Question 1

Which one of the following is not a specific flagship scheme or project launched as such by the present Central Government, even though the term may be used in other contexts?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question is about differentiating between named government schemes and broader sectors or ministries. The present Central Government has launched several flagship schemes with distinctive names, such as AMRUT, Swachh Bharat Mission and Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana. AYUSH, on the other hand, is a term used mainly to describe a group of traditional systems of medicine and a dedicated ministry, not a single stand alone scheme in itself. Identifying this difference helps in avoiding confusion in exam questions. Given Data / Assumptions: The question asks which option is not a specific scheme or project of the present Government. The options include names of well known missions and one term that refers to a sector or ministry rather than a flagship scheme. It is assumed that you have basic familiarity with the main schemes launched in recent years. The presence of similar sounding names may tempt you to think all are schemes, so careful discrimination is required. Concept / Approach: AMRUT, or Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation, is a defined urban renewal scheme focusing on basic infrastructure in cities. Swachh Bharat Mission is a nationwide cleanliness and sanitation campaign. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana is a financial inclusion scheme. Smart Cities Mission is a programme to promote sustainable and citizen friendly cities. AYUSH, however, is an umbrella term for Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha and Homoeopathy and is associated with a Ministry of AYUSH. It is not, by itself, a specific centrally sponsored scheme like the others, which is why it is the correct answer here. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify which options clearly contain words like Mission, Yojana or scheme, indicating specific government programmes. Step 2: Recognise that AMRUT, Swachh Bharat Mission, Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana and Smart Cities Mission all refer to clearly defined schemes with their own guidelines and budgets. Step 3: Note that AYUSH is used to denote a set of traditional medical systems and a ministry, not a single scheme launched in the same way. Step 4: Conclude that AYUSH is therefore the option that is not a specific scheme or project of the present Government, even though the ministry supports many programmes. Step 5: Select AYUSH as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: If you check government documents or official portals on schemes, you will see separate detailed pages for AMRUT, Swachh Bharat Mission, Jan Dhan Yojana and Smart Cities Mission. They have distinct objectives, funding patterns and implementation guidelines. AYUSH, in contrast, directs you mainly to the Ministry of AYUSH and its various initiatives; the term itself is not a single flagship scheme document but a sectoral label and ministerial name. Why Other Options Are Wrong: AMRUT is a specific urban development mission that aims to provide basic services in cities and towns, especially water supply and sewerage. Swachh Bharat Mission is a clearly identified scheme for cleanliness and sanitation, including rural and urban components. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana is a flagship financial inclusion scheme targeting universal access to banking facilities. Smart Cities Mission is a defined programme to develop selected cities with improved infrastructure, technology and governance. Common Pitfalls: A common confusion arises because AYUSH appears frequently in news and government announcements, leading some learners to treat it as a stand alone scheme, when in reality it is the name of a ministry and a grouping of medical systems. To avoid such mistakes, it is useful to separate names of ministries and sectors from names of individual schemes. Schemes almost always carry words such as Yojana, Mission or Abhiyan, whereas ministry names describe departments of government. Final Answer: The option that is not a specific scheme or project of the present Government is AYUSH.

Question 2

In India, which one of the following taxes is levied by the state governments in their own domain rather than exclusively by the Union Government?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question explores the division of taxing powers between the Union and the states in India. Different types of taxes are assigned to different levels of government by the Constitution, often with detailed entries in the Union and State Lists. Knowing which taxes are levied by the Union and which by the states is fundamental to understanding Indian fiscal federalism and is frequently tested in examinations. Given Data / Assumptions: The question asks specifically about a tax levied by state governments. The options list various taxes such as excise duty on liquor, capital gains tax, customs duty and corporation tax. Some of these taxes are well known to fall under Union jurisdiction. The reference is to the general assignment of powers, not to special surcharges or shared revenues. Concept / Approach: The Constitution assigns excise duties on alcoholic liquor for human consumption and on certain other goods to the states, while most other major taxes like customs duty, income tax and corporation tax are levied by the Union Government. Capital gains tax is a part of income tax, and customs duty is exclusively a Union subject. Corporation tax on company profits is also levied by the Union. Therefore, the only tax in the given options that is clearly levied by state governments is excise duty on liquor for human consumption. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that state governments have the power to levy excise duty on alcoholic liquor for human consumption under the State List. Step 2: Remember that capital gains tax forms part of the Union income tax and is therefore a central tax. Step 3: Note that customs duty on imports and exports is exclusively a Union List subject. Step 4: Recognise that corporation tax on company profits is also levied by the Union Government, not the states. Step 5: Conclude that excise duty on liquor is the correct answer as a state levied tax. Verification / Alternative check: Examining the entries in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution and standard tax manuals reveals that excise duties on alcoholic liquor and certain other items are within state jurisdiction. Meanwhile, entries related to customs, income tax and corporation tax appear in the Union List. This structural allocation confirms that excise duty on liquor is the tax levied by states in the list provided. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Capital gains tax is part of the Union income tax law and is assessed and collected by the central authorities. Customs duty on imports and exports is entirely a Union subject and is administered by the central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs. Corporation tax on company profits is imposed by the Union Government under central legislation and is not levied by individual state governments. Service tax historically was a Union levy and has now been subsumed into the Goods and Services Tax framework, where the central and state shares are determined under a separate constitutional and statutory arrangement, but as a simple label it does not represent a pure state levy. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse the place where tax is collected with the authority that levies it. For example, even if a customs office is physically located in a state, customs duty remains a central tax. Another pitfall is to assume that any tax on companies must be a state tax because companies operate locally. In reality, the Constitution assigns such broader base taxes to the Union, while states rely more on excise duties, state GST, stamp duties and certain other levies. Final Answer: In India, the tax levied by state governments among the given options is excise duty on liquor for human consumption.

Question 3

In the Parliament of India, the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is appointed by which of the following authorities?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Public Accounts Committee is one of the most important financial committees of the Indian Parliament. It examines the accounts showing the appropriation of funds granted by Parliament and the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. The leadership of this committee plays a significant role in ensuring legislative oversight of public expenditure. This question asks which authority appoints the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee. Given Data / Assumptions: The committee in focus is the Public Accounts Committee (PAC). The question asks specifically about the appointment of its Chairman. The options list top constitutional and parliamentary authorities such as the President, Prime Minister, Speaker and Chairman of Rajya Sabha. It is assumed that you understand PAC is a committee of the Parliament, primarily associated with the Lok Sabha. Concept / Approach: The members of the Public Accounts Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, but the committee is under the overall jurisdiction of the Lok Sabha. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha appoints the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee from among its members. In recent decades, by convention, the Chairman is usually from the main opposition party, but the formal power of appointment lies with the Speaker, not with the President or the Prime Minister. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that the PAC is a parliamentary committee whose formation and functioning are governed by the rules of procedure of the Lok Sabha. Step 2: Recall that the Speaker of the Lok Sabha plays a central role in constituting and directing Lok Sabha committees. Step 3: Remember that the Chairman of the PAC is chosen by the Speaker from among the members of the committee. Step 4: Compare this with the roles of the President, Prime Minister and Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, who do not appoint the PAC Chairman. Step 5: Select Speaker of the Lok Sabha as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: The rules of procedure and conduct of business in the Lok Sabha clearly state that the Speaker appoints the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee. Newspaper reports on the appointment of new PAC Chairmen also routinely mention that the Speaker has named a particular member to this post, often from the opposition party, which reinforces this understanding. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The President of India does not directly involve himself or herself in the appointment of committee Chairmen inside the Parliament; such matters are internal to the Houses. The Prime Minister may influence decisions politically but has no formal authority to appoint the Chairman of the PAC under the rules. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides over the upper house and its committees; the PAC, however, is under the primary control of the Lok Sabha Speaker for appointment of its Chairman. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is an external constitutional authority whose reports are examined by the PAC but who has no role in choosing the committee leadership. Common Pitfalls: Some learners mistakenly believe the President or Prime Minister must appoint all important posts. Others know that PAC includes members from both Houses and therefore assume the Chairman of Rajya Sabha must have a say. In reality, the parliamentary committee structure is largely internal to each House, and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the decisive formal role regarding the Chairmanship of the Public Accounts Committee. Final Answer: The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Question 4

