Question 1

How many Fundamental Duties of citizens are explicitly mentioned in the Constitution of India after the 42nd and 86th Constitutional Amendment Acts?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution of India to remind citizens that rights are accompanied by responsibilities towards the nation and society. Originally introduced by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, the list was later expanded by the 86th Amendment to include one more duty relating to children's education. Knowing the exact number of Fundamental Duties is a favourite question in Indian polity exams and is part of basic static GK. Given Data / Assumptions: Fundamental Duties are mentioned in Article 51A of the Constitution of India. The 42nd Amendment initially added them, and the 86th Amendment later inserted one more duty. The options are 5, 6, 11 and 12 duties. We assume the current position after both amendments have taken effect. Concept / Approach: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, introduced a list of 10 Fundamental Duties in Article 51A. Later, the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, added an additional duty requiring parents or guardians to provide opportunities for education to children between six and fourteen years of age. This brought the total number of Fundamental Duties to 11. No subsequent Amendment has increased or decreased this number. Therefore, in today's Constitution, there are 11 Fundamental Duties specified in Article 51A, making 11 the correct option. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Fundamental Duties were not part of the original Constitution and were added later by the 42nd Amendment.Step 2: Understand that the 42nd Amendment inserted 10 duties into Article 51A, covering respect for national symbols, protection of the environment, promotion of scientific temper and more.Step 3: Remember that the 86th Amendment, which made education a Fundamental Right for children, also added a new duty for parents and guardians regarding their children's education.Step 4: Add the new duty to the original 10, bringing the total to 11 Fundamental Duties.Step 5: Match this total with the options and select 11 as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Any standard Indian polity book lists the Fundamental Duties as 11 in number, all contained in Article 51A, labelled clauses (a) to (k). These sources also explain that clauses (a) to (j) came from the 42nd Amendment, and clause (k) was inserted by the 86th Amendment. No authoritative text describes them as 5, 6 or 12 in number for the present Constitution. Thus, 11 is firmly established as the correct total for examination purposes. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 5: This number is far too low and does not correspond to any constitutional stage of the Fundamental Duties. 6: This also does not match the historical or current count of Fundamental Duties. 12: The Constitution contains 11 duties, not 12; no extra duty has been inserted beyond the one added by the 86th Amendment. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates remember that there were originally 10 duties and mistakenly think that the total is still 10, forgetting to account for the 86th Amendment's addition. Others may mix up this number with the number of Fundamental Rights or Directive Principles. To avoid confusion, associate the phrase "10 plus 1" with Fundamental Duties: 10 inserted by the 42nd Amendment and one more by the 86th, giving a clear and memorable total of 11 duties. Final Answer: After the 42nd and 86th Amendments, the Constitution of India specifies 11 Fundamental Duties of citizens.

Question 2

The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide legal disputes between the Union (Centre) and one or more States falls under which type of jurisdiction of the Court?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Supreme Court of India exercises several kinds of jurisdiction: original, appellate, advisory and others. Understanding which matters fall under which jurisdiction is a recurring theme in Indian polity questions. One of the key constitutional roles of the Supreme Court is to adjudicate disputes between the Union and the States or among States themselves. This question asks you to identify under which jurisdiction this specific function falls. Given Data / Assumptions: The disputes mentioned are between the Union (Centre) and one or more States, or between States inter se. The options include advisory, original, appellate jurisdiction and the term jurisprudence. We know that Articles 131, 132–134 and 143 of the Constitution address different aspects of the Court's powers. We assume the standard classification used in textbooks and exam syllabi. Concept / Approach: Article 131 of the Constitution of India confers original jurisdiction on the Supreme Court in any dispute between the Government of India and one or more States, or between two or more States, if and insofar as the dispute involves any question (whether of law or fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends. Original jurisdiction means the case can be filed directly in the Supreme Court without first going through lower courts. Appellate jurisdiction, by contrast, involves hearing appeals from lower courts, and advisory jurisdiction refers to references made by the President under Article 143. "Jurisprudence" is not a type of jurisdiction; it refers to the theory or philosophy of law. Therefore, such Centre State disputes clearly fall under the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify the nature of the dispute: it is between the Union and the States, or between States, involving legal rights.Step 2: Recall that Article 131 explicitly states that the Supreme Court shall have original jurisdiction in such disputes.Step 3: Understand that original jurisdiction means the case originates in the Supreme Court itself; there is no prior lower court decision to appeal from.Step 4: Recognise that appellate jurisdiction applies to appeals from High Courts or tribunals, not to disputes filed directly between governments.Step 5: Conclude that the correct type of jurisdiction for Centre State disputes before the Supreme Court is original jurisdiction. Verification / Alternative check: Indian polity textbooks and bare Constitution references clearly classify Centre State disputes under the heading "Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court." They distinguish this from appellate jurisdiction (criminal, civil and constitutional appeals) and from advisory jurisdiction (where the President seeks the Court's opinion). No authoritative text describes these disputes as falling under appellate or advisory powers. The term "jurisprudence" is used to discuss legal principles, not as a jurisdictional category. This confirms that original jurisdiction is the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Advisory jurisdiction: This applies when the President of India refers a question of law or fact of public importance to the Supreme Court under Article 143; it is not used for actual disputes between the Union and States. Appellate jurisdiction: This involves hearing appeals from lower courts; Centre State disputes do not reach the Supreme Court through appeals but are filed there directly. Jurisprudence: This is not a constitutional type of jurisdiction; it refers to the study and theory of law. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes lump all Supreme Court powers together without distinguishing between types of jurisdiction, leading to arbitrary choices like appellate or advisory. Another common error is to be distracted by technical sounding words such as jurisprudence and assume they represent a jurisdictional category. To avoid such mistakes, remember that the Supreme Court's role as the primary arbiter of disputes between the Union and the States is specifically labelled as original jurisdiction, and that this term signals cases that start in the Supreme Court itself. Final Answer: The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its original jurisdiction.

Question 3

What is the primary objective of the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) launched by the Government of India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) is one of the flagship welfare schemes of the Government of India aimed at improving the quality of life of poor households, especially women, by providing access to clean cooking fuel. Exam questions frequently ask candidates to match schemes with their main objectives, and confusing Ujjwala with other schemes on electricity, lighting or roads is a common trap. This question checks whether you can correctly associate PMUY with its core goal. Given Data / Assumptions: The scheme in question is Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana. The options mention electricity, LED bulbs, LPG connections and village roads. We know that several other schemes cover rural electrification, LED bulb distribution and road construction. The task is to single out the specific objective unique to PMUY. Concept / Approach: PMUY was launched to provide LPG (liquefied petroleum gas) cooking gas connections to women belonging to poor households, particularly those identified in the Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC). The scheme aims to replace traditional biomass based cooking, which causes indoor air pollution and health problems, with clean fuel. In contrast, programmes like Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana and Saubhagya focus on electricity, the UJALA scheme focuses on LED bulbs, and the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) focuses on rural roads. Therefore, the primary aim of Ujjwala is clearly the provision of LPG connections to poor households, not the other purposes listed in the options. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the main slogan and imagery associated with Ujjwala Yojana, which highlight women holding LPG cylinders and using clean cooking gas.Step 2: Understand that the scheme targets women from below poverty line or otherwise identified poor households to provide free or subsidised LPG connections.Step 3: Compare this with other schemes: LED bulbs (UJALA), rural roads (PMGSY), and electrification (Saubhagya and related schemes).Step 4: Recognise that none of those objectives match the unique focus of Ujjwala on LPG connections.Step 5: Select the option that explicitly mentions providing LPG cooking gas connections to poor households. Verification / Alternative check: Government documents and scheme brochures for PMUY state that its main objective is to provide 5 crore (and later more) LPG connections to women from poor families to ensure access to clean fuel for cooking. They highlight the health, environmental and empowerment benefits of such access. Conversely, official descriptions of UJALA, Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana and PMGSY clearly assign them to LEDs, electricity and rural roads, respectively. This cross referencing confirms that the LPG connection objective is the hallmark of Ujjwala Yojana. Why Other Options Are Wrong: To provide electricity to all rural households: This is the main goal of schemes like Saubhagya, not PMUY. To provide LED bulbs at subsidised rates: This describes the UJALA scheme, not Ujjwala. To construct village roads in rural areas: This is the objective of Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY), not Ujjwala. Common Pitfalls: Because many schemes begin with the words "Pradhan Mantri" and relate to basic infrastructure, students often mix them up. It is easy to confuse Ujjwala with UJALA due to the similarity in names, or to wrongly associate it with electrification and roads. A useful memory trick is to link Ujjwala (brightening the kitchen) with LPG cylinders and women beneficiaries, while UJALA (light) goes with bulbs and electricity. Keeping these associations clear will help you avoid errors in scheme based questions. Final Answer: The major aim of Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana is to provide LPG cooking gas connections to poor households, especially to women from such families.

