Question 1

On a topographic map, the disconnected short lines used to show the steepness and direction of slope are called what?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Map reading skills are very important in geography and earth science exams. Various symbols and line types are used to represent relief and landforms on a map. While continuous contour lines are familiar to most students, older or specialised maps sometimes use disconnected short lines to show slopes and relief. This question focuses on identifying the correct term for those disconnected lines that indicate slope steepness and direction on a topographic map. Given Data / Assumptions: The context is a topographic or relief map. The map uses disconnected short lines to represent slope. The options given are bench marks, contours, form lines, and hachure. Standard cartographic terminology is assumed. Concept / Approach: Contours are continuous lines that join points of equal elevation and are widely used in modern maps. Bench marks are specific points on a map whose exact elevation is known and marked, not a pattern of lines. Form lines are approximate contour-like lines used when precise surveying data is not available. Hachures, on the other hand, are short disconnected strokes or lines drawn down the slope, thicker or closer together for steeper slopes. Therefore, when the question refers specifically to disconnected lines shown for slope, the correct technical term is hachure. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify what is being described: disconnected lines that represent slope on a map. Step 2: Recall that contour lines are continuous and loop or extend to show height levels, not disconnected strokes. Step 3: Recognise that bench marks are isolated symbols marking exact spot heights, not lines indicating slope across an area. Step 4: Understand that form lines resemble contours but are still continuous, approximate lines rather than separate strokes. Step 5: Conclude that only hachures match the description of disconnected short lines drawn in the direction of maximum slope. Verification / Alternative check: A quick memory check is that hachure shading is often used in older atlases to give a shaded appearance to hills and mountains, with small strokes aligned down the slope. Modern atlases may still describe this technique when explaining historic mapping methods. Since no other mapping term in the options fits the description of disconnected slope lines, confirming that hachures are used for this purpose validates the choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Bench marks: Represent specific surveyed points with known elevation values and are shown by symbols or numbers, not by a series of disconnected short lines. Contours: Continuous lines joining places of equal altitude, not fragmented strokes. They represent height levels rather than slope direction through short dashes. Form lines: Approximate, less accurate contour-like lines, but still drawn continuously and not as disconnected short strokes. Common Pitfalls: Students often confuse any line related to relief with contours, leading them to choose contours even when the question clearly states "disconnected." Another common pitfall is to ignore the historical context of mapping techniques such as hachuring, which may not be used in all modern maps but remain important in exam syllabi. Misreading the word as "hatch" or associating it only with shading can also cause confusion. Carefully focusing on the key phrase "disconnected lines" helps avoid these errors. Final Answer: The disconnected short lines drawn on a map to show the steepness and direction of slope are known as Hachure.

Question 2

A group or chain of many interconnected islands together is known by which geographical term?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Basic geographical terms that describe landforms and water bodies are frequent in general knowledge exams. Understanding the correct term for groups of islands, narrow sea passages, and coastal features is important for correctly interpreting maps and descriptions of world regions. This question specifically asks for the term used to describe a group of interconnected islands, such as those found in many parts of the world's oceans and seas. Given Data / Assumptions: The feature consists of many islands grouped together. These islands are geographically related and often close to each other. Options include strait, peninsula, archipelago, and lagoon. Standard textbook definitions of these landforms apply. Concept / Approach: An archipelago is defined as a chain, cluster, or group of islands, often formed by volcanic activity, tectonic processes, or rising sea levels around higher ground. A strait is a narrow water passage connecting two larger water bodies, not a group of islands. A peninsula is a piece of land almost surrounded by water but connected to the mainland on one side. A lagoon is a shallow body of water separated from a larger sea or ocean by a barrier such as a sandbar or coral reef. Therefore, when the question mentions a group of interconnected islands, the correct term is archipelago. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify the key phrase in the question: a group of interconnected islands. Step 2: Recall the definition of an archipelago as a group or chain of islands, such as the Indonesian archipelago or the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Step 3: Compare this with a strait, which is a narrow water channel connecting two larger water bodies. Step 4: Distinguish a peninsula as land extending into water on three sides but attached to the mainland. Step 5: Remember that a lagoon is a shallow coastal water body, usually separated from the ocean by a barrier. Step 6: Conclude that only archipelago correctly matches the description of many interconnected islands. Verification / Alternative check: Think of well known world examples: the Japanese Islands, the Philippines, Indonesia, and the Maldives are all often referred to as archipelagos. This everyday usage and textbook definition support the selection of archipelago. None of the other options commonly describe countries or regions that consist primarily of many islands grouped together, which further verifies the answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Strait: Indicates a narrow passage of water between two land masses and does not describe a cluster of islands. Peninsula: A landform almost surrounded by water but still attached to larger land on one side, not a collection of separate islands. Lagoon: A shallow, often enclosed or partially enclosed body of seawater near the coast, not a collection of land units. Common Pitfalls: Some learners confuse archipelagos with peninsulas because both involve land extending into the sea, but the crucial difference is that islands are completely surrounded by water. Another pitfall is mixing up straits and archipelagos, especially in regions where narrow channels run through island groups. Keeping each term clearly defined in memory and practicing with world map examples helps avoid such confusion. Final Answer: A group of many interconnected islands together is known as an Archipelago.

