Another error is to confuse Scotland involvement in later independence debates with support for Brexit, when in fact Scotland voters were more pro European Union. To avoid confusion, students can remember the simple pattern: England and Wales leaned towards leave, Scotland and Northern Ireland leaned towards remain. This mental map will help in questions about Brexit regional voting behaviour. Final Answer: In the June 2016 Brexit referendum, the parts of the United Kingdom that voted in favour of leaving the European Union were England and Wales.

Question 12

With reference to the Constitution of India, which statement about the Ninth Schedule is NOT correct and therefore stands out as incorrect in the given options?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question tests understanding of the constitutional position of the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India and its relationship with fundamental rights and judicial review. The Ninth Schedule was created to protect certain laws, especially land reform Acts, from challenges based on violation of fundamental rights. Over time, Supreme Court judgments have clarified the scope of this protection. The question asks which statement among the options is not correct, so candidates must carefully distinguish between accurate and inaccurate descriptions of the Ninth Schedule framework. Given Data / Assumptions: The question refers to the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India. We are provided with four statements about its origin, protection and judicial review. We must identify the statement that is not correct. The analysis should take into account Supreme Court decisions, especially relating to the basic structure doctrine. Concept / Approach: The Ninth Schedule was inserted by the Constitution First Amendment Act 1951 to protect certain laws from being struck down for violating fundamental rights. Initially, laws placed in this Schedule were largely immune from judicial review concerning fundamental rights. However, in later judgments, particularly in cases like I R Coelho, the Supreme Court held that even laws in the Ninth Schedule can be reviewed if they violate the basic structure of the Constitution. Therefore, while the Schedule provides some protection, it does not make laws automatically void for violating fundamental rights, nor does it make them absolutely immune from any review. The correct approach is to compare each statement with this nuanced constitutional position. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Examine statement a: It was inserted by the Constitution First Amendment Act 1951. This is a well known historical fact and is correct. Step 2: Examine statement c: The Supreme Court has the power of judicial review of an Act included in the Ninth Schedule on the doctrine of basic structure. This aligns with later judicial decisions and is correct. Step 3: Examine statement d: The appropriate Legislature can repeal or amend an Act specified in the Ninth Schedule. Legislatures retain the power to amend or repeal their laws regardless of schedule placement, so this is correct. Step 4: Examine statement b: It says that Acts and Regulations in the Ninth Schedule shall become void on the ground that they violate a fundamental right in Part III. This is not correct because the original idea was to protect such laws from challenge under Part III, and even after later judgments, they are not automatically void just because they violate a fundamental right; instead, they can be examined only if they damage the basic structure. Step 5: Therefore, statement b is the incorrect one and should be selected as the answer. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, recall that the main purpose of the Ninth Schedule was to place certain laws beyond simple fundamental rights based scrutiny. If statement b were true, it would mean that every law in the Schedule becomes automatically void for violating fundamental rights, which is the opposite of the intended protection. The actual judicial development is more subtle: laws placed after a particular cut off date can still be tested against basic structure, not simply against any fundamental right. Thus the statement that they shall become void on the ground of fundamental rights violation is inaccurate and contradicts constitutional practice, confirming that it is the incorrect statement. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Here, wrong refers to being incorrect as an answer choice for the question. Options a, c and d are correct descriptions of the Ninth Schedule, so they are wrong choices for a question that asks which statement is not correct. Option a correctly describes the insertion of the Ninth Schedule by the First Amendment in 1951. Option c correctly states that the Supreme Court can use the basic structure doctrine to review even Ninth Schedule laws. Option d correctly notes that legislatures can still repeal or amend laws included in the Ninth Schedule. Common Pitfalls: A frequent pitfall is reading too quickly and assuming that any reference to judicial review makes a statement wrong or right without careful attention. Some students also confuse the original immunity from fundamental rights review with later basic structure scrutiny. It is important to remember that Ninth Schedule laws are not automatically void for violating fundamental rights; instead, their validity depends on whether they damage the basic structure of the Constitution in light of later jurisprudence. This clarity helps avoid errors in similar constitutional law questions. Final Answer: The statement that is not correct is The Acts and Regulations specified in the Ninth Schedule shall become void on the ground that it violates a fundamental right in Part III of the Constitution.

