Question 1

Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly of India are correct?  1. The Constituent Assembly was elected indirectly by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies.  2. The elections to the Constituent Assembly wer…

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Introduction / Context: The Constituent Assembly of India was the body that drafted and adopted the Constitution of independent India. Understanding how this Assembly was formed is an important topic in Indian polity and history. Examinations often ask candidates to identify which statements about its composition and election are historically accurate. This question presents four detailed statements and asks you to select the correct combination, so you must know the key facts about how the Assembly was elected and which plans or missions guided that process. Given Data / Assumptions: Statement 1 says that members of the Constituent Assembly were elected indirectly by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies. Statement 2 claims that the elections were held on the basis of universal adult franchise. Statement 3 states that the scheme of election was laid down by the Cabinet Mission. Statement 4 states that the distribution of seats was done according to the Mountbatten Plan. We assume standard textbook facts about the Constituent Assembly as accepted in Indian constitutional history. Concept / Approach: The correct approach is to evaluate each statement individually. You should recall that the Constituent Assembly was created under the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946. Members were elected by Provincial Legislative Assemblies, not directly by all adult citizens, so the franchise was limited. You should also remember that the Mountbatten Plan mainly dealt with the partition and transfer of power and did not lay down the original distribution of seats in the Constituent Assembly. By matching each statement with these known facts, you can mark which statements are true and then choose the correct option containing only those statements. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Evaluate Statement 1. Members of the Constituent Assembly were indeed elected indirectly by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies. Therefore, Statement 1 is correct. Step 2: Evaluate Statement 2. The elections were not based on universal adult franchise. Only a limited electorate, mainly comprising members elected to the Provincial Legislative Assemblies under the Government of India Act 1935, participated. Therefore, Statement 2 is incorrect. Step 3: Evaluate Statement 3. The Cabinet Mission of 1946 put forward the plan and scheme of election for the Constituent Assembly. Hence, Statement 3 is correct. Step 4: Evaluate Statement 4. The Mountbatten Plan, presented in 1947, was mainly about partition and transfer of power, not the original seat distribution. The distribution of seats was decided under the Cabinet Mission Plan, not the Mountbatten Plan. Therefore, Statement 4 is incorrect. Step 5: Combine the results. Only Statements 1 and 3 are correct, so the correct option is the one that lists 1 and 3 only. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by recalling the timeline. The Cabinet Mission came to India in 1946, before independence, and proposed the creation of a constituent body elected indirectly by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies. Universal adult franchise was first introduced for Lok Sabha elections after the Constitution came into force, not for the Constituent Assembly. The Mountbatten Plan was presented later in 1947 and did not provide the original election scheme for the Assembly. These chronological facts confirm that Statements 1 and 3 are correct while Statements 2 and 4 are not. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 1 only: This ignores the fact that Statement 3 is also correct, because the Cabinet Mission did lay down the election scheme. 1, 2 and 3 only: This incorrectly includes Statement 2, which is wrong because universal adult franchise was not used. 1, 2, 3 and 4: This treats all statements as correct, which contradicts the historical record of limited franchise and the distinct role of the Mountbatten Plan. Common Pitfalls: A common error is to assume that any body related to the Constitution must have been elected by universal adult franchise, because that is how democratic elections normally work today. Another pitfall is confusion between the Cabinet Mission Plan and the Mountbatten Plan, since both are associated with the final years of British rule. Candidates sometimes mix up the functions of these two plans and assume that the later Mountbatten Plan must have fixed all details, including seat distribution. Careful attention to dates and the specific role of each plan helps avoid these mistakes. Final Answer: The correct statements regarding the Constituent Assembly of India are 1 and 3 only.

Question 2

Which one of the following statements about the use of potassium bromate in prepackaged bread in India is not correct?

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Introduction / Context: Food safety is a major public health concern, and regulators often respond to scientific studies that highlight harmful additives. Potassium bromate was used in some prepackaged breads as a flour improver, but it has been scrutinised for its possible harmful effects. This question asks which statement about potassium bromate and related regulatory action in India is not correct. To answer, you must know both the findings of food safety studies and the scientific classification of potassium bromate. Given Data / Assumptions: A study by the Centre for Science and Environment reported that several bread brands tested positive for potassium bromate and potassium iodate. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) issued recommendations on this issue. The Union Government took regulatory action regarding potassium bromate as a food additive. Potassium bromate has a particular toxicological classification in scientific literature. Concept / Approach: The task is to identify which statement is factually incorrect. A sensible method is to recall the sequence of events. First, a non governmental organisation reported the presence of potassium bromate in bread. Then FSSAI examined the matter and recommended removal of potassium bromate from the list of permitted additives. Subsequently, the government accepted this recommendation and banned its use. Separately, potassium bromate is not mainly known as a neurotoxin; it is regarded as a possible human carcinogen. Therefore, you should compare each option with these facts and then pick the statement that misrepresents the nature of potassium bromate. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Consider Option A. It states that the Centre for Science and Environment found potassium bromate and potassium iodate in some bread brands. This is consistent with the widely reported study, so Option A is correct. Step 2: Consider Option B. FSSAI did recommend to the Health Ministry that potassium bromate should be removed from the list of permissible food additives. Therefore, Option B accurately reflects this recommendation. Step 3: Consider Option C. Following the recommendation and public concern, the Union Government banned the use of potassium bromate as a food additive. Hence, Option C is also correct. Step 4: Consider Option D. This calls potassium bromate a neurotoxin. In reality, it is considered a possible human carcinogen, associated mainly with cancer risk rather than with direct neurotoxicity. Therefore, this description is not correct. Step 5: Conclude that Option D is the only incorrect statement and is therefore the required answer. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by recalling that many news reports emphasised that potassium bromate was classified as a possible carcinogen by international agencies and that this classification prompted regulators to act, even though actual exposure levels through bread were still debated. There was no major discussion about neurotoxic effects such as damage to the nervous system. The policy action in India focused on the cancer risk, not on neurological problems. Checking each option against this memory reinforces that Options A, B and C describe real events and decisions, while Option D incorrectly labels the substance as a neurotoxin. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A: Correctly summarises the findings of a non governmental organisation study, so it is not the incorrect statement being asked for. Option B: Accurately describes the role of FSSAI in recommending removal of potassium bromate from the list of permitted additives, so it is a true statement. Option C: Reflects the actual government action to ban potassium bromate as a food additive. Hence it is also correct. Common Pitfalls: A typical mistake is to focus on the regulatory steps and assume that one of them is exaggerated or incorrect, while overlooking the scientific classification of the chemical. Candidates may also confuse different types of toxicity terminology; for example, mistaking carcinogenic (cancer causing) for neurotoxic (damaging to the nervous system). Another pitfall is to assume that the rare sounding statement must be correct and that the simpler policy related statements are more likely to be wrong, which can lead to the wrong choice if you do not recall the health risk category accurately. Final Answer: The statement about potassium bromate that is not correct is Potassium bromate is a neurotoxin.

Question 3

Which one of the following statements about the reusable launch vehicle developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is not correct?