Question 3

The conquest of Vallabhi by King Harshavardhana is mentioned in which one of the following inscriptions?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: In early medieval Indian history, inscriptions are crucial sources for reconstructing political events, conquests, and dynastic relations. Harshavardhana, also known as Harsha, was an important ruler of North India in the seventh century. The question asks about the specific inscription that mentions his conquest of Vallabhi, a significant region in western India. Knowing which inscription records this conquest helps candidates link literary narratives with epigraphic evidence, an important skill in history based examinations. Given Data / Assumptions: We are dealing with the period of Harshavardhana in early medieval India. The focus is on his conquest or campaign against Vallabhi. Four inscriptions are listed: Aihole Pillar, Junagadh, Navsari Copperplate, and Damodarpur Copperplate. Standard historical scholarship on these inscriptions is assumed. Concept / Approach: Each listed inscription belongs to a different dynasty or context. The Aihole Pillar Inscription is associated with the Chalukya ruler Pulakeshin II and celebrates his victories, including confrontations with Harsha. The Junagadh Inscription is famous for the records of Rudradaman and later rulers in the Kathiawar region, not specifically Harsha's Vallabhi conquest. The Damodarpur copper plates relate to the Gupta administration in Bengal. The Navsari Copperplate Inscription, however, provides information about events in western India and is associated with the Chalukyas and their interactions with Harsha and Vallabhi. It is this Navsari Copperplate Inscription that refers to the Vallabhi campaign of Harshavardhana. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that the question connects Harshavardhana with Vallabhi and asks for the relevant inscriptional source. Step 2: Recall that the Aihole Inscription mainly glorifies Pulakeshin II and his victories, including his claimed check on Harsha, but not Harsha's conquest of Vallabhi. Step 3: Note that the Junagadh Inscription is best known for Rudradaman and later records, with a different focus. Step 4: Recognise that Damodarpur copper plates relate to Gupta era administration in Bengal rather than western Indian campaigns of Harsha. Step 5: Remember that the Navsari Copperplate Inscription mentions events associated with Vallabhi and Harshavardhana's intervention, making it the relevant source. Verification / Alternative check: A broader way to check is to group inscriptions by region and ruling power. Vallabhi and the events involving Harsha and western Indian powers are more likely recorded in inscriptions from the western region, such as Navsari. The Aihole and Junagadh inscriptions have well known standard content that most history students learn separately, and they do not focus on the Vallabhi conquest by Harsha. This cross checking confirms that Navsari Copperplate Inscription is the accurate choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Aihole Pillar Inscription: Primarily celebrates the Chalukya ruler Pulakeshin II and his campaigns; it mentions Harsha as a rival but does not describe Harsha conquering Vallabhi. Junagadh Inscription: Famous for Rudradaman's achievements and later records in Kathiawar, not specifically for Harshavardhana's Vallabhi conquest. Damodarpur Copperplate Inscription: Connected with Gupta administration in eastern India, especially Bengal, and does not deal with Vallabhi under Harsha. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes select the Aihole Inscription simply because it is strongly associated with Harsha as an opponent of Pulakeshin II, without noticing the specific requirement about Vallabhi. Another common error is to choose Junagadh due to its western Indian location, even though the content focus is different. Mixing inscriptions by geography instead of by content can lead to confusion. The safer strategy is to link each inscription with its main ruler and key events before answering. Final Answer: The conquest of Vallabhi by King Harshavardhana is mentioned in the Navsari Copperplate Inscription.

Question 4

Indira Point, the southernmost tip of India, is also known by which other name among the following?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Indira Point is an important geographical landmark because it marks the southernmost tip of the territory of India, located in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Over time, this point has been known by different names in navigational charts, local languages, and official records. The question checks whether you recognise the multiple historical and local names associated with Indira Point, which is a typical general knowledge test on Indian geography. Given Data / Assumptions: Indira Point is located in the Nicobar Islands region of India. The options list several different names: Parson Point, La-Hi-Ching, and Pygmalion Point, plus a combined option. The question asks which of these names has also been used for Indira Point. Standard geographical and historical references are assumed. Concept / Approach: Places often acquire multiple names due to colonial history, local languages, or changes in political significance. Indira Point was earlier known as Pygmalion Point in many nautical charts. Local Nicobarese people also have their own traditional name for the spot, often written as La-Hi-Ching or in slightly varied spellings. Parson Point has also appeared in some earlier references and navigational records. Because all three names can be associated with the same physical location that is now officially called Indira Point, the best choice is the option that includes all of them together. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that Indira Point is the southernmost tip of India in the Nicobar group of islands. Step 2: Recall that historically this location has been referred to as Pygmalion Point on older maps and charts. Step 3: Understand that La-Hi-Ching is a local name used by inhabitants of the Nicobar region for the same location. Step 4: Note that Parson Point has also appeared in some navigational and geographical references to the same region. Step 5: Since all three names refer to the same geographical point, select the option that states that all of them are correct. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify by looking at the pattern of such questions: when multiple historically used or local names for a major landmark are provided and they are all genuinely associated with the place, competitive exam questions often make the correct answer "all of the above". Additionally, reference books on Indian geography and older atlases record Pygmalion Point and La-Hi-Ching as names linked to the location now officially named Indira Point. This cross checking supports the combined answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Parson Point: This name is indeed associated with the region, but choosing it alone would ignore the other equally valid historical and local names. La-Hi-Ching: This is a local name used by island inhabitants, but on its own it does not fully capture all known alternative names. Pygmalion Point: A well documented earlier name, but again selecting only this would exclude the others, making the answer incomplete. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes believe that only one alternative name can be correct and look for a single "most famous" one, often settling on Pygmalion Point. Others may be unfamiliar with the Nicobarese name La-Hi-Ching and assume it is incorrect. The key to avoiding this pitfall is to remember that geographic locations can legitimately have multiple names, especially when both colonial and indigenous naming traditions are involved. Reading the question carefully and noting that more than one option may be valid leads to the combined answer. Final Answer: Indira Point is also known as Parson Point, La-Hi-Ching, and Pygmalion Point, so the correct option is All options are correct.

Question 5

Under the centrally sponsored Saubhagya scheme, which basic household facility is targeted for universal access in India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Government schemes that aim at improving basic living standards often appear in general studies and competitive exams. The Saubhagya scheme, formally known as the Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana, is one such flagship programme. It focuses on providing a particular essential service to every willing household in the country. The question checks whether you can correctly identify which basic facility Saubhagya aims to deliver universally. Given Data / Assumptions: Saubhagya is an Indian government scheme mentioned in the question. The options include four different household facilities: water, LPG, electricity, and broadband. The task is to select the facility that is the main objective of Saubhagya. Standard understanding of major schemes launched in recent years is assumed. Concept / Approach: Saubhagya stands for Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana, where the word "Bijli" means electricity. The core goal of the scheme is to provide last mile connectivity and electricity connections to all remaining un-electrified households in both rural and urban areas. LPG connections are primarily covered under schemes like the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana. Water supply and broadband connectivity are targeted under other initiatives, but not under Saubhagya. Therefore, the correct answer is the provision of electricity connections to households. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the full name of Saubhagya: Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana. Step 2: Note that "Bijli" in Hindi translates to "electricity" in English. Step 3: Remember that the scheme focuses on last mile connectivity and free or subsidised electricity connections for poor households. Step 4: Compare this with schemes like Ujjwala, which deal with LPG connections, and other programmes for water or digital services. Step 5: Conclude that Saubhagya is specifically about providing electricity connections to households. Verification / Alternative check: A quick check is to match major schemes with their keywords: Ujjwala with LPG, Jal Jeevan with water, Digital India with broadband and digital infrastructure, and Saubhagya with electricity. This mnemonic mapping ensures that you do not confuse them during exams. When you see the term "Bijli Har Ghar," it clearly signals a focus on household electrification, confirming that the answer is electricity connections. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Water connections to households: Water-related schemes are usually linked with names like Jal Jeevan Mission or similar, not Saubhagya. LPG connections to households: This area is covered by the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana, which targets free LPG connections for women from poor households. Broadband connections to households: Broadband and digital connectivity are part of Digital India and allied initiatives, not the Saubhagya scheme. Common Pitfalls: Candidates can sometimes mix up schemes because many of them use attractive names in Hindi and English. Another common mistake is to associate Saubhagya with LPG due to overlap in benefits for poor households across different programmes. Avoiding this confusion requires systematically pairing each scheme's name with its primary sector. Creating a simple chart of scheme names and their objectives during preparation can help you quickly recall such details in the exam hall. Final Answer: The Saubhagya scheme aims to provide universal Electricity connections to households in India.