Question 13

Which of the following are recognised as core functions of United Nations multidimensional peacekeeping operations, according to contemporary peacekeeping mandates?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question examines knowledge of international organisations, specifically the United Nations and its multidimensional peacekeeping operations. Modern peacekeeping has evolved beyond simple ceasefire monitoring and now includes tasks such as stabilisation, protection of civilians, institution building and peace consolidation. Candidates must identify which listed activities are recognised as core functions of such operations, based on typical Security Council mandates and United Nations doctrine. Given Data / Assumptions: The question lists three potential functions: 1. Stabilisation, 2. Peace consolidation, 3. To extend support to a losing state in a war. We are asked to choose the correct combination describing core functions of United Nations multidimensional peacekeeping. Options provide different combinations using these three items. We assume standard United Nations peacekeeping principles, including impartiality. Concept / Approach: United Nations multidimensional peacekeeping operations usually focus on stabilising post conflict environments, supporting political processes, protecting civilians, building state institutions and consolidating peace so that conflict does not recur. They are designed to be impartial and are not meant to support one side to win or rescue a losing party in war. Therefore, stabilisation and peace consolidation are in line with recognised core functions, whereas providing support to a losing state in a war would violate impartiality. The approach is to accept items 1 and 2 and exclude item 3. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Analyse statement 1, stabilisation. This refers to helping secure the environment, protecting civilians and supporting ceasefires, which are standard tasks in many peacekeeping mandates. So statement 1 is a core function. Step 2: Analyse statement 2, peace consolidation. This includes helping to build institutions, support rule of law and promote reconciliation after conflict. This is also a recognised role in multidimensional missions. So statement 2 is also a core function. Step 3: Analyse statement 3, extending support to a losing state in a war. This directly implies partiality towards one party. United Nations peacekeeping is based on consent, impartiality and non use of force except in self defence and defence of the mandate. Therefore, supporting a losing side as such is not a core function. Step 4: Conclude that statements 1 and 2 are correct core functions, while statement 3 is not. Step 5: Among the options, option d corresponds to 1 and 2 only, which matches the reasoning. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative way to verify is to recall that multidimensional peacekeeping is often described in United Nations documents as having tasks that range from supporting political processes and elections to helping in disarmament, demobilisation and reintegration of combatants. All these activities are aimed at stabilisation and peace consolidation rather than picking winners in a conflict. Any statement suggesting that the United Nations should back a losing state in order to help it win is inconsistent with the basic principles of peacekeeping and the idea of neutrality. This confirms that only statements 1 and 2 belong to the list of core functions. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 1, 2 and 3: This option wrongly includes statement 3, which is not a core function and conflicts with the principle of impartiality. 2 and 3 only: This option omits stabilisation, which is an essential part of many peacekeeping mandates, and still wrongly includes statement 3. 1 and 3 only: This option includes stabilisation but omits peace consolidation and incorrectly counts a partisan role as core. Common Pitfalls: A common pitfall is to misinterpret peacekeeping as military intervention in favour of one side, especially if one party is seen as legitimate. However, United Nations peacekeeping operations are designed to support peace processes and protect civilians rather than to ensure military victory of a losing state. Another mistake is to ignore the word multidimensional and think only of traditional ceasefire monitoring, whereas new missions have broader mandates including consolidation tasks. Understanding these principles helps learners avoid confusion and choose the correct combination in similar questions. Final Answer: The correct combination of core functions of United Nations multidimensional peacekeeping operations is 1 and 2 only, that is, stabilisation and peace consolidation.