Question 4

With reference to the ordinance-making power of the Governor under Article 213 of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is or are correct?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The ordinance making power of the Governor at the State level is similar, in many ways, to the President's ordinance making power at the Union level. It allows temporary laws to be made when the State Legislature is not in session. However, this power is not absolute or purely discretionary; it is exercised under constitutional limitations and usually on the advice of the Council of Ministers. This question asks you to examine two specific statements about the Governor's ordinance making power and identify which are correct. Given Data / Assumptions: The statements are: 1. It is a discretionary power. 2. The Governor himself is not competent to withdraw the Ordinance at any time. We must determine whether each statement is correct in light of Article 213 and the general principles of parliamentary democracy in India. Concept / Approach: Article 213 empowers the Governor to promulgate ordinances when the Legislative Assembly (or both Houses in a bicameral State) is not in session, and when he is satisfied that circumstances exist which require immediate action. However, under the system of responsible government, the Governor is expected to act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, except in a few well defined areas of discretion. Ordinance making is not generally treated as a purely discretionary power. Moreover, Article 213(2)(b) states that an ordinance may be withdrawn at any time by the Governor—meaning that the Governor has the formal power to withdraw it (again, normally on ministerial advice). Therefore, both statements given in the question are incorrect: the power is not purely discretionary, and the Governor is competent to withdraw an ordinance. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Assess Statement 1: "It is a discretionary power." Read in context, ordinance making is exercised by the Governor while following the constitutional norm of acting on the advice of the Council of Ministers; thus, it is not a broad discretionary power.Step 2: Recall that only some specific functions (for example, reserving a Bill for the President or certain decisions in North Eastern States) are treated as discretionary; ordinance making is not one of them in ordinary circumstances.Step 3: Conclude that Statement 1 is incorrect.Step 4: Assess Statement 2: "The Governor himself is not competent to withdraw the Ordinance at any time." Article 213(2)(b) explicitly provides that an ordinance may be withdrawn at any time by the Governor, so constitutionally he is competent to do so.Step 5: Therefore, Statement 2 is also incorrect. Since both statements are wrong, the correct answer is "Neither 1 nor 2." Verification / Alternative check: Polity commentaries explain that the Governor's ordinance making power is subject to similar checks as the President's in Article 123. They emphasise that the Governor acts on ministerial advice in promulgating and withdrawing ordinances, and that such ordinances must be laid before the State Legislature and will cease to operate if not approved. Furthermore, discussion of discretionary powers lists different examples and does not categorise ordinance making as an area of unfettered gubernatorial discretion. Reading the constitutional text of Article 213(2)(b) confirms that the Governor may withdraw an ordinance at any time, confirming Statement 2 as incorrect. Why Other Options Are Wrong: "1 only": This would treat the ordinance making power as discretionary, which contradicts the general principle of responsible government and constitutional conventions. "2 only": This suggests the Governor is not competent to withdraw the ordinance, which is directly contradicted by Article 213(2)(b). "Both 1 and 2": This assumes both statements are correct, whereas both misrepresent the constitutional position. Common Pitfalls: One frequent error is to assume that because the Constitution says the Governor is "satisfied" before promulgating an ordinance, the power must be discretionary. In parliamentary systems, however, such satisfaction is normally understood to be the satisfaction of the government, not the personal choice of the Governor. Another pitfall is ignoring the explicit text allowing the Governor to withdraw an ordinance and instead imagining that only the Legislature can end it. Remember that ordinances are temporary executive laws that can be both promulgated and withdrawn by the Governor, subject to constitutional checks and ministerial advice. Final Answer: Both statements given are incorrect, so the correct choice is Neither 1 nor 2.

Question 5

Who among the following is not a member of either of the two Houses of Parliament of India (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha)?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: In a parliamentary system like India's, there is a clear distinction between the head of State and the head of government, and there are specific rules about who can be a member of Parliament. The Council of Ministers, including the Prime Minister and other ministers, are generally drawn from Parliament. The President, however, occupies a different constitutional position. This question checks whether you can correctly identify which high office holder is not a member of either House of Parliament. Given Data / Assumptions: The options include the Prime Minister, Finance Minister, President and Railway Minister. We know that the Prime Minister and other ministers are normally members of either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha, or must become members within six months. The President is the head of State under the Constitution. The task is to choose the one office holder who is not a member of Parliament. Concept / Approach: Under Articles 74 and 75, the Prime Minister and other ministers are appointed from among members of Parliament or must secure membership within six months of appointment. They are therefore either sitting members of the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha (or in rare cases nominated) for most of their tenure. The President of India, however, is elected by an electoral college consisting of elected members of Parliament and State Legislatures but is not himself a member of either House. In fact, if a sitting MP is elected as President, he or she must vacate the parliamentary seat. Thus, among the four office holders listed, only the President is definitively not a member of either House of Parliament. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Consider the Prime Minister. By convention and constitutional practice, the Prime Minister is the leader of the majority in the Lok Sabha or, in some cases, a member of the Rajya Sabha. Therefore, the Prime Minister is a member of Parliament.Step 2: Consider the Finance Minister and Railway Minister. They are part of the Council of Ministers and, like other ministers, must be members of either House or must become members within six months of appointment.Step 3: Consider the President. The President is elected by MPs and MLAs but is not an MP; the office is separate from membership in Parliament.Step 4: Recall that if a sitting MP becomes President, he or she must resign the seat, reinforcing that one cannot be both a President and an MP at the same time.Step 5: Conclude that the President is the one who is not a member of any of the two Houses of Parliament. Verification / Alternative check: Constitutional provisions and standard polity books emphasise that the President is not part of Parliament in the sense of being a member of either House, although he is an integral part of Parliament as an institution for legislative purposes. They also explain that ministers must be members of Parliament (with a temporary six month exception) and that their accountability depends on this membership. Examination questions frequently contrast the President with ministers in this way, confirming that the President is the correct answer here. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Prime Minister: As head of government, the Prime Minister must be a member of either the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha, or must become one within six months. Finance Minister: This is a member of the Council of Ministers and, like other ministers, is normally a member of Parliament. Railway Minister: Another ministerial position; again, holders of this office are typically MPs. Common Pitfalls: A common source of confusion is the statement that "the President is a part of Parliament," which is true institutionally but does not mean the President is a member of either House. Another error is to overlook the requirement that ministers be MPs or become MPs within six months. Keeping clear the distinction between institutional components of Parliament and individual membership of its Houses will help you answer similar questions correctly. Final Answer: The high office holder who is not a member of either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha is the President of India.