Question 6

Which of the following became the first indigenously developed vaccine from India to be pre qualified by the World Health Organisation (WHO)?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: India has made significant progress in biotechnology and vaccine development, becoming a major global supplier of affordable vaccines. A key milestone in this journey is when an indigenously developed vaccine from India receives pre qualification by the World Health Organisation. WHO pre qualification is important because it allows United Nations agencies and many countries to procure that vaccine for public health programmes. This question asks you to identify which Indian developed vaccine first achieved that pre qualification status. Given Data / Assumptions: The focus is on indigenously developed vaccines from India. The question is specifically about the first such vaccine to receive WHO pre qualification. Options include Rotavac, Hemophile, Pentavac, and Pneumococca. We assume standard reporting of vaccine milestones in national and international health news. Concept / Approach: Rotavac is a rotavirus vaccine developed in India through a public private partnership and tested extensively in Indian children. It targets rotavirus diarrhoea, a major cause of child mortality. Rotavac later received WHO pre qualification, making it eligible for global procurement. The other names in the options do not match the same milestone as clearly or are not widely identified as the first indigenously developed Indian vaccine to get WHO pre qualification. Therefore, Rotavac stands out as the correct choice in the context of this question. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Rotavac is a home grown Indian vaccine developed to protect children against rotavirus induced diarrhoea. Step 2: Remember that WHO pre qualification signifies that the vaccine meets global standards for safety, efficacy, and quality. Step 3: Note that Rotavac was widely reported in the news as the first indigenously developed Indian vaccine to receive WHO pre qualification. Step 4: Compare the other options and observe that they do not have the same clear recognition in exam oriented study material for this specific milestone. Step 5: Based on these facts, select Rotavac as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: To further verify, you can connect Rotavac with government immunisation programmes in India, where it was progressively introduced as part of efforts to reduce child mortality. Many government press releases and health ministry updates emphasised the achievement of WHO pre qualification for Rotavac, highlighting it as a symbol of India's vaccine development capabilities. This repeated emphasis in official communication and exam guides confirms Rotavac's special status. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Hemophile: The name given in the option does not correspond clearly to the Indian vaccine with this specific WHO pre qualification milestone in the common exam literature. Pentavac: While pentavalent vaccines are important in immunisation programmes, the question is about the first indigenously developed Indian vaccine to be pre qualified, where Rotavac is the recognised answer. Pneumococca: Though pneumococcal vaccines are critical for preventing pneumonia and related illnesses, this option does not match the widely reported specific milestone in the context given. Common Pitfalls: The main pitfall is confusion between various vaccines used in India's immunisation programme, especially pentavalent and pneumococcal vaccines, which sound important and may tempt guesswork. Another issue is treating all vaccine brand names as equally likely answers without recalling which one was highlighted as first in WHO pre qualification. To avoid this, students should maintain a short list of key "firsts" in Indian health science, such as Rotavac's WHO pre qualification, for quick recall in exams. Final Answer: The first indigenously developed Indian vaccine to be pre qualified by WHO is Rotavac.

Question 7

In July 2017, the Reserve Bank of India capped a customer's liability for unauthorised electronic transactions at what maximum amount, if such transactions are reported within seven working days?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: With the growth of digital payments and electronic banking, the Reserve Bank of India has issued detailed guidelines to protect customers from losses caused by unauthorised transactions. These guidelines set limits on how much loss a customer may bear, depending on how quickly the unauthorised transaction is reported and on the type of account. This question focuses on the maximum liability for a customer who reports such a transaction within seven working days, as per the 2017 RBI framework for limited liability of customers in unauthorised electronic banking transactions. Given Data / Assumptions: The RBI circular was issued in July 2017 regarding unauthorised electronic banking transactions. The question concerns the maximum liability for customers if they report within seven working days. Amounts listed are Rs 50,000, Rs 25,000, Rs 10,000, and Rs 20,000. Basic familiarity with RBI customer protection guidelines is assumed. Concept / Approach: The RBI framework distinguishes between different cases, such as contributory fraud, system negligence, or third party breach. For unauthorised transactions where the fault is not with the customer and the customer reports promptly, liability can be zero. However, for certain categories of accounts and specific situations where some liability applies but the complaint is made within seven working days, RBI prescribed a cap. For savings bank accounts and similar categories, this cap is Rs 10,000. Many exam questions simplify the scenario and ask for this commonly quoted figure, making Rs 10,000 the correct answer here. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that RBI issued guidelines in 2017 on limiting customer liability in unauthorised electronic transactions. Step 2: Understand that the guidelines provide for differential liability caps depending on account type and the time taken to report. Step 3: For most normal savings accounts, when unauthorised transactions are reported within seven working days, the typical maximum liability is capped at Rs 10,000. Step 4: Note that amounts such as Rs 25,000 or Rs 50,000 apply in other specific cases or account categories, but not as the default figure examined here. Step 5: Therefore, select Rs 10,000 as the correct option. Verification / Alternative check: A quick way to verify is to recall study notes or exam preparation material that often summarise the RBI guidelines by stating: for savings accounts, when reported quickly, the customer's liability is limited to Rs 10,000. Many practice questions repeat this figure, reinforcing it in memory. Cross checking with the idea that higher caps are assigned to other types of accounts, such as current accounts, further supports that Rs 10,000 is the most appropriate general cap mentioned in this context. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Rs 50,000: This limit is associated with other categories or different situations, not the standard cap for typical savings account customers reporting within seven days. Rs 25,000: Also used in certain specific contexts, but not the widely quoted figure in exam oriented discussions for early reporting by ordinary customers. Rs 20,000: Not the standard figure highlighted in RBI's principal examples for such cases. Common Pitfalls: Students may confuse the exact caps for different account categories because multiple figures are mentioned in the guidelines. Another common error is to assume that the highest number in the options is always correct, which is often not the case in questions about regulatory thresholds. To avoid this, candidates should memorise a simple mapping: Rs 10,000 is the common exam tested cap for savings account customers reporting within seven working days, while other amounts apply to corporate or higher value accounts. Final Answer: According to the RBI framework, the maximum liability for a typical customer reporting unauthorised electronic transactions within seven working days is capped at Rs 10,000.