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Introduction / Context: India has been developing a reusable launch vehicle to reduce the cost of access to space. The Indian Space Research Organisation conducted an important technology demonstration flight of a Reusable Launch Vehicle Technology Demonstrator. Since this was a landmark experiment, many examinations ask detailed factual questions about its key features. This question focuses on which statement about that reusable launch vehicle is not correct, so you must recall technical details such as launch site, altitude and type of booster. Given Data / Assumptions: The mission being referred to is the test of ISRO's Reusable Launch Vehicle Technology Demonstrator. Several features are described: date of launch, launch location, maximum altitude and booster type. Only one statement in the four options is factually incorrect. Exact day or month details are not as important as the overall correctness of the description. Concept / Approach: A good approach is to recall the basic profile of the Reusable Launch Vehicle Technology Demonstrator mission. The flight took place from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre at Sriharikota, used a solid fuel booster and reached an upper atmosphere altitude in the range of around 65 kilometres before beginning a guided descent. The mission tested reentry and landing characteristics rather than placing any satellite into orbit. By matching each option against these known facts, you can identify which description is technically wrong, even if some minor wording details differ from exact technical documents. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Analyse Option B. It states that the launch was from Satish Dhawan Space Centre at Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh. This is correct, as Sriharikota is the usual launch site for ISRO missions. Step 2: Analyse Option C. It mentions that the reusable launch vehicle climbed to a height of about 65 kilometres before steering back for landing. This description matches the widely reported mission profile, so this option is correct. Step 3: Analyse Option A. It states that in June 2016, ISRO successfully launched India's first reusable space vehicle. The mission actually took place around this period, and the key idea that ISRO successfully launched its first reusable space vehicle is correct for examination purposes, so this statement is broadly acceptable. Step 4: Analyse Option D. It claims that the vehicle was boosted by a rocket that contained liquid fuel. In reality, the booster used for the technology demonstrator was a solid propellant rocket stage, not a liquid fuel engine. Therefore, this statement is factually incorrect. Step 5: Conclude that Option D is the only incorrect statement and is therefore the required answer. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative check is to remember typical ISRO launch vehicles. Many early technology demonstrators favour solid propellant boosters because they are mechanically simpler and easier to handle for short experimental flights. The Reusable Launch Vehicle Technology Demonstrator was also designed to test winged reentry and autonomous navigation, not complex liquid fuel systems. Additionally, official mission summaries highlight that a solid booster carried the winged body to the upper atmosphere, after which the winged body performed a controlled descent. These points confirm that any statement describing the booster as a liquid fuel rocket is incorrect. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A: Though the exact month may differ in some sources, the key fact that ISRO successfully launched India's first reusable winged space vehicle in that period is true, so this is accepted as correct. Option B: Correctly identifies Satish Dhawan Space Centre at Sriharikota as the launch site. Option C: Correctly captures the approximate peak altitude and the fact that the vehicle automatically returned towards a landing after reaching that height. Common Pitfalls: Candidates often get confused between solid and liquid propellant stages because both types are used in different ISRO rockets. Another pitfall is to doubt the mission details such as the altitude or launch site, when these are actually standard for most Indian launches. Some examinees may also focus too much on the specific month mentioned instead of the broader correctness of the statement. For such factual science questions, it is wise to focus on clear technical aspects like type of fuel and launch location, which are unlikely to be ambiguous. Final Answer: The statement that is not correct about the reusable launch vehicle is that the vehicle was initially boosted by a rocket that contained liquid fuel.

Question 4

Which one of the following statements about the BrahMos missile and related organisations is not correct?

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Introduction / Context: BrahMos is one of the most important supersonic cruise missiles in the Indian arsenal and is frequently discussed in defence and current affairs sections of competitive examinations. It has been developed through Indo Russian collaboration and has been integrated on multiple platforms. This question asks which statement about BrahMos and related organisations is not correct, so you must know which institutions are actually responsible for developing the missile and which companies manufacture the aircraft on which it is mounted. Given Data / Assumptions: BrahMos is described as a supersonic cruise missile developed by India and Russia together. The name is said to be derived from the Brahmaputra and Moskva rivers. Indian scientists are reported to have integrated BrahMos on the Sukhoi-30 MKI fighter aircraft. One option claims that the Defence Research and Development Organisation manufactures the Sukhoi-30 MKI fighter. Only one of these statements needs to be identified as incorrect. Concept / Approach: The main concepts involved are basic facts about BrahMos and knowledge of which organisations design or manufacture specific defence platforms. BrahMos is a joint venture between India and Russia, and the name does indeed come from the Brahmaputra and Moskva rivers. The missile has been successfully integrated with the Sukhoi-30 MKI fighter aircraft used by the Indian Air Force. However, the Sukhoi-30 MKI is originally designed by the Russian Sukhoi Design Bureau and licence produced in India by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited. Defence Research and Development Organisation is a research and development agency, not the aircraft manufacturer. Recognising this mismatch allows you to identify the incorrect statement. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Check Option A. BrahMos is widely known as a supersonic cruise missile developed through an Indo Russian partnership, so this statement is correct. Step 2: Check Option B. The name BrahMos is indeed derived from the names of two rivers, Brahmaputra in India and Moskva in Russia. Therefore, this statement is also correct. Step 3: Check Option C. BrahMos has been integrated on several platforms, including ships and Sukhoi-30 MKI fighter aircraft, and Indian scientists have played a key role in this. Hence, this statement is correct. Step 4: Check Option D. It states that Defence Research and Development Organisation manufactures the Sukhoi-30 MKI fighter. In reality, the aircraft is designed by the Sukhoi Design Bureau and licence produced in India by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited, while Defence Research and Development Organisation focuses on research and development of defence technologies. Therefore, Option D is incorrect. Step 5: Conclude that the incorrect statement is the one that attributes manufacture of the Sukhoi-30 MKI to Defence Research and Development Organisation. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by recalling that all major Indian military aircraft such as Tejas, Jaguar and the licence built versions of Su-30 MKI, MiG-21 and others are produced by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited. Defence Research and Development Organisation works closely with Hindustan Aeronautics Limited and other organisations but is not the production agency for fighter aircraft. In contrast, BrahMos Aerospace is a joint venture company and represents cooperation between India and Russia, confirming that statements regarding the missile's joint origin and name are reliable. This cross check confirms that only Option D contains a factual error. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A: Correctly describes BrahMos as a supersonic cruise missile created through Indo Russian collaboration. Option B: Accurately explains the origin of the name BrahMos from the Brahmaputra and Moskva rivers. Option C: Correctly notes that the missile has been integrated with the Sukhoi-30 MKI fighter. Common Pitfalls: A typical mistake is to assume that Defence Research and Development Organisation directly manufactures all indigenous defence equipment simply because it is associated with many projects. Another pitfall is to overlook the distinction between design and manufacturing roles among different defence organisations. Some candidates may also confuse BrahMos Aerospace, the joint venture company, with Hindustan Aeronautics Limited or Defence Research and Development Organisation. Keeping track of each organisation's specific role helps you avoid such confusion. Final Answer: The statement that is not correct is that Defence Research and Development Organisation is the manufacturer of the Sukhoi-30 MKI fighter aircraft.

Question 5

In the Brihadeshvara Temple built by the Chola dynasty at Thanjavur, which form of Lord Shiva is most prominently represented in the temple's iconography and sculptural programme?

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Introduction / Context: The Brihadeshvara Temple at Thanjavur is one of the finest examples of Chola temple architecture and is dedicated to Lord Shiva. Beyond its towering vimana and grand scale, the temple is also significant for its rich sculptural programme, which emphasises particular forms of Shiva. Questions in history and art culture sections often ask about which specific aspects or forms of Shiva dominate the iconography of this temple. This question focuses on identifying that most prominent form. Given Data / Assumptions: The temple considered is the Brihadeshvara Temple built by the Chola ruler Rajaraja the First at Thanjavur. The options include different forms or aspects of Shiva: Harihara, Bhairava, Rudra and Tripurantaka. Only one of these forms is especially highlighted in the sculptural decoration of the temple. We assume familiarity with the basic iconography of major Chola temples. Concept / Approach: The approach is to recall which episodes or forms of Shiva were particularly favoured by the Cholas in their royal temples. Brihadeshvara Temple contains numerous reliefs showing Shiva in the form of Tripurantaka, the destroyer of the three cities of the demons. While many other forms of Shiva and other deities also appear, Tripurantaka as the heroic warrior figure is a recurring theme that reflects royal power and divine support for the king. By contrast, forms like Harihara, Bhairava and the more generic Rudra are not the central emphasis of this temple's iconographic programme. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Brihadeshvara Temple is a Shaivite temple with many depictions of Shiva in different aspects. Step 2: Understand that Chola rulers used temple art as a medium to project their royal power and victories, often linking themselves symbolically to powerful forms of Shiva. Step 3: Recognise that the form of Tripurantaka, in which Shiva destroys the three cities of the demons with a single arrow, is particularly associated with royal victory and cosmic dominance. Step 4: Note that this Tripurantaka motif is repeatedly represented in the temple's sculptural panels and therefore becomes the most prominent special form of Shiva in Brihadeshvara. Step 5: Compare with other options such as Harihara (a combined form of Shiva and Vishnu), Bhairava (a fierce form of Shiva) and the more general Rudra aspect, none of which dominates the temple visuals in the same way. Step 6: Conclude that Tripurantaka is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative check is to recall how standard art history and culture textbooks describe Brihadeshvara Temple. They typically mention the large number of sculptures showing Shiva with his bow attacking the three demon cities, emphasising the Tripurantaka aspect. While the temple certainly houses many other forms such as Nataraja or representations of other deities, the narrative panels associated with Tripurantaka stand out. Moreover, Harihara is more associated with some later temples and Bhairava images are more common in other contexts. This pattern confirms that Tripurantaka is the most prominent form in this specific temple. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Harihara: This is a combined form of Vishnu and Shiva, but it is not the main iconographic focus of Brihadeshvara Temple. Bhairava: Although Bhairava is a fierce aspect of Shiva found in some shrines and images, he is not the form that dominates the sculptural programme of this temple. Rudra: Rudra is an early Vedic name for Shiva, but the temple stresses more specific narrative forms rather than this broad aspect. Common Pitfalls: One common error is to choose Bhairava because candidates associate big, powerful temples with fierce forms of Shiva. Another pitfall is to overgeneralise and pick Rudra simply because it sounds like an ancient and important name. Some students may also confuse Tripurantaka with Nataraja, another famous form of Shiva that is widespread in Chola art but is not the specific focus mentioned in this question. Careful reading of standard temple art descriptions helps avoid these confusions. Final Answer: The most prominent form of Shiva represented in the Brihadeshvara Temple is Tripurantaka.