The discretionary power of a Governor under the Constitution of India is most limited in which of the following situations related to the functioning of the state legislature and government?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question examines your understanding of the discretionary powers of a Governor in India. While the Governor normally acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, there are certain situations where the Governor has some discretion. However, the extent of discretion varies with the situation. The question asks where the Governor s discretionary power is most limited among the given options. Given Data / Assumptions: The office in question is the Governor of an Indian state. The options list various scenarios such as appointment of the Chief Minister, dismissal of the ministry, dissolution of the Assembly and assent to Bills. The phrase discretionary powers is used in the sense of the Governor acting independently of ministerial advice in certain circumstances. You are expected to know where the Governor relies most on the elected government s advice and has the least independent room for decision. Concept / Approach: Under the parliamentary system, a Governor generally acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers, with some exceptions such as when appointing a Chief Minister after an inconclusive election, recommending President Rule or reserving certain Bills for the President. In the matter of giving assent to Bills passed by the state legislature, the Governor usually follows the advice of the state government except in limited cases where the Constitution specifically requires reservation for the President or allows withholding of assent. Compared to situations like appointing a Chief Minister in a hung house or dismissing a government that has clearly lost majority, the scope for independent discretion is more limited in routine assent to Bills. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Consider appointment of a Chief Minister in a fragmented Assembly, where the Governor must judge who is most likely to command majority support; this involves significant discretion. Step 2: Look at dismissal of a ministry and dissolution of the Assembly after loss of majority; here also the Governor has to assess the situation and may exercise judgment. Step 3: Examine the case of sending a report to the President about constitutional breakdown under Article 356, which again involves the Governor s assessment and discretion. Step 4: Compare these with assent to Bills, where in most ordinary cases the Governor acts on ministerial advice and constitutional rules, and personal discretion is tightly limited to specific situations such as mandatory reservation of certain Bills. Step 5: Conclude that the Governor s discretionary power is most limited in the matter of assent to Bills. Verification / Alternative check: Constitutional provisions and Supreme Court judgments emphasise that the Governor is normally bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers and that discretion exists only in narrowly defined areas. Commentaries on state government and Governor s role usually highlight appointment of the Chief Minister, recommending President Rule and decisions in uncertain majority situations as key discretionary fields, whereas assent to Bills is largely guided by the ministry s advice and constitutional requirements, leaving relatively less personal discretion. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Appointment of the Chief Minister, especially after a hung Assembly, involves substantial discretion in identifying which leader can command majority support. Dismissal of the Council of Ministers when it has lost majority support requires the Governor to make a judgment on whether the ministry can continue, again implying significant discretion. Dissolution of the Legislative Assembly often depends on recommendations of the ministry but may also involve the Governor s discretion in special cases, particularly when no stable government is possible. Sending a report to the President about breakdown of constitutional machinery is a crucial discretionary function that can lead to President Rule and therefore clearly involves independent assessment. Common Pitfalls: A common error is to assume that any formal act like assent to Bills must involve a lot of discretion. In reality, discretion is limited to what the Constitution expressly or by necessary implication allows. Students should carefully distinguish between situations where the Governor has to exercise personal judgment and those where the Governor mainly acts as a constitutional head following ministerial advice. This understanding helps avoid confusion in questions about discretionary powers. Final Answer: The Governor s discretionary power is most limited in the matter of assent to Bills passed by the State Legislature.

Question 5

Under the provisions of the Constitution of India, who has the authority to prorogue the Lok Sabha, that is, to end a session of the House without dissolving it?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question is about parliamentary procedure and the constitutional power to prorogue the Lok Sabha. Prorogation ends a session of the House but does not dissolve the House itself. It is different from adjournment, which is decided by the presiding officer, and from dissolution, which terminates the life of the House. The question asks which authority formally exercises the power to prorogue the Lok Sabha in the Indian system. Given Data / Assumptions: The House in focus is the Lok Sabha, the lower house of Parliament. The action is prorogation, not adjournment or dissolution. The options list several key functionaries, including the President, Prime Minister and Speaker. Although political advice is involved, the question focuses on who formally prorogues the House. Concept / Approach: According to the Constitution, the President of India has the power to summon and prorogue both Houses of Parliament and to dissolve the Lok Sabha. In practice, the President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. However, the formal order of prorogation is issued in the name of the President. The Speaker can adjourn sittings but does not have the constitutional power to prorogue the House. Therefore, the correct answer is the President of India. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Article 85 of the Constitution deals with summoning, prorogation and dissolution of the Houses of Parliament. Step 2: Note that this Article confers the power to summon each House, prorogue either House and dissolve the Lok Sabha on the President. Step 3: Understand that while the President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers, the legal act of prorogation is done by the President. Step 4: Distinguish this from adjournment, which is decided by the Speaker during a session and is not the same as prorogation. Step 5: Select The President of India as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Official parliamentary records and constitutional commentaries clearly state that the President issues notifications summoning and proroguing Parliament. Media reports on the end of a session often mention that the President has prorogued the Houses following recommendations from the Cabinet. This consistent usage across formal and informal sources supports the answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can adjourn the House or suspend its sitting but does not have the constitutional authority to prorogue the House. The Prime Minister leads the Council of Ministers and advises the President on parliamentary sessions, but the legal act of prorogation is not done in the Prime Minister s name. The Minister for Parliamentary Affairs coordinates legislative business and may be involved in recommending the schedule, yet does not have the formal power to prorogue the Lok Sabha. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides over the upper house and has no role in proroguing the Lok Sabha. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse prorogation with adjournment, leading them to choose the Speaker as the answer. Another common error is to think that because the Prime Minister is the real head of government, he or she must formally perform all such actions. It is important to remember that in a parliamentary system, the President is the formal head of the Union who summons and prorogues Parliament, acting on the advice of the Council of Ministers. Final Answer: The authority that prorogues the Lok Sabha is the President of India.

