Question 1

Who among the following leaders served as Chairman of the Rajya Sabha by virtue of being Vice President of India from 2017 to 2022?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: In India, the Vice President automatically serves as the ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. This means that whoever holds the office of Vice President also presides over the Council of States. This question refers to the period from 2017 to 2022 and asks which leader served as Chairman of the Rajya Sabha during that time. Given Data / Assumptions: - The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is the Vice President of India in an ex officio capacity. - The period specified is from 2017 to 2022. - Four names are offered, but only one corresponds to the Vice President who served in that period. Concept / Approach: The key concept is that the Vice President is the ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. M. Venkaiah Naidu was elected as the Vice President of India in 2017 and served until 2022. Therefore, he also served as Chairman of the Rajya Sabha during that period, presiding over its sessions and ensuring orderly conduct of business. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is not separately elected by the House, but is the sitting Vice President. Step 2: Identify who was Vice President of India between 2017 and 2022. Step 3: M. Venkaiah Naidu held the office of Vice President during this time. Step 4: Therefore, he served as ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha during these years. Step 5: The other names listed do not match the office of Vice President for that period. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify by looking at a list of Vice Presidents of India and their tenures. Once you confirm that M. Venkaiah Naidu served from 2017 to 2022, it follows automatically that he was Chairman of the Rajya Sabha in that period, due to the constitutional arrangement. Why Other Options Are Wrong: - Dinesh Bhatia: Not known as a Vice President of India or Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. - Sani Mar: Not associated with this constitutional position and appears to be a distractor name. - Arun Jaitley: A prominent political leader and former Finance Minister, but he did not serve as Vice President or Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse different high offices such as President, Vice President and key ministers. Another pitfall is to forget that the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is not chosen separately from among members of that House. Remembering the ex officio link between the Vice President and the Rajya Sabha Chairmanship helps answer such questions quickly. Final Answer: From 2017 to 2022, the ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha was M. Venkaiah Naidu, serving in that role as Vice President of India.

Question 2

Which Article of the Constitution of India contains the provision for the Union Budget, officially known as the Annual Financial Statement?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Union Budget is a key annual event in India, where the Government presents its estimates of revenue and expenditure for the coming financial year. In constitutional language, this budget is referred to as the Annual Financial Statement. This question tests whether you know which specific Article of the Constitution requires the Government to lay this statement before Parliament. Given Data / Assumptions: - The Union Budget is officially called the Annual Financial Statement in the Constitution. - The options list four different Articles, but only one relates directly to this statement. - The question focuses on identifying the correct Article number. Concept / Approach: Article 112 of the Constitution of India provides that the President shall, in respect of every financial year, cause to be laid before both Houses of Parliament a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India, which is known as the Annual Financial Statement. This is what is commonly referred to as the Union Budget. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Articles in the early hundreds of the Constitution deal with the Union executive, Parliament and related financial provisions. Step 2: Identify that Article 112 specifically mentions the Annual Financial Statement, which is the constitutional term for the Union Budget. Step 3: Article 120 relates to language to be used in Parliament, not to the budget. Step 4: Article 121 deals with restrictions on discussion in Parliament regarding conduct of judges, again unrelated to the budget. Step 5: Article 102 concerns disqualification for membership of Parliament and not the Annual Financial Statement. Therefore, Article 112 is correct. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify by reading a summary of financial provisions in standard polity books where Article 112 is always mentioned in connection with the Annual Financial Statement. The wording clearly ties this Article to the presentation of what is popularly known as the Union Budget. Why Other Options Are Wrong: - Article 120: Deals with parliamentary language issues, not finances. - Article 121: Concerns discussions on the conduct of judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts. - Article 102: Deals with disqualification of Members of Parliament. Common Pitfalls: A common error is mixing up Article 112 with other Articles close in number, especially for learners who memorise only approximate ranges. Another pitfall is believing that the budget will be mentioned together with taxation in a single Article, whereas taxation provisions are spread across several parts of the Constitution. Focusing on the key phrase Annual Financial Statement helps anchor Article 112 in memory. Final Answer: The provision for the Union Budget, or Annual Financial Statement, is contained in Article 112 of the Constitution of India.

Question 3

Name the President of India who was elected unopposed in the Presidential election, with no other candidate successfully filing a nomination.

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of elected members of Parliament and state legislatures. Normally, more than one candidate is in the race. However, there has been a rare occasion when only one valid candidate remained in the fray, leading to an unopposed election. This question asks you to identify which President was elected in this unique manner. Given Data / Assumptions: - The focus is on an unopposed Presidential election, where no rival candidate remained after scrutiny of nominations or withdrawals. - Four former Presidents of India are listed as options. - Only one of them was elected unopposed. Concept / Approach: Dr. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy is historically noted for being elected as President of India unopposed. In that Presidential election, other candidates withdrew or their nominations were rejected, leaving him as the sole valid candidate. As a result, he was declared elected without a formal contest, making his election unique in Indian Presidential history. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Dr. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy served as President of India and that his election is often highlighted as unopposed. Step 2: Dr. Zakir Husain, Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma and Dr. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed all faced normal contested elections. Step 3: The special fact about Dr. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy is frequently mentioned in polity and general knowledge books. Step 4: Therefore, among the listed names, he is the only one fitting the description of being elected unopposed. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify in standard reference books on Indian polity or from official election commission information, which records that Neelam Sanjiva Reddy was declared elected unopposed as President after the withdrawal and rejection of other nominations. Why Other Options Are Wrong: - Dr. Zakir Husain: Elected through a normal competitive Presidential election. - Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma: Also elected after a contest involving other candidates. - Dr. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed: Similarly became President through a contested election process. Common Pitfalls: A common pitfall is to assume that any widely known President might have been elected unopposed without recalling specific details. Another error is to confuse this unique feature with other famous Presidential elections. To avoid confusion, remember that Neelam Sanjiva Reddy is linked with the special case of an unopposed Presidential election. Final Answer: The only President of India elected unopposed was Dr. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy.