Question 6

The statement “If you feel that you are trapped in a black hole, do not give up. There is a way out.” was made by which of the following famous scientists?

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Introduction / Context: Inspirational quotations from scientists are often used to highlight both their scientific insights and their broader messages about hope and perseverance. The statement about being trapped in a black hole but still having a way out reflects deep thinking about black hole physics as well as an encouraging attitude toward life's difficulties. This question asks you to remember which scientist made this famous remark, connecting general knowledge of notable scientists with basic awareness of black hole research. Given Data / Assumptions: The quotation refers to feeling trapped in a black hole and encourages people not to give up. Black holes are strongly associated with modern theoretical physics and cosmology. The options include Albert Einstein, Stephen Hawking, C. V. Raman and Abdus Salam. Only one of these scientists is widely known for detailed work on black holes and for making such public statements. Concept / Approach: The key idea is to associate each scientist with their primary field of contribution. Albert Einstein developed the general theory of relativity which predicts black holes, but he was not known for making popular motivational remarks specifically about them. Stephen Hawking, on the other hand, became famous for his work on black hole radiation and for public lectures and books that translate complex ideas into accessible language. C. V. Raman was an Indian physicist best known for the Raman effect in optics. Abdus Salam was a theoretical physicist who worked on electroweak unification. Among these, Stephen Hawking clearly matches both the subject matter and the style of the quotation. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Connect the term black hole to the scientist most closely linked to black hole research in public awareness. This is Stephen Hawking, who studied black hole thermodynamics and Hawking radiation. Step 2: Consider the tone of the statement. It is both scientifically inspired and personally motivational, a style often found in Hawking's public talks and books. Step 3: Evaluate Albert Einstein. Although he laid the foundations for black hole theory, he rarely used black hole imagery in popular motivational quotes of this nature. Step 4: Evaluate C. V. Raman and Abdus Salam. Both were distinguished physicists, but neither is particularly associated with black hole imagery in popular culture or with making such statements about hope and escape from black holes. Step 5: Conclude that Stephen Hawking is the scientist who made this quotation. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this answer by recalling that Stephen Hawking frequently used black hole metaphors to discuss human resilience and the importance of not giving up despite disability or adversity. In interviews and public lectures, he spoke about how even black holes are not entirely black and that information can escape, drawing a parallel with personal challenges. None of the other listed scientists are known for such public use of black hole imagery as a metaphor for life. Therefore, this match between subject matter, style and the scientist's public persona confirms that the quotation belongs to Hawking. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Albert Einstein: Although he pioneered general relativity, he did not build his public image around black hole metaphors in the way described here. C. V. Raman: He is celebrated for his discovery in optics and for work in solid state physics, not for commentary on black holes. Abdus Salam: Known for his contributions to electroweak theory, he is also not associated with widely quoted statements about black holes and hope. Common Pitfalls: A frequent pitfall is to pick Albert Einstein because many students automatically associate any famous physics quotation with him. Another mistake is to ignore the specific reference to black holes and focus only on the inspirational tone, which could seem generic. To avoid such errors, it is important to connect the scientific content of the quote with the main field of the scientist's research and public engagements. In this case, that connection clearly points to Hawking. Final Answer: The quotation about not giving up when you feel trapped in a black hole was made by Stephen Hawking.

Question 7

Recently, the Government of India cleared a proposal for the production of 18 indigenous Dhanush artillery guns. These guns are to be produced in India by which of the following organisations?

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Introduction / Context: Artillery guns are a vital part of a country's defence capability, and indigenous production strengthens self reliance in defence. Dhanush is an indigenous artillery gun system which has been developed as an upgraded version of earlier guns. Competitive examinations often ask which Indian organisation is responsible for manufacturing such weapons. This question refers to the government decision to clear the production of 18 Dhanush guns and asks who will produce them in India. Given Data / Assumptions: The weapon system mentioned is the Dhanush artillery gun. The Government of India has approved the production of 18 such guns. The options include the Indian Army, US Army, Indian Ordnance Factory Board and a joint production by Indian and US armies. We assume standard information about Indian defence production structures. Concept / Approach: The concept needed is knowledge of defence production responsibilities in India. The Indian Army is the user of artillery guns but is not the organisation that manufactures them. The United States Army is not involved in producing Indian indigenous weapons. Instead, Indian Ordnance Factory Board, under the Department of Defence Production, is responsible for manufacturing many types of weapon systems including artillery. Earlier Bofors type howitzers were licence produced or upgraded by Ordnance Factory Board, and Dhanush evolved from this line of work. Therefore, the correct approach is to identify the production agency rather than the user. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify Dhanush as an indigenous artillery gun system introduced for the Indian Army. Step 2: Recall that manufacturing and production of artillery guns in India are handled by Indian Ordnance Factory Board and its associated factories, not by the army itself. Step 3: Recognise that the US Army could not be responsible for producing an indigenous Indian artillery gun for India. Step 4: Note that a joint production line between Indian and US armies is not the standard arrangement for this gun, which is based on indigenous upgrades of earlier systems. Step 5: Conclude that Indian Ordnance Factory Board is the organisation designated to produce the 18 Dhanush guns. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by recalling that Ordnance Factory Board and its constituent ordnance factories have historically produced a wide variety of guns, ammunition and armoured vehicles for the Indian armed forces. They were also involved in modernising earlier Bofors gun designs, from which Dhanush has emerged as an upgraded indigenous system. Official announcements about acceptance of Dhanush into the army also refer to Ordnance Factory Board as the production agency. Since the Indian Army only operates the guns, not manufactures them, and foreign armies are clearly not involved in indigenous production, the choice of Indian Ordnance Factory Board is consistent with how defence production works in India. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Indian Army: The army is the user of the artillery guns on the battlefield, but it does not run the factories that build them. US Army: This foreign army is not involved in producing an indigenous Indian artillery system for the Indian government. Indian and US Army jointly: There is no such joint army production arrangement for Dhanush; collaboration, if any, would be between governments and industrial partners, not between armies as producers. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to conflate the operator of a weapon system with its manufacturer. Many candidates see the word artillery and immediately pick Indian Army because they imagine who uses the guns rather than who builds them. Another pitfall is to be distracted by the mention of the US Army and to think of earlier Bofors controversies or foreign deals, even though Dhanush is an indigenous upgrade. Remembering the clear separation between user and manufacturer helps avoid such confusion. Final Answer: The 18 indigenous Dhanush artillery guns are to be produced in India by the Indian Ordnance Factory Board.