Question 6

Fundamental Duties of citizens are mentioned in which Part of the Constitution of India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Constitution of India is divided into various Parts, each dealing with a different aspect of the constitutional framework, such as citizenship, Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, the Union, the States and so on. Fundamental Duties, which remind citizens of their obligations toward the nation, were inserted later into the Constitution. This question asks you to identify in which specific Part these Fundamental Duties are located, a fact frequently tested in Indian polity examinations. Given Data / Assumptions: We are asked about the Part of the Constitution containing Fundamental Duties. The options are Part II, Part III, Part V and Part IV A. We know that Fundamental Rights appear in Part III and Directive Principles in Part IV. We assume the post 42nd Amendment structure of the Constitution. Concept / Approach: Fundamental Duties were not part of the original Constitution. They were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, in a new Part IV A immediately after Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy). Article 51A in Part IV A lists these Fundamental Duties. This location emphasises their close relationship with the Directive Principles while keeping them distinct from enforceable Fundamental Rights in Part III. Therefore, among the options given, Part IV A is the correct Part where Fundamental Duties are mentioned. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Fundamental Rights are in Part III and Directive Principles are in Part IV of the Constitution.Step 2: Remember that the 42nd Amendment inserted Fundamental Duties after Directive Principles, creating a new Part labelled IV A.Step 3: Note that citizenship is covered in Part II and the Union executive and Parliament in Part V, neither of which deals with Fundamental Duties.Step 4: Identify Part IV A as containing Article 51A, which enumerates the Fundamental Duties.Step 5: Select Part IV A as the correct answer from the options provided. Verification / Alternative check: Any bare act or authoritative text on the Constitution lists "Part IV A – Fundamental Duties" and includes Article 51A under this heading. Textbooks on Indian polity invariably repeat that Fundamental Duties are found in Part IV A, coming after the Directive Principles in Part IV and before provisions relating to the Union and the States in later Parts. There is no reference to Fundamental Duties in Part II, III or V, which makes Part IV A the only accurate choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Part II: This part deals with citizenship, not duties. Part III: This part contains Fundamental Rights, not Fundamental Duties. Part V: This part deals with the Union, including the President, Vice President, Council of Ministers and Parliament, not with citizen duties. Common Pitfalls: Because Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties are conceptually linked, students sometimes mistakenly think that both must be in the same Part (Part III). Others may remember that Duties were added near the Directive Principles and incorrectly choose Part IV. The correct recollection is that a distinct Part labeled IV A was created specifically to house Article 51A and the list of Fundamental Duties. Associating "IV A" with "additional duties" right after the Directive Principles can help fix this in memory. Final Answer: Fundamental Duties are mentioned in Part IV A of the Constitution of India.

Question 7

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed from office by which of the following procedures under the Constitution of India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is a key constitutional authority who presides over the proceedings of the House, maintains order and interprets rules. The Speaker's office is important for the functioning of parliamentary democracy, and the Constitution provides a specific method for removal to ensure both stability and accountability. This question asks you to identify the correct procedure by which the Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed from office. Given Data / Assumptions: The office in question is the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. The options suggest removal by the President, by the Prime Minister, by both Houses together, or by the Lok Sabha alone. We know that the Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from among its members. We assume the standard constitutional procedure without any extraordinary circumstances. Concept / Approach: Article 94 of the Constitution provides that the Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be removed from office by a resolution of the Lok Sabha, passed by a majority of all the then members of the House (an effective majority), after giving the Speaker an opportunity to be heard. The Rajya Sabha does not participate in this removal, and neither the President nor the Prime Minister has unilateral power to remove the Speaker. Since the Speaker derives authority from the Lok Sabha, it is appropriate that only that House can remove him or her by formal resolution. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from among its members.Step 2: Article 94 states that the Speaker may be removed from office by a resolution of the Lok Sabha, passed by a majority of all the then members of the House.Step 3: Understand that the Constitution does not provide for removal of the Speaker by a joint action of both Houses, nor by the President's unilateral order.Step 4: Recognise that the Prime Minister, though an important figure, cannot personally remove the Speaker; it must be done by the House through a vote.Step 5: Conclude that the correct procedure is removal by a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha. Verification / Alternative check: Polity texts describe the removal of the Speaker as one of the few cases where an effective majority is required: more than 50 percent of the total membership of the Lok Sabha must support the resolution. They also stress that the Speaker is answerable to the House and may be removed only by it. The President's role is limited to accepting the resignation and addressing other formalities, not to initiating or deciding removal. No provision gives the Rajya Sabha or the Prime Minister direct power to remove the Speaker, confirming that the removal is solely by resolution of the Lok Sabha. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The President acting alone: The President does not have constitutional authority to remove the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. The Prime Minister: The Prime Minister may influence the House politically but cannot personally remove the Speaker; removal must be through a House resolution. A resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament: Removal is confined to the Lok Sabha; the Rajya Sabha has no formal role in this process. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes generalise impeachment style procedures and imagine that both Houses must be involved in removing all high functionaries. They may also overestimate the formal powers of the President or Prime Minister. To avoid misunderstandings, remember that the Speaker is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha and derives legitimacy directly from that House, which alone has the power to remove him or her by an appropriately supported resolution. Final Answer: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed from office by a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha.

Question 8

Which of the following statements correctly describes the main feature of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by the Rajya Sabha in August 2016?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a major indirect tax reform in India that replaced a complex web of central and State taxes with a more unified system. The Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, based on the GST Bill passed by Parliament in 2016, created the legal framework for GST. Exam questions frequently ask which statement accurately captures the key feature of this reform. This question focuses on the scope of taxes subsumed and clarifies common misconceptions about sectors like alcohol and petroleum. Given Data / Assumptions: The context is the GST Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by the Rajya Sabha in August 2016. Option a suggests only central taxes are replaced. Option b states that both central and State taxes are subsumed. Option c claims GST will be levied on alcoholic liquor at a fixed 25 percent rate. Option d asserts that petroleum and petroleum products will never be subject to GST. Concept / Approach: The essential feature of GST is that it is a destination based tax levied on the supply of most goods and services, and it replaces multiple indirect taxes levied by both the Centre and the States. Central taxes like excise duty, service tax and additional customs duty, and State taxes like VAT, entry tax and entertainment tax (except those on local bodies) were brought within the GST framework. Alcoholic liquor for human consumption was explicitly kept outside GST; States continue to tax it separately. Petroleum products were constitutionally kept under GST but their taxation under GST was deferred; the GST Council can recommend when to bring them fully under GST. Therefore, the statement correctly reflecting the main feature is that GST subsumes both central and State taxes into a unified tax system. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Examine option a: It claims only central taxes are replaced by GST, which ignores the key fact that many State taxes are also subsumed; thus it is incomplete and misleading.Step 2: Examine option b: It states that both central and State taxes and duties are subsumed into a unified GST framework, which matches the core idea of the reform.Step 3: Examine option c: It specifies a uniform 25 percent GST on alcoholic liquor, but liquor for human consumption has been kept outside GST; this statement is incorrect.Step 4: Examine option d: It says petroleum and petroleum products shall not be subject to GST under any circumstances; in fact, the Constitution allows them under GST with implementation subject to the GST Council's recommendation, so this statement is also wrong.Step 5: Conclude that option b is the only statement correctly describing the main feature of the GST Constitutional Amendment Bill. Verification / Alternative check: Summaries of the 101st Constitutional Amendment and GST FAQs clearly say that GST replaced many earlier indirect taxes of both the Centre and the States. They list a range of subsumed taxes—central excise, service tax, additional customs duty, State VAT, entry tax and so on. The same summaries note that alcohol for human consumption is outside GST and that petroleum products are to be brought under GST at a later date as decided by the GST Council. No official description restricts GST to central taxes alone, nor declares that petroleum products will never be under GST. This confirms that option b is the accurate description. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option a: It underplays the reform by mentioning only central taxes, ignoring that States also surrendered many of their indirect taxes to create a unified system. Option c: It is factually wrong about alcohol, which is kept outside GST; States continue to levy their own duties and taxes on liquor. Option d: It incorrectly claims that petroleum products will not be subject to GST under any circumstances, whereas the Constitution allows them to be included when the GST Council so recommends. Common Pitfalls: Many candidates remember that alcohol and petroleum were treated specially but misinterpret this to mean they are permanently exempt or automatically taxed under GST. Others simplify GST as just a central measure and overlook the federal nature of the reform. To avoid such mistakes, remember that the hallmark of GST is the merging of both central and State indirect taxes into a single, coordinated framework, while some items like alcohol are left to the States and petroleum is kept in a transitional category. Final Answer: The correct statement is that GST subsume(s) both central and State taxes and duties into a unified Goods and Services Tax framework, as described in option b.