Question 14

In Indian constitutional law, what is the literal meaning of the Latin writ term Quo Warranto, which may be issued by a court?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question relates to constitutional law and administrative law, focusing on the Latin terminology used for various writs that Indian courts can issue. Understanding the literal meanings of writs such as Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo Warranto helps students connect each writ to its function. Quo Warranto is used to question the legal authority of a person holding a public office, so grasping its literal translation is essential for exam questions about the writ jurisdiction of higher courts. Given Data / Assumptions: The writ term is Quo Warranto. We are asked for its literal meaning in English. Options include We command, To forbid, By what authority or warrant, and None of these. We assume standard textbook translations of Latin legal terms. Concept / Approach: Quo Warranto is a writ used to ask under what legal authority a person holds a public office. The literal translation is By what authority or warrant. Other Latin writs have different meanings: Mandamus means We command, Prohibition means To forbid and Certiorari is associated with To be certified or To be informed. The approach is to recall this mapping between Latin phrases and their English equivalents and select the correct one for Quo Warranto. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify the writ in question: Quo Warranto. Step 2: Recall that this writ is used by courts to challenge the authority of a person holding a public office, questioning the legality of that appointment. Step 3: Remember the standard translation which expresses the idea of asking by what authority a person occupies that position. Step 4: Compare options. We command is associated with the writ of Mandamus, not Quo Warranto. Step 5: To forbid is associated with the writ of Prohibition. Step 6: By what authority or warrant exactly matches the sense of questioning legal authority, which belongs to Quo Warranto. Step 7: Hence, select By what authority or warrant as the correct option. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, it helps to review the standard list of writs and their literal meanings. Habeas Corpus translates to You may have the body, Mandamus to We command, Prohibition to To forbid, Certiorari to To be certified or informed, and Quo Warranto to By what authority or warrant. When these translations are memorised together, it becomes easier to differentiate them. Because Quo Warranto deals specifically with questioning the legitimacy of a public office holder, the phrase By what authority matches both the literal translation and the practical function, confirming the answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: We command: This is the translation of Mandamus, which orders a public authority to perform a duty, not the writ that questions authority to hold office. To forbid: This is the translation of Prohibition, a writ that stops a lower court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction. None of these: This is incorrect because one of the options, By what authority or warrant, correctly translates Quo Warranto. Common Pitfalls: Many aspirants confuse Latin terms because they sound similar and are learned together. A common mistake is to mix up Mandamus and Quo Warranto because both relate to public authorities. Another pitfall is to rely only on functional understanding without memorising literal meanings, which leads to errors in questions that specifically ask for translation. A reliable approach is to revise a small table of writ names, literal meanings and basic purposes regularly so that each term triggers an accurate semantic association in the mind during exams. Final Answer: The literal meaning of Quo Warranto is By what authority (or) warrant.