Question 6

According to the Constitution of India, who has the power to declare a national emergency under the relevant provisions dealing with situations of war, external aggression or armed rebellion?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question focuses on the emergency provisions in the Constitution of India, specifically the power to declare a national emergency. National emergency may be proclaimed in the case of war, external aggression or armed rebellion. Understanding which constitutional authority issues the formal proclamation is essential knowledge in Indian polity and constitutional law, as it relates to a significant temporary change in the normal federal and rights structure. Given Data / Assumptions: The type of emergency concerned is a national emergency under the relevant constitutional Articles. The situations mentioned are war, external aggression or armed rebellion. The options list important authorities such as the Prime Minister, President, Chief Justice and Parliament. It is assumed that the declaration is being made in accordance with the Constitution, including any required advice or approvals. Concept / Approach: Under Article 352 of the Constitution, the President of India has the power to proclaim a national emergency if satisfied that the security of India or any part of its territory is threatened by war, external aggression or armed rebellion. The President acts on the written advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. After the proclamation, Parliament must approve the emergency within a specified time. However, the initial declaration is made by the President, not directly by Parliament, the Prime Minister or the Chief Justice. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the emergency provisions are contained in Part XVIII of the Constitution, including Article 352 for national emergency. Step 2: Note that Article 352 explicitly vests the power to proclaim an emergency in the President. Step 3: Acknowledge that the President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers, but the legal act of declaration is still done by the President. Step 4: Understand that Parliament has the power to approve, revoke or not extend the emergency, but does not itself directly declare it. Step 5: Select President of India as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Looking up Article 352 in the bare text of the Constitution shows that the opening lines refer to the President being satisfied about the threat and making a proclamation. Constitutional commentaries and standard textbooks also describe the President as the authority who declares national emergency, subject to parliamentary approval. This consistent explanation in multiple authoritative sources confirms the correct option. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The Prime Minister leads the Council of Ministers and his or her advice is crucial, but the Constitution does not give the Prime Minister the independent power to declare emergency; the formal act is done by the President. The Chief Justice of India heads the judiciary and may review emergency related actions through judicial review, but has no role in declaring an emergency. Parliament has the important function of approving and potentially revoking a proclaimed emergency, but it does not issue the initial proclamation itself. The Council of Ministers without the President cannot declare emergency, because the constitutional scheme requires the President to act on ministerial advice and issue the formal proclamation. Common Pitfalls: A common misunderstanding is to assume that Parliament directly declares emergency because it later approves it, or that the Prime Minister does so because of political leadership. It is crucial, however, to distinguish between the formal constitutional act and the political decision behind it. The Constitution clearly assigns the power of proclamation to the President, while requiring parliamentary oversight for continuation and termination of the emergency. Final Answer: Under the Constitution of India, the power to declare a national emergency is vested in the President of India.

Question 7

The Preventive Detention Act, and later preventive detention laws, primarily curtailed which Fundamental Right in the Constitution of India by allowing detention without normal trial for certain periods?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question deals with preventive detention laws in India and their impact on Fundamental Rights. Preventive detention allows the state to detain individuals without a normal criminal trial for a certain period, if it believes this is necessary for reasons such as national security or public order. Such detention clearly affects personal liberty, and the question asks which Fundamental Right is curtailed by such laws in the constitutional framework. Given Data / Assumptions: The focus is on the Preventive Detention Act and later preventive detention laws in India. The question asks which Fundamental Right these laws curtailed. The options list broad categories of Fundamental Rights such as Right to Freedom and Right to Equality. It is understood that preventive detention operates by restricting freedom of movement and personal liberty rather than property or education rights. Concept / Approach: The Right to Freedom in the Constitution covers several aspects including freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession, as well as protection in respect of conviction for offences and protection against arbitrary arrest and detention. Preventive detention directly affects the right to personal liberty and freedom of movement, which are key components of the Right to Freedom. Article 22 of the Constitution specifically deals with protection against arrest and detention but also recognises that preventive detention laws can be made, subject to certain safeguards. Therefore, the right primarily curtailed by such laws is the Right to Freedom. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that preventive detention involves detaining a person not for an offence already committed and proven in court, but to prevent possible future actions considered dangerous by the state. Step 2: Understand that such detention restricts the person s freedom to move, live and act normally, which are aspects of personal liberty under the Right to Freedom. Step 3: Remember that Article 22 provides certain procedural safeguards but also permits preventive detention laws within specific limits and time frames. Step 4: Compare this impact with other rights such as equality or property and see that the primary impact is on personal freedom rather than on these other categories. Step 5: Select Right to Freedom as the Fundamental Right curtailed by preventive detention laws. Verification / Alternative check: Constitutional commentaries and standard textbooks on Indian polity always discuss preventive detention in the chapter on Fundamental Rights related to personal liberty. They point out that while the Constitution strongly protects personal liberty, it also allows for exceptional measures like preventive detention. The explicit mention of such laws in Article 22 shows that the framers were balancing the Right to Freedom with security concerns. This linkage confirms that the main right affected is the Right to Freedom. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The Right to Equality relates to equal treatment and non discrimination before the law. Preventive detention may raise equality concerns in some contexts, but its primary effect is on personal liberty, not on equality as such. The Right to Property was earlier a Fundamental Right but is now a constitutional legal right, and preventive detention laws do not primarily focus on property. The Right to Education is about access to education for children and does not directly connect to preventive detention measures. Cultural and Educational Rights protect the rights of minorities to maintain their culture and establish educational institutions; they are not the central focus of preventive detention legislation. Common Pitfalls: Some students may be tempted to choose Right to Equality because any law that allows detention might appear discriminatory in practice. Others may be unsure which part of the Fundamental Rights chapter preventive detention belongs to. It is important to remember that personal liberty is a core element of the Right to Freedom and that preventive detention is specifically discussed in that context through Article 22. Recognising this helps avoid confusion in exam questions. Final Answer: The Preventive Detention Act and subsequent preventive detention laws primarily curtailed the Right to Freedom by allowing detention without normal trial under specified conditions.

