Question 1

In the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, the subject \"Betting and gambling\" is included under which of the following lists?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Constitution of India distributes legislative powers between the Union and the states through the Union List, State List and Concurrent List found in the Seventh Schedule. Some subjects are clearly local or region specific, and states have the main responsibility for regulating them. This question asks where the subject betting and gambling is placed, which is a classic example of a matter handled primarily at the state level in India. Given Data / Assumptions: The Seventh Schedule contains three operative lists: Union List, State List and Concurrent List. The subject under consideration is betting and gambling, which involves activities like lotteries, casinos, race betting and other games of chance. There is also a distractor option Global List, which is not an actual constitutional list. You must recall which list empowers states or the Union to legislate on this matter. Concept / Approach: Subjects that are essentially local in character or that involve public morals and law and order within a state are usually assigned to the State List. Betting and gambling fall into this category because each state may have different social attitudes, religious sensibilities and economic considerations regarding such activities. The Constitution therefore leaves regulation or prohibition of betting and gambling mainly to the states. As a result, some states allow certain forms of lotteries or race course betting while others completely ban them. This flexibility is possible because betting and gambling is a State List subject. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that betting and gambling typically take place within the territorial limits of a state and relate to local law and order and public morality.Step 2: Recall that such subjects are generally placed in the State List to allow states to decide their own policies.Step 3: Remember that the Union List covers national subjects like defence, foreign affairs and currency, which clearly do not include betting and gambling.Step 4: Note that although the Concurrent List covers shared subjects like criminal law and marriage, betting and gambling is explicitly assigned to the State List instead.Step 5: Conclude that the correct list is the State List. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by observing real life differences between states: for example, some states run state lotteries while others prohibit lotteries, and some have more relaxed laws about casinos or horse race betting. These policy differences would not be possible if betting and gambling were centrally regulated under the Union List. Polity reference books that reproduce the entries of the State List clearly include betting and gambling, confirming that your answer is correct. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The Union List deals with matters of national importance such as defence and currency, not localised activities like gambling. The Concurrent List includes subjects where both Union and states can legislate, such as forests or education, but betting and gambling has been kept specifically in the State List. The so called Global List has no existence in the Indian Constitution and appears only as a distractor. Therefore, none of these other options accurately reflect the constitutional position of betting and gambling. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to assume that anything related to law and criminality must be in the Concurrent List. However, the Constitution distinguishes between broad criminal law and specific activities like betting and gambling, clearly assigning the latter to states. Another pitfall is to ignore the federal logic and guess the Union List simply because gambling can be lucrative, but constitutional design is based more on local control than revenue considerations in this case. Careful study of the Seventh Schedule entries helps avoid such confusion. Final Answer: In the Seventh Schedule, betting and gambling is listed in the State List.

Question 2

As per the current allocation of parliamentary constituencies, how many Lok Sabha seats does the state of West Bengal have?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Knowledge of how many Lok Sabha constituencies are allotted to each state is a staple of Indian polity and general knowledge questions. West Bengal is a politically significant eastern state with a substantial population and therefore a relatively high number of Lok Sabha seats. This question asks you to recall the exact number of parliamentary constituencies that West Bengal contributes to the Lok Sabha, the lower house of Parliament. Given Data / Assumptions: The question specifically asks about Lok Sabha seats, not Rajya Sabha seats. The state in focus is West Bengal. Seat allocation is based on past delimitation exercises and is fixed unless changed by law. You may be aware of approximate numbers for large states like Uttar Pradesh and Bihar for comparison. Concept / Approach: The Lok Sabha has 543 elected seats distributed among states and union territories according to population and constitutional rules. West Bengal, being a large state with significant population, has a relatively high number of constituencies, but fewer than the very largest state, Uttar Pradesh. Standard seat distribution lists show that West Bengal has forty two Lok Sabha constituencies. This figure has remained consistent in recent elections and is frequently quoted in election related discussions and exam preparation material. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that West Bengal is one of the larger states in eastern India with high population density.Step 2: Remember from state wise tables that West Bengal has forty two Lok Sabha seats.Step 3: Compare this number to the options provided and see that forty two appears as option A.Step 4: Note that two and fourteen would be far too low for a state of this size, and forty is slightly off the known figure.Step 5: Select forty two as the correct number of Lok Sabha constituencies for West Bengal. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify your answer by recalling some famous constituencies from West Bengal such as Kolkata Dakshin, Kolkata Uttar, Howrah, Asansol, and others. When you count them from official lists or election coverage, you will find that the total is forty two. Additionally, comparisons help: Uttar Pradesh has eighty seats, Bihar has forty, and West Bengal is known to have forty two, fitting neatly into the seat distribution pattern. These associations provide a strong cross check for your memory. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The figure two is typical of very small states or union territories, not of a large state like West Bengal. Fourteen could be the number for a medium sized state but does not match West Bengal seat allocation. Forty is close but still incorrect; examiners often include such near misses to confuse guesswork. Therefore, any answer other than forty two would misrepresent the actual representation of West Bengal in the Lok Sabha. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is mixing up the seat counts of West Bengal and Bihar, both being eastern states with significant populations. Another pitfall is to rely on rough approximations and choose a rounded number like forty. In competitive exams, however, such questions demand precise recall. Reviewing a simple table of state wise Lok Sabha seats and associating a few key states with their exact numbers is an effective preparation strategy. Final Answer: The state of West Bengal has 42 Lok Sabha seats.

Question 3

Which small savings scheme was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi as part of the Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao campaign to encourage parents to save for the education and future of the girl child?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao campaign is a flagship initiative of the Government of India aimed at improving the status of the girl child through better sex ratio, education and empowerment. Along with this campaign, a dedicated small savings scheme was introduced to help families build a financial corpus for their daughters. This question checks whether you can correctly identify that specific savings scheme launched by the Prime Minister as part of the larger Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao effort. Given Data / Assumptions: The scheme was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. It is a small savings scheme designed for the girl child. It is closely associated with the Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao campaign. The options include different schemes dealing with cleanliness, financial inclusion and girl child welfare. Concept / Approach: The Sukanya Samriddhi Account is a special savings account scheme under the Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana, introduced as part of the Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao initiative. It allows parents or guardians to open a long term deposit account in the name of a girl child, offering attractive interest rates and tax benefits. The purpose is to help families save systematically for expenses such as education and marriage of the girl. Bal Swachhta Mission focuses on cleanliness and hygiene among children, Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana promotes basic bank accounts for all adults, and Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Yojana is the overall campaign, not a specific savings product. The correct specific savings instrument is the Sukanya Samriddhi Account. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that the question is about a savings scheme linked explicitly to the girl child.Step 2: Recall that Sukanya Samriddhi Account is marketed as a long term small savings scheme for daughters under Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao.Step 3: Note that Jan Dhan Yojana is a financial inclusion scheme for general bank accounts, not limited to the girl child.Step 4: Recognise that Bal Swachhta Mission deals with cleanliness, and Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Yojana is the overall campaign, not the specific savings account product.Step 5: Conclude that the correct answer must be Sukanya Samriddhi Account. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify your choice by remembering the typical advertising message: Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana is often described as a gift for your daughter future, with higher interest and tax benefits. It is frequently mentioned in the same context as Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao. In contrast, Jan Dhan Yojana posters highlight the theme of one account for every household and basic banking services, without exclusive focus on girls. Therefore, all credible sources link the girl child savings aspect directly with Sukanya Samriddhi Account. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Bal Swachhta Mission is concerned with cleanliness drives, personal hygiene and safe environments for children, not with financial savings for girls. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana is a broad financial inclusion programme designed to bring the unbanked population into the banking system and is gender neutral. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Yojana is the umbrella campaign and policy framework to protect and educate the girl child, but it is not, by itself, the name of a savings account or deposit scheme. Thus, none of these options meet the specific requirement of being a savings scheme linked with the campaign. Common Pitfalls: A frequent error is to select Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Yojana itself because it appears in the question statement and seems directly relevant. However, the question is asking for the savings scheme launched as part of that campaign, not the campaign name. Another pitfall is confusing broad financial inclusion (Jan Dhan) with targeted savings for girls (Sukanya). To avoid such confusion, always associate Sukanya with girl child savings and Jan Dhan with universal bank accounts in your exam preparation. Final Answer: The small savings scheme launched as part of Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao is the Sukanya Samriddhi Account.