Question 15

Which virus was identified as responsible for the recent deaths of Asiatic lions in Gir National Park in India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question covers current affairs and wildlife conservation, focusing on a disease outbreak that affected the endangered Asiatic lions in Gir National Park in India. Understanding which virus caused the deaths is important for exams that integrate environment and ecology with general knowledge. Disease outbreaks in protected areas not only threaten biodiversity but also raise awareness about zoonotic diseases and the need for veterinary surveillance in wildlife populations. Given Data / Assumptions: The affected animals are Asiatic lions in Gir National Park. The question asks for the virus responsible for recent deaths. Options are Canine Distemper Virus, Nipah Virus, Hendra Virus and Foot and Mouth Disease Virus. We assume the question refers to widely reported incidents where authorities identified a specific virus as the main cause. Concept / Approach: Reports about lion deaths in Gir National Park indicated that Canine Distemper Virus, usually associated with dogs and some wild carnivores, had infected the lions. This virus can cause respiratory and neurological problems and is transmitted between animals. Nipah and Hendra viruses are associated with bats and can infect humans and other animals but were not identified in this case. Foot and Mouth Disease Virus mostly affects cloven hoofed animals such as cattle. Therefore, the approach is to link Gir lion deaths with Canine Distemper Virus as reported in official investigations and news. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Focus on the species and location mentioned: Asiatic lions in Gir National Park. Step 2: Recall news reports that spoke about a viral outbreak among these lions and the specific virus name mentioned. Step 3: Remember that veterinary and wildlife authorities identified Canine Distemper Virus as a key cause of the deaths. Step 4: Compare this with other listed viruses. Nipah and Hendra are associated with different outbreaks, mainly in humans and certain farm animals, while Foot and Mouth disease has a different host range and symptom profile. Step 5: Conclude that Canine Distemper Virus is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, recall that research on Gir lions warned that transmission from domestic dogs in surrounding villages could be a source of Canine Distemper Virus. Conservationists expressed concern because CDV outbreaks had previously affected lions in other countries. In contrast, Nipah Virus was reported in human outbreaks in parts of India with bat reservoirs, and Foot and Mouth disease is a major concern for livestock rather than big cats. These distinctions confirm that only Canine Distemper Virus matches both the hosts and the specific incident described in the question. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Nipah Virus: Known for outbreaks affecting humans with bat reservoirs, it was not identified as the cause of the lion deaths in Gir. Hendra Virus: Another bat associated virus that affects horses and humans in other regions, but not the virus reported in this Indian wildlife case. Foot and Mouth Disease Virus: Primarily affects cattle, sheep and other cloven hoofed animals and is not usually reported as a cause of lion mortality in Gir. Common Pitfalls: Under time pressure, students may select a virus name that simply sounds familiar without considering host specificity and context. For example, Nipah has been widely reported in Indian news, which might prompt an incorrect guess. To avoid such mistakes, it is useful to create short notes linking each virus to its typical hosts and famous outbreaks, such as Nipah with human encephalitis, Foot and Mouth with cattle, and Canine Distemper with dogs and wild carnivores. This contextual memory makes it easier to answer questions that connect wildlife conservation with disease ecology. Final Answer: The virus responsible for the recent deaths of lions in Gir National Park was Canine Distemper Virus.

Question 16

The 11th BRICS Summit held in 2019 was hosted by which member country of the BRICS grouping?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question is about international groupings and summits, specifically BRICS, which brings together Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa. Each year, a member country hosts the BRICS Summit, where leaders discuss cooperation in economic, political and development matters. Knowing which country hosted the 11th BRICS Summit in 2019 is part of current affairs that often appear in competitive examinations, especially those focusing on international relations and diplomacy. Given Data / Assumptions: The summit in question is the 11th BRICS Summit. The year of the summit is 2019. Options for host country are China, Russia, Brazil and India. We assume standard official rotation of BRICS summits as reported in international news. Concept / Approach: BRICS summits rotate among member countries. After South Africa joined, the sequence included summits hosted by each member in turn. The 11th BRICS Summit took place in 2019 in Brazil. This was a notable event where leaders discussed themes related to economic growth, innovation and partnership. Therefore, the approach is to recall that the 2019 summit venue was in Brazil and not in China, Russia or India, which hosted summits in other years. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Remember that BRICS stands for Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa. Step 2: Recall recent BRICS summits and their host countries. The 10th summit in 2018 was held in South Africa. Step 3: Recognise that the following summit, the 11th in 2019, was then hosted by Brazil as part of the rotation. Step 4: Check the options and identify Brazil as one of the choices. Step 5: Confirm that China, Russia and India did not host the 11th summit in 2019. Step 6: Select Brazil as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: As an alternative verification, one can recall that the 2014 summit was in Brazil, the 2015 in Russia, 2016 in India, 2017 in China and 2018 in South Africa. After completing this cycle of five countries, the next host in 2019 was again Brazil, but this time for the 11th summit. News headlines at the time referred to the BRICS summit in Brasilia. Remembering this sequence of host countries helps confirm that Brazil, not China, Russia or India, organised the 2019 meeting. Why Other Options Are Wrong: China: China has hosted BRICS summits in other years, such as 2017, but was not the host for the 11th summit in 2019. Russia: Russia also hosted earlier summits but did not host the 2019 meeting. India: India organised the BRICS summit in 2016 but was not the host country for the 2019 event. Common Pitfalls: A typical pitfall is to confuse different BRICS summits because the same countries rotate as hosts. Students sometimes remember that China or India hosted major summits and mistakenly assign them to the wrong year. To avoid this, it is helpful to create a small chronological list linking each year with its host country, at least for the most recent few summits. Regular revision of such lists ensures faster and more accurate recall in exam situations that test current international events. Final Answer: The 11th BRICS Summit held in 2019 was hosted by Brazil.