Question 8

In the Constitution of India, the ideas and basic principles of a modern welfare state are primarily contained in which part of the Constitution?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The concept of a welfare state is central to the Indian constitutional framework. A welfare state is a system in which the government plays a key role in promoting the economic and social well being of citizens through policies related to health, education, livelihood, and social security. This question checks whether you can correctly identify the specific part of the Constitution of India where the guiding ideas and obligations of the welfare state are primarily expressed. Given Data / Assumptions: The Constitution of India contains Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy, and a Preamble. The term welfare state is associated with social and economic justice, reduction of inequalities, and protection of weaker sections. You are expected to know which part of the Constitution lays down non enforceable but fundamental governance principles. Concept / Approach: The Directive Principles of State Policy, contained in Part IV of the Constitution, act as instructions to the state on how to govern the country to achieve social and economic democracy. They include provisions about livelihood, public health, education, fair distribution of wealth, protection of workers, children, and women, and promotion of justice. These provisions clearly reflect the ideals of a welfare state. The Fundamental Rights protect individual liberties, while the Preamble states broad objectives. The detailed welfare obligations, however, are in the Directive Principles. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that a welfare state aims at social justice, removal of inequalities, and promotion of the welfare of all citizens.Step 2: Identify which part of the Constitution gives detailed guidance to the state on social, economic, and political policies.Step 3: Note that Part IV contains the Directive Principles of State Policy, which direct the state to secure a social order based on justice and to reduce inequalities.Step 4: Compare with Fundamental Rights and the Preamble, which protect liberties and state broad objectives but do not list specific welfare policy directions in detail.Step 5: Conclude that the ideas of a welfare state are primarily embodied in the Directive Principles of State Policy. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative way to verify is to remember that the Directive Principles talk about providing adequate means of livelihood, equal pay for equal work, promotion of education and public health, and protection of weaker sections like workers, children, and women. These are all classic welfare state commitments. The Fundamental Rights are justiciable in courts but do not themselves define how the state must design welfare policies. The Preamble gives the goals of justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity but not detailed measures, confirming that the Directive Principles are the main source of welfare state ideas. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Fundamental Rights protect individual freedoms against state action but do not provide the full blueprint of welfare obligations, so they are not the primary repository of welfare state ideas. The Preamble of the Constitution expresses broad aims like justice and equality but does not list specific social and economic policy directions. Part VII of the Constitution dealt with certain special provisions related to states and is not the place where welfare state principles are elaborated. Therefore these options do not best capture the welfare state content. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to assume that because the Preamble mentions social and economic justice, it must contain the whole idea of the welfare state. In reality the Preamble sets the tone, while the Directive Principles explain in more detail how the state should act to realize those goals. Another pitfall is to confuse Fundamental Rights with Directive Principles, forgetting that Fundamental Rights are enforceable in court while the Directive Principles guide policy making and administration. Exam questions frequently test this difference, so it is important to keep their purposes distinct in your mind. Final Answer: The ideas of a welfare state in the Constitution of India are primarily contained in the Directive Principles of State Policy.

Question 9

Under the Constitution of India, the President can dismiss a member of the Council of Ministers under which specific condition?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question examines your understanding of how the parliamentary system works in India, especially the relationship between the President and the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. In a parliamentary democracy based on the Westminster model, the real executive power is exercised by the Council of Ministers, and the head of state acts largely on their advice. Knowing who can be dismissed and on whose recommendation is a core part of Indian polity and is frequently tested in competitive exams. Given Data / Assumptions: India follows a parliamentary form of government at the union level. The President is the constitutional head of the state. The Prime Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers. The question is about dismissal of an individual minister from the Council of Ministers. Concept / Approach: Under Articles 74 and 75 of the Constitution of India, the President appoints the Prime Minister and, on the advice of the Prime Minister, appoints other ministers. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. Since ministers hold office at the pleasure of the President, a member of the Council of Ministers can be removed by the President. However this pleasure is not personal or arbitrary; it is exercised on the aid and advice of the Prime Minister. Therefore if the Prime Minister advises that a particular minister should be removed, the President is constitutionally obliged to dismiss that minister. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that ministers are formally appointed by the President but in practice selected by the Prime Minister.Step 2: Remember that ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President, which in a parliamentary system means pleasure exercised according to ministerial advice.Step 3: Understand that individual ministers can be asked to resign or can be removed if the Prime Minister loses confidence in them.Step 4: Connect this with the principle that the President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.Step 5: Conclude that the President dismisses a minister when the Prime Minister so recommends. Verification / Alternative check: As an alternative check, imagine a situation where the President attempts to dismiss a minister without consulting or against the wishes of the Prime Minister. This would destabilize the principle of collective responsibility and undermine the authority of the Prime Minister as head of the government. Constitutional conventions and judicial pronouncements make it clear that the President is bound by advice in such matters. Textbooks on Indian polity consistently state that dismissal of individual ministers is effectively controlled by the Prime Minister, confirming the correct option. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The consent of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is not required for appointment or dismissal of ministers, so that option is incorrect. The power to dismiss a minister is not restricted only to emergency conditions; ministers can be reshuffled or removed at any time as part of normal politics. The idea that the President may dismiss a minister purely on personal discretion contradicts the core principle that the President acts on ministerial advice, so that option is also wrong. Therefore only the option mentioning recommendation or advice of the Prime Minister correctly reflects constitutional practice. Common Pitfalls: Many learners wrongly assume that the phrase pleasure of the President means complete personal freedom for the President. In a parliamentary democracy, this pleasure is ultimately controlled by the majority in the Lok Sabha through the Prime Minister. Another common pitfall is confusing emergency powers with regular executive powers. Even during normal times, ministers can be removed, and emergency is not a precondition. Keeping these distinctions clear will help you tackle several polity questions correctly in exams. Final Answer: The President of India dismisses a member of the Council of Ministers on the recommendation or advice of the Prime Minister.

Question 10

The Sharda Act, also known as the Child Marriage Restraint Act, was historically enacted in India to deal with which specific social evil?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Sharda Act is an important landmark in the social reform history of India. It is closely linked with the reform movements that aimed to remove certain harmful customs that affected the lives of women and children. Examinations on general knowledge and Indian polity often test your awareness of major social legislation and the specific issues they addressed. This question focuses on identifying the main purpose of the Sharda Act. Given Data / Assumptions: The Act mentioned is the Sharda Act, also known as the Child Marriage Restraint Act. The context is social reform in pre independence India. You are expected to know which social evil or problem the Act primarily targeted. The options mention different categories like scheduled tribes, minorities, child marriage, and women empowerment. Concept / Approach: The Child Marriage Restraint Act, commonly called the Sharda Act after Harbilas Sharda who introduced it, was passed in 1929. Its key objective was to discourage and restrict the practice of child marriage by prescribing minimum ages for marriage and penalties for those who conducted or promoted such marriages. Although later laws further revised age limits and enforcement mechanisms, the Sharda Act is historically remembered as the earliest national level legislation targeting child marriage in India. Therefore, the correct concept linked to this Act is restraint of child marriage and not broader issues such as tribal upliftment or general women empowerment. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the full name Child Marriage Restraint Act associated with the Sharda Act.Step 2: Connect the phrase child marriage restraint with efforts to stop early marriages of boys and girls.Step 3: Remember that the Act prescribed minimum marriageable age and provided penalties for violation.Step 4: Evaluate the options and match them with the key term child marriage.Step 5: Select the option that specifically mentions prevention and restraint of child marriage as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify your answer by recalling that issues like upliftment of scheduled tribes and minorities have been addressed by other policies, commissions, and constitutional provisions rather than a single famous Act labeled Sharda. History and polity reference books consistently list the Sharda Act under social reform measures against child marriage. Also, later laws like the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act built on the same idea. This consistent association across sources confirms that the Sharda Act mainly targeted child marriage. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Upliftment of scheduled tribes is a broader developmental and protective objective achieved through reservation policies, special commissions, and welfare schemes, not through the Sharda Act. Upliftment of religious minorities is again a wide objective involving educational and economic measures rather than this specific legislation. Empowerment of women is indeed an indirect outcome of discouraging child marriage, but the Act did not focus on all aspects of women empowerment such as property rights or employment; it specifically targeted early marriages. Therefore the option about prevention and restraint of child marriage is the most accurate and focused description. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake in exams is to mark a broad sounding option like empowerment of women because it appears positive and socially progressive. However, competitive exams often require you to remember the precise and primary purpose of a particular Act. In this case, the key is to link the name Child Marriage Restraint Act directly with child marriage. Always pay attention to exact statutory titles; they usually reveal the correct focus area of the law and help you avoid confusion among attractive but vague alternatives. Final Answer: The Sharda Act was enacted in India to prevent and restrain the practice of child marriage.