Question 8

Which of the following statements about the philosopher Adi Shankara is or are true?  1. Shankara espoused a form of Vedanta philosophy called Advaita.  2. He elaborated on and systematised the philosophy of Gaudapada.  3. Shankara tried to demonstr…

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Adi Shankara is one of the most influential philosophers in the Indian tradition of Vedanta. His work shaped the development of Advaita Vedanta and had a lasting impact on Indian religious thought. Examinations in history, philosophy and religion often ask about the key features of his doctrine and his institutional legacy. This question presents four statements about Shankara and asks which of them are true, so you must evaluate each statement carefully according to standard historical understanding. Given Data / Assumptions: Statement 1 says that Shankara espoused a form of Vedanta called Advaita. Statement 2 states that he elaborated on the philosophy of Gaudapada. Statement 3 says that he tried to show that the Upanishads and Brahmasutras contain a single systematic philosophy. Statement 4 attributes the founding of the Amnaya Mathas to him. We assume generally accepted scholarly views on Shankara's life and contributions. Concept / Approach: To answer, you need to distinguish between doctrinal contributions and institutional traditions that may have developed around his name. Shankara is universally recognised as the systematiser of Advaita Vedanta, and his commentaries on the Brahmasutras and Upanishads argue that they teach a single non dual philosophy. He builds on earlier thinkers such as Gaudapada, whose work on the Mandukya Karika anticipates some Advaitic ideas. However, the traditional belief that Shankara founded four Amnaya Mathas in different corners of India is not accepted equally by all historians; some see it as a later construction and not as firmly proven historical fact. Examinations based on standard academic sources sometimes treat this fourth statement as less firmly established. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Evaluate Statement 1. Shankara is best known as the principal exponent of Advaita Vedanta, the non dualist interpretation of the Upanishads. This statement is clearly true. Step 2: Evaluate Statement 2. Gaudapada wrote an important text called the Mandukya Karika, which contains early Advaitic ideas. Shankara drew on and further developed these ideas, so this statement is also true. Step 3: Evaluate Statement 3. Shankara wrote bhashyas (commentaries) on the Brahmasutras, Bhagavad Gita and major Upanishads. In these works he aimed to show that they all consistently teach the same non dual philosophy. Therefore, this statement is true. Step 4: Evaluate Statement 4. According to tradition, Shankara established four Mathas in Sringeri, Dvaraka, Puri and Badrinath. However, the historical evidence for his direct role in founding all these monastic centres is debated and not as strong as the evidence for his philosophical contributions. In many examination keys, this statement is treated as less reliably attested. Step 5: Based on standard examination practice, mark Statements 1, 2 and 3 as correct and treat Statement 4 as not necessarily accepted as historically certain. Step 6: Choose the option that lists Statements 1, 2 and 3 only. Verification / Alternative check: You can further verify Statements 1 to 3 by recalling that Advaita Vedanta is identified with Shankara in almost every introductory text, and his commentaries explicitly argue that the scriptural corpus is internally consistent when interpreted as teaching non dualism. Gaudapada is regularly mentioned as an intellectual predecessor whose ideas Shankara systematised. In contrast, discussions about the Mathas often mention that while tradition credits Shankara with founding them, modern historians do not always treat this as firmly proven. The question asks which statements are true in a firm sense, so it is safer to restrict the answer to Statements 1 to 3. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 1 and 2 only: This ignores the clearly true Statement 3 about Shankara's effort to show scriptural unity. 3 and 4: This combination wrongly excludes Statements 1 and 2, which are central to Shankara's identity as an Advaitin. 4 only: This treats the most debated statement as the only true one and is completely inconsistent with standard knowledge of Shankara. Common Pitfalls: Many candidates are tempted to accept all four statements as true because the idea of four Mathas is widely repeated in religious tradition. However, examination questions often require you to distinguish between doctrinal facts and institutional legends. Another pitfall is to overlook Gaudapada's role and to think that Shankara created Advaita entirely on his own, when in reality he built on earlier ideas. Finally, some students do not read carefully and assume that Statement 3 is trivial, but it is actually a central feature of his exegetical project. Final Answer: The statements about Adi Shankara that are firmly regarded as true are 1, 2 and 3.

Question 9

Why are the Gypsies (Roma people) generally regarded as being of Indian origin? Select the correct reason or reasons from the statements given below.  1. They follow Indian religious practices.  2. Their language, called Romani, is an Indo Aryan lan…

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Introduction / Context: The Gypsies, more properly called the Roma people, are a traditionally itinerant community found across Europe and other parts of the world. Many scholars consider them to be of Indian origin. General knowledge questions often ask what kind of evidence supports this view. This particular question lists several possible reasons and asks which one is actually recognised as a strong basis for their Indian origin. Given Data / Assumptions: Statement 1 says that the Roma follow Indian religious practices. Statement 2 states that their language, Romani, is an Indo Aryan language. Statement 3 says that they themselves believe that they came from India. Statement 4 claims that epigraphic evidence places their original home in Uttar Pradesh. You must select which statement or statements are accepted as valid reasons for regarding them as of Indian origin. Concept / Approach: The key evidence used by linguists and historians for tracing Roma origins is linguistic. Comparative studies of vocabulary, grammar and phonetics have shown that Romani is closely related to Indo Aryan languages such as Hindi, Punjabi and Rajasthani. This is considered strong scientific evidence for their South Asian origin. Their present day religious practices are very diverse and shaped by the regions where they now live, so Statement 1 is not reliable. Statement 3 is about self belief, which may vary and is not a strong scholarly basis. Statement 4 mentions epigraphic evidence from Uttar Pradesh, but there is no specific set of inscriptions that firmly and uniquely identify the Roma's origin in that way. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Evaluate Statement 1. Roma communities today follow a variety of religious traditions influenced by the majority populations around them, including Christianity and Islam. They do not simply follow Indian religious practices, so this statement is not a strong universal reason. Step 2: Evaluate Statement 2. Linguistic research shows that Romani belongs to the Indo Aryan branch of the Indo European language family and shares many features with North Indian languages. This is widely accepted evidence supporting their Indian origin, so this statement is correct. Step 3: Evaluate Statement 3. While some Roma groups may have oral traditions about coming from the East, self described beliefs are not consistent or scientifically decisive. This is not the primary reason used by scholars. Step 4: Evaluate Statement 4. There is no clear epigraphic inscription that uniquely identifies the Roma and traces them back to a specific region such as Uttar Pradesh, so this statement is not supported by standard academic sources. Step 5: Conclude that only Statement 2 stands as a firm and widely recognised basis for regarding the Roma as of Indian origin. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by recalling that most textbooks and reliable articles about Roma origins emphasise linguistic evidence. Comparative linguistics is a well established method in historical studies. When the structure and core vocabulary of Romani are compared with those of Indo Aryan languages, the similarities are too strong to be coincidental. In contrast, current religious practices are highly mixed and reflect centuries of living in Europe and elsewhere, so they do not provide a simple link back to India. Likewise, epigraphic and archaeological evidence for Roma origins is limited and not definitive. This confirms that Statement 2 stands out as the key piece of evidence. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 1 and 4 only: Both of these statements are weak or incorrect. Roma do not uniformly follow Indian religious practices, and there is no decisive epigraphic proof from Uttar Pradesh. 1, 2 and 4: This incorrectly includes Statements 1 and 4, which are not accepted scholarly reasons for their origin. 2 and 3: Although Statement 2 is correct, Statement 3 elevates community beliefs to a scientific reason, which is not how historians justify the claim. Common Pitfalls: A common error is to treat community beliefs or cultural stereotypes as evidence equal to systematic linguistic analysis. Another pitfall is to assume that there must be direct inscriptional or archaeological proof of every migration, even when such evidence does not exist. Candidates should also avoid confusing present day religious identity with distant ancestral origins; communities can change faith while retaining older linguistic features. Keeping these distinctions in mind helps in evaluating the statements more accurately. Final Answer: The main reason the Gypsies or Roma are regarded as being of Indian origin is that their language, Romani, is an Indo Aryan language, so the correct choice is Statement 2 only.

Question 10

In the context of pre modern Indian land revenue systems, the term Upari refers to which one of the following?