Question 4

In the context of the Supreme Court of India, which type of jurisdiction refers to the power of the Court to reconsider a case already decided by a lower court and to review the legal issues involved in it?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Supreme Court of India exercises several distinct types of jurisdiction, each describing different kinds of cases it can hear. These include original, appellate, writ and advisory jurisdictions. This question focuses on identifying the term used when the Supreme Court hears an appeal against a judgment delivered by a lower court and re examines both facts and law. Understanding these terms is essential for mastering Indian polity and the functioning of the judiciary. Given Data / Assumptions: The Supreme Court may reconsider cases decided by High Courts or other lower courts. The Court reviews the legal issues and sometimes the facts involved when hearing such cases. The options correspond to the standard types of jurisdiction associated with the Supreme Court. You are expected to match the description reconsider a case and legal issues with the correct jurisdiction type. Concept / Approach: When a higher court hears an appeal against the decision of a lower court, it is exercising appellate jurisdiction. Under this jurisdiction, the Supreme Court can affirm, modify or reverse the decision of the lower court and may reinterpret the law or reassess facts if allowed by statute. Original jurisdiction refers to cases that start directly in the Supreme Court, such as disputes between states. Writ jurisdiction involves issuing writs to protect fundamental rights. Advisory jurisdiction refers to the Court giving opinions to the President on legal questions. Therefore, the description in the question clearly corresponds to appellate jurisdiction. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Focus on the key phrase in the question: reconsider the case and the legal issues involved.Step 2: Recall that appeals from High Courts or special tribunals to the Supreme Court are heard under its appellate jurisdiction.Step 3: Distinguish this from original jurisdiction, where the case begins in the Supreme Court, not on appeal.Step 4: Note that writ jurisdiction relates to enforcement of fundamental rights and advisory jurisdiction involves giving advice to the President, neither of which involves appeals.Step 5: Conclude that appellate jurisdiction is the correct term describing reconsideration of lower court decisions. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by recalling standard definitions from Indian polity textbooks: appellate jurisdiction is always defined as the authority of a court to hear appeals from lower courts. The Supreme Court website and legal literature describe its role as the highest appellate court in civil, criminal and constitutional matters. The other jurisdiction types have distinctly different functions that do not involve reconsidering lower court judgments, confirming that appellate jurisdiction is the only correct choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Original jurisdiction covers cases that originate in the Supreme Court, such as disputes between states or between the Union and states, and does not involve prior decisions by a lower court. Writ jurisdiction allows the Supreme Court to issue writs like habeas corpus or mandamus to enforce fundamental rights, which is not the same as hearing appeals. Advisory jurisdiction is exercised when the President of India refers questions of law or fact to the Supreme Court for its opinion; no lower court judgment is under appeal in such cases. Thus, none of these options match the idea of reconsidering a case decided by a lower court. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse writ jurisdiction with appellate jurisdiction because both may involve reviewing actions of authorities or lower courts. However, writ jurisdiction is primarily about protecting fundamental rights, while appellate jurisdiction is about correcting or confirming lower court decisions in a formal appeal. Another pitfall is to wrongly associate advisory jurisdiction with all forms of legal advice, forgetting that it is a specific procedure involving the President, not ordinary appeals. Keeping these categories clearly separated will help you answer judiciary related questions accurately. Final Answer: The power of the Supreme Court to reconsider a case and legal issues decided by a lower court is called its appellate jurisdiction.

Question 5

Which Constitutional Amendment Act of India increased the age of retirement of High Court judges from 60 years to 62 years?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Changes in the service conditions of judges, including their age of retirement, are made through constitutional amendments. Such changes are important because they affect judicial independence, continuity, and the availability of experienced judges in higher courts. This question asks you to identify which specific Constitutional Amendment Act raised the retirement age of High Court judges in India from 60 to 62 years, a detail often tested in Indian polity examinations. Given Data / Assumptions: The focus is on the age of retirement of High Court judges. The original retirement age was 60 years. The amendment raised this age to 62 years. The options list several numbered Constitutional Amendment Acts, including a deliberately unrealistic high number. Concept / Approach: Under the Constitution of India, service conditions of High Court judges, including their retirement age, are specified and can be changed only by a Constitutional Amendment. The 15th Constitutional Amendment Act is known for increasing the retirement age of High Court judges from 60 to 62 years. The 10th Amendment is associated with territorial changes involving Dadra and Nagar Haveli, and the 12th Amendment deals with Goa, Daman and Diu. The very large number 245th is clearly unrealistic in the traditional exam context and serves as a distractor. Therefore the correct answer is the 15th Constitutional Amendment Act. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that there was a specific amendment that raised the retirement age of High Court judges from 60 to 62 years.Step 2: Remember from standard polity tables that this change came through the 15th Constitutional Amendment Act.Step 3: Check the options and identify the 15th Amendment as option C.Step 4: Recognise that the 10th and 12th Amendments have different subjects related to territorial matters and are not linked to judges retirement age.Step 5: Discard the 245th Amendment as an exaggerated distractor and confidently mark the 15th Constitutional Amendment Act. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify the answer by consulting a table of important Constitutional Amendments in any standard Indian polity book. The entries will show that the 15th Amendment is associated with the increase in retirement age of High Court judges, while the 42nd and 44th Amendments, for example, are known for other major structural changes. Remembering a few landmark amendments and their key features is an efficient way to cross check such questions in exams. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The 10th Constitutional Amendment Act is related to the incorporation of Dadra and Nagar Haveli into the Union of India and has nothing to do with judges retirement. The 12th Amendment deals with the incorporation of Goa, Daman and Diu into India. Neither of these amendments addresses judicial service conditions. The 245th Constitutional Amendment Act is not a recognised landmark in standard exam syllabi and appears mainly as a trick option. Therefore, these choices do not match the specific change mentioned in the question. Common Pitfalls: A frequent mistake is to confuse the 15th Amendment with other well known amendments like the 42nd or 44th simply because those numbers are more famous. Another pitfall is not paying attention to the specific subject of the amendment and just guessing based on the smallest or largest number. To avoid such errors, maintain a short list of important amendments with their core effects—such as 1st, 7th, 15th, 42nd, 44th and 73rd—and revise them regularly. This makes it much easier to handle amendment based questions accurately. Final Answer: The retirement age of High Court judges was raised from 60 to 62 years by the 15th Constitutional Amendment Act.