Question 11

In the Indian Parliament, which of the following committees is normally chaired by a prominent member of the opposition and acts as a key financial watchdog?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question tests your knowledge of the parliamentary committee system in India, especially the role played by opposition parties in ensuring accountability of the executive. Among the various committees, certain financial committees have traditionally been chaired by opposition members in order to strengthen checks and balances. Understanding which committee has this conventionally recognised opposition chair helps you better appreciate the practice of parliamentary oversight over government expenditure. Given Data / Assumptions: The focus is on parliamentary committees of the Indian Parliament. The question asks which committee is normally headed by a prominent member of the opposition. The options include different standing committees: Committee on Government Assurances, Estimates Committee, Privileges Committee, and Public Accounts Committee. You are expected to know the conventional leadership pattern of these bodies. Concept / Approach: Parliamentary committees are smaller groups of Members of Parliament formed to deal with specific areas in detail. Among them, the Public Accounts Committee is one of the key financial committees that examines the accounts of the union government and the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. To make this scrutiny more impartial and effective, it has become a well established convention that the chairperson of the Public Accounts Committee is from the opposition. This helps ensure that public expenditure is examined critically and that the ruling party does not dominate financial oversight. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the three main financial committees of Parliament: Estimates Committee, Public Accounts Committee, and Committee on Public Undertakings.Step 2: Remember that the Public Accounts Committee examines audit reports and government accounts in depth.Step 3: Note the important convention that the chairperson of the Public Accounts Committee is usually from the opposition to promote non partisan scrutiny.Step 4: Compare this with other committees listed in the options, which do not have the same strong convention of opposition chairmanship.Step 5: Conclude that the committee normally chaired by a prominent member of the opposition is the Public Accounts Committee. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by recalling news reports or standard polity books that highlight the Public Accounts Committee whenever major audit findings or financial irregularities are discussed. The media often mentions that the committee is headed by an opposition Member of Parliament, emphasizing its role as a watchdog. Additionally, the Estimates Committee is typically chaired by a ruling party member, and the Committee on Public Undertakings may be led by either side, but the most consistent and visible convention of an opposition chair is with the Public Accounts Committee. This supports the selection of the correct option. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The Committee on Government Assurances primarily tracks whether assurances given by ministers on the floor of the house are fulfilled; it is not associated with a strict convention of an opposition chair. The Estimates Committee analyzes budget estimates and suggests improvements, but its chairperson is generally from the ruling party, not necessarily from the opposition. The Privileges Committee focuses on matters of privilege and conduct of members and again does not have a fixed rule of opposition leadership. Therefore, none of these committees match the specific description given in the question. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to confuse the roles of different financial committees or to assume that any high profile committee may have an opposition chair. Another pitfall is to focus on the word estimates or assurances and think they imply strong oversight, but the key phrase in the question is normally chaired by a prominent member of the opposition. Whenever you see this phrasing in exam questions on Indian Parliament, you should immediately think of the Public Accounts Committee as the most accurate match. Final Answer: In the Indian Parliament the Public Accounts Committee is normally chaired by a prominent member of the opposition.

Question 12

In the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, the subject \"Reserve Bank of India\" is included under which of the following lists?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: India follows a federal system where legislative powers are divided between the Union and the states. The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution contains three lists that distribute subject areas: Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. This question checks whether you know under which list the Reserve Bank of India, the central banking institution of the country, is placed. Since monetary policy and currency regulation are national level responsibilities, this topic is a common test of your understanding of federal distribution of powers. Given Data / Assumptions: The Constitution of India has a Union List, a State List, and a Concurrent List. The subject mentioned is Reserve Bank of India. The Reserve Bank of India acts as the central bank, managing currency, credit, and monetary policy. The Global List mentioned in one option is not a real constitutional list. Concept / Approach: The Union List contains subjects on which only the Parliament can legislate. These are matters of national importance such as defence, foreign affairs, currency, banking, and communication. The Reserve Bank of India is the central bank responsible for issuing currency notes, regulating credit, and managing monetary policy at the national level. Because money and banking require uniform rules across the country, they fall squarely within the competence of the Union government. Therefore the subject Reserve Bank of India is placed in the Union List in the Seventh Schedule. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Union List includes important national subjects like defence, foreign affairs, currency, and central banking.Step 2: Recognize that the Reserve Bank of India is a central bank and not a state level institution.Step 3: Understand that uniform monetary policy and currency issuance must be managed by the Union government for the entire country.Step 4: Compare the three lists and eliminate the State List and Concurrent List, which deal with subjects of regional or shared concern.Step 5: Conclude that the appropriate placement of Reserve Bank of India is in the Union List. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by thinking about whether different states could have separate central banks or distinct legal frameworks for currency. That would be impractical and would undermine the idea of a single national market and uniform currency. Constitutional design therefore gives exclusive control over currency and central banking to the Union government. Standard polity references explicitly mention banking and Reserve Bank of India under the Union List, confirming that your reasoning is correct. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The State List contains subjects like police, public order, public health, and agriculture which are mostly regional in nature, so Reserve Bank of India does not belong there. The Concurrent List is for subjects where both Union and state legislatures can make laws, such as criminal law or marriage, which is not suitable for central banking as it requires exclusive national control. The so called Global List is not recognised in the Constitution; it is included only as a distractor. Hence none of these alternatives match the actual constitutional placement of the Reserve Bank of India. Common Pitfalls: Some learners confuse banking regulation in general with cooperative banking or local financial institutions, and mistakenly think that states may share powers over all forms of banking. While certain aspects of cooperative societies involve states, the central bank itself is unquestionably a Union subject. Another pitfall is to mark the Concurrent List whenever there is doubt, but it is important to remember that subjects requiring uniform, nationwide policy, such as currency and central banking, are reserved for the Union alone. Final Answer: In the Seventh Schedule the subject Reserve Bank of India is included in the Union List.