Question 8

To keep warm in extremely cold environments, polar bears have an insulating layer of which tissue under their skin?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Adaptations of animals to their habitats are a fundamental topic in biology and environmental science. Polar bears live in very cold Arctic environments, where maintaining body heat is essential for survival. The question focuses on which specific tissue under the skin helps polar bears retain warmth and insulate their bodies against freezing temperatures. Understanding this helps illustrate how structural adaptations support survival in extreme climates. Given Data / Assumptions: The animal in question is the polar bear, living in Arctic conditions. The question asks about a layer present under the skin that keeps the animal warm. Options are muscle, fat, cartilage, and hair. Standard biological knowledge of mammalian anatomy is assumed. Concept / Approach: Mammals in cold regions often have a thick subcutaneous layer of adipose tissue, commonly referred to as fat or blubber. This layer acts as an excellent insulator because fat conducts heat poorly and thus reduces heat loss from the warm core of the body to the cold external environment. While polar bears also have dense fur, the question specifically mentions a layer under the skin, which points to fat rather than hair. Muscle tissue generates heat through activity but is not primarily an insulating layer. Cartilage is a supportive connective tissue found in joints and certain structures, not a general insulator. Therefore, the correct answer is the layer of fat beneath the skin. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that the question focuses on an internal layer under the skin, not an external feature like fur. Step 2: Recall that many marine and polar mammals have thick layers of subcutaneous fat known as blubber. Step 3: Understand that fat is a poor conductor of heat, which makes it an effective insulator against cold. Step 4: Recognise that muscle serves primarily for movement and heat generation, not as a dedicated insulating layer. Step 5: Note that cartilage is structural and localised, and hair is external, so neither fits the description of a layer under the skin. Step 6: Conclude that the insulating layer under the polar bear's skin is fat. Verification / Alternative check: A simple verification is to compare polar bears with whales and seals, which are also known to have thick layers of blubber for insulation. Common biology textbooks and documentaries emphasise that polar bears have both thick fur and a substantial layer of fat. Remembering this combination confirms that fat is the correct tissue mentioned in the question as the under skin insulating layer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Muscle: While active muscles can generate heat, they do not form a continuous insulating layer; their main role is movement and posture. Cartilage: Found in joints, nose, and ear structures, cartilage provides support and flexibility, not thermal insulation for the whole body. Hair: Polar bears do have dense fur for insulation, but hair is present outside the skin. The question explicitly asks about a layer under the skin, which refers to fat. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may quickly choose hair because animal fur is widely associated with warmth. However, the wording "under their skin" should guide careful readers towards fat. Another pitfall is to assume that muscle bulk alone is responsible for warmth, ignoring its limited role as insulation. Training yourself to read key phrases such as "layer under the skin" can prevent these misunderstanding in similar questions. Final Answer: Polar bears keep warm with a thick insulating layer of Fat under their skin.

Question 9

The Government of India's programme "Khelo India" is primarily associated with the promotion of which of the following areas?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Government of India has launched several flagship programmes to promote development across different sectors such as education, science, sports, and culture. "Khelo India" is one of these initiatives and has received significant media coverage, especially during national youth games and school competitions. The question tests your ability to correctly identify the main sector in which the "Khelo India" programme operates and aims to bring reforms and promotion. Given Data / Assumptions: The scheme mentioned is "Khelo India". Four broad sectors are listed as options: Science and Technology, Literature, Sports, and Music. We assume basic awareness of major national programmes and their focus areas. Concept / Approach: The phrase "Khelo India" literally means "Play India" in Hindi, which already hints at its connection with physical activity and games. The scheme was launched to strengthen the sports ecosystem in the country by addressing elements such as talent identification, infrastructure development, and competitive structure at the grassroots level. The programme supports school level and youth level competition, provides scholarships, and aims to make sports a mass movement. It is therefore clearly linked to sports rather than science, literature, or music. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Interpret the name "Khelo India", where "Khelo" translates to "Play", indicating a focus on games or sports. Step 2: Recall that the scheme aims to identify sporting talent at the grassroots and provide them with training and financial support. Step 3: Remember that Khelo India Youth Games and Khelo India School Games are organised under this programme. Step 4: Compare this objective with the listed options and identify "Sports" as the best match. Step 5: Confirm that the other listed sectors, such as science or music, are not the focus of this particular programme. Verification / Alternative check: News reports and government advertisements about Khelo India typically show athletes, stadiums, and sports events rather than laboratories, libraries, or concert halls. This visual association reinforces the memory that Khelo India is about sports. Additionally, Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports is the nodal ministry for this programme, which further confirms that the scheme belongs to the sports sector. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Science and Technology: While India has schemes to promote innovation and research, they have different names and structures and are not called Khelo India. Literature: Literary promotion is managed through cultural bodies and academies, not through a programme named with a sports related slogan. Music: Music education and promotion fall within cultural and educational initiatives, not within the Khelo India framework. Common Pitfalls: This question is generally straightforward, but confusion may arise if a candidate has not followed recent government campaigns. Another minor pitfall is to overthink the answer and suspect a trick, even when the name clearly indicates sports. Staying calm and trusting simple linguistic cues such as "Khelo" meaning "play" can help avoid unnecessary doubt. Final Answer: The "Khelo India" programme is primarily associated with the promotion and development of Sports in India.

Question 10

Which of the following famous personalities was conferred sainthood by Pope Francis in the year 2016?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The process of canonisation, through which the Catholic Church declares a person a saint, attracts worldwide attention, especially when it involves personalities who have worked extensively in India. In 2016, Pope Francis declared an internationally known figure, famous for her service to the poor in India, as a saint. This question checks whether you can correctly recall which of the listed individuals was canonised in that particular year. Given Data / Assumptions: The canonisation took place in 2016 under Pope Francis. Options include Mary Euphrasia, Kuriakose, Sister Alphonsa, and Mother Teresa. We assume basic awareness of notable Catholics associated with India who have been declared saints. Concept / Approach: Mother Teresa, also known as Saint Teresa of Calcutta, was a Roman Catholic nun and missionary who founded the Missionaries of Charity and dedicated her life to serving the poorest of the poor in India. She was canonised by Pope Francis on 4 September 2016. Sister Alphonsa (Saint Alphonsa) and Saint Kuriakose Elias Chavara were canonised earlier, years before 2016. Mary Euphrasia is not the one associated with the 2016 event in widely reported news about India. Therefore, the correct option for sainthood conferred in 2016 is Mother Teresa. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the major canonisation event linked to India that occurred in 2016 under Pope Francis. Step 2: Remember that Mother Teresa of Calcutta, known globally for her humanitarian work, was declared a saint in that year. Step 3: Check the other names: Sister Alphonsa and Kuriakose Elias Chavara were canonised in earlier years, not in 2016. Step 4: Confirm that Mother Teresa is the only person among the options whose canonisation date matches 2016. Step 5: Select Mother Teresa as the final answer. Verification / Alternative check: Media coverage around 2016 often used the phrase "canonisation of Mother Teresa" and highlighted her as "Saint Teresa of Calcutta." Many competitive exam questions from that period focused on this event, making it a widely known fact. Additionally, if you recall that Sister Alphonsa was declared a saint in 2008 and Kuriakose Elias Chavara in 2014, the year 2016 clearly identifies Mother Teresa as the correct choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Mary Euphrasia: Not the figure widely reported as canonised in 2016 in connection with India. Kuriakose: Refers to Kuriakose Elias Chavara, who was canonised earlier and not in 2016. Sister Alphonsa: Saint Alphonsa was canonised in 2008, so her canonisation year does not match 2016. Common Pitfalls: Confusion often arises because several Indian or India associated Catholic figures have been canonised in the last few decades. Without remembering the specific years, candidates may guess incorrectly. Another pitfall is to overlook the global news prominence that Mother Teresa's canonisation had compared to other events. Keeping a simple timeline of major canonisations related to India helps avoid such errors in exams. Final Answer: The personality who was conferred sainthood by Pope Francis in 2016 is Mother Teresa.