Question 6

Which flagship sanitation scheme launched by the Central Government aims to eliminate open defecation by constructing toilets for households and communities across India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Sanitation and cleanliness have been key priorities of the Government of India in recent years, especially through campaigns aimed at eliminating open defecation. One well known national mission focused on constructing toilets in households, schools and public places with the goal of achieving an open defecation free India. This question asks you to identify which specific scheme has this primary objective, a topic commonly tested in general awareness and polity sections of competitive exams. Given Data / Assumptions: The scheme is launched by the Central Government. Its central aim is to eliminate open defecation. The main strategy is the construction of toilets for households and communities. Several other development schemes are listed as options but with different core purposes. Concept / Approach: Swachh Bharat Abhiyan, also known as the Clean India Mission, was launched on Mahatma Gandhi birthday anniversary with the aim of making India clean and free from open defecation. Under this mission, massive efforts were undertaken to construct household toilets, community toilets and improve solid waste management, with both rural and urban components (Swachh Bharat Gramin and Swachh Bharat Urban). Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday Abhiyan focuses on rural development and panchayats, Stand up India scheme promotes entrepreneurship among SC, ST and women, and the National RURBAN Mission aims to develop rural growth clusters. Only Swachh Bharat Abhiyan directly targets open defecation elimination through toilet construction. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify the key phrase eliminate open defecation through constructing toilets.Step 2: Recall that Swachh Bharat Abhiyan is the flagship cleanliness and sanitation campaign that focused strongly on toilet construction and behaviour change.Step 3: Match this understanding with option A, which names Swachh Bharat Abhiyan.Step 4: Check other options: Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday Abhiyan (rural and panchayat development), Stand up India scheme (enterprise loans), and National RU URBAN Mission (rural urban cluster development) all have different objectives.Step 5: Conclude that Swachh Bharat Abhiyan is the only option consistent with the description. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify your answer by recalling the numerous advertisements, public messages and government statements linking Swachh Bharat directly with toilets, cleanliness and creating open defecation free villages and cities. The campaign relied heavily on the symbolism of the broom and community shramdaan for sanitation. In contrast, Stand up India is always associated with bank loans for entrepreneurs, and Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday Abhiyan with gram sabha campaigns. These associations confirm that Swachh Bharat Abhiyan is the correct response to a question about open defecation elimination through toilets. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday Abhiyan is an awareness campaign around farmers, panchayats and rural development, not a dedicated sanitation mission. Stand up India scheme provides bank loans to SC, ST and women entrepreneurs to set up greenfield enterprises, which is unrelated to toilets or open defecation. The National RURBAN Mission focuses on developing rural clusters with urban like facilities and does not primarily target toilet construction or open defecation. Therefore, these schemes do not match the explicit sanitation and toilet construction objective described in the question. Common Pitfalls: Because many schemes use terms like Abhiyan and Mission, students sometimes confuse them, especially when they are not clear about each scheme core deliverables. Another pitfall is to choose a rural development scheme such as Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday simply because open defecation is more visible in rural areas. However, the official and widely recognised mission for toilets and cleanliness is Swachh Bharat Abhiyan, and this association should be firmly fixed in your mind for exam purposes. Final Answer: The scheme aimed at eliminating open defecation by constructing toilets is Swachh Bharat Abhiyan.

Question 7

How many parliamentary seats, that is Rajya Sabha seats, are allocated to the state of Punjab in the Council of States?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Rajya Sabha, or Council of States, represents the states and union territories at the national level. Each state is allotted a specific number of seats in the Rajya Sabha based on its population and constitutional provisions. This question focuses on the state of Punjab and asks you to recall how many members it sends to the Rajya Sabha. Such questions help test your familiarity with the basic numerical structure of the Indian Parliament. Given Data / Assumptions: The question is about Rajya Sabha seats, not Lok Sabha seats. The state in question is Punjab, located in northern India. Seat allocation in the Rajya Sabha reflects state population but is capped and relatively stable over time. The options include both smaller and larger numbers to test precise recall. Concept / Approach: Each state is represented in the Rajya Sabha by a fixed number of members elected by the state legislative assembly through proportional representation. Punjab, being a medium sized state in terms of population, has seven seats in the Rajya Sabha. This number is well known and appears in standard polity tables listing state wise allocation of upper house seats. Larger states like Uttar Pradesh have many more seats, whereas very small states or union territories have only one or a few seats. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Punjab, while important, is not among the very largest Indian states in population.Step 2: Remember from state wise tables that Punjab is allocated seven seats in the Rajya Sabha.Step 3: Look at the options and identify seven as a plausible medium range figure.Step 4: Recognise that one is far too low for a state like Punjab and that eighteen or ten would correspond to much larger or differently situated states.Step 5: Conclude that seven is the correct number of Rajya Sabha seats for Punjab. Verification / Alternative check: You can cross check this by looking at lists of current Rajya Sabha members by state, where you will see seven entries for Punjab. You might also remember that states like Haryana and Punjab have relatively similar or slightly different allocations, but only Punjab is consistently associated with the figure seven. Polity guides and exam oriented books typically include a table naming Punjab with seven Rajya Sabha seats, confirming your choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The figure one is typical of very small states or union territories and would seriously under represent a state of Punjab size. Eighteen would be extremely high and is more suitable for a much larger state. Ten is also above the actual allocation and is used here as a distractor. None of these numbers match the officially allotted representation of Punjab in the Council of States. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes confuse Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha figures or mix up the seat counts of neighbouring states. Another mistake is to rely on intuition and overestimate representation based on perceived importance rather than actual population and constitutional allocation. To avoid such errors, it is helpful to memorise a short set of anchor figures, such as Uttar Pradesh with thirty one Rajya Sabha seats and Punjab with seven, and then use them as reference points during the exam. Final Answer: The state of Punjab has 7 seats in the Rajya Sabha.