Question 4

Which Indian state government, in 2018, imposed a ban on the organisation Popular Front of India (PFI) before the later nationwide prohibition?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: From time to time, state governments in India impose bans on organisations that they consider unlawful or disruptive to public order. The Popular Front of India (PFI) has been in the news for such actions by different authorities. This question refers to an earlier state level ban imposed by a particular state government before a later nationwide prohibition and tests your recall of that state. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question focuses on a state government ban on PFI, not on central government action. - The time frame mentioned is 2018, which helps to distinguish this event from later nationwide decisions. - Four Indian states are listed, and only one matches this specific early ban. Concept / Approach: Jharkhand is noted for having imposed a ban on the Popular Front of India around 2018, citing allegations that its activities were harmful to public order. This action preceded later national level decisions and is often mentioned in general knowledge questions about law and order measures taken by states. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that this question is about a specific state level ban prior to national action. Step 2: Recall that Jharkhand government was in the news for banning PFI, classifying it as an unlawful organisation. Step 3: States like Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal have taken different measures at different times, but this early 2018 ban is strongly associated with Jharkhand. Step 4: Jammu and Kashmir was involved in separate security related issues, but not in this particular context at that time. Step 5: Therefore, Jharkhand is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: As an alternative check, you can recall news summaries or exam oriented current affairs compilations from 2018, which mention Jharkhand as the state that banned PFI under relevant legal provisions at that time. This is usually contrasted with later national level actions. Why Other Options Are Wrong: - Uttar Pradesh: While active in law and order decisions, it is not usually cited as the first state to impose this specific ban in 2018. - West Bengal: Not associated with an early ban on PFI in that period. - Jammu and Kashmir: Involved in other security issues, but not as the state that first banned PFI in 2018. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse different states because many of them take legal action against organisations at different times. Another trap is to focus only on later national decisions and overlook earlier state level actions. Keeping a mental timeline of which state acted first helps in avoiding such confusion in current affairs based questions. Final Answer: In 2018, the state government that imposed a ban on the Popular Front of India was Jharkhand.

Question 5

Which municipal corporation won the first prize at the Swachhata Excellence Awards 2019 for its solid waste management and cleanliness initiatives?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Swachhata Excellence Awards are part of wider efforts under the Swachh Bharat Mission to recognise urban local bodies that perform well in cleanliness and solid waste management. Municipal corporations that innovate and sustain good practices in sanitation, segregation and waste processing are honoured. This question asks which municipal corporation received the first prize at the Swachhata Excellence Awards 2019. Given Data / Assumptions: - The focus is on the Swachhata Excellence Awards for the year 2019. - The question is concerned with the municipal corporation that received the first prize. - Four municipal corporations from different cities are listed as options. Concept / Approach: Raigarh Municipal Corporation in Chhattisgarh gained recognition for its efficient solid waste management system, including door to door collection, segregation at source and effective processing. Its efforts were acknowledged at the national level, and it received the first prize at the Swachhata Excellence Awards 2019. Remembering the association of Raigarh with Swachhata awards can help in answering related questions. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that the question refers specifically to the Swachhata Excellence Awards 2019, not other cleanliness rankings like Swachh Survekshan. Step 2: Recall that Raigarh Municipal Corporation was widely reported as the first prize winner in this category for its waste management system. Step 3: Arrah, Jagdalpur and Ahmedabad are important cities, but their municipal corporations were not cited as first prize winners in this particular award list for 2019. Step 4: Therefore, among the given options, Raigarh Municipal Corporation is the correct choice. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify by consulting summaries of the Swachhata Excellence Awards for 2019 in current affairs compilations, which highlight Raigarh Municipal Corporation as a top performer. The mention of innovative practices and community participation is often linked with this municipal body. Why Other Options Are Wrong: - Arrah Municipal Corporation: Not recorded as the first prize winner in the Swachhata Excellence Awards 2019. - Jagdalpur Municipal Corporation: May have its own initiatives, but not the first prize recipient in this award year. - Ahmedabad Municipal Corporation: A large and important municipal body, but not the one recognised with this specific first prize in 2019. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse different cleanliness related rankings and awards, such as Swachh Survekshan city rankings and Swachhata Excellence Awards. Another pitfall is to assume that a very large metro city must have won every major award, whereas sometimes smaller or medium sized cities are recognised for innovative work. To avoid errors, link specific awards and years to particular cities like Raigarh in 2019. Final Answer: The first prize at the Swachhata Excellence Awards 2019 went to Raigarh Municipal Corporation.

Question 6

Who was unanimously elected as the Deputy Speaker of the Telangana Legislative Assembly in 2019?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The post of Deputy Speaker in a state Legislative Assembly is important for ensuring the smooth conduct of proceedings, especially when the Speaker is absent. In 2019, the Telangana Legislative Assembly elected its Deputy Speaker unanimously. This question tests whether you remember the name of the leader chosen for that constitutional position. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question refers specifically to the year 2019 and the Telangana Legislative Assembly. - The Deputy Speaker was elected unanimously, indicating broad support from members. - Four names are listed, each of whom has been active in Telangana politics to varying degrees. Concept / Approach: T. Padma Rao Goud, a senior leader from Telangana, was unanimously elected as the Deputy Speaker of the Telangana Legislative Assembly in 2019. This event was reported in news and is often included in state specific general knowledge questions. Identifying his name correctly among other similar names is the key here. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Focus on the year and the Assembly mentioned, that is, the Telangana Legislative Assembly in 2019. Step 2: Recall that T. Padma Rao Goud, a member of the ruling party in Telangana, was chosen unanimously as Deputy Speaker. Step 3: P. Srinivas Reddy and Sreenivas Yadav are names of prominent politicians, but they were not elected as Deputy Speaker in that year. Step 4: Padma Devendar was associated with an earlier Assembly term in a similar role but not with the 2019 unanimous election for Telangana Assembly. Step 5: Therefore, T. Padma Rao Goud is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify by looking at Telangana news archives or state level current affairs booklets for 2019, which mention the unanimous election of T. Padma Rao Goud as Deputy Speaker as a notable political event in the state. Why Other Options Are Wrong: - P. Srinivas Reddy: A known political figure but not the person elected Deputy Speaker in 2019. - Sreenivas Yadav: Also not associated with this particular constitutional office in that year. - Padma Devendar: Served in related positions earlier but is not the one unanimously elected in 2019 for this Assembly. Common Pitfalls: The names in the options are similar in sound, particularly for students less familiar with Telangana politics. It is easy to confuse T. Padma Rao Goud with Padma Devendar due to the shared word Padma. Careful reading and linking the name to the correct year and position helps avoid this confusion. Final Answer: In 2019, T. Padma Rao Goud was unanimously elected as the Deputy Speaker of the Telangana Legislative Assembly.