Question 11

Who has been appointed as the next Ambassador of India to Peru, according to the question's context?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Appointments of Indian ambassadors and high commissioners are frequently asked in general knowledge and current affairs sections. Knowing who represents India in key countries helps test a candidate's awareness of international relations and diplomatic postings. This question asks about the person appointed as the next Ambassador of India to Peru, focusing on a specific diplomatic assignment within the Indian Foreign Service. Given Data / Assumptions: The position is Ambassador of India to Peru. Four names are given: M. Subbarayudu, Yashvardhan Kumar Sinha, Dr Rizal Sukma, and Sandeep Chakravorty. The question refers to a particular appointment announcement. We assume standard information about Indian diplomatic postings available in exam preparation sources. Concept / Approach: Indian ambassadors to different countries are usually senior Indian Foreign Service officers. In this context, M. Subbarayudu is the name associated with the appointment as the Ambassador of India to Peru around the period relevant to the question. The other names listed either belong to different roles or are diplomats and officials associated with other countries, positions, or time frames. Thus, the correct approach is to match each name with known postings and pick the one that fits the Peru assignment. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that the question is about India's ambassadorial posting to Peru. Step 2: Recall that M. Subbarayudu, an Indian Foreign Service officer, has been mentioned in news and exam material as the Ambassador of India to Peru. Step 3: Recognise that Yashvardhan Kumar Sinha has held other important roles, including positions related to the United Kingdom and later as Chief Information Commissioner, not Peru in this context. Step 4: Note that Dr Rizal Sukma is a diplomat associated with Indonesia, not with Indian diplomatic postings. Step 5: Understand that Sandeep Chakravorty has served in other ambassadorial roles, including in Latin America, but the specific combination in the question points to M. Subbarayudu for Peru. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, candidates often refer to standard current affairs compilations, which list recent ambassadorial appointments. Peru is not among the most frequently mentioned countries, so making a mental connection between Peru and M. Subbarayudu as India's envoy helps fix the information. Cross checking that the other names are associated with different positions or countries reassures that the selected answer is correct. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Yashvardhan Kumar Sinha: Known for other high profile postings and later administrative roles in India, but not as the Ambassador to Peru in the context of this question. Dr Rizal Sukma: An Indonesian diplomat and analyst, not an officer of the Indian Foreign Service, so he cannot be India's ambassador. Sandeep Chakravorty: An Indian diplomat who has served in various capacities, but not the specific appointment referenced here with Peru for this question. Common Pitfalls: Students may recognise some of the names but fail to specifically remember which country each one was associated with, leading to random guessing. Another pitfall is to be confused by foreign sounding names and assume they represent India, when they may actually be nationals of other countries. To avoid such mistakes, it helps to make short association notes like "Subbarayudu – Peru" during current affairs revision, so that these links are clear in memory. Final Answer: The person appointed as the next Ambassador of India to Peru is M. Subbarayudu.

Question 12

Mathura Refinery, which was commissioned in 1982 with a capacity of 6.0 MMTPA, is the how many th refinery of Indian Oil Corporation?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Indian Oil Corporation has established several refineries across India to meet the growing demand for petroleum products. Each refinery has a specific commissioning year and order in the sequence of refineries set up by the company. Mathura Refinery, located in Uttar Pradesh, is one of the major refineries that came into operation in the early 1980s. This question asks you to recall which numbered refinery of Indian Oil Mathura Refinery was when it was commissioned in 1982 with a capacity of 6.0 million metric tonnes per annum (MMTPA). Given Data / Assumptions: Mathura Refinery was commissioned in 1982. Its initial capacity was 6.0 MMTPA. We are asked which number refinery of Indian Oil it was (5th, 6th, 7th, or 8th). Basic knowledge of Indian Oil's refinery timeline is assumed. Concept / Approach: Indian Oil first set up refineries at locations like Guwahati, Barauni, Koyali, Haldia, and others before Mathura. By the time Mathura Refinery was commissioned, it became the sixth refinery in the sequence of Indian Oil refineries. This specific fact is often highlighted in company profiles and competitive exam material. Therefore, when the question links Mathura Refinery, the year 1982, and the capacity with a blank for which number refinery it was, the correct completion is that it was the sixth refinery of Indian Oil Corporation. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that the question is about the order in which Indian Oil refineries were commissioned. Step 2: Recall that Mathura Refinery started operation in 1982 with a capacity of 6.0 MMTPA. Step 3: From standard company and exam notes, remember that Mathura Refinery is described as the sixth refinery of Indian Oil. Step 4: Match this memory with the options provided: 5th, 6th, 7th, or 8th. Step 5: Select 6th refinery of Indian Oil as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by mentally listing early Indian Oil refineries: Guwahati, Barauni, Koyali, Haldia, and others, before Mathura. Company publications and fact sheets often state explicitly that Mathura Refinery was the sixth refinery of Indian Oil. Checking this association in any reliable reference confirms that the correct option is 6th, not 5th, 7th, or 8th. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 7th refinery of Indian Oil: Does not match the commonly documented sequence in which refineries were set up. 5th refinery of Indian Oil: Understates the number of refineries already in existence before Mathura was commissioned. 8th refinery of Indian Oil: Overstates the sequence and does not align with standard references regarding Mathura's order. Common Pitfalls: Because several refineries were set up over a few decades, some candidates find it difficult to remember the exact order and may guess. Another pitfall is confusing the number of refineries overall with Mathura's position in that sequence. To avoid such confusion, it helps to memorise a few key identifying facts, such as "Mathura – commissioned 1982 – sixth refinery of Indian Oil." This compact association aids quick recall during exams. Final Answer: Mathura Refinery, commissioned in 1982 with a capacity of 6.0 MMTPA, is the 6th refinery of Indian Oil.