Question 8

In the Constitution of India, which Fundamental Right allows a citizen to move the court if they believe that any of their Fundamental Rights have been violated by the State authorities?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Constitution of India gives citizens several Fundamental Rights that can be enforced against the State. Simply granting rights is not enough; people must also have an effective way to protect those rights when they are violated. This question tests your understanding of the Fundamental Right that empowers citizens to approach the courts directly if any of their Fundamental Rights are infringed by State action. Knowing this right is essential for examinations on Indian Polity and for understanding how constitutional remedies work in practice. Given Data / Assumptions: The context is the Fundamental Rights chapter of the Constitution of India. A citizen believes that a Fundamental Right has been violated by the State. The citizen wants to move the court for protection and enforcement of that right. The options list different categories of Fundamental Rights recognised in the Constitution. Concept / Approach: The correct approach is to recall the classification of Fundamental Rights and identify which one explicitly deals with the enforcement of other Fundamental Rights through the courts. The Right to Constitutional Remedies, provided mainly under Article 32, allows a person to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. High Courts have a similar power under Article 226, but the named Fundamental Right is the Right to Constitutional Remedies. Dr B R Ambedkar described Article 32 as the heart and soul of the Constitution because it makes Fundamental Rights meaningful by giving citizens a direct route to the Supreme Court for protection. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the broad groups of Fundamental Rights, such as Right to Equality, Right to Freedom, Right against Exploitation, Right to Freedom of Religion, Cultural and Educational Rights, and Right to Constitutional Remedies. Step 2: Identify which group specifically talks about the power of citizens to go to court when a Fundamental Right is violated. Step 3: The Right to Constitutional Remedies provides for writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and High Courts to enforce Fundamental Rights. Step 4: Recognise that Cultural and Educational Rights protect language and culture, Right against Exploitation deals with trafficking and forced labour, and Right to Freedom of Religion deals with religious freedom, none of which directly focus on enforcement mechanisms. Step 5: Therefore, the only correct option that allows citizens to move the court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights is the Right to Constitutional Remedies. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by remembering that Article 32 explicitly grants the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights, and this Article falls under the Right to Constitutional Remedies. Further, most standard Indian Polity textbooks clearly classify enforcement of Fundamental Rights under this head and quote Dr B R Ambedkar, who emphasised that without this right, all other rights would be reduced to mere paper declarations. This confirms that the correct answer is the Right to Constitutional Remedies. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A, Cultural and Educational Rights, mainly protect the rights of minorities and groups to conserve their language, script, and culture and to establish and administer educational institutions. They do not, by themselves, give a general right to move the court for any violation. Option C, Right against Exploitation, focuses on prohibiting trafficking, forced labour, and child labour, not on providing a general remedy. Option D, Right to Freedom of Religion, guarantees freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practise, and propagate religion, but again it is a substantive right, not the overarching remedial right. None of these expressly define the mechanism of approaching the court for enforcement of all Fundamental Rights. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to assume that any Fundamental Right can automatically be used as a remedy just because the courts are mentioned somewhere in the Constitution. Some learners also confuse the Right to Constitutional Remedies with the Right to Equality or the Right to Freedom because these are frequently litigated in courts. However, the exam expects you to know the specific nomenclature and classification of rights. Another error is to assume that the power of High Courts under Article 226 is a separate Fundamental Right, but in reality the named Fundamental Right is the Right to Constitutional Remedies, mainly linked with Article 32. Final Answer: The Fundamental Right that allows citizens to move the court when their Fundamental Rights are violated is the Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Question 9

In the Constitution of India, which Fundamental Right prohibits trafficking of human beings, forced labour and employment of children below 14 years of age?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Constitution of India does not merely state high ideals; it also addresses specific social evils that were widespread at the time of independence. One such group of abuses was human trafficking, forced labour and exploitation of children in work. This question examines your understanding of which particular Fundamental Right targets these practices and provides constitutional protection against them. For Indian Polity examinations, recognising the precise grouping of these provisions is extremely important. Given Data / Assumptions: The subject is the Fundamental Rights chapter of the Constitution of India. The focus is on trafficking, forced labour, and employment of children below 14 years of age. The options list several categories of Fundamental Rights such as equality, freedom, exploitation, and religion. You are expected to know which category directly addresses these exploitative practices. Concept / Approach: The Constitution groups related rights together in logical clusters. The Right against Exploitation specifically covers Articles that prohibit trafficking, forced labour and child labour. Article 23 prohibits trafficking in human beings and forced labour, while Article 24 prohibits employment of children below 14 years in factories, mines and other hazardous employments. These Articles are grouped under the heading Right against Exploitation, making that the correct Fundamental Right in this context. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the main groups of Fundamental Rights, including Right to Equality, Right to Freedom, Right against Exploitation, Right to Freedom of Religion, and others. Step 2: Identify which Articles deal with trafficking, bonded labour, and child labour. These are Articles 23 and 24 of the Constitution. Step 3: Note that Articles 23 and 24 fall under the heading Right against Exploitation, not under equality, freedom, or religious freedom. Step 4: Match this group name with the options provided in the question. Step 5: Conclude that the relevant Fundamental Right is the Right against Exploitation. Verification / Alternative check: As a quick verification, remember that the Right to Equality concerns prohibition of discrimination and equality before law, the Right to Freedom covers freedoms such as speech, movement, and occupation, and the Right to Freedom of Religion deals with religious practices. None of these headings is directly framed around exploitation. Standard Indian Polity reference books and bare acts of the Constitution clearly show the title Right against Exploitation above Articles 23 and 24. This confirms that trafficking, forced labour, and child labour come under this specific Fundamental Right. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A, Right to Equality, covers topics such as equality before law and prohibition of discrimination, but does not centrally focus on trafficking or forced labour. Option B, Right to Freedom, addresses liberties like speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession, and is not specifically about labour exploitation. Option D, Right to Freedom of Religion, guarantees freedom of conscience and religious practices and is not connected to ban on trafficking or child labour. Therefore, these options do not correctly describe the group of Articles that address exploitation directly. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse the Right against Exploitation with the Right to Equality because both appear to deal with injustice and unfair treatment. Another common mistake is to think that protections for labour and children might be part of Directive Principles of State Policy rather than Fundamental Rights. While labour welfare does appear in Directive Principles, the absolute bans on trafficking, forced labour, and child labour in hazardous jobs are Fundamental Rights and are justiciable in courts. Remembering the exact heading Right against Exploitation helps to avoid confusion. Final Answer: The Fundamental Right that prohibits trafficking, forced labour, and employment of children below 14 years of age is the Right against Exploitation.

Question 10

In April 2017, Chief Minister Amarinder Singh banned the inclusion of names of Ministers and MLAs on plaques and foundation stones in which Indian State?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Indian politics and governance often feature news about measures taken by State governments to improve transparency and reduce political publicity. One such step was a decision by a Chief Minister to ban the practice of printing or engraving names of Ministers and Members of Legislative Assembly on plaques and foundation stones of public projects. This question tests your knowledge of a specific current affairs event relating to April 2017 and the State led by Chief Minister Amarinder Singh. Given Data / Assumptions: The time frame is April 2017. The decision was taken by Chief Minister Amarinder Singh. The policy targeted inclusion of names of Ministers and MLAs on plaques and foundation stones. You are asked to identify the Indian State where this decision was implemented. Concept / Approach: To answer this question, you must connect the political leader Amarinder Singh with the State he served as Chief Minister. Amarinder Singh is most closely associated with Punjab, where he has served as Chief Minister more than once. In April 2017, during his tenure, he announced that public projects in Punjab would no longer carry the names of Ministers or MLAs on plaques and foundation stones, stressing that such works should be seen as projects of the people and the State rather than of individual politicians. Recognising this association helps you directly link the decision to the State of Punjab. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify which State Amarinder Singh has been Chief Minister of. The correct answer is Punjab. Step 2: Recall that the question refers to a governance measure introduced in April 2017 concerning plaques and foundation stones. Step 3: Understand that this measure was widely reported as a move by the Punjab government to reduce personalised political publicity on public works. Step 4: Examine the options and find Punjab listed among them. Step 5: Conclude that the decision was taken in the State of Punjab. Verification / Alternative check: Even if you do not recall the exact news report, you can verify the answer by asking which of the listed States has Amarinder Singh as a prominent political leader. Maharashtra is associated with leaders like Devendra Fadnavis and Uddhav Thackeray, Himachal Pradesh with leaders such as Virbhadra Singh and Jai Ram Thakur, and Uttar Pradesh with leaders like Yogi Adityanath. Amarinder Singh is widely known as a senior leader from Punjab. Therefore, cross-checking the known political leadership of each State supports the conclusion that the policy was introduced in Punjab. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A, Maharashtra, has its own political leadership and has not been associated with this specific 2017 decision under Amarinder Singh. Option C, Himachal Pradesh, also did not have Amarinder Singh as Chief Minister, and though States sometimes take similar steps, this particular measure was not attributed to Himachal Pradesh. Option D, Uttar Pradesh, has seen various reforms under its own leadership but is not the State connected to this specific decision involving Amarinder Singh. Thus, these options do not match the known political facts. Common Pitfalls: A frequent mistake is to answer based only on familiarity with bigger or more frequently mentioned States, such as Maharashtra or Uttar Pradesh, without checking which leader is named in the question. Another error is to confuse Amarinder Singh with other leaders who share the same surname or to mix up his association with different regions. In polity and current affairs questions, carefully linking the individual leader to the correct State is crucial for accuracy. Final Answer: The ban on including names of Ministers and MLAs on plaques and foundation stones announced in April 2017 by Chief Minister Amarinder Singh was implemented in the State of Punjab.