Question 7

Which of the following Indian states, among the options listed, has a unicameral legislature and thus does not have a bicameral system?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: In India, some states have a bicameral legislature with two Houses, while others have a unicameral system with only one House. A bicameral legislature consists of a Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) and a Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad). This question asks you to identify which state listed in the options has a unicameral legislature and therefore does not have a bicameral system. Given Data / Assumptions: - The options list four states: Jammu and Kashmir, Tamil Nadu, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh. - A bicameral legislature means the presence of both a Legislative Assembly and a Legislative Council. - A unicameral legislature means that only a Legislative Assembly exists. Concept / Approach: Historically, states like Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana have had bicameral legislatures. Tamil Nadu abolished its Legislative Council in the past and therefore functions with only a Legislative Assembly. During the period commonly referred to in exam oriented questions, Jammu and Kashmir, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh were associated with bicameral arrangements, while Tamil Nadu is remembered as unicameral. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the list of Indian states that have or had Legislative Councils, such as Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. Step 2: Note that Tamil Nadu abolished its Legislative Council and thus has a unicameral legislature. Step 3: Telangana and Andhra Pradesh are known examples of states with Legislative Councils, making them bicameral. Step 4: Jammu and Kashmir, in earlier arrangements referred to in many textbooks, had a bicameral system. Step 5: Therefore, among the given options, Tamil Nadu is the state that does not have a bicameral legislature. Verification / Alternative check: Standard polity books in India carry a table listing states with bicameral legislatures. Tamil Nadu does not appear in that list in the usual context; instead, it is often cited as a state that once had, but later abolished, its Legislative Council. This confirms that it operates under a unicameral system for the purposes of typical exam questions. Why Other Options Are Wrong: - Jammu and Kashmir: Historically described in textbooks as having a bicameral legislature during the period commonly discussed in exams. - Telangana: Has a Legislative Assembly and a Legislative Council and is therefore bicameral. - Andhra Pradesh: Also has a Legislative Council and is treated as bicameral in standard references. Common Pitfalls: A frequent source of confusion is the changing status of Legislative Councils in some states, as they have been created, abolished and sometimes re established. Another pitfall is to assume that all larger states must be bicameral. To avoid these errors, it is useful to memorise the current or historically relevant list of bicameral states and remember that Tamil Nadu is a clear example of a unicameral legislature. Final Answer: Among the states listed, Tamil Nadu does not have a bicameral legislature and functions with a unicameral system.

Question 8

Compared with earlier presidents in the 1800s, modern presidents are more involved in which area of policy?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The role of the president in many countries, especially in the United States, has evolved over time. In the nineteenth century, presidents often had a more limited direct role in certain policy areas compared with the twentieth and twenty first centuries. This question asks in which area modern presidents are more involved when compared with their predecessors from the 1800s. Given Data / Assumptions: - The comparison is between earlier presidents in the 1800s and modern presidents in the 1900s and 2000s. - Four policy areas are listed: social issues, economic issues, foreign policy and labor policy. - Only one of these represents the area where presidential involvement has especially grown. Concept / Approach: As global interdependence and international organisations have grown, presidents have become more active and visible in foreign policy. They negotiate treaties, conduct summit diplomacy, respond to international crises and represent their countries at global forums. While earlier presidents also handled foreign affairs, the scale and intensity of modern foreign policy challenges have greatly increased executive involvement in this area. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that all four policy areas have seen changes over time, but not all equally in relation to presidential activity. Step 2: Understand that modern presidents are constantly engaged in international negotiations, security alliances and global economic discussions. Step 3: Compared with the relatively limited foreign engagements of the 1800s, modern presidents spend far more time on global issues, wars, peace efforts and international agreements. Step 4: While presidents are also involved in domestic economic and social issues, the contrast with nineteenth century practice is especially striking in foreign policy. Step 5: Therefore, foreign policy is the area where modern presidents are more involved relative to earlier presidents. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify by looking at historical examples. In the twentieth century, presidents played central roles in world wars, the Cold War, nuclear arms treaties and global trade agreements. Such intensive, continuous foreign policy involvement was far less pronounced in the 1800s, when international communication and institutions were more limited. Why Other Options Are Wrong: - Social issues: Modern presidents do address social issues, but legislative bodies and courts also play major roles, and the comparative change from the 1800s is not as distinct as in foreign policy. - Economic issues: Presidents are important in economic policy making, but even in the nineteenth century they influenced tariffs and banking policies, so the contrast is less stark. - Labor policy: This is a more specialised sub area and, although important, does not capture the broad shift in presidential responsibility as clearly as foreign policy does. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to focus on domestic issues because they feel more visible in media, leading students to choose social or economic issues. However, exam questions of this type are based on textbook explanations that highlight how globalisation and great power responsibilities have expanded the foreign policy role of modern presidents. Final Answer: Compared with earlier presidents, modern presidents are more involved in foreign policy.