Question 13

In India, the main harvesting season for Kharif crops generally falls during which of the following periods?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Understanding agricultural seasons is essential for both geography and economics sections of competitive exams. In India, crops are broadly classified into Kharif and Rabi based on the monsoon cycle and sowing and harvesting periods. Kharif crops are typically sown with the onset of the southwest monsoon and harvested later in the year. This question asks about the main harvesting window for Kharif crops, which include staples such as rice, maize, and cotton in many regions. Given Data / Assumptions: The question concerns Kharif crops in India. We must identify the period that corresponds to the main harvesting season. Options provide different month ranges: January to March, February to April, September to October, and November to January. Standard Indian agricultural calendar is assumed. Concept / Approach: Kharif crops are usually sown at the beginning of the monsoon season, roughly between June and July, depending on the onset of rains. They grow during the rainy season and are typically ready for harvest in the early autumn months. In most parts of India, the main harvesting period for Kharif crops falls in September and October. Rabi crops, by contrast, are sown in the winter and harvested in spring, roughly from March to April. Therefore, among the options given, September to October correctly represents the Kharif harvesting season. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Kharif crops are sown with the onset of the southwest monsoon, usually around June and July. Step 2: Understand that these crops grow during the monsoon months and mature as the monsoon withdraws. Step 3: Identify that the harvesting period for Kharif crops typically occurs in early autumn, mainly September and October. Step 4: Compare this information with the given options and locate the matching period. Step 5: Conclude that September to October is the correct harvesting window for Kharif crops. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify the answer by recalling specific crop examples. Paddy grown as a Kharif crop in many states is commonly harvested between September and October. Likewise, crops like cotton and maize also fit this pattern in large parts of the country. Meanwhile, Rabi crops like wheat are not harvested until around March or April, which confirms that winter and spring months belong to the Rabi cycle, not Kharif. Why Other Options Are Wrong: January to March: This period mainly coincides with the late growth and harvest of Rabi crops, not Kharif crops. February to April: Also aligned with the harvest of Rabi crops such as wheat, not the monsoon dependent Kharif crops. November to January: This is more of a late harvesting or planting period for certain crops but does not reflect the main Kharif harvesting season in most of India. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse Kharif and Rabi seasons, especially if they memorise only crop names rather than the sowing and harvesting months. Another pitfall is to assume that harvesting always follows immediately after monsoon ends, without considering regional variations. The safest strategy is to remember the general pattern: Kharif crops are harvested around September and October, while Rabi crops are harvested around March and April. Final Answer: The main harvesting season for Kharif crops in India falls during September to October.

Question 14

Which of the following animals is officially recognised as the state animal of Andhra Pradesh?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Many Indian states have designated official symbols such as a state animal, state bird, state flower, and state tree. These symbols reflect the state's natural heritage and cultural identity. Questions about state symbols often appear in general knowledge examinations. This question asks specifically about the state animal of Andhra Pradesh, one of the large states in southern India. Given Data / Assumptions: The state in question is Andhra Pradesh. Four animals are listed: Mithun, Ox, One horned rhinoceros, and Blackbuck. We must identify which of these has been officially recognised as the state animal. Standard references on Indian state symbols are assumed. Concept / Approach: The Blackbuck, a graceful antelope with spiral horns, is associated with the dry grasslands and scrublands of India and has cultural significance in several states. Andhra Pradesh has officially adopted the Blackbuck as its state animal. Mithun is the state animal of Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland; the one horned rhinoceros is associated with Assam; and the generic term Ox does not specifically match any state animal symbol in this context. Therefore, the correct answer for Andhra Pradesh is the Blackbuck. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Focus on the state mentioned: Andhra Pradesh. Step 2: Recall that the Blackbuck is prominently associated with Andhra Pradesh as its state animal. Step 3: Match each other option with states more commonly linked to them: Mithun with north eastern states and the one horned rhinoceros with Assam. Step 4: Note that "Ox" is too general a term and is not commonly stated as a specific state animal. Step 5: Choose Blackbuck as the correct option representing Andhra Pradesh's state animal. Verification / Alternative check: A quick way to verify is to recall that the Blackbuck figures in several government emblems, conservation projects, and tourism materials related to Andhra Pradesh. It is also featured in wildlife sanctuaries in the region. On the other hand, Mithun and the one horned rhinoceros are clearly tied to other states geographically and culturally, reinforcing that Blackbuck is the correct match for Andhra Pradesh. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Mithun: Recognised as a state animal in north eastern states like Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland, not in Andhra Pradesh. Ox: A general term for a working cattle animal and not recognised as Andhra Pradesh's specific state animal symbol. One horned rhinoceros: Strongly associated with Assam and its famous national parks, not with Andhra Pradesh. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes mix up state symbols, especially when they study them in bulk for all states at once. Another pitfall is to guess based on which animal seems more exotic or rare, rather than recalling the actual official designation. Creating a small table linking each state with its key symbols, and revising it regularly, helps prevent such confusion in the exam. Final Answer: The state animal officially recognised by Andhra Pradesh is the Blackbuck.

Question 15

The World Economic Outlook (WEO), a regular survey and analysis of the global economy, is published by which international organisation?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The World Economic Outlook, often abbreviated as WEO, is a widely cited document in economics and international affairs. It provides forecasts and analysis of the global economy, including growth projections, inflation trends, and policy recommendations. Knowing which international institution publishes the WEO is a common general awareness requirement for exams covering economics and international organisations. Given Data / Assumptions: The document in question is the World Economic Outlook (WEO). It is a regular survey or report on the world economy. Options include the World Trade Organisation, the World Bank, the International Monetary Fund, and the New Development Bank. We assume standard knowledge of the roles of these institutions. Concept / Approach: The International Monetary Fund, commonly referred to as IMF, is responsible for global financial stability, macroeconomic surveillance, and policy advice. The WEO is one of its flagship publications, released at least twice a year, offering detailed analysis and forecasts of the global economic situation. The World Bank issues reports like the World Development Report, the WTO focuses on trade agreements and dispute settlement, and the New Development Bank is a newer institution associated with BRICS that has its own set of publications but is not known for the WEO. Thus, the correct organisation associated with the World Economic Outlook is the IMF. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that the World Economic Outlook (WEO) is an economic forecast report. Step 2: Recall that the International Monetary Fund monitors global economic performance and publishes major macroeconomic forecasts. Step 3: Remember that the IMF specifically issues the WEO several times a year, often around its Spring and Autumn meetings. Step 4: Compare this with the roles of the World Bank, WTO, and New Development Bank, which have different flagship reports. Step 5: Conclude that the WEO is a publication of the International Monetary Fund. Verification / Alternative check: If you recall news coverage of global economic forecasts, they frequently mention "IMF's World Economic Outlook" when discussing growth projections for countries like India, China, or the United States. In contrast, references to the World Bank often mention the World Development Report or country specific development reports. This consistent pairing in media and official statements confirms that WEO belongs to the IMF. Why Other Options Are Wrong: World Trade Organisation (WTO): Primarily deals with global trade rules and agreements and is not known for a publication named World Economic Outlook. World Bank: Issues reports like the World Development Report and various country economic updates, not the WEO. New Development Bank: A multilateral development bank set up by BRICS countries, and not the publisher of the long established WEO report. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to confuse the roles of the World Bank and the IMF, as both are Bretton Woods institutions concerned with economic issues. Another pitfall is to assume that any economic sounding report comes from the World Bank because of its development focus. To avoid this, students should memorise key pairings: WEO with IMF, World Development Report with World Bank, and World Trade Report with WTO. Final Answer: The World Economic Outlook (WEO) is published by the International Monetary Fund (IMF).