Question 11

In the history of Indian economic planning, in which year was the First Five Year Plan formally launched in India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Five Year Plans form an important part of India's post independence economic history. They represent planned efforts by the government to guide development, allocate resources, and prioritise sectors such as agriculture, industry, and infrastructure. The First Five Year Plan is especially significant because it set the basic pattern for planned economic development in India. This question asks you to recall the year in which this First Five Year Plan was launched, which is a standard fact for many competitive examinations in Indian Polity and Economy. Given Data / Assumptions: The question refers to the First Five Year Plan of independent India. It asks for the year of launch of that plan. Options contain years from 1921 to 1951. We assume basic knowledge that Five Year Plans began after independence, not during the early colonial decades. Concept / Approach: The concept tested is simple factual recall about economic planning in India. The First Five Year Plan covered the period from 1951 to 1956 and focused mainly on agriculture, irrigation, and energy. It was launched after the Constitution came into force in 1950 and after necessary institutional structures, including the Planning Commission, had been created. Because of this, the correct year of launch is 1951, not the earlier decades given as distractors in the options. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Remember that Five Year Plans in India started only after independence, which ruled out dates like 1921, 1931, and 1941. Step 2: Recall that the First Five Year Plan period is widely known as 1951 to 1956. Step 3: The starting year of that plan is therefore 1951. Step 4: Compare this understanding with the options provided. Step 5: Select 1951 as the correct year for the launch of the First Five Year Plan in India. Verification / Alternative check: Another way to verify is to recall that India became independent in 1947 and adopted its Constitution in 1950. It would have been impractical to start a formal Five Year Plan as early as 1921, 1931, or 1941, because these were colonial years when the British government did not follow the Soviet style planning model for India. The establishment of the Planning Commission in 1950 and the socio economic context of the early 1950s both support the fact that 1951 marks the beginning of the First Five Year Plan. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A, 1921, lies in the middle of the colonial era, long before independence and before the idea of Five Year Plans was applied to India. Option B, 1931, is again a colonial period and does not correspond to any official Five Year Plan. Option C, 1941, is during the Second World War, when India was still under British rule and the government was preoccupied with war related issues. None of these years match the well established starting point of the First Five Year Plan, which is 1951. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse the recommendations of pre independence planning thinkers and committees with the formal Five Year Plans. Committees like the National Planning Committee and plans proposed by various leaders existed before independence, but these were not official Five Year Plans of the Government of India. Another confusion arises between the year the plan document was prepared and the year it was implemented. For exam purposes, remember that the First Five Year Plan is considered to have started in 1951. Final Answer: The First Five Year Plan in India was formally launched in the year 1951.

Question 12

Under the Constitution of India, the elected members of the Rajya Sabha hold office for a term of how many years?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Parliament of India consists of two Houses, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. Understanding the composition and term of members of each House is a fundamental part of Indian Polity. The Rajya Sabha is known as the Council of States and is a permanent body, but its members do not hold their seats for life. This question checks whether you know the fixed term of office for members of the Rajya Sabha as defined in the Constitution. Given Data / Assumptions: The question concerns the Rajya Sabha, which is the upper house of Parliament. It asks for the term of office of its members in years. The options provide four possible durations: 15, 12, 9, and 6 years. We assume the standard constitutional provisions regarding membership and retirement apply. Concept / Approach: The Rajya Sabha is a continuing chamber that is not subject to dissolution, unlike the Lok Sabha. However, its individual members have a fixed tenure. Article 83 of the Constitution provides that one third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire every second year, and the term of each member is six years. This staggered retirement pattern maintains continuity in the House while still allowing regular partial renewal of membership. The key figure to remember is that each member serves for a term of six years. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Rajya Sabha is a permanent body but its members do not hold office permanently. Step 2: Remember the rule that one third of the members retire every two years. Step 3: From this pattern it follows that each individual member serves a total of six years before retirement. Step 4: Compare this with the options given, which include 15, 12, 9, and 6 years. Step 5: Select 6 years as the correct term of office of a Rajya Sabha member. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, you can contrast the Rajya Sabha with the Lok Sabha. The normal term of the Lok Sabha is five years from the date appointed for its first meeting, unless dissolved earlier. In contrast, the Rajya Sabha is never dissolved as a whole, but members retire by rotation. Standard textbooks and official sources repeatedly mention that each Rajya Sabha member has a six year tenure, making this figure easy to check and remember. Therefore, six years is confirmed as correct. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A, 15 years, does not fit the rotational retirement pattern and is not mentioned in the Constitution. Option B, 12 years, is incorrect and would imply a slower turnover than the one third every two years rule. Option C, 9 years, also does not align with the constitutional design. Only a six year term allows one third of the members to retire every second year while keeping the House as a continuing body. Common Pitfalls: A common error is to confuse the term of office of the Rajya Sabha with that of the President or the Lok Sabha. Some students mistakenly think that because the House is permanent, members have longer terms such as nine or twelve years. Another pitfall is to focus only on the rotational retirement rule and forget the actual number of years a member serves. Always pair the idea of one third retiring every two years with the fact that each member has a six year tenure. Final Answer: Under the Constitution of India, members of the Rajya Sabha are elected for a term of 6 years.