Question 9

In the United States Congress, how long is a single term of office for a member of the House of Representatives?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The United States Congress is a bicameral legislature consisting of the House of Representatives and the Senate. The length of terms for members of each chamber is fixed by the Constitution and affects how often elections are held. This question focuses on the House of Representatives and asks how long one term lasts for a member of that chamber. Given Data / Assumptions: - The question specifically concerns the House of Representatives, not the Senate. - Four different possible term lengths in years are given as options: 2, 4, 5 and 6 years. - Only one of these matches the constitutional term length for House members. Concept / Approach: According to the United States Constitution, members of the House of Representatives serve two year terms. All seats in the House are up for election every two years, which means that the House can change significantly in each election cycle. This short term is designed to keep representatives closely accountable to the people. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the House of Representatives is the lower chamber of Congress and is directly elected from smaller districts. Step 2: The Constitution clearly sets the term of a Representative at two years. Step 3: The Senate, by contrast, has six year terms with one third of Senators elected every two years. Step 4: Therefore, 2 years is the correct term length for House members, and the other numbers correspond either to Senate terms or do not apply. Verification / Alternative check: You can check any basic civics or American government textbook, which will state that elections for the entire House of Representatives are held every two years. This confirms that the term of office for a Representative is two years, unlike the longer senatorial terms. Why Other Options Are Wrong: - 5 years: Not used as a standard term length in either chamber of Congress. - 4 years: This is the length of the presidential term, not the House term. - 6 years: This corresponds instead to the term length of a United States Senator. Common Pitfalls: A common confusion is to mix up the term lengths of different offices, particularly the presidency, the Senate and the House. Another error is to assume that all national legislators serve longer terms, whereas the design of the House deliberately uses shorter terms to maintain close electoral contact with voters. Final Answer: A member of the United States House of Representatives serves a term of 2 years.

Question 10

In trade union terminology, when does a direct strike take place?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question checks your understanding of basic trade union terminology in industrial relations. In particular, it asks you to identify the precise meaning of a direct strike, which is one of the most common forms of collective industrial action. Many examinations in labour law, human resource management and general studies expect you to differentiate a direct strike from related concepts such as boycotts and sympathy strikes. Given Data / Assumptions: • The question uses the phrase “in union terms”, so we are dealing with standard trade union definitions used in labour law and industrial relations. • We assume that a strike involves organized workers and an employment relationship with a specific employer. • The options describe different kinds of collective actions like boycotts, sympathy strikes and direct withholding of labour. Concept / Approach: In industrial relations, a strike is a concerted stoppage of work by a group of employees to press for certain demands related to wages, working conditions, or other employment issues. A direct strike refers specifically to workers at a particular workplace or company withholding their labour against their own employer. This is different from a boycott, where people avoid buying products, and from a sympathy strike, where workers strike in support of others even when they do not have their own grievance. The key idea is that in a direct strike, the same workers who are in dispute with their employer stop working to exert pressure. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Read each option and identify whether it refers to stopping work or to refusing to buy or handle products.Step 2: Notice that the definition of a direct strike must involve workers withholding their own labour from their own employer as a form of pressure.Step 3: Option B clearly states that an organized body of workers withholds its labour to force the employer to comply with its demands, which exactly matches the standard definition of a direct strike.Step 4: The other options focus on boycotts, refusal to buy products or strikes in support of others, which are related but distinct types of actions. Verification / Alternative check: A quick check is to ask: where is the pressure being applied most directly? In a direct strike, pressure is applied by stopping work in the very workplace where the dispute exists. Option B matches this structure perfectly. The other options involve consumers or outside workers, which makes the action indirect rather than direct from the standpoint of the employer worker relationship. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A: This describes a refusal to patronize companies that handle the products of a struck company, which is more like a secondary boycott, not a direct strike.Option C: Here union members and supporters refuse to buy products from a company being struck, which is a consumer boycott, again not the same as stopping work.Option D: This refers to a sympathy strike, where workers without their own grievance strike to support others, so it is indirect support rather than a direct strike in their own dispute. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse any collective action by workers with a strike, but a strike specifically involves stopping work. Another common mistake is to treat boycotts and sympathy strikes as if they were direct strikes, but these are separate concepts in labour law. Carefully reading the wording about withholding labour versus refusing to purchase products can help avoid this confusion in exams and practice questions. Final Answer: Correct answer: when an organized body of workers withholds its labour to force the employer to comply with its demands

Question 11

Under the Constitution of India, which Schedule must be amended to create or form a new State?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question tests your knowledge of the structure of the Constitution of India, specifically the Schedules. It focuses on the Schedule that deals with the names, territories and formation of States and Union Territories. Such questions are common in exams on Indian polity because they check whether you have a clear mental map of what each Schedule in the Constitution contains. Given Data / Assumptions: • The context is the Constitution of India and its Schedules. • The task is to identify which Schedule must be amended when a new State is created or territorial changes are made. • We assume that the question refers to the standard arrangement of Schedules as found in the original Constitution and subsequent amendments. Concept / Approach: The First Schedule of the Constitution of India contains the list of States and Union Territories along with details of their territories. Whenever a new State is created, merged or renamed, or when territorial boundaries are altered, the relevant entries in the First Schedule must be amended through a constitutional amendment or a reorganisation act. The other Schedules deal with different matters: the Second Schedule relates to emoluments and allowances of high officials, the Third Schedule to oaths and affirmations, and the Fourth Schedule to allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha. Therefore, only the First Schedule is directly linked with the creation or alteration of States. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall what each relevant Schedule contains, especially the First and Second Schedules.Step 2: Identify that the list of States and Union Territories, including their territorial descriptions, is provided in the First Schedule.Step 3: Understand that creating a new State or changing boundaries requires changing that list, so the First Schedule must be amended.Step 4: Conclude that option D, referring to the 1st Schedule, is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Another way to verify is to remember landmark reorganisation events such as the States Reorganisation Act, the creation of Telangana or earlier formation of linguistic States. In every such case, the constitutional changes involved amendments to the First Schedule because it is the official list of States. This confirms that the First Schedule is the one directly linked with formation of new States. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A: The 4th Schedule deals with allocation of seats to States and Union Territories in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), not the formal creation of States.Option B: The 3rd Schedule contains forms of oaths and affirmations for various constitutional offices and has no role in creating States.Option C: The 2nd Schedule deals with salaries, allowances and privileges of high constitutional functionaries, not with the list of States. Common Pitfalls: Candidates often mix up the First and Fourth Schedules because both are associated with States. The key difference is that the First Schedule lists the States and territories, whereas the Fourth Schedule lists how many Council of States seats each gets. Keeping a simple mental table of each Schedule and revising it regularly will help to avoid such confusion in competitive examinations. Final Answer: Correct answer: 1st Schedule