Question 17

Under a new sports partnership framework, Victoria University from which country agreed to help India establish a National Sports University?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question belongs to the category of education and sports related current affairs. India has aimed to improve sports science, coaching and infrastructure by collaborating with international institutions. Under a new partnership framework, Victoria University committed to support India in establishing a National Sports University. Knowing which country this university belongs to is a common question in exams that track educational and sports collaborations between India and other nations. Given Data / Assumptions: Victoria University is entering a partnership to help India set up a National Sports University. The question asks about the country to which Victoria University belongs. Options are Portugal, Australia, Vietnam and USA. We rely on standard reports about this educational cooperation with India. Concept / Approach: The key concept is to associate Victoria University with its home country. Victoria University most commonly mentioned in the context of this sports partnership is located in Australia. It has strong programmes in sports science and has engaged with India on this theme. Therefore, the approach is to recall that Australia is the partner country in this initiative, while recognising that Portugal, Vietnam and USA have other educational links with India but are not connected to this specific Victoria University sports collaboration. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that the centre of the question is Victoria University and its role in supporting a National Sports University in India. Step 2: Recall international media and government statements that described this partnership with an Australian university. Step 3: Associate the name Victoria with the state of Victoria in Australia, where Victoria University is based. Step 4: Look at the options and pick Australia as the country consistent with this information. Step 5: Cross check that Portugal, Vietnam and USA do not have a Victoria University famous for this sports collaboration with India. Step 6: Confirm Australia as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, remember that sports ties between India and Australia are extensive, including cricket, hockey and sports science exchanges. When India announced its plan to create a National Sports University, Australian institutions were among the first to be mentioned as partners. Victoria University in Melbourne has a reputation for sports and exercise science research and training. This context fits the question, whereas there are no similar widely reported stories about a Victoria University in Portugal, Vietnam or USA in connection with such an Indian project. This reinforces that Australia is the correct country. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Portugal: Portugal has educational links with India but is not home to the Victoria University that entered this sports partnership framework. Vietnam: Vietnam is an important partner in other sectors but does not match the description of Victoria University known for assisting with a National Sports University in India. USA: Although the United States hosts many major universities, the Victoria University referred to in this context is not an American institution. Common Pitfalls: A common pitfall is to focus only on the word Victoria and think of the British era or the name of a queen, leading to guesses about European countries. Another is to assume that any major international cooperation in higher education must involve the United States. To avoid these mistakes, candidates should connect the name Victoria University with the Australian state of Victoria and recall its sports science profile that fits well with the idea of a National Sports University partnership with India. Final Answer: Under the new partnership framework, Victoria University from Australia agreed to help India establish a National Sports University.