Question 13

Under the Constitution of India, which body can give the Union Parliament power to make laws on matters that are included in the State List by passing a special resolution?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: India is a federal country where legislative subjects are distributed between the Union and the states. However, the Constitution also provides flexibility so that in certain situations the Union Parliament can legislate on matters that normally fall under the State List. This question examines your knowledge of which institution has the authority to trigger such a transfer of power to Parliament and under what mechanism this occurs. It is based on an important federal provision that appears in Article 249 of the Constitution of India. Given Data / Assumptions: The subject matter is Union Parliament making laws on State List items. The options include executive ministries and regulatory bodies as well as one house of Parliament. The Constitution allows Parliament to legislate on State List subjects under certain special conditions. You are expected to recall which body passes a special resolution enabling this extension of power. Concept / Approach: Article 249 of the Constitution states that if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution supported by not less than two thirds of the members present and voting that it is necessary in the national interest for Parliament to make laws with respect to any matter in the State List, then Parliament gains that power for a limited period. The logic is that the Rajya Sabha represents the states at the national level, so its special resolution reflects the collective will of states to temporarily allow union legislation on state subjects. This power does not belong to the Union executive or to regulatory authorities; it is a constitutional function of the Rajya Sabha. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the State List usually falls within the exclusive legislative competence of state legislatures.Step 2: Remember that the Constitution provides exceptions through which Parliament may legislate on State List subjects in national interest.Step 3: Identify Article 249 as the provision that talks about a special resolution in the Council of States, which is the Rajya Sabha.Step 4: Note that this resolution must be passed by a two thirds majority of members present and voting.Step 5: Conclude that the body empowered to give Parliament this temporary authority is the Rajya Sabha. Verification / Alternative check: You can cross check by remembering the representative role of the Rajya Sabha, which is often described as the council of states. Because it is meant to voice state interests at the union level, it is constitutionally appropriate that this body, and not any executive ministry, decides when national interest justifies Parliament entering the State List field. Textbooks on Indian polity specifically mention that the Rajya Sabha can pass such a resolution in national interest under Article 249, confirming the correct answer. No mention is made of the Ministry of Defence, Prime Minister Office, or Securities and Exchange Board of India in this context. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The Ministry of Defence is an executive department responsible for defence policy and operations, not for conferring legislative competence on Parliament. The Prime Minister's Office assists the Prime Minister in coordination and administration but does not have constitutional authority to alter the division of legislative powers. The Securities and Exchange Board of India is a regulatory body associated with capital markets and has no role in constitutional allocation of legislative fields. None of these have the power described; only the Rajya Sabha can pass the special resolution under Article 249 to empower Parliament to legislate on State List matters in national interest. Common Pitfalls: Exam candidates sometimes mistakenly assume that a powerful executive institution like the Prime Minister Office or a central ministry can override the State List. However, the federal structure is protected by constitutional procedures, not by executive discretion. Another pitfall is to overlook the special role of the Rajya Sabha and focus only on the Lok Sabha. Remembering that the Rajya Sabha symbolically represents states helps you quickly identify its key functions, including this power to extend the Union legislative domain in national interest. Final Answer: Under the Constitution of India, it is the Rajya Sabha that can give Parliament power to make laws on State List matters by passing a special resolution in national interest.

Question 14

In the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, the subject \"Naval, military and air force works\" is included under which list?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question checks your understanding of how defence related subjects are allocated between the Union and the states under the federal scheme of the Indian Constitution. The phrase naval, military and air force works clearly relates to armed forces and national defence infrastructure. Because defence is a core national responsibility, it is important for exam aspirants to know where such subjects are located in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. Given Data / Assumptions: The Constitution has three main lists in the Seventh Schedule: Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. The subject specified is naval, military and air force works. Defence of the country and armed forces are considered national matters. The Global List is not an actual constitutional list and is present only as a distractor. Concept / Approach: The Union List contains subjects on which only the Parliament has the authority to legislate. Defence, armed forces, and works related to them such as cantonments, bases, and military installations are exclusively within the domain of the Union government. This ensures that national security policies and infrastructure are uniform and centrally controlled. Therefore, the subject naval, military and air force works is explicitly placed under the Union List, not under the State or Concurrent Lists. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that naval, military and air force works clearly fall within the sphere of national defence.Step 2: Recall that defence related matters are reserved for the Union government and are part of the Union List.Step 3: Recognise that the State List deals with regional matters like police, agriculture, and public health.Step 4: Note that the Concurrent List is used for subjects where both Union and states can legislate, such as criminal law and marriage, which is not suitable for defence works.Step 5: Conclude that the correct list for naval, military and air force works is the Union List. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify your reasoning by asking whether it would be practical or safe for individual states to independently legislate about naval bases, military airfields, or weapon storage facilities. Because defence is indivisibly linked with national sovereignty and security, such fragmentation is not acceptable. Standard polity texts and the actual entries in the Seventh Schedule confirm that defence and allied works belong entirely to the Union List, reinforcing that your answer is accurate. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The State List is meant for subjects where states can frame their own laws according to local conditions, which does not fit military infrastructure. The Concurrent List allows both levels of government to legislate, but sharing authority over core defence works would conflict with the principle of unified command and control. The Global List is not recognised in the Constitution of India at all. As a result, none of these alternatives can correctly describe the constitutional placement of naval, military and air force works. Common Pitfalls: Candidates may sometimes overuse the Concurrent List as an answer when they feel uncertain, assuming that many subjects are shared. However, it is crucial to remember that certain functions like defence, foreign affairs, and currency must remain exclusively with the Union government and are therefore not shared with states. Another mistake is to be distracted by the unfamiliar term Global List, but recognizing that the Constitution formally mentions only three lists helps you quickly rule it out. Final Answer: In the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, naval, military and air force works are included in the Union List.

Question 15

As per the current allocation of parliamentary constituencies, how many Lok Sabha seats are there in the state of Uttarakhand?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Questions about the number of parliamentary constituencies in different states are common in examinations that cover Indian polity and general knowledge. Knowing how many Lok Sabha seats each state has helps you understand political representation and electoral weight in the national legislature. This question focuses on the relatively small hill state of Uttarakhand and asks for the number of Lok Sabha constituencies allotted to it after delimitation. Given Data / Assumptions: Uttarakhand is a separate state of the Indian Union, carved out of Uttar Pradesh. The Lok Sabha has a total of 543 elected seats distributed among states and union territories. Each state has a fixed number of parliamentary constituencies based on population and past delimitation exercises. The question asks specifically for the number of Lok Sabha seats in Uttarakhand, not for Rajya Sabha seats. Concept / Approach: The allocation of Lok Sabha constituencies to states is carried out by a Delimitation Commission based on population figures and constitutional provisions. Uttarakhand, being a relatively small state in terms of population and area compared to large states like Uttar Pradesh or Maharashtra, has a limited number of seats. After the most recent delimitation in the early two thousands, Uttarakhand has been allotted five Lok Sabha constituencies. This distribution has remained constant since then, and standard reference tables in polity books and election data confirm this number. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Uttarakhand is much smaller in population than states such as Uttar Pradesh or Bihar.Step 2: Remember from state wise seat tables that Uttarakhand has only a handful of Lok Sabha constituencies.Step 3: Note that the commonly remembered figure for Uttarakhand is five parliamentary constituencies.Step 4: Compare this with the options, where five appears as one of the choices.Step 5: Select five as the correct number of Lok Sabha seats for Uttarakhand. Verification / Alternative check: To cross check, you can list from memory the well known Lok Sabha constituencies in Uttarakhand such as Haridwar, Tehri Garhwal, Garhwal, Almora, and Nainital Udham Singh Nagar. Counting these gives exactly five, matching the correct option. You can also recall that larger states like Uttar Pradesh have eighty seats, which is far higher than what would be reasonable for a comparatively small state like Uttarakhand. These reasoning checks help confirm that the figure five is accurate. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The option fourteen is more typical of a medium sized state and does not match Uttarakhand. The option eighty refers to the number of Lok Sabha seats in Uttar Pradesh, not Uttarakhand. The option two would be too low and is more typical of small union territories or very small states. Therefore, all these alternatives are inconsistent with the known representation of Uttarakhand in the Lok Sabha. Common Pitfalls: Many students confuse the number of seats in Uttarakhand with those in Uttar Pradesh because Uttarakhand was formed out of Uttar Pradesh and their names sound similar. Another pitfall is to overestimate the number of constituencies for smaller states, especially if you do not regularly consult the seat distribution tables. A good exam strategy is to remember approximate clusters: very large states like Uttar Pradesh around eighty seats, medium states between ten and forty, and small states like Uttarakhand around five or six. Final Answer: The state of Uttarakhand currently has 5 Lok Sabha seats.