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Introduction / Context: Understanding historical land revenue and tenancy systems is essential for examinations in Indian history. Various terms were used in different regions and periods to describe landholders, tenants and officials. The term Upari appears in the context of Maratha administration and needs to be correctly interpreted. This question asks what Upari refers to, so you must recall how it was used in land revenue records and what kind of rights were associated with it. Given Data / Assumptions: The term Upari appears in historical sources related to land tenure. The options associate it with proprietary tenure, tenancy, military positions and local headmen. Only one option correctly reflects its meaning in the Maratha period. We assume standard interpretations of Maratha land revenue terminology. Concept / Approach: The key concept is the distinction between different types of land rights. In Maratha territories, there were hereditary landholders as well as tenants with more limited rights. The word Upari was used for tenants who cultivated land held by others, often on relatively insecure terms. Therefore, it is a category of tenancy tenure under the Maratha rule rather than a proprietary tenure, military rank or village office. Recognising that it fits into land revenue terminology rather than military or administrative titles helps eliminate the wrong options. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that Upari appears in discussions about agrarian relations and land revenue, suggesting a connection with land tenure rather than with soldiers or officials. Step 2: Evaluate Option A. Proprietary tenure under the Mughal rule is usually referred to by terms such as zamindar and jagirdar. Upari is not known as a Mughal proprietary category, so this option is incorrect. Step 3: Evaluate Option B. Historical studies of Maratha administration identify Upari as a tenant who cultivates land without full proprietary rights, which makes it a category of tenancy tenure under the Maratha rule. This matches the context in which the term is used. Step 4: Evaluate Option C. A soldier in the Maratha army would be referred to by other terms, such as silahdar or bargir, not Upari, so this option is incorrect. Step 5: Evaluate Option D. A village headman under the Mughals is often called a muqaddam or patel, not Upari, so this option is also incorrect. Step 6: Conclude that Option B is the only correct description of Upari. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this understanding by recalling that many texts on Maratha agrarian history describe Uparis as non hereditary tenants, sometimes paying rent to hereditary landholders or village communities. Their tenure is usually more precarious than that of pattadar or mirasdar landholders. In contrast, there is no widely recognised use of the term Upari to designate a specific military or administrative office. The consistent association of Upari with land cultivation and tenant status confirms that it belongs in the category of tenancy tenure. Why Other Options Are Wrong: A category of proprietary tenure under the Mughal rule: This misplaces the term both in period and in function, since Upari is discussed mainly for Maratha times and refers to tenants, not proprietors. A soldier in the Maratha army: Maratha military ranks do not use Upari as a standard term. A village headman in the Mughal period: This is another misplacement; village headmen had different titles and Upari is not used in this sense. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes guess based on superficial resemblance of terms without recalling the regional and temporal context. Because land revenue history involves many unfamiliar words, it is easy to confuse them with military titles. Another pitfall is to ignore the specific mention of the Maratha rule in standard explanations and to wrongly assume a Mughal connection. Keeping track of which terms belong to which dynasty and whether they denote owners, tenants or officials is crucial to answering such questions correctly. Final Answer: In the context of Maratha administration, Upari refers to a category of tenancy tenure under the Maratha rule.

Question 11

The “water frame” developed by Richard Arkwright during the Industrial Revolution was a device primarily used for which of the following purposes?

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Introduction / Context: The Industrial Revolution in Britain saw many technological inventions that transformed manufacturing. Richard Arkwright was a key figure in the textile industry, and his invention called the water frame played a crucial role in mechanising spinning. Examinations in world history often test knowledge of who invented which machine and what it did. This question asks about the primary purpose of Arkwright's water frame, so you must link the invention correctly to its function in textile production. Given Data / Assumptions: The device is called the water frame and is associated with Richard Arkwright. It emerged during the Industrial Revolution, especially in the textile sector. The options mention painting, irrigation, yarn production and faster steamship movement. We assume standard textbook information on early textile machinery. Concept / Approach: The water frame was a spinning machine powered by water that could produce stronger, more consistent yarn than earlier hand methods. It marked an important step from domestic hand spinning to factory based production. The correct approach is to recall that Arkwright's work focused on cotton spinning and that his machine used water power to drive rollers which stretched and twisted fibres into strong yarn. Therefore, among the options, the one referring to producing strong threads of yarn is the correct function. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Associate the name Richard Arkwright with early mechanised cotton spinning rather than with painting or irrigation. Step 2: Recall that the water frame used water power to drive spinning machinery in factories, which increased speed and strength of yarn production. Step 3: Evaluate Option C, which states that the device was used for producing strong threads of yarn. This matches the known function of the water frame. Step 4: Check the other options to ensure they do not describe the correct use. Painting, irrigation and steamship propulsion do not fit the context of Arkwright's activity in the cotton industry. Step 5: Conclude that the water frame was primarily used to produce strong threads of yarn. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by recalling the sequence of textile inventions. The spinning jenny, invented by James Hargreaves, allowed multiple spindles to be operated by hand. Arkwright's water frame took spinning into water powered factories, increasing the strength and uniformity of yarn. Later, Samuel Crompton combined features of the spinning jenny and water frame in the mule. None of these developments were about painting or steamships; they were all about textile spinning. This context reinforces that the water frame was a spinning machine for yarn. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Producing a new type of painting: This is unrelated to Arkwright and the industrial textile revolution. Irrigating fields for rice cultivation: Although water is in the name, the water frame does not relate to agricultural irrigation. Enabling faster movement of steamships: Steamship technology involves engines and hull design, not Arkwright's textile machinery. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to be misled by the word water and assume that the device is some sort of irrigation or hydraulic structure. Another pitfall is to forget that Arkwright was a key figure in cotton manufacturing, not in painting or shipbuilding. Candidates should link names, inventions and sectors carefully: water frame, Arkwright and spinning in the textile industry all belong together. Final Answer: The water frame of Richard Arkwright was a device used for producing strong threads of yarn.

Question 12

In ancient Indian classification of marriages, the Rakshasa type of marriage refers to which of the following forms?

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Introduction / Context: Ancient Indian texts such as the Dharmashastras describe several types of marriage, each with a specific name and set of characteristics. These categories are important for understanding social and religious norms in early Indian society. Competitive examinations often ask candidates to match the name of a marriage type with its definition. This question focuses on the Rakshasa type of marriage and asks what it involves. Given Data / Assumptions: The marriage type under discussion is called Rakshasa. The options describe marriage by purchase, by capture, by giving dowry and by seduction. We assume the conventional definitions as given in classical law books. The task is to identify the description that matches the Rakshasa form. Concept / Approach: In the Dharmashastras, Rakshasa marriage is described as a form in which the bride is taken by force, often associated with warriors in times of war. It literally suggests a violent seizure of the woman from her family, who may be killed or wounded in the process. This is distinct from other forms such as Asura (marriage by purchase), Arsha (marriage involving symbolic gifts) and Gandharva (marriage by mutual attraction or seduction). Therefore, the correct approach is to match Rakshasa with marriage by capture rather than with purchase, dowry or seduction. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that texts describe Rakshasa marriage as involving force and abduction, associated with Kshatriya warriors. Step 2: Identify which option explicitly mentions capture. Option B clearly states marriage by capture. Step 3: Recognise that marriage by purchase is a different category, known as Asura marriage, where the bride's family receives a bride price. Step 4: Understand that marriage by giving dowry or marriage by seduction refer to other forms and do not involve the same element of violent seizure. Step 5: Conclude that Rakshasa type of marriage corresponds to marriage by capture. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this answer by recalling the list of eight classical marriage types: Brahma, Daiva, Arsha, Prajapatya, Asura, Gandharva, Rakshasa and Paisacha. Among these, Asura involves the groom giving wealth to the bride's family, Gandharva involves mutual attraction, and Rakshasa clearly describes the forcible carrying away of the bride. These texts specifically associate Rakshasa with warlike behaviour, which aligns with the idea of capture rather than reciprocal agreement or financial arrangement. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Marriage by purchase: This is closer to Asura type of marriage, not Rakshasa. Marriage by giving dowry: Dowry practices relate to transfer of property but do not define Rakshasa as a category. Marriage by seduction: This is more similar to Gandharva or Paisacha forms, depending on circumstances, and does not capture the violent, warlike element of Rakshasa. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes confuse the vivid names of these marriage types. Because Rakshasa is associated with demons, some people guess it involves immoral seduction, when in fact the defining feature is violent capture. Others may mix it up with Asura due to similar negative connotations, forgetting that Asura emphasises purchase while Rakshasa emphasises force. Careful memorisation of each term with a short key phrase can prevent such confusion. Final Answer: The Rakshasa type of marriage refers to marriage by capture.