Question 18

Within the framework of the law of the sea, which of the following is NOT an exclusive right of the coastal nation over its Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question belongs to world geography and international law, specifically the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea. The concept of an Exclusive Economic Zone allows coastal states certain sovereign rights over marine resources up to a defined distance from their coastlines. At the same time, high seas freedoms like navigation remain available to other states. Understanding which activities are exclusive rights of the coastal state and which remain as general freedoms is important for examinations that cover maritime boundaries and resource jurisdiction. Given Data / Assumptions: The subject is the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) of a coastal nation. We must identify which listed activity is not an exclusive right of the coastal state. Options include exploitation of minerals, exploitation of energy and organisms, conservation and management, and navigation of ships with submarine cables. We assume the standard EEZ rules under the law of the sea. Concept / Approach: Within its EEZ, a coastal state has sovereign rights for exploring, exploiting, conserving and managing natural resources, whether living or non living, in the water column, sea bed and subsoil. It also has jurisdiction over certain activities like marine scientific research and environmental protection. However, freedoms of navigation and overflight and the laying of submarine cables and pipelines remain available to other states, subject to reasonable regulation. Therefore, the activities mentioned in options a, b and c are exclusive rights, while navigation and laying submarine cables are recognised as international freedoms rather than exclusive rights. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Review option a. Survey and exploitation of mineral resources of ocean deposits clearly fall under the coastal state sovereign rights in its EEZ. Step 2: Review option b. Exploitation of marine water energy and marine organisms including fishing are core EEZ rights, as the state controls these natural resources. Step 3: Review option c. Conservation and management of marine resources is a key responsibility and right of the coastal state under EEZ provisions. Step 4: Review option d. Navigation of ships and laying down submarine cables are generally part of high seas freedoms that continue within EEZs for other states, subject to certain regulations, and are not exclusive rights of the coastal nation. Step 5: Therefore, option d is the activity that is not an exclusive right and should be selected. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, one can recall that the idea of an EEZ is a compromise between coastal state resource control and continued freedom of navigation. Coastal states gain control over economic resources but cannot block the passage of foreign ships or the laying of international submarine cables and pipelines that are vital for global communications and trade, except under limited circumstances. This distinction is emphasised in many geography and law textbooks. Hence, any question asking which option is not an exclusive right should logically point to navigation and submarine cables as the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Survey and exploitation of mineral resources of ocean deposits: This is explicitly part of the coastal state sovereign rights in its EEZ and therefore exclusive. Exploitation of marine water energy and marine organisms including fishing: These are central rights related to energy and living resources that belong to the coastal state in the EEZ. Conservation and management of marine resources: The coastal state is responsible for setting and enforcing conservation measures, making this an exclusive jurisdictional right. Common Pitfalls: Students often confuse territorial sea, EEZ and high seas. They may mistakenly think that in the EEZ the coastal state has full sovereignty over all activities, including navigation. This can lead to choosing a resource related activity as non exclusive by error. A clear mental framework should distinguish that territorial sea involves full sovereignty, EEZ grants resource related rights but still preserves navigation freedoms, and the high seas are open for all states. Remembering this layered structure helps avoid mistakes in questions about maritime zones. Final Answer: The activity that is not an exclusive right of the coastal nation over its Exclusive Economic Zone is navigation of ships and laying down submarine cables.

Question 19

Among the following Indian States, which one has the largest number of seats in its Legislative Assembly?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question tests basic knowledge of the composition of State Legislative Assemblies in India. The number of seats in each assembly is determined by population and delimitation exercises within constitutional limits. Knowing which states have larger or smaller assemblies is useful for understanding political representation and is a common theme in general knowledge sections of competitive examinations that include Indian polity and governance. Given Data / Assumptions: We are comparing only the four states listed in the options. The states mentioned are West Bengal, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. We must identify which of these has the highest number of seats in its Legislative Assembly. We assume seat strength as per standard delimitation figures widely used in exam preparation. Concept / Approach: Each Indian state has a specified number of assembly constituencies. Among the given states, West Bengal has 294 seats in its Legislative Assembly. Bihar has 243 seats, Madhya Pradesh has 230 and Tamil Nadu has 234 seats. Therefore, by numerical comparison, West Bengal has the largest assembly among the four options. The approach is simply to recall these approximate seat strengths and choose the state with the maximum number. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the approximate number of Legislative Assembly seats for each state in the options. Step 2: For West Bengal, remember that the assembly strength is 294. Step 3: For Bihar, note that the assembly has 243 members. Step 4: For Madhya Pradesh, recall that the assembly has 230 seats. Step 5: For Tamil Nadu, the assembly strength is 234. Step 6: Compare these numbers and identify that 294 for West Bengal is the highest among the four. Step 7: Therefore, select West Bengal as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: A quick verification method is to remember that some of the largest assemblies in India belong to states like Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra and West Bengal, with Uttar Pradesh having the maximum overall. Among the states listed in this question, West Bengal is commonly mentioned as having close to the upper limit in terms of assembly size. Since Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu have seat strengths in the 230 to 243 range, and West Bengal is above that at 294, this confirms that West Bengal has the largest assembly among the options given. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Bihar: With 243 assembly seats, Bihar has fewer representatives than West Bengal and therefore does not have the largest assembly among the four. Madhya Pradesh: Its assembly comprises about 230 seats, which is significantly below West Bengal total of 294. Tamil Nadu: Although Tamil Nadu has a large assembly with 234 members, it still falls short of the 294 seats in West Bengal and thus cannot be the correct answer. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse population size with assembly size and may incorrectly assume that Bihar or Madhya Pradesh must have more seats. Another error is to misremember the exact numbers and think they are all similar. To avoid these pitfalls, it helps to memorise approximate seat figures for at least the largest few state assemblies and note that West Bengal stands above the others listed here. Regular revision of such basic data ensures accurate responses to similar questions in Indian polity sections. Final Answer: Among the states listed, West Bengal has the largest number of seats in its Legislative Assembly.