Question 16

In the Indian constitutional scheme, which of the following bodies must approve a Constitutional Amendment Bill along with the Lok Sabha?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Constitutional amendments in India require a special procedure that is more rigorous than that used for ordinary laws. This question focuses on which body, in addition to the Lok Sabha, must pass a Constitutional Amendment Bill for it to succeed. It tests your understanding of the bicameral nature of the Indian Parliament and the processes involved in altering the Constitution of India. Given Data / Assumptions: The Indian Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. Constitutional amendments are passed under Article 368 of the Constitution. The options include the Rajya Sabha and several executive or regulatory bodies. You are expected to know that constitutional amendment requires approval of both houses of Parliament by a special majority. Concept / Approach: Article 368 lays down the procedure for amending the Constitution. A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be introduced in either house of Parliament and must be passed in each house by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the house and a majority of not less than two thirds of the members present and voting. In some cases, ratification by at least half of the state legislatures is also needed. However, in every case the bill must be approved by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. Executive bodies such as ministries or regulatory authorities have no direct role in approving constitutional amendments. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Parliament in India is bicameral, consisting of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.Step 2: Remember that a Constitutional Amendment Bill must be passed in each house of Parliament by a special majority.Step 3: Identify that the body that works alongside the Lok Sabha in the legislative process is the Rajya Sabha.Step 4: Observe that ministries and offices within the executive do not formally pass bills; they merely prepare or support them.Step 5: Conclude that the correct answer is Rajya Sabha as the second house that must approve the amendment bill. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify by thinking of how ordinary bills are passed; they also must be approved by both houses unless the Constitution provides a special mechanism such as a joint sitting. For constitutional amendments, the requirement is even stricter in terms of majority, but the need for both houses remains. No constitutional provision allows a ministry, the Prime Minister's Office, or a regulatory body to substitute for the Rajya Sabha in this process. Standard polity textbooks confirm that both houses must pass the amendment bill under Article 368. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The Ministry of Defence is an executive body that deals with defence policy; it can propose changes but cannot formally approve any bill. The Prime Minister's Office assists the Prime Minister in running the government and does not itself pass legislation. The Securities and Exchange Board of India is a statutory regulator for capital markets and has no role in the constitutional amendment procedure. None of these institutions function as legislative chambers alongside the Lok Sabha, so they cannot be correct. Common Pitfalls: Some learners overestimate the power of the executive and assume that an office like that of the Prime Minister directly approves constitutional amendments. Others may confuse regulatory authorities with legislative institutions. To avoid such mistakes, always remember the basic separation between legislature, executive, and independent regulators. Constitutional amendments are a core legislative function performed by Parliament, and both houses collectively share this responsibility. Final Answer: Along with the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha must approve a Constitutional Amendment Bill for it to be passed under Article 368.

Question 17

Which Central Government immunisation programme aims to cover by the year 2020 all children who are either unvaccinated or only partially vaccinated against seven vaccine preventable diseases?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Public health schemes related to vaccination are a frequent area of questioning in competitive exams because they combine elements of government policy, health, and social welfare. This question focuses on a flagship immunisation programme launched by the Central Government to ensure that all children receive critical vaccines against major diseases. You are asked to identify which scheme targets unvaccinated and partially vaccinated children against seven vaccine preventable diseases, with a target year of 2020 for complete coverage. Given Data / Assumptions: The scheme is a Central Government immunisation programme. The specific aim is to cover unvaccinated and partially vaccinated children. The diseases covered are seven major vaccine preventable diseases. The target year mentioned for achieving coverage is 2020. Concept / Approach: Mission Indradhanush is a major immunisation initiative of the Government of India. The term Indradhanush means rainbow, symbolising a broad spectrum of protection through multiple vaccines. The programme focuses on ensuring that all children and pregnant women who have been missed by routine immunisation are brought into the system. It targets seven vaccine preventable diseases such as diphtheria, whooping cough, tetanus, poliomyelitis, tuberculosis, measles, and hepatitis B. The goal was to achieve high immunisation coverage by 2020. Other schemes listed in the options focus on skill development, rural electrification, or social security for overseas workers, and do not relate to child vaccination. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that the question is clearly about immunisation and vaccination of children.Step 2: Recall that Mission Indradhanush is the Central Government programme linked with universal immunisation and a rainbow of vaccines.Step 3: Connect the target year of 2020 with the phases of Mission Indradhanush and its intensified campaigns.Step 4: Compare the other options and note that they are related to skills, electricity, or social security, not health.Step 5: Select Mission Indradhanush (Indradanush Scheme) as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify by recalling that Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana focuses on rural skill development and employment for youth, which is unrelated to immunisation. Deendayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana deals with rural electrification and power distribution, again not tied to vaccines. Mahatma Gandhi Pravasi Suraksha Yojana provides social security to overseas Indian workers. Only Mission Indradhanush fits the description of a health oriented programme aimed at vaccinating children and pregnant women against multiple diseases. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana targets livelihoods and skills for rural youth and is not an immunisation or vaccine programme. Deendayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana is an infrastructure scheme for improving rural power supply and does not involve vaccination campaigns. Mahatma Gandhi Pravasi Suraksha Yojana is linked to pension and insurance benefits for overseas workers, not to child health or immunisation. As a result, none of these alternatives align with the health and vaccination focus described in the question. Common Pitfalls: The main pitfall is getting confused by the large number of government schemes that share similar sounding names, especially those named after national leaders. Many schemes include phrases like Grameen, Kaushalya, Jyoti, or Suraksha, which can blur their distinct purposes. A good exam strategy is to associate each scheme with one or two key words: for example, Indradhanush with immunisation and rainbow, Gram Jyoti with electricity, and Kaushalya with skills. Such mental tags help you quickly select the correct scheme under time pressure. Final Answer: The Central Government immunisation programme described is Mission Indradhanush, also known as the Indradanush Scheme.