Question 16

Digital wallet company Paytm has launched the "Paytm Money" app for mutual fund investments. The platform allows systematic investment plans (SIPs) starting at what minimum amount per month?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: With the growth of fintech in India, several digital platforms now allow small investors to invest in mutual funds through systematic investment plans (SIPs). Paytm Money is one such app developed by the Paytm group, aimed at making mutual fund investing simple and affordable. A key selling point of such platforms is the very low minimum amount required to start investing. This question tests your knowledge of the minimum monthly SIP amount allowed on Paytm Money when it was introduced. Given Data / Assumptions: The platform mentioned is "Paytm Money", a mutual fund investment app by Paytm. The question asks about the minimum SIP amount per month. Options list Rs 50, Rs 100, Rs 500, and Rs 1,000. We assume familiarity with basic fintech and personal finance news. Concept / Approach: Paytm Money aimed to attract first time and small investors by allowing them to start SIPs with a very low contribution. At launch, it highlighted that investors could start SIPs with as little as Rs 100 per month. This feature distinguished it from traditional channels where minimums were often higher. Rs 50 per month is even lower than the advertised threshold, and Rs 500 or Rs 1,000 per month are more typical of older minimum requirements, not the special low entry point that Paytm Money emphasized. Thus, the correct minimum monthly SIP amount in the context of this question is Rs 100. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Paytm Money positioned itself as a low entry fintech platform for mutual funds. Step 2: Remember that most news articles and official statements highlighted that SIPs could be started for as little as Rs 100 per month. Step 3: Compare this with traditional SIP minimums of Rs 500 or more that existed earlier in many schemes. Step 4: Recognise that Rs 50 is lower than the commonly publicised threshold and is not the standard figure quoted for Paytm Money's minimum SIP. Step 5: Conclude that Rs 100 per month is the correct minimum amount for SIPs on Paytm Money. Verification / Alternative check: When revising for exams, you may recall headlines that read along the lines of "Paytm Money allows SIPs from Rs 100 per month." Such headlines are designed to emphasise the low barrier to entry and therefore are easy to remember. Cross check that Rs 500 and Rs 1,000 are older conventional minimums in many schemes and that Paytm Money's differentiator was going below those, settling at Rs 100. This helps verify the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Rs 50 per month: Although theoretically possible in some contexts, this figure is not the commonly advertised minimum for SIPs on Paytm Money and does not match the key marketing message. Rs 500 per month: This is a traditional minimum in many mutual fund SIPs but does not reflect the special low entry feature of Paytm Money. Rs 1,000 per month: Represents an even higher threshold and contradicts the core idea of small ticket investing encouraged by Paytm Money. Common Pitfalls: The main pitfall is guessing a rounded higher amount like Rs 500 or Rs 1,000 because they seem more conventional, ignoring the specific low barrier strategy of fintech apps. Another mistake is to assume an unrealistically low number like Rs 50 without recalling what was actually promoted in the news. Being attentive to such details in financial awareness topics and connecting them with the business model of fintech platforms helps avoid errors. Final Answer: The Paytm Money platform allows SIP investments starting at a minimum of Rs 100 per month.

Question 17

Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) in India function under the administrative control of which of the following central ministries?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Central Public Sector Enterprises, often abbreviated as PSEs or PSUs, play a major role in India's industrial and economic development. While individual enterprises may fall under different line ministries depending on their sector, there is a dedicated ministry that oversees the overall policy framework and administration related to public enterprises. This question asks which central ministry has that overarching responsibility for Public Sector Enterprises in India. Given Data / Assumptions: The question is about Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) at the central level. Four ministries are listed: Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises, Environment and Forest, Personnel and Public Grievances, and Corporate Affairs. We assume standard government of India ministerial structure. Concept / Approach: Historically, the Department of Public Enterprises has been placed under the Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises. This ministry handles matters relating to PSE policy, performance evaluation, disinvestment guidelines, and coordination for central public enterprises. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change focuses on environmental regulation, the Ministry of Personnel deals with administrative reforms and personnel management, and the Ministry of Corporate Affairs regulates private corporate entities and company law. Therefore, the correct administrative home for Public Sector Enterprises in the options provided is the Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Focus on the phrase "Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs)" and recall which central ministry includes the Department of Public Enterprises. Step 2: Remember that the Department of Public Enterprises has traditionally been placed under the Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises. Step 3: Compare this with the other ministries in the options and note their primary areas of responsibility. Step 4: Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change focuses on environmental policies, not PSE administration. Step 5: Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions is concerned with civil services, not directly with corporate public sector enterprises. Step 6: Ministry of Corporate Affairs mainly regulates the private corporate sector through company law, rather than overseeing central PSE policy. Step 7: Conclude that the correct answer is the Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises. Verification / Alternative check: When reading government organisational charts or budget documents, Public Sector Enterprises and the Department of Public Enterprises are listed under the Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises. Additionally, policy documents mentioning disinvestment, performance evaluation, or Navratna and Maharatna status typically cite this ministry, confirming the administrative linkage between PSEs and this specific ministry. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change: Deals with environmental policies, forest management, and climate change agreements, not PSE oversight. Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions: Handles issues related to civil services, administrative reforms, and grievance redressal, not directly the management of public enterprises. Ministry of Corporate Affairs: Regulates private companies and corporate governance frameworks but does not serve as the primary nodal ministry for central PSEs. Common Pitfalls: Students may confuse the role of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs with that of the ministry responsible for PSEs because both deal with corporate entities. Another pitfall is to ignore the word "Public" and assume all company related topics fall under Corporate Affairs. To avoid this, it helps to remember that "Public Enterprises" in the central government context are usually associated with Heavy Industries and its Department of Public Enterprises. Final Answer: Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) in India function under the administrative control of the Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises.