Question 9

In Indian polity, the existence of more than one level of government in a country (for example, Union and State governments) is a key feature of which system of government?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Political systems can be classified in many ways, including how power is shared between different levels of government. Some countries have a single central government, while others divide power between a national government and subnational governments such as States or provinces. This vertical division of authority is central to understanding federal systems. The question asks you to identify the term used in Indian polity to describe the existence of more than one level of government in a single country. Given Data / Assumptions: The key idea is the existence of more than one level of government, such as Union and State governments in India. The options provided are democracy, federalism, monarchy and bicameral. We assume standard textbook definitions of these terms. The task is to choose the term that directly relates to the vertical division of powers between levels of government. Concept / Approach: Federalism is a system of government in which power is constitutionally divided between a central (national) government and one or more levels of subnational governments (States, provinces, cantons, etc.), each of which has its own sphere of authority. India is often described as a quasi federal country because it has Union, State and sometimes local governments with constitutionally assigned powers. Democracy, on the other hand, refers to who rules (the people or their representatives), not to how power is divided geographically. Monarchy refers to rule by a king or queen, and bicameral refers to a legislature with two Houses. Therefore, the term that captures the existence of multiple levels of government is federalism. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify the key phrase in the question: "more than one level of government in the country."Step 2: Recall that federalism involves a constitutional division of powers between a national government and subnational units like States.Step 3: Note that terms like democracy, monarchy and bicameral describe other aspects of government (who rules, what form the head of State takes, whether there are one or two legislative chambers) rather than levels of government.Step 4: Match the idea of multiple levels of government with the concept of federalism.Step 5: Choose "federalism" as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Indian polity textbooks describe India as having a federal structure with a strong unitary bias. They explain that the Constitution provides for different lists of subjects—Union, State and Concurrent—over which different levels of government legislate. This is cited as evidence of federalism. The same books define democracy as government by the people, either directly or through representatives, and bicameralism as a system with two Houses of legislature. None of these terms other than federalism are tied specifically to the existence of multiple levels of government, confirming that federalism is the correct term. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Democracy: This refers to rule by the people; a democracy can be unitary or federal. Monarchy: This denotes a system where a monarch (king or queen) is the head of State; it does not by itself imply more than one level of government. Bicameral: This describes a legislature with two Houses (for example, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha), but says nothing about the division of power between central and State governments. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse structural features like federalism (levels of government) with democratic features (elections, fundamental rights) and with legislative features (unicameral vs bicameral). Another confusion is to equate federalism automatically with democracy, though a federal structure can exist in different types of regimes. To answer such questions correctly, focus on the specific aspect being tested: here it is the number of levels of government, which points clearly to federalism. Final Answer: The existence of more than one level of government in a country is a key feature of federalism.

Question 10

Which of the following statements about the Right to Education in India are correct? 1. Free and compulsory education should be provided to all children in the age group of six to fourteen years. 2. The Right to Education Act, 2009 requires that sch…

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Right to Education in India is a major constitutional and legal guarantee that aims to ensure every child receives basic schooling. It is grounded in Article 21A of the Constitution and operationalised through the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009. This question asks you to evaluate three statements that together describe the scope of this right in terms of coverage, school standards, and non discrimination. Such multi statement questions test both factual memory and conceptual understanding of how the right is implemented on the ground. Given Data / Assumptions: The first statement refers to free and compulsory education for children aged six to fourteen years in India. The second statement highlights that the Right to Education Act, 2009 lays down norms related to qualified teachers and basic school infrastructure. The third statement focuses on the requirement of quality education without discrimination based on economic, social or cultural background. It is assumed that the question is based on Article 21A and the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 in force for school education in India. Concept / Approach: To answer this question, you should recall the core features of the Right to Education framework. First, Article 21A makes education for children between six and fourteen a Fundamental Right. Second, the RTE Act sets norms and standards for schools, including teacher qualifications, pupil teacher ratios, and physical infrastructure such as classrooms, toilets and drinking water facilities. Third, the Act emphasises that schools cannot discriminate against children on grounds such as caste, religion, gender, social or economic status, and that quality education must be inclusive. The approach is to match each statement with these known features and see whether it correctly reflects the law and policy. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Consider Statement 1. Article 21A clearly states that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children in the age group of six to fourteen years. Thus, Statement 1 is correct. Step 2: Consider Statement 2. The RTE Act, 2009 lays down norms and standards for schools, including minimum teacher qualifications, pupil teacher ratios and essential infrastructure. Therefore, saying that the imperative of the Act is that schools must have qualified teachers and basic infrastructure is a correct description of one of its central requirements. Statement 2 is correct. Step 3: Consider Statement 3. The entire design of the Right to Education is aimed at ensuring that children receive quality education without discrimination based on economic, social or cultural background. The Act prohibits screening tests, capitation fees and discriminatory practices which exclude disadvantaged children. So Statement 3 is also correct. Step 4: Since Statements 1, 2 and 3 all align with the constitutional Article and the RTE Act framework, all three statements are correct. Step 5: Among the options, only the option that includes 1, 2 and 3 together matches this conclusion. Verification / Alternative check: A quick cross check with standard polity and education policy summaries confirms that Article 21A covers children from six to fourteen years, that the RTE Act sets norms for teachers and infrastructure, and that non discrimination and inclusion are key pillars of the law. Many exam guides summarise the right by mentioning the age group, free and compulsory nature, minimum school standards and emphasis on equitable quality. This matches all three statements, reinforcing that they are all correct taken together. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 1 and 2 only: This option wrongly excludes Statement 3, even though the prohibition of discrimination and the goal of quality education are central objectives of the RTE framework. 1 and 3 only: This option falsely omits Statement 2, although school infrastructure norms and teacher qualifications are specifically laid down in the Schedule to the RTE Act. 3 only: This ignores the age group guarantee and the statutory norms, and therefore does not capture the full legal position. Common Pitfalls: Learners sometimes focus only on the age group and forget that the RTE Act also prescribes detailed structural norms for schools. Others may remember infrastructure norms but not the strong non discrimination and inclusion element. A further confusion arises between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles. To avoid such mistakes, remember that Article 21A and the RTE Act together guarantee a package: free and compulsory schooling for ages six to fourteen, minimum standards of quality and infrastructure, qualified teachers, and non discriminatory access for children from all economic, social and cultural backgrounds. Final Answer: All three statements correctly describe important aspects of the Right to Education framework in India, so the correct choice is 1, 2 and 3.