Question 13

On which date did the Constituent Assembly of India formally adopt the song "Jana Gana Mana" as the National Anthem of India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The National Anthem is a powerful symbol of national identity and unity. In India, the song "Jana Gana Mana" composed by Rabindranath Tagore was chosen as the National Anthem by the Constituent Assembly. Knowing the exact date on which it was formally adopted is a frequently asked static general knowledge question in competitive exams. It links the symbolism of the anthem with the historical process of constitution making and the birth of the Republic. Given Data / Assumptions: The question deals with the formal adoption of "Jana Gana Mana" as the National Anthem of India. The adopting authority was the Constituent Assembly of India. The options list four dates in 1949 and 1950. You are expected to recall the specific date associated with this decision. Concept / Approach: The correct date is closely connected to the timeline of India becoming a Republic. The Constitution came into effect on 26 January 1950, and shortly before that, the Constituent Assembly handled several symbolic decisions, including adoption of the National Flag and the National Anthem. The Constituent Assembly officially adopted "Jana Gana Mana" as the National Anthem on 24 January 1950. Recognising this link to Republic Day helps you fix the correct date in memory. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that "Jana Gana Mana" was adopted as the National Anthem just before India became a Republic. Step 2: Remember that the Constitution came into force on 26 January 1950. Step 3: The adoption of the National Anthem by the Constituent Assembly took place on 24 January 1950. Step 4: Compare this date with the given options. Step 5: Select 24th January 1950 as the correct date of adoption. Verification / Alternative check: One way to verify is to remember that several key resolutions of the Constituent Assembly, such as the election of the first President of India and final ceremonial steps towards the Republic, were completed around 24 January 1950. Official records and standard reference books on the Indian Constitution clearly state that "Jana Gana Mana" was adopted as the National Anthem on that date. Since the other dates in 1949 or mid 1950 do not match this record, 24 January 1950 is confirmed as the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A, 24th May 1949, is too early and does not coincide with the final stages of constitution framing and preparation for Republic Day. Option B, 24th November 1949, is close to the date when the Constitution was adopted by the Assembly but not yet in force and is not the official date for the anthem decision. Option D, 24th June 1950, comes after the Constitution had already come into effect and does not correspond to any major event involving the adoption of national symbols. Therefore, these dates do not match the documented decision about the anthem. Common Pitfalls: A common difficulty is mixing up the dates related to adoption of the Constitution, its commencement, and adoption of the National Anthem and National Flag. Candidates sometimes assume that the anthem was adopted on 26 January 1950 or on the same date the Constitution was adopted in November 1949. To avoid confusion, remember that 24 January 1950 is the specific date for adoption of "Jana Gana Mana" as the anthem, just two days before the Constitution came into force. Final Answer: The Constituent Assembly of India formally adopted "Jana Gana Mana" as the National Anthem of India on 24th January 1950.

Question 14

Which of the following, if their working is improved, can significantly help the Government of India increase its non-tax revenue?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Government revenue in India comes from two broad sources: tax revenue and non tax revenue. While taxes are widely discussed, non tax revenue also plays an important role in financing public expenditure. Non tax revenue includes profits and fees from public sector enterprises, interest receipts, user charges for public services, and dividends. This question asks you to identify which types of government run activities, if made more efficient, can help increase non tax revenue for the Government of India. Given Data / Assumptions: The subject is non tax revenue of the Government of India and State governments. Options list three major public service sectors: commercial irrigation projects, State Road Transport Corporations, and Electricity Boards. We assume that these bodies are run as public enterprises or government departments that can charge user fees and tariffs. We are asked which of these, if their working improves, can contribute to higher non tax revenue. Concept / Approach: Non tax revenue arises from sources other than compulsory taxes. It includes receipts from economic services provided by the government. Commercial irrigation projects charge fees or water rates, State Road Transport Corporations charge fares, and Electricity Boards charge tariffs for power supply. When these entities work efficiently, reduce losses, curb leakages, and rationalise user charges, they can generate higher surpluses or at least reduce the need for subsidies. All three listed activities therefore have the potential to increase non tax revenue when their functioning is improved. The best answer is "All of the above". Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Understand that non tax revenue mainly includes interest receipts, fees, fines, and surpluses from public enterprises. Step 2: Consider each given sector. Commercial irrigation projects can charge water rates for irrigation services supplied to farmers. Step 3: State Road Transport Corporations operate buses and other public transport services and earn revenue from passenger fares and freight charges. Step 4: Electricity Boards supply power to consumers and collect tariffs, which are an important source of non tax receipts. Step 5: Since all three are potential revenue generating activities, improved efficiency, better collection, and reduced losses in each will increase non tax revenue, so "All of the above" is the correct choice. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, recall that government budgets typically list receipts from economic services and public enterprises as part of non tax revenue. In many Indian States, financial reports show large receipts and sometimes deficits in irrigation, transport, and power sectors. When these sectors are run more commercially and efficiently, the gap between cost and revenue can narrow or reverse, directly affecting the non tax revenue figures. Textbooks on public finance and Indian economy often cite these sectors as examples of potential areas for improving non tax revenue through better management. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A, Commercial Irrigation Projects, is indeed a valid source of non tax revenue, but choosing only this option ignores the other two sectors which also generate receipts. Option B, State Road Transport Corporations, likewise contributes through ticket sales but is not the only source. Option C, Electricity Boards, are significant revenue generators but again not exclusive. Since the question asks how non tax revenue can be increased and all three listed sectors qualify, selecting only one of them would be incomplete. Therefore, the most accurate answer is that all of the given sectors, if better managed, can raise non tax revenue. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes misinterpret non tax revenue as coming only from one or two prominent sectors and underestimate the breadth of government economic activities. Another common error is to think that only profit making enterprises count, ignoring that simply reducing losses or improving cost recovery also strengthens non tax revenue. Some examinees may also confuse these receipts with capital receipts or with tax categories like excise or GST. Remember that user charges and fees from government services such as irrigation, transport, and power are classic examples of non tax revenue. Final Answer: Improving the working of commercial irrigation projects, State Road Transport Corporations, and Electricity Boards can all help increase non tax revenue. Therefore, the correct answer is All of the above.

Question 15

In the Indian constitutional system, who is popularly known as the "guardian of the public purse"?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Financial accountability is a cornerstone of democratic governance. In India, public money collected from taxpayers and other sources must be spent according to law and with due care. The Constitution therefore creates independent institutions to scrutinise how governments spend funds. One of the most important of these is the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, often described as the guardian of the public purse. This question checks whether you know which authority carries this informal but meaningful title. Given Data / Assumptions: The phrase used is "guardian of the public purse". The options include four important institutions or authorities in India. The subject is financial oversight and audit of government expenditure. We assume you are familiar with the basic roles of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India and other high offices. Concept / Approach: The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) is an independent constitutional authority appointed under Articles 148 to 151 of the Constitution. The CAG audits the accounts of the Union and State governments and of government owned bodies. Through audit reports submitted to legislatures, the CAG helps Parliament and State legislatures oversee how the executive has used public funds. Because this office safeguards public finances by checking misuse, wastage, and irregularities in expenditure, it is widely called the guardian of the public purse. None of the other options has this specific functional label. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify which institution is directly responsible for auditing government receipts and expenditure. Step 2: Remember that the Comptroller and Auditor General of India audits Union and State accounts and reports to legislatures. Step 3: Recognise that this audit function protects public money and highlights irregularities. Step 4: Connect this protective role to the phrase "guardian of the public purse". Step 5: Select Comptroller and Auditor General of India as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify your answer by revisiting standard Indian Polity texts, which consistently refer to the CAG as the guardian of the public purse. Additionally, the CAG is given security of tenure and protected service conditions to ensure independence from the executive, which reinforces this role. The Prime Minister heads the Council of Ministers but does not perform audit functions, the Chief Justice heads the judiciary, and the Ministry of Law and Justice advises on legal matters but does not monitor public expenditure in the same independent manner as the CAG. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option B, Prime Minister of India, is the head of the government but is responsible for policy and administration rather than independent audit of public accounts. Option C, Chief Justice of India, leads the judiciary and ensures justice but is not tasked with routine financial oversight of government spending. Option D, Ministry of Law and Justice, primarily handles legal affairs and legislative drafting and does not function as an independent auditor of government accounts. None of these institutions is commonly described as the guardian of the public purse. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may mistakenly associate the phrase guardian of the public purse with the Finance Ministry or with Parliament, since both deal with budgeting and passing of money bills. However, the term in exam contexts specifically refers to the institution that checks how money is actually spent and reports back to the legislature. Remembering that the CAG stands outside the executive and examines its financial operations helps you avoid this confusion. Final Answer: In the Indian constitutional framework, the authority popularly known as the guardian of the public purse is the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