Question 20

After the inclusion of South Africa as a member, the first BRICS Summit of the enlarged group was held in which of the following cities?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question is about the BRICS grouping of emerging economies and the evolution of its summits. Originally the group comprised Brazil, Russia, India and China as BRIC. When South Africa joined, the group became BRICS. The first summit held after this expansion is a common topic in general knowledge and international relations questions, because it marks the beginning of the five country format of BRICS meetings. Given Data / Assumptions: The question refers to the first BRICS Summit after South Africa joined the group. We must identify the city where this expanded summit was held. Options are Brasilia, Sanya, Yekaterinburg and Durban. We assume standard chronological records of BRICS summits. Concept / Approach: South Africa joined the BRIC group to form BRICS around 2010. The first summit with South Africa as a full member took place in 2011 in Sanya, a city in China. Earlier summits of the original BRIC grouping had been held in places such as Yekaterinburg in Russia and Brasilia in Brazil, while Durban in South Africa hosted a later summit. The approach is therefore to recall the timeline of summits and identify Sanya as the first host city for the five country BRICS summit. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that BRIC became BRICS when South Africa joined as the fifth member. Step 2: Remember that the first summit after this inclusion was held in 2011. Step 3: Identify the host country for the 2011 summit, which was China. Step 4: Recall that Sanya, a coastal city in China, was the venue of this BRICS summit. Step 5: Check the options and find Sanya listed among them. Step 6: Confirm that Brasilia and Yekaterinburg were venues of earlier BRIC summits and Durban was a later BRICS summit venue. Step 7: Select Sanya as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative way to verify is to recall the order of summits: the 2009 summit in Yekaterinburg as BRIC, a subsequent summit in Brasilia, and then the 2011 summit in Sanya with South Africa included. Later, South Africa itself hosted a BRICS summit in Durban, but that was not the first one after its inclusion. Linking Sanya with China and the year 2011 helps confirm that this city hosted the first full BRICS meeting with all five countries. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Brasilia: Capital of Brazil, which hosted an early BRIC summit before South Africa joined; not the first BRICS summit after expansion. Yekaterinburg: Hosted an early summit of the original BRIC grouping, but that was before South Africa became a member. Durban: A South African city that hosted a later BRICS summit, but not the first one following South Africa inclusion. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes focus on the fact that South Africa is the newest member and assume that the first expanded summit must have been held in a South African city such as Durban. Another mistake is to confuse earlier BRIC summits with the first BRICS summit. To avoid these errors, it helps to remember that the first summit after South Africa entry was in China at Sanya in 2011, and that Durban hosted a later meeting. Keeping a small timeline of key BRICS summits aids quick and accurate recall. Final Answer: The first BRICS Summit after the inclusion of South Africa as a member was held in Sanya.

Basic General Knowledge Questions