Question 11

Which Constitutional Amendment Act of India is popularly known as the "Mini Constitution" because it brought about very wide ranging changes in the Constitution?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Constitution of India has been amended many times, but a few amendments are especially important because they made extensive changes in a single step. One such amendment is often described as the "Mini Constitution" due to the breadth and depth of its impact. Questions about this amendment are standard in Indian polity examinations, as they test familiarity with constitutional history and key reforms of the Emergency period. Given Data / Assumptions: The question refers to a Constitutional Amendment Act that is popularly called the "Mini Constitution". Options include the 7th, 42nd, 44th and 74th Amendments. It is assumed that you know the broad themes associated with these amendments, especially during and after the Emergency in the mid nineteen seventies. Concept / Approach: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 was enacted during the Emergency period. It is considered one of the most comprehensive amendments, as it modified the Preamble, strengthened certain Directive Principles, curtailed some Fundamental Rights, made changes in the relationship between the judiciary and Parliament, and altered the working of the executive and the federal system. Because it touched so many Parts and Articles of the Constitution in one stroke, it is popularly called the "Mini Constitution". The approach is therefore to identify which amendment is most closely associated with this description. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 amended a very large number of Articles and added new provisions related to Fundamental Duties, changes in the Preamble and stronger Directive Principles. Step 2: Remember that this amendment inserted the words socialist and secular into the Preamble and added the word integrity to the unity of India phrase. Step 3: It also brought in Article 51A on Fundamental Duties and made changes affecting the powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts, as well as the relationship between the Centre and the states. Step 4: Because it was so wide ranging and attempted to reshape the constitutional balance in many areas, commentators and exam texts commonly refer to it as the "Mini Constitution". Step 5: The other amendments listed have significant but narrower impacts. The 7th dealt with reorganisation of states, the 44th with reversing some Emergency era changes and strengthening civil liberties, and the 74th with local urban self government. Step 6: Therefore, the amendment popularly known as the "Mini Constitution" is the 42nd Amendment. Verification / Alternative check: Standard Indian polity textbooks explicitly label the 42nd Amendment as the "Mini Constitution" because it affected a very large number of provisions at once. They often provide tables listing dozens of Articles altered by this amendment. No other amendment in the options is commonly given this nickname, confirming that the 42nd Amendment is the intended and widely recognised answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 7th Amendment: This amendment mainly reorganised states and Union Territories and dealt with related matters, but it did not transform the overall constitutional framework to the same degree. 44th Amendment: This amendment is important for restoring civil liberties and modifying Emergency provisions after 1977, but it is not popularly called the "Mini Constitution". 74th Amendment: This amendment focuses on strengthening urban local bodies through constitutional status, not on rewriting a large part of the Constitution in a single step. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse the 42nd and 44th Amendments because both are linked to the Emergency era and its aftermath. A useful memory aid is to remember that the 42nd Amendment is associated with centralisation, new words in the Preamble and Fundamental Duties, while the 44th Amendment is associated with restoring and protecting civil liberties. The "Mini Constitution" label is therefore tightly linked with the 42nd Amendment, not the others. Final Answer: The Constitutional Amendment popularly known as the "Mini Constitution" of India is the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.

Question 12

Which one of the following rights has been removed from the list of Fundamental Rights and converted into a simple legal (constitutional) right in India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The list of Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India has been amended over time. A very important change concerns the status of the Right to Property, which was originally a Fundamental Right but was later removed from that part of the Constitution. This question tests whether you can identify which right underwent this change and now exists as a different kind of right while still being constitutionally recognised. Given Data / Assumptions: The question asks which right has been removed from the list of Fundamental Rights and turned into a legal or ordinary constitutional right. The options include right to life and personal liberty, right to property, right to education and right to freedom of religion. It is assumed that you know about the 44th Constitutional Amendment and the introduction of Article 300A. Concept / Approach: Originally, the Right to Property was guaranteed under Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 as a Fundamental Right. However, frequent conflicts between land reform laws and property owners led to many disputes and constitutional amendments. Eventually, the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act removed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights and introduced Article 300A, which states that no person shall be deprived of property except by authority of law. This made it a constitutional and legal right rather than a Fundamental Right. The other rights in the options remain Fundamental Rights. Therefore, the correct approach is to pick the Right to Property as the one that has changed status. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Fundamental Rights are mainly listed in Part III of the Constitution, including rights such as equality, freedom, protection against exploitation, freedom of religion, cultural and educational rights and constitutional remedies. Step 2: Remember that the Right to Property used to be part of this list but was removed from Part III by the 44th Amendment. Step 3: Note that the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21, the right to education (Article 21A) and the right to freedom of religion (Articles 25 to 28) are still Fundamental Rights. Step 4: Article 300A now protects the Right to Property as a constitutional right, stating that deprivation of property must be done only by authority of law. Step 5: Therefore, among the options, the right to property is the only right that has been removed from the Fundamental Rights group and converted into a legal or ordinary constitutional right. Verification / Alternative check: Standard Indian polity texts clearly highlight this change as a major constitutional development, often presenting the Right to Property as an example of a right downgraded from Fundamental to legal status. They also emphasise that while property is still protected, violations now require a different route for redress compared with Fundamental Rights. This confirms that the Right to Property is the correct answer in this context. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Right to life and personal liberty: This is a core Fundamental Right under Article 21 and has actually been expanded through judicial interpretation, not downgraded. Right to education: After the 86th Amendment, education for children aged six to fourteen years is guaranteed as a Fundamental Right under Article 21A, not removed. Right to freedom of religion: This remains a Fundamental Right under Articles 25 to 28 and has not been converted into a mere legal right. Common Pitfalls: A common error is to confuse evolving judicial interpretations with removal or downgrading. For example, some learners mistakenly think that because the Right to Education was previously a Directive Principle, it was never a Fundamental Right. In reality, it became a Fundamental Right later. Only the Right to Property has moved in the opposite direction, from Fundamental Right to legal right. Remember the key linkage: property and Article 300A after the 44th Amendment. Final Answer: The right that has been removed from the list of Fundamental Rights and converted into a simple legal right is the Right to property.

Question 13

Which of the following is NOT listed as a Fundamental Duty of citizens in the Constitution of India under Article 51A?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India were introduced to remind citizens that rights come with responsibilities. These duties are listed in Article 51A and cover respect for national symbols, protection of unity and integrity, promotion of harmony, safeguarding public property and the environment, and a few other obligations. This question asks you to distinguish between what is a Fundamental Duty and what is a separate constitutional provision, thus testing your detailed knowledge of Article 51A and related Articles. Given Data / Assumptions: The question lists four activities or principles and asks which one is not a Fundamental Duty. Options include abiding by the Constitution and respecting the national flag, promoting harmony and brotherhood, upholding and protecting sovereignty, and abolition of titles except military and academic titles. It is assumed that you know that Fundamental Duties are primarily listed in Article 51A, while abolition of titles is covered elsewhere in the Constitution. Concept / Approach: Article 51A contains a list of eleven Fundamental Duties (after the 86th Amendment) that every citizen is expected to observe. These duties include respecting the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem; protecting sovereignty, unity and integrity; promoting harmony; protecting the environment; and performing other civic responsibilities. By contrast, the abolition of titles except military and academic distinctions is provided in Article 18 as part of the Right to Equality, not as a Fundamental Duty. The correct approach is to identify which option belongs to Article 18 rather than Article 51A. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Check option A: "To abide by the Constitution and respect the National Flag." This is directly part of Article 51A clause (a), which requires citizens to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals, the National Flag and the National Anthem. So this is a Fundamental Duty. Step 2: Check option B: "To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood." Article 51A clause (e) asks citizens to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all people of India, so this is also a Fundamental Duty. Step 3: Check option C: "To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India." Article 51A clause (c) explicitly states this as a Fundamental Duty. Therefore, this option is also a Fundamental Duty. Step 4: Check option D: "Abolition of titles except military and academic titles." This principle is found in Article 18, which abolishes titles like Rai Bahadur and prevents the state from conferring titles except for academic and military distinctions. It is not framed as a Fundamental Duty of citizens but as a constitutional prohibition and right linked with equality. Step 5: Thus, option D is not a Fundamental Duty, while the others are clearly listed under Article 51A. Verification / Alternative check: A quick look at any summary of Fundamental Duties will show references to respect for national symbols, protection of sovereignty, promotion of harmony, preservation of cultural heritage, environmental protection and so on. Abolition of titles, however, appears when Fundamental Rights are discussed, particularly under the Right to Equality. This cross check confirms that only the statement regarding abolition of titles falls outside the scope of Fundamental Duties. Why Other Options Are Wrong: To abide by the Constitution and respect the National Flag: This is a direct quotation from Article 51A and therefore is definitely a Fundamental Duty. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood: Promoting harmony and renouncing practices derogatory to the dignity of women are clearly stated duties in Article 51A. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India: Safeguarding sovereignty and unity is a key Fundamental Duty, especially relevant for national security and unity. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes mix up substantive rights and prohibitions in the Fundamental Rights chapter with the citizen duties listed later. Because abolition of titles is often memorised along with other equality provisions, some learners think it might also be a duty. To avoid confusion, link abolition of titles with Article 18 and the Right to Equality, and remember that Fundamental Duties are grouped under Article 51A and generally start with phrases like "to uphold", "to protect", "to promote" or "to safeguard". Final Answer: The statement that is not a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A is abolition of titles except military and academic titles.