Question 16

Under the Constitution of India, who formally appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Free and fair elections are vital for any democracy, and in India this responsibility is entrusted to an independent Election Commission. The head of this body is the Chief Election Commissioner of India. Examinations frequently ask about the manner of appointment, tenure, and removal of this constitutional officer. This question focuses specifically on who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner under the Constitution of India. Given Data / Assumptions: The post concerned is that of the Chief Election Commissioner of India. The question is about the appointing authority, not about removal or tenure. The options list the President, Prime Minister, Chief Justice of India, and Home Minister of India. We assume the standard constitutional practice without going into possible appointment committees or conventions. Concept / Approach: Article 324 of the Constitution of India vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission of India. It also states that the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners are appointed by the President of India, subject to any law made by Parliament. In practice, the President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers, but the formal constitutional appointing authority remains the President. Therefore, the correct answer is the President of India. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that election administration is handled by the Election Commission of India under Article 324. Step 2: Remember that this Article specifies the authority that appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners. Step 3: The text of Article 324 clearly mentions the President as the appointing authority. Step 4: Review the options and identify "The President of India" among them. Step 5: Choose "The President of India" as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Standard Indian Polity textbooks, constitutional commentaries, and official documentation all state that the Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the President of India. While there may be recommendations or consultations with the Prime Minister or other members of the executive, these are not mentioned explicitly in the constitutional text for exam purposes. No judicial office such as the Chief Justice is vested with appointment authority over the Election Commission in the Constitution, which confirms that the President is the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option B, Prime Minister of India, plays a key advisory role in executive appointments but is not the formal appointing authority; the Constitution names the President, not the Prime Minister. Option C, Chief Justice of India, participates in some appointment processes for judges and has a role in oath taking of the President, but not in appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner. Option D, Home Minister of India, is an important member of the Union Council of Ministers but does not have independent constitutional authority to appoint the Chief Election Commissioner. These options therefore do not match the constitutional provision. Common Pitfalls: A frequent source of confusion is mixing up who recommends a candidate and who formally appoints the person. In many constitutional offices, the President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, but for exam answers, you must give the authority named in the Constitution. Another pitfall is to assume that the judiciary, represented by the Chief Justice, appoints all independent authorities, which is not correct. For the Election Commission, remember that the President is the appointing authority. Final Answer: Under the Constitution of India, the President of India formally appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India.

Question 17

Which of the following constitutional authorities in India hold office during the pleasure of the President? I. Attorney General of India II. Governors of States III. Comptroller and Auditor General of India Select the correct answer using the code …

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The phrase "during the pleasure of the President" is often used in the Indian Constitution to describe how long certain office holders remain in position. It reflects a type of tenure in which the holder can be removed by the President without a fixed term, subject to constitutional limitations. This question tests your understanding of which high constitutional offices actually have such a tenure and which have a more secure, fixed tenure protected by special removal procedures. Given Data / Assumptions: The offices listed are: Attorney General of India, Governors of States, and Comptroller and Auditor General of India. The question asks which of these hold office during the pleasure of the President. Options are presented as codes combining I, II, and III. We assume knowledge of basic Articles regarding appointment and removal of these authorities. Concept / Approach: The Attorney General of India is appointed by the President under Article 76 and holds office during the pleasure of the President. Similarly, Governors of States are appointed by the President under Article 155 and hold office during the pleasure of the President as stated in Article 156. In contrast, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) is given security of tenure under Article 148; the CAG can be removed only in a manner similar to that of a judge of the Supreme Court, not simply at the pleasure of the President. Therefore, only I and II have pleasure tenure, while III has a protected tenure. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: For I, Attorney General of India, recall that Article 76 states that the Attorney General holds office during the pleasure of the President. Step 2: For II, Governors of States, recall that Article 156 provides that a Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President. Step 3: For III, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, note that Article 148 gives a fixed and secure tenure; removal is possible only in a manner similar to a judge of the Supreme Court. Step 4: From these provisions, conclude that I and II are pleasure of the President posts, while III is not. Step 5: Select the code that corresponds to I and II only, which is "Both I and II". Verification / Alternative check: You can cross check by remembering which offices are deliberately insulated from executive influence. The CAG's role as independent auditor of government accounts requires security of tenure to avoid pressure from the executive, so it would not make sense for the CAG to serve at the pleasure of the President. In contrast, the Attorney General is the government's chief legal adviser and is expected to leave office when the government changes or when the President so decides. Governors also routinely change with political shifts, which fits with a pleasure tenure. This pattern confirms that I and II, but not III, come under the pleasure of the President. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A, Only I, wrongly excludes Governors even though their Articles clearly mention pleasure of the President. Option C, Both I and III, incorrectly treats the CAG as holding office at the pleasure of the President, which would undermine the independence of this office. Option D, Both II and III, similarly misclassifies the CAG and omits the Attorney General, who definitely holds office during the President's pleasure. Therefore, only option B correctly captures the constitutional position. Common Pitfalls: Students often confuse which officers enjoy protection similar to that of Supreme Court judges and which do not. A typical mistake is to assume that all high level appointees of the President serve at pleasure, overlooking special provisions for independent authorities like the CAG or judges. Another pitfall is to think that the Attorney General has the same security as the judges, which is not the case. To avoid errors, keep a clear mental list of offices with protected tenure and those with pleasure tenure. Final Answer: The constitutional authorities who hold office during the pleasure of the President are the Attorney General of India and the Governors of States, that is, Both I and II.