Question 18

Cheques, drafts, pay orders and banker’s cheques issued by banks in India are generally valid for how many months from the date of the instrument?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Banking awareness is a key component of many competitive exams, especially those related to finance and banking jobs. One important detail is the validity period of negotiable instruments such as cheques, drafts, pay orders and banker’s cheques. The Reserve Bank of India has prescribed a standard validity period, after which these instruments become stale and are normally not honoured by banks. This question asks for the duration, in months, for which such instruments are considered valid from the date they are drawn. Given Data / Assumptions: The instruments mentioned are cheques, drafts, pay orders and banker’s cheques. We are asked about their general validity period counted from the date of issue. Options provided are 4 months, 1 month, 6 months, and 3 months. Standard RBI guidelines applicable in India are assumed. Concept / Approach: The Reserve Bank of India has clarified that cheques, drafts, pay orders and banker’s cheques are normally valid for three months from the date mentioned on the instrument. Earlier, longer validity periods were common, but RBI guidelines shortened them to three months to reduce the risk of fraud and misuse. After this period, such instruments are termed "stale" and are not usually paid by banks without revalidation. Therefore, among the given options, three months from the date of the instrument is the correct validity period. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify the instruments covered: cheques, drafts, pay orders and banker’s cheques. Step 2: Recall RBI instructions that standardise the validity of these instruments. Step 3: Remember that under these guidelines, the validity period is three months from the date mentioned on the instrument. Step 4: Compare with the options given: 1 month, 3 months, 4 months and 6 months. Step 5: Choose 3 months from the date as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, recall that many bank forms and instructions clearly state that cheques are "valid for three months only" from the date of issue. Bank staff are trained to treat cheques presented after this period as stale. Exam preparation books on banking awareness also emphasise this reduced validity period, making three months a very familiar figure to banking aspirants. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 4 months from the date: Not consistent with the current RBI guideline, which sets three months as the standard period. 1 month from the date: Too short and not supported by RBI's general policy for these instruments. 6 months from the date: This was a common validity period historically in some contexts, but RBI has specifically reduced it to three months, so six months is now outdated. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may remember older practices or informal statements suggesting longer validity and thus incorrectly choose six months. Others may mix up the three month period with different timelines for other banking processes, such as fixed deposit interest calculations or account dormancy rules. To avoid these errors, it is useful to create a simple note that states: "Cheques, drafts, pay orders and banker’s cheques – validity three months from date of instrument." This precise wording helps cement the correct period in your memory. Final Answer: Cheques, drafts, pay orders and banker’s cheques are generally valid for 3 months from the date of the instrument.

Question 19

As per the guidelines of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), payments banks can accept demand deposits (savings and current account balances) up to a maximum of how much per customer?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Payments banks are a special category of banks introduced by the Reserve Bank of India to promote financial inclusion by providing small savings accounts and payments or remittance services to people who may not have access to full commercial banking. A common exam question asks about the maximum amount of demand deposits that a payments bank is allowed to hold per customer under RBI guidelines. Given Data / Assumptions: We are referring to the original regulatory framework for payments banks issued by the Reserve Bank of India. Demand deposits include savings account and current account balances. The limit is specified per individual customer, not per account type. The options are various rupee amounts that might be prescribed as a cap. Concept / Approach: The RBI designed payments banks to handle small ticket transactions and basic banking, not large volume credit or investment activity. To limit risk and keep the model focused on payments and inclusion, the RBI prescribed a maximum end-of-day balance per customer. Therefore, we answer the question by recalling that original cap. Later, RBI enhanced this limit, but for exam and static general knowledge, the figure generally tested is the original one lakh rupees ceiling. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the licensing guidelines for payments banks set a cap on the end-of-day customer balance.Step 2: Under those guidelines, a payments bank could accept demand deposits up to Rs 1,00,000 per customer.Step 3: This limit applied to the combined balances in savings and current accounts of that customer in that particular payments bank.Step 4: Compare this remembered limit with the options given: Rs 1,00,000 matches exactly.Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is Rs 1,00,000 per customer. Verification / Alternative check: Many static banking awareness notes and RBI documents on payments banks mention that they can accept demand deposits up to Rs 1,00,000 per customer. Later, RBI increased the permissible limit to Rs 2,00,000, but exam questions based on the original guidelines specifically expect the earlier figure of one lakh rupees. Cross-checking multiple exam memory-based papers confirms that Rs 1,00,000 is the intended answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Rs 2,00,000: This reflects a later enhanced limit and is not the figure used in the original guidelines on which such static GK questions are based. Rs 50,000: This amount is too low and does not match any major RBI cap for payments bank customer balances. Rs 5,00,000: This would defeat the purpose of keeping payments banks limited to small deposits and would increase risk. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes confuse updated regulatory limits with the values that were originally notified and that are still widely tested in exams. Another frequent mistake is to mix up different financial inclusion schemes such as small finance banks, payments banks and schemes like Jan Dhan accounts, each of which has its own deposit or overdraft limits. To avoid confusion, it helps to memorise the original one lakh rupees cap for payments banks separately from later revisions. Final Answer: The maximum demand deposits that a payments bank could accept per customer under the original RBI guidelines was Rs 1,00,000.

Question 20

IRDAI has directed all third-party motor insurance providers to include compulsory personal accident cover for vehicle owner-drivers of all vehicles (two-wheelers, three-wheelers, passenger vehicles and commercial vehicles) for an additional annual …

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) issues guidelines to protect policyholders and standardise insurance coverage. One important reform was the enhancement of compulsory personal accident cover for owner-drivers under motor insurance policies. Examinations often ask about the fixed additional premium that had to be charged for this increased protection. Given Data / Assumptions: The directive applies to all third-party motor insurance policies. The cover is for owner-drivers of all types of vehicles including two-wheelers, three-wheelers, passenger cars and commercial vehicles. The question is about the extra premium payable for this compulsory personal accident cover. The period of cover is one policy year. Concept / Approach: IRDAI mandated a uniform compulsory personal accident cover of a higher sum insured for all owner-drivers so that, in case of accidental death or disability, there is a reasonable financial cushion. Instead of leaving the premium to individual insurers, the regulator prescribed a fixed amount. To answer, we recall that this amount was Rs 750 per annum for a personal accident sum insured of Rs 15 lakh for the owner-driver. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that the question refers to compulsory personal accident cover attached to third-party motor policies.Step 2: Recall the IRDAI guideline that enhanced the sum insured to Rs 15 lakh for owner-drivers.Step 3: Remember that IRDAI fixed the additional annual premium for this cover at Rs 750.Step 4: Compare Rs 750 with the given options: Rs 500, Rs 750, Rs 10,000 and Rs 1,000.Step 5: Conclude that Rs 750 is the correct premium amount. Verification / Alternative check: Regulatory circulars and banking awareness notes summarising IRDAI's decision clearly mention that the standard premium for compulsory personal accident cover for owner-drivers was set at Rs 750 per annum. This figure appears consistently in exam preparation material, confirming that Rs 750 is the intended answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Rs 500: This amount is lower than the prescribed standard and relates to older, lower-cover structures. Rs 10,000: This is far too high for a standardised regulatory premium and is unrealistic for mass motor insurance. Rs 1,000: Although closer, IRDAI explicitly fixed the amount at Rs 750, not Rs 1,000. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes confuse voluntary personal accident covers with compulsory ones. Voluntary covers may have different sums insured and premiums, which introduces multiple numbers into memory. There can also be confusion between one-time premiums for long-term policies and annual premiums. To avoid mistakes, it is useful to remember the specific trio: compulsory personal accident cover, sum insured of about Rs 15 lakh, and a fixed additional premium of Rs 750 per year. Final Answer: The additional premium for compulsory personal accident cover for owner-drivers under third-party motor insurance policies was Rs 750 per year.

Basic General Knowledge Questions