Question 14

Under which Article of the Constitution of India can the President of India proclaim a Financial Emergency?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Constitution of India provides for three types of emergencies: National Emergency, President rule in states and Financial Emergency. Each type is governed by a different Article and has its own conditions and effects. This question focuses on Financial Emergency and asks you to recall the specific Article under which the President can declare such an emergency. Familiarity with these Articles is essential for examinations on Indian polity and governance. Given Data / Assumptions: The question is explicitly about Financial Emergency, not National Emergency or President rule. Four Article numbers are given as options: 32, 349, 360 and 365. You are expected to match the correct Article to the power of the President to proclaim a Financial Emergency. Concept / Approach: The key concept is that Financial Emergency is provided for under Article 360 of the Constitution. This Article allows the President to proclaim such an emergency if he or she is satisfied that the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened. Article 352 deals with National Emergency, Article 356 with President rule in states and Article 360 with Financial Emergency. Article 32 is about the right to constitutional remedies, Article 349 relates to language issues and Article 365 is about failure of a state to comply with Union directions. The approach is simply to associate Financial Emergency with Article 360. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the three main emergency Articles are 352, 356 and 360. Out of these, 360 is specifically for Financial Emergency. Step 2: Note that Article 32 provides the right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and is unrelated to emergencies. Step 3: Article 349 deals with special procedures in connection with the language to be used in Parliament, and Article 365 concerns the effect of failure by a state to comply with directions given by the Union. Step 4: Since the question clearly mentions Financial Emergency, and only Article 360 deals with that situation, the correct option is Article 360. Verification / Alternative check: Any standard Indian polity book summarises emergency provisions by listing Article 352 for National Emergency, Article 356 for President rule in states and Article 360 for Financial Emergency. These are often presented together in tables or charts to help exam aspirants remember them. A quick mental check of that summary confirms that Article 360 is associated with Financial Emergency and not the other articles listed in the options. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Article 32: This is the right to constitutional remedies, famously called the heart and soul of the Constitution by Dr B R Ambedkar, and has nothing to do with declaring emergencies. Article 349: This deals with language safeguards and special procedures in Parliament, and does not empower the President to declare any emergency. Article 365: This allows the President to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution if the state fails to comply with Union directions, but it is not the Financial Emergency Article. Common Pitfalls: A frequent mistake is to confuse the numbers of emergency Articles, especially under exam pressure. Some candidates also mix up Article 356 and 365 because both may be discussed together when studying centre state relations. To avoid confusion, remember a simple pattern: 352 for National Emergency, 356 for state emergency or President rule and 360 for Financial Emergency. Attaching a mnemonic such as "3 6 0 for zero money" can help fix Article 360 in your memory for financial crises. Final Answer: The President of India can proclaim a Financial Emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution.

Question 15

Which central government scheme aims at providing free health check ups for pregnant women during the first six months of pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Government of India has launched several flagship schemes aimed at improving maternal and child health, financial inclusion, rural development and education. This question focuses on one specific health scheme designed to provide free and quality antenatal check ups for pregnant women, particularly during the crucial first six months of pregnancy. Recognising the correct scheme and its objective is a common requirement in general knowledge and current affairs examinations. Given Data / Assumptions: The scheme mentioned in the question is aimed at providing free health check ups to pregnant women in the first six months of pregnancy. The options include Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday Abhiyan, Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana, Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan and Vidyanjali Yojana. It is assumed that you are aware of the broad focus of each of these schemes and can match them with their target groups and goals. Concept / Approach: The Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA) is a national programme that provides free, fixed day, quality antenatal care to pregnant women on the ninth of every month. It focuses especially on women in the second and third trimesters, ensuring at least one check up in each trimester and better monitoring of high risk pregnancies. The other schemes in the options serve different purposes: Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday Abhiyan is about village level awareness and development, Ujjwala Yojana focuses on providing LPG connections to women from poor households, and Vidyanjali Yojana relates to community participation in schools. The approach is to correctly associate maternal health check ups with PMSMA. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Examine option C, Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan. The word matritva indicates a focus on motherhood and maternal health. The scheme is known for providing free antenatal check ups to pregnant women. Step 2: Recall that PMSMA offers special antenatal clinics on the ninth of every month, where pregnant women, especially those in the second and third trimesters, receive free check ups by medical specialists. Step 3: Now consider option A, Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday Abhiyan. This campaign is more broadly about strengthening rural development, promoting agriculture and social harmony, and is not a targeted antenatal health scheme. Step 4: Option B, Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana, is aimed at providing LPG connections to women from below poverty line households to reduce dependence on polluting cooking fuels; it does not specifically provide pregnancy related health check ups. Step 5: Option D, Vidyanjali Yojana, is designed to encourage community and private sector participation in government schools, focusing on education rather than health check ups. Step 6: Only Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan aligns with the description of free health check ups for pregnant women during the first six months of pregnancy. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative way to confirm is to associate each scheme name with a keyword: Gram Uday with rural awakening, Ujjwala with clean cooking fuel, Surakshit Matritva with safe motherhood and Vidyanjali with education and volunteering. Only the safe motherhood scheme fits the maternal health check up description. This matches the focus on free antenatal care services as described in government communications about PMSMA. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday Abhiyan: A broad rural awareness and development campaign, not specifically a maternal health check up scheme. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana: Focused on providing LPG connections to poor households to improve health indirectly by reducing indoor air pollution, but it does not organise free antenatal check ups. Vidyanjali Yojana: A programme to involve volunteers in school education, not connected to pregnancy related health services. Common Pitfalls: Because many schemes have similar sounding names and use phrases like Pradhan Mantri or Abhiyan, students sometimes confuse their objectives. Another pitfall is assuming that any scheme linked to women must be related to maternity services, which is not always the case. To avoid this, connect each scheme with a central keyword in your mind: cooking fuel for Ujjwala, safe motherhood for Surakshit Matritva, rural awakening for Gram Uday and school volunteering for Vidyanjali. Final Answer: The scheme aimed at providing free health check ups for pregnant women during the first six months of pregnancy is Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan.