Question 13

Which one of the following statements about the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) is not correct?

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Introduction / Context: The Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) is an important international arrangement aimed at limiting the spread of missile technology that could be used to deliver weapons of mass destruction. Questions in international relations often ask about its nature, membership and rules. This question asks which statement about MTCR is not correct, so you must be able to distinguish accurate descriptions from one that exaggerates or misrepresents how the regime operates. Given Data / Assumptions: Statement A describes MTCR as an informal and voluntary partnership initially formed among G-7 countries. Statement B mentions efforts to prevent proliferation of missile and unmanned aerial vehicle technology above specified payload and range limits. Statement C refers to China applying for membership and not being admitted. Statement D claims that no non member country follows MTCR rules. Only one of these statements is not correct. Concept / Approach: MTCR is not a formal treaty but a voluntary export control regime. It was indeed started by a small group of industrialised countries and focuses on controlling the export of missiles and related technologies capable of delivering significant payloads over long ranges. Many non member countries, however, choose to align their export policies with MTCR guidelines, so the claim that no country outside the membership follows its rules is too absolute. The approach is therefore to confirm the nature and objectives of MTCR and then identify which statement overstates its exclusivity. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Evaluate Statement A. MTCR was formed in 1987 by a group of industrialised countries which included G-7 members, and it operates as an informal and voluntary partnership. This statement is correct. Step 2: Evaluate Statement B. The regime focuses on controlling missiles and unmanned aerial vehicles that can carry a payload of more than about 500 kilograms to ranges greater than about 300 kilometres. This is consistent with MTCR guidelines, so this statement is correct. Step 3: Evaluate Statement C. China expressed interest in joining MTCR in earlier years, but its membership has not been approved. This statement reflects standard accounts and can be treated as correct. Step 4: Evaluate Statement D. This claims that no country outside the membership follows MTCR rules. In reality, some non member states voluntarily align their export control policies with MTCR standards. Therefore, this statement is not correct because it wrongly excludes the possibility of voluntary adherence by non members. Step 5: Conclude that Statement D is the only incorrect statement in the list. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative check is to recall that MTCR guidelines are public and provide a model for national export control laws. Several countries that are not formal members still choose to implement similar controls to show responsibility and increase their chances of future membership or international acceptance. The nature of MTCR as a voluntary regime means that non members can follow its rules if they wish, and this has been noted in various analyses. This clearly contradicts the absolute assertion in Statement D that no non member country follows MTCR rules. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A: Correctly describes MTCR as an informal, voluntary partnership initially formed among major industrial states. Option B: Correctly states the key threshold parameters (payload and range) that guide MTCR controls. Option C: Accurately captures the fact that China has not been admitted despite showing interest, which is consistent with many reports. Common Pitfalls: One mistake is to assume that only formal members can follow MTCR rules, ignoring that export control regimes often influence non members as well. Another pitfall is to confuse MTCR with legally binding treaties and to treat its guidelines as if they automatically applied only to members. Candidates may also be tempted to doubt Statement C because it mentions a specific country, but the real inaccuracy lies in the overly strong wording of Statement D. Reading carefully and noting absolute expressions like no other country often helps identify such incorrect statements. Final Answer: The statement that is not correct about the Missile Technology Control Regime is that no other country outside the membership follows the Regime rules.

Question 14

The headquarters of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) is located in which of the following cities?

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Introduction / Context: The United Nations system includes several regional commissions that promote economic and social development in specific parts of the world. For Asia and the Pacific, this body is known as the Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific, commonly abbreviated as ESCAP. General knowledge examinations often test where the headquarters of such organisations are located. This question asks you to identify the city that hosts ESCAP headquarters. Given Data / Assumptions: The organisation in question is the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP). The options are four major cities in the Asia Pacific region: Singapore, Manila, Bangkok and Hong Kong. Only one of these cities is the correct headquarters location of ESCAP. We assume standard information about the United Nations regional commissions. Concept / Approach: The approach is to recall that ESCAP is the regional arm of the United Nations for Asia and the Pacific and that it is headquartered in Bangkok, Thailand. Other regional commissions have their own headquarters in different cities, but ESCAP is specifically linked to Bangkok. Remembering this association, rather than confusing it with the headquarters of other organisations such as ASEAN or the Asian Development Bank, is essential. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that ESCAP is the regional commission covering Asia and the Pacific and is part of the United Nations structure. Step 2: Remember that Bangkok, the capital of Thailand, hosts the main ESCAP secretariat and is commonly mentioned in connection with its meetings and offices. Step 3: Compare the options: Singapore hosts many international organisations but is not the ESCAP headquarters. Manila hosts the Asian Development Bank. Hong Kong is a major financial centre but not the home of ESCAP. Step 4: Conclude that Bangkok is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by recalling that official United Nations documents and websites often describe ESCAP as being based in Bangkok. Many regional conferences and ministerial meetings under ESCAP are also marked as taking place at the UN Conference Centre in Bangkok. In contrast, Singapore and Hong Kong are more associated with trade and finance, and Manila is strongly linked to the Asian Development Bank. These associations help confirm that Bangkok is the seat of ESCAP. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Singapore: While it is a major hub for trade and diplomacy, it does not host ESCAP headquarters. Manila: This city hosts the Asian Development Bank, not ESCAP. Hong Kong: It is an important financial centre but is not the headquarters of ESCAP. Common Pitfalls: Candidates often confuse ESCAP with other Asian institutions and may wrongly associate it with Manila due to the presence of the Asian Development Bank or with Jakarta because of ASEAN. Another pitfall is to assume that Singapore must be the headquarters simply because of its prominent global role. To avoid such errors, it is useful to remember one simple pair: ESCAP and Bangkok. Final Answer: The headquarters of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific is located in Bangkok.

Question 15

Which one of the following statements about the Andaman and Nicobar Command of the Indian Armed Forces is not correct?

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Introduction / Context: The Andaman and Nicobar Command is an important part of India's defence structure and represents a significant organisational innovation. It brings together elements of the Army, Navy and Air Force under a single command in a strategically important island territory. Exams on defence and security often ask questions about its nature and history. This question asks which statement about the Andaman and Nicobar Command is not correct, so you must know how and when it was created and how it is structured. Given Data / Assumptions: Statement A says it is the first integrated theatre command in India. Statement B states that its headquarters is at Port Blair. Statement C mentions that it is commanded by a three star officer. Statement D claims it was set up by the British during the Second World War. Only one statement is factually incorrect. Concept / Approach: The key concept is the notion of an integrated theatre command, where units from all three services operate under a single commander. Andaman and Nicobar Command is recognised as India's first such integrated command and has its headquarters in Port Blair. The commander in chief is usually of three star rank, such as Vice Admiral, Lieutenant General or Air Marshal. The command, however, was established by independent India in the early twenty first century, not by the British during the Second World War. The approach is therefore to confirm the three correct statements and reject the historically incorrect one. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Evaluate Statement A. Andaman and Nicobar Command is well known as India's first integrated theatre command, so this statement is correct. Step 2: Evaluate Statement B. Its headquarters are located at Port Blair in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which is accurate, so this statement is correct. Step 3: Evaluate Statement C. The command is led by a Commander in Chief of three star rank drawn from one of the three services, so this statement is also correct. Step 4: Evaluate Statement D. Although the Andaman and Nicobar Islands were strategic even during the Second World War, the integrated theatre command in its present form was established by India long after independence, not set up by the British. Therefore, this statement is not correct. Step 5: Conclude that Statement D is the incorrect one. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by recalling that Andaman and Nicobar Command was created as part of efforts to improve jointness among the services in independent India, with the formal establishment occurring around the beginning of the twenty first century. Historical accounts of the British Second World War period refer to separate naval and military facilities rather than a unified joint command of this type. The fact that the present command structure emphasises tri service integration under a single commander confirms that it is a creation of modern Indian defence policy, not a legacy of British wartime organisation. Why Other Options Are Wrong: It is the first integrated theatre command in India: This is correct and widely cited in defence literature. Its headquarters is located at Port Blair: This accurately states the location of the command. It is commanded by a three star officer: This matches the rank of the Commander in Chief, so it is correct. Common Pitfalls: Candidates may confuse the presence of British military installations in the islands during the Second World War with the creation of the present integrated command. Another pitfall is to doubt the integrated status or the three star command structure because these concepts seem modern and might be wrongly assumed to be experimental. Paying attention to the exact wording of the statements and remembering the timeline helps avoid these errors. Final Answer: The statement that is not correct about the Andaman and Nicobar Command is that it was set up by the British during the Second World War.