Question 18

In the context of the proposed Financial Resolution and Deposit Insurance (FRDI) Bill, 2017 in India, what does the letter "D" stand for in the abbreviation "FRDI"?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Abbreviations and acronyms are common in economic and financial legislation, and competitive exams often test whether you know their full forms and meanings. The Financial Resolution and Deposit Insurance (FRDI) Bill, 2017 was an important proposal relating to the resolution of financial firms and protection of depositors. This question asks what the letter "D" in the abbreviation "FRDI" stands for, which you can answer if you know the complete expansion of the term. Given Data / Assumptions: The abbreviation in focus is FRDI. The Bill was named the Financial Resolution and Deposit Insurance Bill, 2017. The question specifically asks about the meaning of the letter "D". Options include Destruction, Demand, Deposit, and Department. Concept / Approach: The FRDI Bill was aimed at creating a comprehensive framework for resolving financial firms such as banks and insurance companies that are in distress, while also protecting depositors through a structured deposit insurance mechanism. The full form of FRDI is Financial Resolution and Deposit Insurance. Thus, the letter "D" in FRDI clearly stands for "Deposit". Knowing the full form directly leads you to the correct option without confusion. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the full name of the FRDI Bill, 2017. Step 2: The Bill is called the Financial Resolution and Deposit Insurance Bill. Step 3: Break the abbreviation FRDI into its components: F for Financial, R for Resolution, D for Deposit, and I for Insurance. Step 4: Focus on the letter "D" as asked in the question. Step 5: Conclude that "D" stands for "Deposit" and choose that option. Verification / Alternative check: If you are unsure, you can verify by thinking about what kind of issues the Bill addressed. It was not about destruction, demand, or departments in a general sense, but about resolving financial stress and insuring deposits held by customers in financial institutions. Therefore, the most relevant word beginning with D is "Deposit". This matches the common phrase "deposit insurance", which appears in the title of the Bill itself. This contextual check confirms that Deposit is the correct expansion. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A, Destruction, does not appear in the name of the Bill and does not accurately describe the objective of financial resolution and depositor protection. Option B, Demand, may appear in other financial contexts such as demand deposits, but it is not part of the title of the FRDI Bill. Option D, Department, is a general administrative term and has no place in the official name of the Bill. Only Deposit fits with the known expansion Financial Resolution and Deposit Insurance. Common Pitfalls: One common error is to confuse FRDI with other financial acronyms or to guess randomly from the options without recalling the full form. Another pitfall is to focus on words like demand or department because they sound financial or administrative, but these are not actually part of the expansion. To avoid such mistakes, it is helpful to memorise the full forms of key economic and legal abbreviations, especially those frequently mentioned in news and exam oriented materials. Final Answer: In the abbreviation "FRDI", the letter "D" stands for Deposit as in Financial Resolution and Deposit Insurance.

Question 19

According to recent economic data, which Indian State has the highest Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP), that is, the highest overall GDP among all States?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The economic strength of Indian States is often measured by their Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP), commonly referred to as the State's GDP. General knowledge and competitive exams frequently ask which State tops this list, because it reflects broader patterns of industrialisation, services growth, and overall economic activity. This question asks you to identify the Indian State with the highest GSDP among the options given. Given Data / Assumptions: The concept in focus is Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) of Indian States. We are asked which State has the highest GSDP. The options are Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh. We assume up to date general understanding that rankings refer to overall size of the economy, not per capita income. Concept / Approach: Maharashtra has consistently been recognised as the State with the largest GSDP in India. It is home to Mumbai, the country's financial capital, and hosts major industries in finance, manufacturing, services, film, and trade. While Gujarat, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh are also economically significant States, their total GSDP figures are lower than Maharashtra's overall output. Therefore, for questions asking about the State with the highest GDP or GSDP in India, Maharashtra is the correct answer. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall general economic rankings of Indian States by GSDP. Step 2: Identify Maharashtra as the State that usually tops the list in terms of total State GDP. Step 3: Remember that Gujarat, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh, although powerful economies, follow behind Maharashtra in overall size. Step 4: Check the options for Maharashtra. Step 5: Select Maharashtra as the State with the highest GSDP. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by thinking about the major economic centres of India. Maharashtra includes Mumbai and Pune and has a very strong industrial and service base, with major ports, stock exchanges, information technology hubs, and manufacturing clusters. Economic surveys, official statistics, and reputable data compilations consistently rank Maharashtra first in terms of GSDP. Other States like Gujarat and Karnataka rank high, but not at the top. Thus, Maharashtra is confirmed as the richest State in terms of aggregate GDP. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A, Gujarat, is an industrially advanced State and often ranks among the top States but usually comes behind Maharashtra in total GSDP. Option C, Karnataka, has a strong information technology and services sector centred in Bengaluru, but its total GSDP is still lower than Maharashtra. Option D, Andhra Pradesh, has made significant strides in agriculture, services, and industry, yet it does not surpass Maharashtra in overall State GDP. Hence, none of these options are at the very top in terms of total GSDP. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes confuse highest per capita income with highest total GDP, leading them to pick smaller but richer States in per capita terms. Another error is to rely on outdated or regional impressions and not on overall statistics. It is also common to mix up ranks among the top States, such as placing Gujarat or Tamil Nadu first. For exams, you should remember that in terms of total GSDP, Maharashtra is widely recognised as the largest State economy in India. Final Answer: The Indian State with the highest Gross State Domestic Product, that is, the largest overall GDP, is Maharashtra.

Question 20

In the three-tier Panchayati Raj system in India, what is the name of the intermediate tier between the Gram Panchayat and the Zila Parishad?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Panchayati Raj represents the system of rural local self government in India. The Constitution, through the 73rd Amendment, gave constitutional status to Panchayats and laid down a three tier structure in most States. Understanding the names and levels of these bodies is a basic but crucial topic in Indian Polity. This question asks you to identify the intermediate tier between the village level Gram Panchayat and the district level Zila Parishad. Given Data / Assumptions: The context is the three tier Panchayati Raj structure. The lowest tier is the Gram Panchayat at the village level. The top tier is the Zila Parishad at the district level. The question asks for the name of the middle or intermediate tier. Concept / Approach: In the three tier Panchayati Raj system, the structure generally consists of Gram Panchayat at the village level, Panchayat Samiti at the block or intermediate level, and Zila Parishad at the district level. The Panchayat Samiti is sometimes referred to as the block level or middle tier Panchayat body. It coordinates the activities of Gram Panchayats and works under the overall supervision of the Zila Parishad. Therefore, the correct answer is Panchayat Samiti. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the three main levels of Panchayati Raj: village, intermediate, and district. Step 2: Identify the Gram Panchayat as the village level body and Zila Parishad as the district level body. Step 3: Recognise that the intermediate level is generally at the block or taluka level. Step 4: Remember that this intermediate tier is called the Panchayat Samiti. Step 5: Select Panchayat Samiti from the options as the correct intermediate tier. Verification / Alternative check: Standard polity sources and constitutional explanations of the 73rd Amendment confirm the three tier arrangement: Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, and Zila Parishad. Some smaller States and Union Territories may have two tier or single tier systems, but where the three tier system is in force, the names are consistent. The term Sarpanch refers to the elected head of a Gram Panchayat, not a separate tier. Thus, Panchayat Samiti is clearly the name of the intermediate tier. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A, Gram Panchayat, is the village level body and not the intermediate tier. Option B, Zila Parishad, is the top tier at the district level. Option C, Sarpanch Panchayat, is not a standard constitutional or legal term for any tier of Panchayati Raj; the word Sarpanch refers to the head of a Gram Panchayat, not an intermediate body. Therefore, these options do not correctly identify the middle level in the three tier system. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes mix up the terminology and think that Panchayat Samiti and Gram Panchayat are interchangeable, or that Zila Parishad might refer to a State level institution. Another common error is to treat Sarpanch as a separate institutional tier, when in reality it is a position within the Gram Panchayat. To avoid confusion, remember the neat structure: village level Gram Panchayat, block level Panchayat Samiti, and district level Zila Parishad. Final Answer: In the three tier Panchayati Raj system, the intermediate tier between Gram Panchayat and Zila Parishad is the Panchayat Samiti.

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