Question 16

Which institution elects the President and the Vice President of India and also participates in the process of removing judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts through impeachment?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Constitution of India assigns different roles to various institutions in electing high constitutional functionaries and in removing them from office when necessary. The President, the Vice President and the judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts all hold offices that require special procedures for appointment and removal. This question asks which institution is directly involved in electing the President and Vice President and also plays a central role in the removal of judges through impeachment like processes. Given Data / Assumptions: The President of India is elected by an electoral college that includes members of Parliament and of state legislatures. The Vice President of India is elected by members of both Houses of Parliament. Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts can be removed by a special majority resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament, commonly described as impeachment in the case of Supreme Court judges. The options include Parliament, the Election Commission, the Union Cabinet and the Supreme Court. Concept / Approach: The key idea is that Parliament of India, consisting of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, is central both to the election of the Vice President and to the removal of judges. While the President is elected by a wider electoral college including state legislatures, Parliament is still a core part of that college. In contrast, the Election Commission conducts elections but does not itself elect or remove these officials. The Union Cabinet is part of the executive and the Supreme Court is the apex judiciary; neither is the voting body for these functions. The approach is therefore to recognise Parliament as the body that elects the Vice President and passes the removal resolutions for judges, while being a major component of the electoral college for the President. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the states and certain Union Territories. Step 2: Remember that the Vice President is elected by the members of both Houses of Parliament voting together, which means Parliament as a whole functions as the electing body in that case. Step 3: For removal of judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, a special majority resolution must be passed by both Houses of Parliament after following the procedure laid down in the Judges Inquiry Act and related rules. Step 4: The Election Commission of India organises and supervises elections but does not itself elect or remove these constitutional functionaries. Step 5: The Union Cabinet advises the President but does not itself elect or impeach; the Supreme Court may be involved in inquiries but does not vote on removal of its own judges. Step 6: Thus, the institution that both elects the Vice President (and partly elects the President) and also removes judges through special resolutions is Parliament of India. Verification / Alternative check: Textbook descriptions of the Indian political system consistently show Parliament at the centre of these processes. Diagrams of the President electoral college list Parliament as a major component, while separate charts on the removal of judges indicate resolutions passed by both Houses. The Election Commission appears when discussing conduct of elections, and the Cabinet appears in the context of executive powers, not election or removal powers, confirming that Parliament is the correct choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Election Commission of India: It conducts and supervises elections, ensures free and fair polls and prepares electoral rolls, but it does not itself elect or impeach high constitutional officials. Union Cabinet: The Cabinet is part of the executive, responsible for day to day administration and policy decisions. It may recommend certain actions, but it does not vote to elect the President or Vice President or remove judges. Supreme Court of India: The Supreme Court interprets the Constitution and may conduct inquiries related to removal of judges, but the formal act of removal is done by Parliament through special majority resolutions. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to assume that the Election Commission, because it deals with elections, must also be responsible for electing high officials. Another confusion is between nomination, recommendation and election. For example, the Cabinet may recommend names, but the actual election or removal is a legislative function. To avoid these errors, remember that Parliament is the central deliberative and voting body for such constitutional decisions, while the Election Commission is an independent administrative body and the Supreme Court is a judicial body. Final Answer: The institution that elects the President and the Vice President and participates directly in the removal of judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts is the Parliament of India.

Question 17

In which form of government do priests or religious leaders rule in the name of God or a divine authority?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Political science uses specific terms to describe different forms of government based on who holds power and on what basis that power is justified. Some systems are based on hereditary monarchy, some on rule by a small elite, and some claim religious authority as the main source of power. This question asks you to identify the term used for a form of government in which priests or religious leaders rule in the name of God or a divine principle, which is important for understanding comparative politics. Given Data / Assumptions: The question clearly states that priests rule in the name of God, which implies a fusion of religious authority and political power. The options given are fascism, monarchy, theocracy and oligarchy. It is assumed that you know the basic meanings of these four political concepts. Concept / Approach: The term theocracy comes from the Greek words meaning rule of God. In a theocratic system, religious leaders hold political office and laws are often based on religious texts or doctrine. A monarchy is rule by a king or queen, usually based on hereditary succession. Fascism is an authoritarian nationalist ideology centred on a strong leader, not necessarily religious. Oligarchy refers to rule by a small group of powerful people. The correct conceptual match for a system where priests rule in the name of God is theocracy. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Focus on the key phrase in the question: priests or religious leaders ruling in the name of God. This indicates that religious authority is the main basis for political power. Step 2: Consider option C, theocracy. By definition, a theocracy is a form of government in which religious leaders control political power, claiming to govern on behalf of a divine authority. Step 3: Option B, monarchy, refers to rule by a hereditary monarch such as a king or queen. While some monarchies may claim divine right, the term monarchy itself does not necessarily imply rule by priests or religious leaders. Step 4: Option A, fascism, denotes an authoritarian and often militaristic system led by a dictator, with strong nationalism and suppression of opposition, rather than rule by priests. Step 5: Option D, oligarchy, means rule by a small group of people, usually from a wealthy or powerful elite, but not necessarily priests or religious figures. Step 6: Thus, only theocracy directly fits the description of government by priests in the name of God. Verification / Alternative check: Any basic political science glossary will define theocracy in terms of rule by religious authorities, often citing historical examples where church or clerical structures directly governed the state. Monarchies and oligarchies are classified separately, and fascism is treated as a distinct ideological regime. This confirms that theocracy is the unique term that captures the idea of priestly rule with a religious justification. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Fascism: Focuses on authoritarian nationalism, one party dictatorship and often militarism, not specifically religious rule. Monarchy: Refers to rule by a monarch, and while some monarchs may be religiously legitimised, the system is not defined by rule of priests. Oligarchy: Means rule by a few powerful individuals or families, which might be economic or military elites rather than religious leaders. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse monarchy and theocracy because in some historical societies kings claimed divine right or acted as religious figures themselves. However, the specific term that emphasises institutionalised rule by religious authorities is theocracy. To avoid confusion, associate monarchy with kings and queens, oligarchy with small elites, fascism with authoritarian nationalism and theocracy with clerical or priestly rule in the name of God. Final Answer: The form of government in which priests or religious leaders rule in the name of God is called a Theocracy.

Question 18

In the Constitution of India, abolition of untouchability is specifically included under which group of Fundamental Rights?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Abolition of untouchability is one of the most important social justice measures embedded in the Constitution of India. It reflects the commitment of the framers to remove caste based discrimination and promote equality in society. This question asks you to identify under which broad heading of Fundamental Rights the constitutional provision abolishing untouchability has been placed, testing your knowledge of how rights are grouped in Part III of the Constitution. Given Data / Assumptions: The provision abolishing untouchability is contained in Article 17 of the Constitution. Article 17 is located within a specific group of Fundamental Rights dealing with equality. The options list Right to Liberty and Personal Freedom, Right to Freedom of Religion, Right to Equality and Cultural and Educational Rights. Concept / Approach: Fundamental Rights in Part III of the Constitution are organised into thematic groups. Articles 14 to 18 are grouped under the heading Right to Equality. Article 17, which abolishes untouchability and makes its practice in any form an offence punishable by law, is part of this group. Right to Liberty and Personal Freedom is primarily associated with Article 21 and related freedoms, Right to Freedom of Religion covers Articles 25 to 28, and Cultural and Educational Rights cover Articles 29 and 30. Therefore, the correct approach is to associate abolition of untouchability with the Right to Equality group. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Right to Equality is covered by Articles 14 to 18. These include equality before law, prohibition of discrimination, equality of opportunity in public employment, abolition of untouchability and abolition of titles. Step 2: Article 17 specifically declares that untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden. It also provides that enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability is an offence. Step 3: The heading under which Article 17 appears is Right to Equality, indicating that abolition of untouchability is considered a matter of equality rather than religion, culture or personal liberty alone. Step 4: Right to Liberty and Personal Freedom is associated mainly with Article 21 and related protections, not with the specific abolition of untouchability. Step 5: Right to Freedom of Religion deals with freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practice and propagate religion, not with abolishing caste based practices. Step 6: Cultural and Educational Rights protect minority culture, language and institutions under Articles 29 and 30, but they do not directly address untouchability. Step 7: Therefore, abolition of untouchability is included under the Right to Equality. Verification / Alternative check: Polity textbooks and chart summaries of Fundamental Rights always list Article 17 under the Right to Equality group. They often highlight that this right is both negative (forbidding a practice) and positive (requiring the state to take measures to prevent and punish untouchability). No standard reference places abolition of untouchability under any other rights group, confirming that Right to Equality is the correct classification. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Right to Liberty and Personal Freedom: While liberty is important, the specific constitutional attack on untouchability is framed as an equality issue, not merely as individual liberty. Right to Freedom of Religion: Article 25 allows the state to regulate or restrict secular activities associated with religion, but the explicit abolition of untouchability is not grouped here. Cultural and Educational Rights: These rights focus on protecting linguistic, religious and cultural minorities and their institutions. They do not deal directly with caste based discrimination like untouchability. Common Pitfalls: Some learners mistakenly associate abolition of untouchability with religion because caste practices often have religious overtones. Others confuse it with cultural rights due to its social nature. To avoid these errors, remember the article sequence: Articles 14 to 18 for equality, 19 to 22 for freedom, 23 to 24 for protection against exploitation, 25 to 28 for religious freedom and 29 to 30 for cultural and educational rights. Within that structure, Article 17 clearly belongs to the equality group. Final Answer: Abolition of untouchability is specifically included under the Fundamental Right of Right to Equality in the Constitution of India.