Question 16

In the structure of the Indian defence forces, who serves as the Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee?

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Introduction / Context: The Chiefs of Staff Committee is an important coordinating body among the three services of the Indian Armed Forces. Understanding its composition and leadership is helpful for examinations on defence organisation and civil military relations. Historically, before the creation of a separate Chief of Defence Staff, the chairmanship of this committee followed a specific convention. This question asks who serves as the Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee, so you must recall that convention. Given Data / Assumptions: The options list each of the three service chiefs individually and one option describing a seniority based convention. The question refers to the role of Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee as it has been traditionally understood. We assume that the answer sought reflects the convention in place before the appointment of a permanent Chief of Defence Staff. Only one option correctly states this convention. Concept / Approach: The traditional practice in India has been that the senior most among the three service chiefs, in terms of date of appointment as chief, serves as the Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee. This means the position is not permanently tied to a specific service such as the army, navy or air force, but rotates based on seniority at a given time. The correct approach is therefore to reject any option that permanently links the chairmanship to one service and to choose the option that explicitly mentions the longest serving member of the committee. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Review Option A. It claims that the Chief of Army Staff is the Chairman. This would make the role permanently army controlled, which is not the convention. Step 2: Review Option B. It suggests that the Chief of Naval Staff is always the Chairman, which is also not how the committee operates. Step 3: Review Option C. It states that the Chief of Air Staff is the Chairman, again incorrectly tying the role to a single service. Step 4: Review Option D. It states that the member who has been the longest on the Committee serves as the Chairman. This matches the seniority based convention historically followed. Step 5: Conclude that Option D is correct. Verification / Alternative check: To verify this, recall that leadership positions that are rotated among services often use seniority rules to determine who holds the chair at a given time. Official references to the Chiefs of Staff Committee have described the Chairman as being the senior most service chief. This arrangement was in place until the role of Chief of Defence Staff was created to provide more permanent and integrated leadership, but the examination question reflects the earlier and widely taught convention. The fact that none of the three specific service based options would allow rotation confirms that the seniority based description is the accurate one. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The Chief of Army Staff: This would make the army permanently dominant and contradicts the rotating convention. The Chief of Naval Staff: This likewise incorrectly ties the chairmanship to one service. The Chief of Air Staff: This option again contradicts the idea of rotation and is not supported by historical practice. Common Pitfalls: Many candidates instinctively select the Chief of Army Staff because the army is the largest service and is often more prominent in news coverage. Others may randomly guess among the three service chiefs. The key is to remember that the committee is meant to reflect joint leadership, so a rotating, seniority based system makes more sense than permanent assignment to any one service. Recognising the pattern of seniority based chairmanship is a useful shortcut in such questions. Final Answer: The Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee is the member who has been the longest on the Committee, that is, the senior most service chief.

Question 17

Jammu and Kashmir Rifles is which of the following formations within India's security forces?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: India has a complex security structure with various regiments, paramilitary forces and police organisations. Jammu and Kashmir Rifles is a well known name, and examinations often ask to which category of force it belongs. Knowing the distinction between an army infantry regiment, a paramilitary force and state police units is essential for answering this correctly. Given Data / Assumptions: The name under consideration is Jammu and Kashmir Rifles. The options include an infantry regiment of the Indian Army, a Rashtriya Rifles battalion, a state armed police force and a paramilitary force under the Ministry of Home Affairs. Only one description accurately matches Jammu and Kashmir Rifles. We assume standard defence and security classification as given in reliable sources. Concept / Approach: Jammu and Kashmir Rifles is one of the infantry regiments of the Indian Army. Regiments such as Gorkha Rifles, Sikh Regiment and Dogra Regiment are similarly named. Rashtriya Rifles, by contrast, is a different counter insurgency force, and central armed police forces like the Border Security Force or Central Reserve Police Force come under the Ministry of Home Affairs. State armed police have their own names. Therefore, the correct approach is to recognise Jammu and Kashmir Rifles as an army infantry regiment rather than as a paramilitary or police unit. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that many Indian Army infantry regiments carry regional names, such as Punjab Regiment or Kumaon Regiment, and Jammu and Kashmir Rifles fits this pattern. Step 2: Recognise that Rashtriya Rifles is a separate force composed of army personnel but distinct in structure and naming from Jammu and Kashmir Rifles. Step 3: Note that the state armed police of Jammu and Kashmir are identified differently and are not called Jammu and Kashmir Rifles in official terminology. Step 4: Be aware that paramilitary forces under the Ministry of Home Affairs include Central Reserve Police Force and others but not Jammu and Kashmir Rifles. Step 5: Conclude that Jammu and Kashmir Rifles is correctly described as an infantry regiment of the Indian Army. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by checking how Indian Army regiments are usually referred to. Names like Rajput Rifles or Garhwal Rifles are all infantry regiments with rich histories, and Jammu and Kashmir Rifles belongs to the same pattern. Official references to battle honours and regimental histories also list Jammu and Kashmir Rifles as part of the army structure. If it were a paramilitary or police force, it would be grouped under the Central Armed Police Forces or state police organisations instead. Why Other Options Are Wrong: A battalion of the Rashtriya Rifles: Rashtriya Rifles is a distinct force; while some soldiers from Jammu and Kashmir Rifles may serve on deputation, the names are not interchangeable. The name of the Armed Police of the State of Jammu and Kashmir: The state police do not use this specific regimental title. A paramilitary force under the Ministry of Home Affairs: Jammu and Kashmir Rifles comes under the Indian Army, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. Common Pitfalls: A frequent pitfall is to confuse the words Rifles and Rifles based forces like Rashtriya Rifles and to assume they refer to the same organisation. Another mistake is to group every force associated with Jammu and Kashmir under police or paramilitary categories without noticing the army regiment structure. Careful reading of the exact name and awareness of the broader classification of Indian forces help avoid these confusions. Final Answer: Jammu and Kashmir Rifles is an infantry regiment of the Indian Army.