Question 12

According to the Ashok Mehta Committee on Panchayati Raj, which new intermediate tier of rural local government was recommended for establishment?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question focuses on the recommendations of the Ashok Mehta Committee, which was appointed in the late 1970s to review and strengthen the system of Panchayati Raj in India. Understanding what this committee proposed is important for Indian polity and rural development topics, especially in relation to decentralisation of power and democratic local governance. Given Data / Assumptions: • The committee under discussion is the Ashok Mehta Committee on Panchayati Raj institutions. • The question asks specifically about the establishment of a new intermediate tier of rural local government. • We assume basic familiarity with terms like Gram Panchayat, Zila Parishad and Panchayati Raj system. Concept / Approach: The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee earlier recommended a three tier Panchayati Raj system consisting of Gram Panchayat at village level, Panchayat Samiti at block level and Zila Parishad at district level. Later, the Ashok Mehta Committee studied the functioning of these bodies and suggested reforms. One of its key recommendations was the introduction of a two tier system in which the Zila Parishad would be the main executive body at district level, and a new intermediate unit called Mandal Panchayat would be created by grouping several small villages. This Mandal Panchayat was meant to be strong enough administratively and financially to execute development programmes effectively. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Ashok Mehta Committee proposed restructuring the existing three tier system to make local bodies stronger and more efficient.Step 2: Remember the specific term “Mandal Panchayat”, which is associated directly with the Ashok Mehta Committee recommendations.Step 3: Check the options to identify which one talks about establishing a Mandal Panchayat as an intermediate tier between Gram Panchayat and Zila Parishad.Step 4: Option A clearly matches this recommendation and therefore must be the correct choice. Verification / Alternative check: A quick verification is to contrast Balwant Rai Mehta and Ashok Mehta committees. Balwant Rai Mehta is remembered for Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti and Zila Parishad. Ashok Mehta is associated with Mandal Panchayat and the recommendation that Zila Parishad become the key planning and executive body. Since Mandal Panchayat appears only in relation to Ashok Mehta, option A is confirmed as correct. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option B: District Planning Committees were later given constitutional status under the 74th Amendment and are not the specific intermediate tier proposed by the Ashok Mehta Committee.Option C: The committee did not recommend abolishing the Gram Sabha; instead, it favoured stronger participation of people at local levels.Option D: Nyaya Panchayat refers to village level judicial bodies, but their introduction was not the main structural recommendation associated with the Ashok Mehta Committee. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse the recommendations of different committees, especially Balwant Rai Mehta, Ashok Mehta and later committees on Panchayati Raj. A useful memory aid is to link Mandal Panchayat specifically with Ashok Mehta. Mixing up Mandal Panchayat with Panchayat Samiti or Gram Panchayat can lead to wrong answers, so keeping a clear mental table of which committee recommended which institution is highly helpful. Final Answer: Correct answer: Establishment of Mandal Panchayat as an intermediate tier between Gram Panchayat and Zila Parishad

Question 13

In the context of scientific experiments, what is the main goal of writing a clear statement of purpose?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question comes from basic scientific method and experimental design. It asks about the role of a statement of purpose in an experiment or project. Understanding the function of each part of a lab report or science project, such as aim, hypothesis, materials and conclusion, is important for school level science and general aptitude exams. Given Data / Assumptions: • The phrase “statement of purpose” refers to a clear sentence or short paragraph that explains what the experiment is trying to achieve. • The context is a scientific experiment, not a job application or academic essay, although the underlying idea is similar. • The options present different tasks: stating the goal, doing calculations, listing materials and disproving a hypothesis. Concept / Approach: In a scientific investigation, the statement of purpose (often also called the aim or objective) explains what the experiment is intended to discover, verify, or demonstrate. It answers the question “What am I trying to find out?” It is written before the experiment is performed and guides the choice of method, materials and analysis. Calculations, material lists and conclusions are important parts of an experiment report, but they serve different functions. The statement of purpose does not perform calculations, does not simply list equipment and does not focus on proving a hypothesis wrong; instead, it states the overall experimental goal without assuming the outcome. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify what is usually written at the very beginning of an experiment report or science fair project.Step 2: Recall that this part is normally labeled as “Aim”, “Objective” or “Purpose” and states what the experiment will try to accomplish.Step 3: Compare the options and see that option A exactly describes this function: indicating what is expected to be accomplished by doing the experiment.Step 4: Confirm that the other options describe different sections of a lab report, not the statement of purpose. Verification / Alternative check: A quick verification method is to imagine a common school experiment such as finding the boiling point of water or testing the effect of light on plant growth. The purpose would be written as something like “to determine the boiling point of water at standard atmospheric pressure” or “to study how light intensity affects the rate of photosynthesis”. These sentences clearly match option A and not the other options, so option A must be correct. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option B: Calculating an average of measurements is part of data analysis, not the statement of purpose.Option C: Listing materials is part of the “Materials” or “Apparatus” section, which supports the experiment but is not its purpose.Option D: The goal of science is not only to show that a hypothesis is wrong; the purpose statement introduces the aim, without prejudging whether the hypothesis will be supported or rejected. Common Pitfalls: Learners sometimes confuse the hypothesis with the purpose. The hypothesis is a testable prediction, while the purpose states what you are trying to do. Another common mistake is to think that the purpose is just a list of what you will use or what you will do step by step. In reality, it should be a clear and concise description of what you hope to find out, guiding all other parts of the experiment. Final Answer: Correct answer: To indicate what is expected to be accomplished in doing an experiment