Question 18

In the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, the subject \"Central Bureau of Intelligence and Investigation\" is included under which of the following lists?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question again examines your understanding of how the Constitution of India allocates subjects between the Union and the states. Intelligence and investigation agencies that operate across the country deal with national security and crime that may cross state boundaries. The subject Central Bureau of Intelligence and Investigation appears in the Seventh Schedule, and you are required to identify the correct list in which it is placed. Given Data / Assumptions: The Seventh Schedule contains the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. The subject is Central Bureau of Intelligence and Investigation, which indicates a central level body. National intelligence and central investigation generally fall within the competence of the Union government. The Global List mentioned in one option does not correspond to any constitutional list. Concept / Approach: Subjects that involve national security, central intelligence, and investigation of offences with national or cross border implications are placed under the Union List. This ensures unified control and coordination. The reference to a Central Bureau in the entry makes it clear that the subject is linked to a union level agency rather than a state police force. Therefore, this subject appears in the Union List, just like other central security and investigative functions. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Note the term Central Bureau in the subject, signalling a union level institution.Step 2: Recall that the Union List includes defence, national security, and central agencies responsible for intelligence and investigation.Step 3: Recognise that state police and public order appear in the State List, but central intelligence does not.Step 4: Understand that the Concurrent List is used for subjects where both Union and states make laws, such as criminal law, but not for central intelligence bureaus themselves.Step 5: Conclude that Central Bureau of Intelligence and Investigation is listed under the Union List. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, consider that if central intelligence were placed in the State or Concurrent List, there would be confusion about control, funding, and operational command. National security would be weakened by fragmented authority. By keeping such subjects exclusively within the Union List, the Constitution allows the central government to coordinate intelligence and investigation in a coherent manner. Polity texts that reproduce the entries of the Union List confirm that central intelligence and investigation fall under the Union List. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The State List includes police and public order at the state level, but not central intelligence bureaus. The Concurrent List covers areas such as criminal law, marriage, and economic planning where both Union and states have lawmaking powers; however, it does not include the establishment of a central intelligence and investigation bureau. The Global List is not a recognised category in the Constitution and appears only as a distractor. Therefore, none of these alternative lists correctly describe the placement of this subject. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to equate all investigation functions with police and therefore assume that they belong to the State List. While state police forces are indeed a state subject, central agencies handling intelligence and investigation of national importance are part of the Union domain. Another pitfall is to assume that anything related to law and order might be shared under the Concurrent List. The key is to distinguish local policing from central intelligence and central investigation responsibilities. Final Answer: In the Seventh Schedule, the subject Central Bureau of Intelligence and Investigation is placed in the Union List.

Question 19

How many parliamentary seats, that is Rajya Sabha seats, are allotted to the state of Odisha in the Council of States?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Rajya Sabha, or Council of States, is the upper house of the Indian Parliament. Each state is allocated a certain number of seats in the Rajya Sabha based on its population and constitutional provisions. This question asks you specifically about the representation of Odisha in the Rajya Sabha. Knowing such numbers helps you understand the balance of representation between larger and smaller states in the upper house. Given Data / Assumptions: The question focuses on Rajya Sabha seats, not Lok Sabha seats. The state under consideration is Odisha. The total strength of the Rajya Sabha is distributed among states and union territories. You are expected to recall the correct number of seats allocated to Odisha. Concept / Approach: Seats in the Rajya Sabha are allocated broadly in proportion to state populations, but once fixed, these numbers remain stable unless changed by law. Odisha is a medium sized state on the eastern coast of India. It is allotted ten seats in the Rajya Sabha. These seats are filled by members elected indirectly by the state legislative assembly using a system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. Standard tables in polity and general knowledge references list Odisha with ten Rajya Sabha seats. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall from state wise seat distribution that Odisha has ten representatives in the Rajya Sabha.Step 2: Compare this figure with the options given.Step 3: Recognise that eleven and nineteen would be more typical for larger or different states, not for Odisha.Step 4: Note that one seat would be too low for a state of Odisha size and corresponds more to some small union territories.Step 5: Select ten as the correct number of Rajya Sabha seats allotted to Odisha. Verification / Alternative check: You can cross check this by recalling that states such as Uttar Pradesh have thirty one seats in the Rajya Sabha, while very small states may have one or three seats. Odisha, being neither extremely large nor very small, logically falls into a middle range, and the memorised table confirms the figure of ten. Additionally, recent lists of Rajya Sabha members from Odisha show ten current seats, which matches the correct option. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The figure eleven is not the standard allocation for Odisha and is used here only to distract you. Nineteen would be extremely high for a state of Odisha population and does not match constitutional seat distribution. A single seat would misrepresent the status of Odisha as a full fledged state. Therefore, these alternative numbers are inconsistent with the actual Rajya Sabha seat allocation for Odisha. Common Pitfalls: Students often mix up Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha seat counts or confuse different states with similar sounding names. Another frequent error is to guess a middle value without anchoring it to any memorised data. A good strategy is to periodically review a state wise table of Rajya Sabha seats and to associate a few anchor states like Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Odisha with their correct numbers. This makes it easier to recall approximate figures in the exam hall. Final Answer: The state of Odisha has 10 seats in the Rajya Sabha.

Question 20

Which Central Government welfare scheme launched by the Prime Minister aims to provide clean LPG cooking gas connections to domestic households that fall under the below poverty line category?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana is one of the flagship welfare schemes of the Government of India, aimed particularly at poor women in rural and urban areas. It focuses on replacing traditional, polluting cooking fuels like firewood, coal and cow dung with clean Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG). This question checks whether you can correctly identify which scheme specifically targets below poverty line households for LPG connections, a key topic in Indian polity and government schemes for competitive exams. Given Data / Assumptions: The scheme is launched by the Central Government under the leadership of the Prime Minister. Its goal is to provide LPG connections to domestic households below the poverty line (BPL). The options include four different government schemes with different objectives. You are expected to distinguish between schemes related to LPG, maternity care, education and rural development. Concept / Approach: Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) was launched to provide subsidised LPG connections, mainly in the name of women from BPL households. Its core objectives are to reduce health hazards caused by indoor air pollution, improve the dignity of women who cook in smoke filled kitchens, and protect the environment by discouraging biomass fuels. The other schemes listed focus on different sectors: Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday Abhiyan aims at rural development and strengthening panchayati raj, Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Yojana is about safe motherhood and antenatal care, and Vidyanjali Yojana involves community and private sector participation in schools. Only Ujjwala Yojana directly addresses LPG connections for BPL households. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that the target beneficiaries are below poverty line households needing LPG connections.Step 2: Recall that Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana is the scheme popularly associated with free or subsidised LPG connections to BPL families.Step 3: Match this understanding with the options and see that option B exactly names Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana.Step 4: Verify that the other schemes are unrelated to LPG or cooking gas and instead address rural development, safe motherhood or school support.Step 5: Conclude that the only correct answer is Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana. Verification / Alternative check: You can cross check your answer by remembering the common exam and media association: whenever LPG connections for poor households are mentioned, the name Ujjwala Yojana almost always appears. Government advertisements for smokeless kitchens and women holding LPG cylinders also prominently carry the Ujjwala logo. In contrast, Surakshit Matritva Yojana is linked with antenatal check ups, and Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday Abhiyan with panchayat based campaigns. This consistent link confirms that Ujjwala Yojana is the correct scheme for LPG connections to BPL households. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday Abhiyan focuses on rural development, farmers and panchayats, not on cooking gas connections. Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Yojana is a health scheme aimed at providing free antenatal care to pregnant women and does not talk about LPG distribution. Vidyanjali Yojana is related to volunteer and private participation in schools to improve education quality, again unrelated to LPG. Therefore, these options do not match the explicit focus on LPG connections for BPL families. Common Pitfalls: Because many schemes carry the branding Pradhan Mantri or Abhiyan, students sometimes confuse them based on partial memory of the name without recalling the precise objective. Another pitfall is to choose any scheme that sounds rural or welfare oriented without checking whether it specifically mentions LPG or cooking fuel. To avoid this, always link schemes to a core keyword: Ujjwala with LPG, Surakshit Matritva with maternity, Gram Jyoti with electricity, and so on. This habit will help you answer scheme based questions accurately in exams. Final Answer: Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana is the welfare scheme that provides LPG connections to BPL households.

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