Question 18

Which one of the following statements correctly describes a formation within the Indian Army?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Indian Army has a complex organisational structure with various arms and services performing specialised roles. General knowledge about which corps and regiments exist, and how they are grouped, is frequently tested in defence related examinations. This question asks which one of the given statements correctly describes a formation within the Indian Army. To answer, you must know the distinct identities of infantry, mechanised infantry, technical corps and support services. Given Data / Assumptions: Option A equates the Infantry Regiment with the Mechanized Infantry Regiment. Option B claims that the Corps of Electrical and Mechanical Engineers is part of the Corps of Engineers. Option C suggests that Army Medical Corps and Army Dental Corps are divisions of the Army Service Corps. Option D states that the Indian Army has its own Corps of Air Defence. Only one of these statements is correct. Concept / Approach: The approach is to evaluate each statement against the actual organisation of the Indian Army. Infantry and Mechanized Infantry are separate arms, not the same regiment. The Corps of Electrical and Mechanical Engineers is a distinct corps responsible for technical maintenance and is not subsumed under the Corps of Engineers, which deals with combat engineering tasks. Army Medical Corps and Army Dental Corps are separate medical services, not divisions of the Army Service Corps, which focuses on supply and logistics. However, the Indian Army does have a dedicated Air Defence arm known as the Army Air Defence, sometimes referred to as the Corps of Army Air Defence. Therefore, the correct statement is the one referring to this corps. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Analyse Option A. Infantry units are foot soldiers, and Mechanized Infantry is a separate arm equipped with armoured vehicles. They are different arms with distinct structures, so this statement is incorrect. Step 2: Analyse Option B. The Corps of Electrical and Mechanical Engineers is a separate corps dealing with repair and maintenance of equipment and is not a subset of the Corps of Engineers, which focuses on engineering tasks such as bridge building and demolitions. Therefore, this statement is false. Step 3: Analyse Option C. Army Medical Corps and Army Dental Corps are medical services that provide health care, whereas the Army Service Corps handles supplies, transport and logistics. They are not divisions of the Army Service Corps, so this statement is incorrect. Step 4: Analyse Option D. The Indian Army has its own dedicated Air Defence arm, called Army Air Defence, which is organised as a separate corps. This statement correctly reflects the existence of a Corps of Air Defence within the army. Step 5: Conclude that Option D is the only correct statement. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative check is to recall the broad classification of arms and services in the Indian Army. Arms include Infantry, Armoured Corps, Artillery, Army Air Defence and Engineers, among others. Services include Army Service Corps, Army Medical Corps, Army Dental Corps and Corps of Electrical and Mechanical Engineers. Mechanized Infantry is treated as a distinct arm, while the Corps of Electrical and Mechanical Engineers is grouped as a technical service rather than as part of the engineering arm. This overview confirms that Option D alone accords with the established organisational reality. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Infantry Regiment is also known as the Mechanized Infantry Regiment: This conflates two separate arms and ignores their different roles and equipment. Corps of Electrical and Mechanical Engineers is subsumed in the Corps of Engineers: This misrepresents the structure; they are two separate corps with different tasks. Army Medical Corps and Army Dental Corps are two divisions of the Army Service Corps: This incorrectly subsumes medical services under a logistics corps. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to assume that all technical and support functions are grouped into a few large corps, which leads to merging distinct entities like Engineers and Electrical and Mechanical Engineers. Another pitfall is to overlook the existence of a dedicated Army Air Defence arm and to think that all air defence is handled only by the Air Force. Careful study of the official list of arms and services can prevent such misunderstandings. Final Answer: The correct description is that the Indian Army has its own dedicated Corps of Air Defence, corresponding to Option D.

Question 19

In the context of the Indian Army, which one of the following is not an official Command of the Indian Army?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Indian Army is organised into several Commands which function as major operational and training headquarters. Competitive examinations often test basic defence awareness, including which formations actually exist. This question checks whether the learner can correctly identify which of the given formations is not a recognised Command within the Indian Army structure. Given Data / Assumptions: The question refers specifically to Commands of the Indian Army, not of the Navy or Air Force. Four names are given: South Western Command, North Eastern Command, Central Command and Army Training Command (ARTRAC). We assume the current broadly known Command structure of the Indian Army. Concept / Approach: To answer this question, we need to recall the officially recognised Commands of the Indian Army. These include several operational Commands and one training Command. The idea is to match each option with the real list and see which one does not appear there. Any name that does not correspond to an actual Indian Army Command should be identified as the correct answer, provided the others genuinely exist. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Indian Army has the following Commands: Northern Command, Western Command, Eastern Command, Southern Command, South Western Command, Central Command and Army Training Command (ARTRAC). Step 2: Compare option South Western Command with the list. South Western Command is indeed one of the operational Commands, headquartered at Jaipur. Step 3: Compare option Central Command with the list. Central Command is also an operational Command with its headquarters at Lucknow. Step 4: Consider Army Training Command, commonly abbreviated as ARTRAC. It is a legitimate Command that looks after institutional training in the Army and is headquartered at Shimla. Step 5: Now examine North Eastern Command. There is no Command called North Eastern Command in the Indian Army. Instead, the relevant operational formation for that region is Eastern Command, not North Eastern Command. Step 6: Since South Western Command, Central Command and Army Training Command all exist, the odd one out, which is not an Indian Army Command, is North Eastern Command. Verification / Alternative check: A useful way to verify is to cross check the official list of Commands of the Indian Army and count them. We know there are six operational Commands plus one training Command, with specific names that are widely used. No standard official document lists a North Eastern Command for the Army, although similar sounding names may appear in other contexts, such as councils or regions. Because Eastern Command covers the north eastern theatre, it is easy to confuse the terminology, but the formal name remains Eastern Command. Why Other Options Are Wrong: South Western Command: This is a genuine operational Command of the Indian Army, so it cannot be the correct answer. Central Command: This is also a recognised Command of the Indian Army with an established headquarters. Army Training Command (ARTRAC): This is the Army level training Command responsible for institutional training, so it is definitely part of the Command structure. Common Pitfalls: Many learners assume that because India has a large north eastern region with strategic importance, the Army must have a Command named North Eastern Command. This is a natural but incorrect assumption. Another mistake is to think that a training Command does not count as a Command, and therefore to eliminate ARTRAC, but the Army Training Command is very much a full fledged Command. Learners should remember that Command names follow a specific convention and that the north eastern theatre is covered by Eastern Command rather than a separate North Eastern Command. Final Answer: North Eastern Command

Question 20

Which one of the following statements about ranks and insignia in the Indian Army is correct?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question tests knowledge of rank structure and insignia in the Indian Army. Defence awareness is a frequent theme in general knowledge examinations, and aspirants are expected to know basic facts about officer ranks, especially changes such as the abolition of older ranks and the distinction between ceremonial and substantive ranks. Given Data / Assumptions: Four statements about ranks and postings in the Indian Army are provided. The task is to identify the single correct statement among them. We assume the commonly accepted structure of officer ranks and command arrangements. Concept / Approach: The approach is to evaluate each statement in the light of standard military knowledge. We must know the relative order of ranks, understand which ranks are currently in use, and distinguish between rare ceremonial ranks and the usual rank held by the Chief of Army Staff. We also need to understand that tri service commands do not change an officer service identity or rank pattern. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Consider statement A: the rank of Second Lieutenant has been abolished. In the Indian Army, the entry level rank for commissioned officers used to be Second Lieutenant but this rank has been discontinued, and fresh officers are now commissioned as Lieutenant. Thus statement A is correct. Step 2: Examine statement B: it says that the Chief of Army Staff carries the rank of Field Marshal. In India, Field Marshal is a very rare, ceremonial five star rank, conferred only on select individuals in the past. The Chief of Army Staff normally holds the rank of General, not Field Marshal. So statement B is incorrect. Step 3: Review statement C: it suggests that all officers posted to the Andaman and Nicobar Islands wear Indian Navy ranks. The Andaman and Nicobar Command is a tri service Command, but officers retain the ranks of their respective services. Army officers do not convert to Navy rank insignia. Hence statement C is incorrect. Step 4: Assess statement D: it says that the rank of Major General is higher than the rank of Lieutenant General. In fact, the sequence is Brigadier, Major General, Lieutenant General, then General. Therefore Lieutenant General is senior to Major General. Statement D is false. Step 5: Since only statement A matches correct defence knowledge, it is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, one can consult any standard listing of officer ranks in the Indian Army that shows the hierarchy and the star insignia. These sources consistently show that the lowest commissioned rank is now Lieutenant, confirming that Second Lieutenant is no longer used for new commissions. They also list Field Marshal as a ceremonial rank rarely conferred, which supports the conclusion that the Chief of Army Staff does not functionally hold that rank. This cross check again leaves statement A as the only valid option. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The Chief of Army Staff is a General, not a Field Marshal, so statement B is wrong. Tri service postings in Andaman and Nicobar Command do not alter the service identity or rank insignia of officers, so statement C is wrong. Major General is junior to Lieutenant General in the rank hierarchy, which makes statement D clearly incorrect. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes confuse ceremonial ranks with operational posts and assume that the head of the Army must hold the highest sounding title. Others misremember the rank order or assume that the prefix Major automatically signals a higher rank than Lieutenant at all levels. Some aspirants also think that tri service commands use a common rank system, which is not the case. Careful study of the actual rank ladder and of reforms such as the removal of Second Lieutenant helps avoid these errors. Final Answer: The rank of Second Lieutenant has been abolished in the Indian Army.

Basic General Knowledge Questions