Question 14

Which of the following Indian leaders has served as the Finance Minister of India at the Union level?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question is based on Indian political history and focuses on important national leaders who have held key constitutional offices. It specifically asks you to identify who among the listed leaders has served as the Union Finance Minister of India. Questions of this type are common in general knowledge and competitive examinations, where you must remember the portfolios handled by prominent leaders. Given Data / Assumptions: • All four options are well known national leaders who later became Presidents or held high constitutional posts. • Only one of them has served as the Finance Minister of India at the Union level. • The question is about the office of Finance Minister, not about the Presidency or any other ministry. Concept / Approach: Pranab Mukherjee was a senior Congress leader who held several important portfolios, including Defence Minister, External Affairs Minister and Finance Minister, before becoming the thirteenth President of India. He served multiple times as Union Finance Minister and presented several Union Budgets. K.R. Narayanan, Shankar Dayal Sharma and Neelam Sanjeev Reddy all served as Presidents or Vice Presidents of India but did not serve as Union Finance Ministers. Therefore, identifying the leader with a background as Finance Minister immediately points to Pranab Mukherjee. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the political careers of each of the four leaders listed.Step 2: Note that Pranab Mukherjee held key economic and foreign affairs portfolios and was widely known for presenting Union Budgets.Step 3: Recognise that K.R. Narayanan, Shankar Dayal Sharma and Neelam Sanjeev Reddy are associated primarily with the offices of President, Vice President, Chief Minister or party leadership, but not as Finance Minister.Step 4: Conclude that Pranab Mukherjee is the only correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: A quick check is to remember famous Finance Ministers of India such as C.D. Deshmukh, Morarji Desai, Yashwantrao Chavan, Manmohan Singh, P. Chidambaram and Pranab Mukherjee. Among the four options in this question, only Pranab Mukherjee appears on that list. This confirms that option A is the correct choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option B: K.R. Narayanan served as Vice President and later as President of India, but not as Union Finance Minister.Option C: Shankar Dayal Sharma served as Vice President and then President, and earlier held positions such as Chief Minister, but he did not serve as Finance Minister of India.Option D: Neelam Sanjeev Reddy was Speaker of the Lok Sabha and later President of India, not a Union Finance Minister. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to assume that any senior leader who became President must have held all major ministerial posts, including Finance, which is not true. Another pitfall is mixing up the careers of different leaders due to similar time periods or party affiliations. To avoid this, it helps to memorise a short list of key Finance Ministers and match questions against that list when revising Indian polity and economy topics. Final Answer: Correct answer: Pranab Mukherjee

Question 15

On which date was the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY) officially launched by the Government of India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question relates to important government schemes in India, specifically the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana, often abbreviated as PMMY or Mudra Yojana. Knowing the launch dates and key features of flagship schemes is a frequent requirement in banking exams, civil services prelims and other competitive tests focused on Indian economy and current affairs. Given Data / Assumptions: • The scheme under discussion is Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana, a government programme for funding micro and small enterprises. • The options provide four different time frames between 2014 and 2016. • You are expected to recall or deduce the correct launch date based on your knowledge of recent economic reforms and schemes. Concept / Approach: Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana was launched to provide financial support to non corporate, non farm small and micro enterprises through the MUDRA institution and participating banks. It is part of a larger push for financial inclusion and promotion of entrepreneurship. The scheme was formally launched by the Prime Minister in April 2015. Many related initiatives such as Jan Dhan Yojana and other financial inclusion programmes were launched around the same period, which can create confusion if dates are not remembered accurately. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that PMMY is a flagship scheme for micro and small enterprises and was announced after the initial wave of Jan Dhan and other financial inclusion schemes.Step 2: Remember that the official launch of Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana took place in April 2015.Step 3: Compare this date with the options and identify option C, “April 2015”, as the matching choice.Step 4: Eliminate the other options that refer to months in 2014 or 2016, which do not correspond to the launch date of PMMY. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative way to verify is to connect the launch of Mudra Yojana with the timeline of other major schemes. Jan Dhan Yojana was launched in 2014. Mudra Yojana followed in 2015 as part of the government focus on loans to small entrepreneurs. Since questions often group schemes chronologically, remembering this sequence helps confirm that the launch date is in April 2015 rather than in 2014 or 2016. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A: September 2014 is closer to the launch period of PM Jan Dhan Yojana, not Mudra Yojana.Option B: November 2014 does not correspond to the official launch date of PMMY.Option D: January 2016 is well after the scheme was already operational; by that time the scheme had already been running for several months. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes confuse the launch dates of different flagship schemes because they all fall within a narrow time frame. Mixing up Jan Dhan, Mudra and insurance schemes is common. A good strategy is to prepare a small timeline chart noting the year and month of launch of major schemes; revising this chart regularly helps avoid such errors in exam conditions. Final Answer: Correct answer: April 2015