Question 19

Which of the following is NOT a formally prescribed device available to members of the Indian Parliament under the official Rules of Procedure?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Members of Parliament in India use various procedural devices to raise matters of public importance, seek information from the government and hold the executive accountable. Some of these devices are formally mentioned in the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business, while others have evolved by convention and practice. This question asks you to identify which device is not formally written into the rules, even though it is widely used in practice. Given Data / Assumptions: Four devices are listed: Zero Hour, Call Attention Notice, half an hour discussion and short duration discussion. The question asks which one is not formally prescribed in the Rules of Procedure for Parliament. It is assumed that you know the difference between conventional practices and formally recognised rule based procedures in parliamentary work. Concept / Approach: Zero Hour is a term used for the period immediately following Question Hour in Parliament, during which members can raise urgent matters without prior notice under the rules. However, Zero Hour is not mentioned in the official Rules of Procedure; it has evolved as a parliamentary convention. In contrast, Call Attention Notices, half an hour discussions and short duration discussions are formally provided for in the rules, with specified procedures for admission, notice and conduct. The approach is to identify Zero Hour as the conventional device that is not explicitly codified in the rule book. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Zero Hour refers to the time right after Question Hour, usually starting at noon, when members can raise matters of urgent public importance. Step 2: Although Zero Hour is regularly used and recognised in parliamentary practice, it is not mentioned in the original Rules of Procedure. It is thus considered a convention rather than a formal rule based device. Step 3: Call Attention Notice is a formal device under which a member, with the permission of the Speaker or Chairman, can call the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance and seek an authoritative statement. Step 4: Half an hour discussion is another formal device used when a member desires further clarification on a matter already answered during Question Hour, and its procedure is explicitly provided in the rules. Step 5: Short duration discussion, often called two hour discussion, is also a formally recognised device permitting discussion on an urgent matter of public importance without a formal motion being put to vote. Step 6: Since the question asks which device is not formally prescribed, and only Zero Hour fits that description, Zero Hour is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Polity textbooks typically explain that Zero Hour is not a rule based provision but a convention that began in the nineteen sixties. They explicitly mention that Call Attention Notice, half an hour discussion and short duration discussion are recognised in the Rules of Procedure of both Houses. This contrast is often highlighted to illustrate how parliamentary practice can go beyond written rules, confirming that Zero Hour is the device not formally prescribed. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Call Attention Notice: This is clearly provided for in the rules and allows members to seek ministerial statements on urgent matters. Half an hour discussion: This device is codified and used when members need further clarification on answers given during Question Hour. Short-duration discussion: Also known as two hour discussion, this is formally mentioned in the rules for raising urgent matters of public importance without voting. Common Pitfalls: A common confusion arises because Zero Hour is so widely used that many students assume it must be officially codified. Another mistake is to think that all question related devices have the same status. To avoid errors, remember that Zero Hour is the classic example of a parliamentary convention without explicit rule book sanction, whereas the other devices in the options are rule based mechanisms laid down in the official procedures of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Final Answer: The device that is not formally prescribed in the Rules of Procedure of Parliament is Zero Hour.

Question 20

Among the following leaders, who has served for the longest total period as the Prime Minister of India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The office of the Prime Minister of India is the most important position in the executive branch, and the duration of service of different Prime Ministers is a common topic in history and polity questions. This question asks you to identify which of the listed leaders held the office of Prime Minister for the longest total period, taking into account multiple terms if applicable. Knowing these durations helps in understanding the political history and stability of various governments in India. Given Data / Assumptions: The leaders listed are Jawaharlal Nehru, Indira Gandhi, Manmohan Singh and Lal Bahadur Shastri. You are asked to choose the one who served for the greatest total number of years as Prime Minister. It is assumed that you know approximate tenure periods for these leaders, particularly the long serving ones like Nehru and Indira Gandhi. Concept / Approach: Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Prime Minister of independent India and served from August 1947 until his death in May 1964, which is roughly seventeen years. Indira Gandhi served in two main stretches, from 1966 to 1977 and then from 1980 until her assassination in 1984, totalling around fifteen or sixteen years. Manmohan Singh served two consecutive terms from 2004 to 2014, amounting to about ten years. Lal Bahadur Shastri served a much shorter period from 1964 to 1966. Therefore, the correct approach is to compare these durations and identify Nehru as the longest serving Prime Minister among them. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Consider Jawaharlal Nehru. He became Prime Minister in August 1947 and continued in office until May 1964. This is a continuous tenure of about seventeen years. Step 2: Consider Indira Gandhi. She served as Prime Minister from 1966 to 1977 and again from 1980 to 1984. Together, her time in office is around fifteen to sixteen years, slightly less than Nehru. Step 3: Consider Manmohan Singh. He served as Prime Minister from 2004 to 2014, which is ten years. Step 4: Consider Lal Bahadur Shastri, who served as Prime Minister from 1964 until his death in 1966, a relatively short tenure of about one and a half to two years. Step 5: Compare these durations. Nehru's tenure of about seventeen years is longer than Indira Gandhi's approximate fifteen to sixteen years, Manmohan Singh's ten years and Shastri's much shorter period. Step 6: Therefore, Jawaharlal Nehru is the leader who served the longest total period as Prime Minister among the given options. Verification / Alternative check: History and polity references consistently describe Jawaharlal Nehru as the longest serving Prime Minister of India. Chronological timelines of Indian Prime Ministers show his tenure from independence until 1964 without interruption. Indira Gandhi is often mentioned as having the second longest tenure. This pattern is widely accepted and appears in many examination guides, confirming that Nehru holds the record among the options given. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Indira Gandhi: Although she served for a very long period and is one of the longest serving Prime Ministers, her combined tenure is still shorter than Nehru's continuous time in office. Manmohan Singh: He served for two full terms of five years each, totalling ten years, which is significant but clearly less than both Nehru and Indira Gandhi. Lal Bahadur Shastri: His tenure was relatively brief due to his sudden death in office and cannot compare in length to the other three leaders listed. Common Pitfalls: Some learners may confuse longest continuous tenure with most number of terms or may not carefully add the periods of a leader who served non consecutively, such as Indira Gandhi. Others remember recent political figures more vividly and overestimate their duration. To avoid such mistakes, it helps to memorise approximate tenure lengths of key leaders: Nehru around seventeen years, Indira Gandhi around fifteen to sixteen years and Manmohan Singh ten years. Final Answer: Among the leaders listed, the person who served for the longest total period as Prime Minister of India is Jawaharlal Nehru.

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