Question 16

In the Union Budget 2017–18, what was the proposed allocation for the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) scheme?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question checks your awareness of key figures from the Union Budget 2017–18, specifically the allocation to the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act scheme, commonly known as MGNREGA. Budgetary allocations to major welfare schemes are frequently asked in exams related to the economy, banking and government schemes because they reflect policy priorities. Given Data / Assumptions: • The year in question is the Union Budget for 2017–18. • The scheme is MGNREGA, a flagship rural employment programme guaranteeing wage employment. • Several approximate allocation amounts are offered as options, all in rupees crore. Concept / Approach: MGNREGA is one of the largest public works and rural employment schemes in India. In the 2017–18 Union Budget, the government made headlines by announcing the then highest ever allocation to MGNREGA. The amount was approximately Rs. 48,000 crore. Remembering such record allocations is useful because they are widely reported in the news and are therefore likely to appear in objective questions. The other figures in the options are distractors that could relate to earlier or later budgets or to other schemes. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that for 2017–18, the Finance Minister highlighted a record allocation to MGNREGA.Step 2: Remember the approximate amount of this record allocation, which was Rs. 48,000 crore.Step 3: Compare the figure with the options and identify option A as the one that matches.Step 4: Eliminate the other options as they do not correspond to the widely reported record allocation for that particular year. Verification / Alternative check: A practical way to verify is to think of round numbers used in government announcements. Often, for major schemes, the numbers are multiples of thousand or five thousand crores and are emphasised in budget speeches. Many summaries of the 2017–18 Budget mention MGNREGA allocation specifically as Rs. 48,000 crore, which confirms that option A is correct. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option B: Rs. 38,000 crore is lower than the announced record allocation and does not match the 2017–18 figure.Option C: Rs. 56,000 crore is higher than the mentioned amount and does not correspond to the official allocation for that budget year.Option D: Rs. 33,000 crore is too low and could be closer to earlier allocations, but not the 2017–18 record allocation. Common Pitfalls: Many candidates struggle with memorising exact rupee figures because there are numerous schemes and years to remember. A useful tip is to focus on a few major headlines for each Budget, such as record increases for specific schemes, new tax slabs, and key welfare announcements. Writing these down in a small table and revising them shortly before exams can reduce confusion and guessing errors. Final Answer: Correct answer: Rs. 48,000 crore

Question 17

Which of the following schemes is not directly part of the Government of India's Digital India initiative?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question deals with major government initiatives under the umbrella of Digital India and asks you to identify which listed scheme is not directly part of that specific initiative. Many government programmes work together, so exams often test whether you can distinguish between those that fall under Digital India and those that belong to other flagship missions, such as financial inclusion. Given Data / Assumptions: • The focus is on the Digital India programme launched to transform India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy. • Three of the options are digital platforms or services commonly associated with Digital India. • One option is a well known financial inclusion scheme that is not formally a component of Digital India, even though it supports related goals. Concept / Approach: Digital India includes several core components such as Digital Locker, e-governance services, e-Hospital, National Scholarship Portal, e-sign and many others. These initiatives emphasise digital delivery of services, paperless governance and online access to information. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana, on the other hand, is primarily a financial inclusion scheme to provide basic bank accounts, insurance and pension access to the unbanked population. While Jan Dhan supports digital payments by giving people bank accounts, it is not formally branded as a Digital India scheme. Therefore, you must identify which option lies outside the explicit Digital India framework. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Digital Locker, National Scholarship Portal and e-Hospital are explicitly mentioned in many government documents as Digital India initiatives.Step 2: Recognise that Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana is usually grouped under financial inclusion and social security initiatives rather than under the Digital India pillar.Step 3: Match this understanding with the options and see that option D is the only one that is not a direct Digital India platform.Step 4: Conclude that Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: A quick verification is to think of the promotional material of Digital India. Common terms that appear repeatedly include Digital Locker, e-education, e-Hospital, National Scholarship Portal and e-governance. Jan Dhan Yojana is usually highlighted in a different context, such as bank account opening targets and social security coverage, which confirms that it does not belong to the Digital India list given here. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A: Digital Locker is a key Digital India service that allows citizens to store and access important documents online.Option B: National Scholarship Portal is an online platform for scholarship applications and is directly linked to Digital India's push for digital access to welfare schemes.Option C: e-Hospital is an online registration and appointment system that forms part of the e-governance and digital services drive under Digital India. Common Pitfalls: Candidates often assume that any modern or technology related scheme automatically belongs to Digital India. Another mistake is to treat all government initiatives launched around the same time as a single programme. To avoid this, it is useful to categorise schemes into broad areas such as Digital India, financial inclusion, skill development and social security, and then remember a few representative names under each category. Final Answer: Correct answer: Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana

Question 18

In the Indian Panchayati Raj system, for how many years is a Gram Panchayat normally elected?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question tests your knowledge of the basic structure of local self government in rural India, specifically the Gram Panchayat. The term of office of local bodies is an important detail frequently asked in polity and Panchayati Raj related questions in various competitive examinations. Given Data / Assumptions: • The subject is the Gram Panchayat, which is the village level institution in the Panchayati Raj system. • The question asks about the normal duration of its elected term in years. • We assume that no premature dissolution or extension is involved, so the standard term mentioned in the Constitution and related laws is being referred to. Concept / Approach: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, which gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions, provides that every Panchayat shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting. This applies to Gram Panchayat at the village level as well as intermediate and district level Panchayats, unless dissolved earlier according to law. Therefore, the normal tenure of a Gram Panchayat is five years. Any shorter or longer term would be exceptional and would usually involve constitutional or legislative changes. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the provisions of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment regarding the duration of Panchayats.Step 2: Remember that it clearly specifies a five year term for all Panchayats, including Gram Panchayat, unless dissolved sooner.Step 3: Compare this with the options and identify that only option D, five years, matches the constitutional provision.Step 4: Eliminate the remaining options (two, three and four years) as incorrect, because they are inconsistent with the amendment. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by noting that general elections to Panchayats are usually held at an interval similar to elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies, which also follow a five year cycle under normal conditions. This parallel pattern of five year terms for different elected bodies in India helps to confirm and remember the tenure of Gram Panchayats. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A: Two years is too short and does not correspond to any standard term mentioned for Gram Panchayats in the Constitution.Option B: Three years was never adopted as the usual term for Gram Panchayats under the 73rd Amendment.Option C: Four years is also incorrect, as the constitutional provision clearly states a five year tenure. Common Pitfalls: Sometimes candidates confuse the tenure of Panchayats with older practices under state laws before the 73rd Amendment, when terms could vary. Another pitfall is mixing up the five year tenure of Panchayats with the tenure of other bodies like Municipal Corporations, which also commonly have five year terms but are governed by a different constitutional part. Remembering that the 73rd and 74th Amendments both emphasise a five year cycle for local bodies is a helpful way to avoid such confusion. Final Answer: Correct answer: Five years

Question 19

Under the system of universal adult franchise in India, citizens of what minimum age are eligible to vote regardless of social or economic background?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question checks your understanding of universal adult franchise in India, which is a fundamental feature of the democratic system. It concerns the minimum age at which Indian citizens, irrespective of gender, caste, religion or economic status, gain the right to vote in elections to representative bodies. Given Data / Assumptions: • The context is the Indian electoral system and the concept of universal adult franchise. • The focus is on the minimum eligible age for voting, not for contesting elections. • The options provide four different age thresholds: 16, 17, 18 and 21 years. Concept / Approach: Originally, the minimum voting age in India was 21 years, as provided by the Constitution. However, the Sixty First Constitutional Amendment Act reduced this age from 21 to 18 years for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. Universal adult franchise means that every adult citizen who has attained this minimum age and is not otherwise disqualified has the right to vote, regardless of social or economic background. Therefore, the current minimum age for voting is 18 years. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that India follows universal adult franchise and that the voting age was changed by a constitutional amendment.Step 2: Remember that the Sixty First Amendment lowered the voting age from 21 to 18 years to widen participation in the democratic process.Step 3: Compare this with the options and see that option C, 18 years and above, matches the present rule.Step 4: Eliminate the other ages as incorrect, because they either reflect an outdated provision or a value never adopted in India. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by thinking about the basic eligibility when people receive their voter identity card. In practice and in official forms, 18 years is consistently mentioned as the minimum age for voter registration. This everyday fact confirms the constitutional provision and helps you confidently select option C. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A: Sixteen years is below the adult voting age and is not recognised as the threshold for universal adult franchise in India.Option B: Seventeen years is also below the constitutionally prescribed age and has never been used as the official voting age.Option D: Twenty one years was the original voting age but this has been changed; it is now outdated and therefore incorrect. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates confuse the minimum age for voting with the minimum age for contesting elections, which is higher. Another mistake is to remember the original age of 21 years and forget that the Constitution was amended. Regular revision of important constitutional amendments, especially those affecting fundamental democratic rights, helps to avoid such errors in examinations. Final Answer: Correct answer: 18 years and above

Question 20

Which of the following judges served as the first Lokayukta (anti corruption ombudsman) of the National Capital Territory of Delhi?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question relates to institutions designed to check corruption and maladministration in India, specifically the office of the Lokayukta in Delhi. The Lokayukta is an anti corruption ombudsman at the state or union territory level. Knowing who served as the first Lokayukta in a major region like Delhi is a part of general knowledge about governance and accountability mechanisms. Given Data / Assumptions: • The office under discussion is the Lokayukta of the National Capital Territory of Delhi. • The question asks you to identify the first person to hold this office. • Four names of judges who have served at different times as Lokayuktas of Delhi are given as options. Concept / Approach: The Lokayukta is appointed to investigate complaints of corruption, abuse of office and maladministration against public functionaries. In Delhi, the first Lokayukta appointed after the institution was created was Justice Rajendra Nath Aggarwal. Later, other judges such as Justice Mohd. Shamim, Justice Manmohan Sarin and Justice Reva Khetrapal also served as Lokayuktas. Since the question asks about the first holder of the office, you must identify the earliest appointment among the listed names. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that several retired judges of High Courts have successively served as Lokayukta of Delhi.Step 2: Remember that Justice Rajendra Nath Aggarwal is recognised as the first Lokayukta of Delhi.Step 3: Note that the other names in the options, such as Justice Mohd. Shamim, Justice Manmohan Sarin and Justice Reva Khetrapal, are associated with later tenures.Step 4: Therefore, select option D, Justice Rajendra Nath Aggarwal, as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: One way to verify is to recall the chronological order of Lokayuktas in Delhi, where Justice Rajendra Nath Aggarwal is usually mentioned first, followed by other judges in later years. If you remember that Justice Reva Khetrapal is a more recent Lokayukta and that Justice Manmohan Sarin and Justice Mohd. Shamim also served later, it becomes clear that the only candidate for the first Lokayukta is Justice Rajendra Nath Aggarwal. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A: Justice Manmohan Sarin did serve as Lokayukta of Delhi but not as the first; his tenure came after earlier appointments.Option B: Justice Reva Khetrapal served as Lokayukta at a later stage and is known for more recent decisions, not the initial establishment of the office.Option C: Justice Mohd. Shamim also held the post, but his appointment followed that of the first Lokayukta and hence he is not the correct answer to this question. Common Pitfalls: Students often focus on the most recently publicised office holder and wrongly assume that person to be the first or the only one. Another pitfall is not distinguishing between different anti corruption bodies such as Lokayukta, Lokpal and state vigilance commissions. To avoid confusion, it is helpful to memorise the first office holder in each important body and to revise a brief chronological list when preparing for exams in Indian polity and governance. Final Answer: Correct answer: Justice Rajendra Nath Aggarwal

Indian Politics Questions