Question 1

Under the Constitution of India, which of the following Articles cannot be suspended even during a Proclamation of Emergency?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Constitution of India allows for different types of emergencies, during which certain Fundamental Rights can be restricted or suspended. However, not all rights are equally vulnerable to such suspension. Articles 20 and 21, dealing with protection in respect of conviction for offences and protection of life and personal liberty, enjoy special protection even in times of emergency. This question checks whether you know which Articles cannot be suspended even when an Emergency is in force. Given Data / Assumptions: The question is about Fundamental Rights that cannot be suspended during an Emergency. Options list different combinations of Articles 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24, and 25. We assume familiarity with the basic meaning of these Articles. The focus is on the constitutional rule that some rights are non-derogable even in crisis situations. Concept / Approach: Article 359 of the Constitution allows the President to suspend the right to move any court for enforcement of certain Fundamental Rights during an Emergency. However, a later constitutional amendment clarified that rights under Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended. Article 20 protects individuals against ex post facto criminal laws, double jeopardy, and self incrimination. Article 21 guarantees that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. These core protections remain in force even in an Emergency and cannot be taken away by an order under Article 359. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that during some types of Emergency, Article 19 can be restricted or suspended.Step 2: Remember that the Constitution specifically protects Articles 20 and 21 from suspension under Article 359.Step 3: Recognise that Articles 22 to 25 can face restrictions under different circumstances and are not singled out in the same way as 20 and 21 in the context of Emergency suspension.Step 4: Review the options and identify the pair that consists of Articles 20 and 21.Step 5: Select Article 20 and 21 as the correct answer because they cannot be suspended even during an Emergency. Verification / Alternative check: Indian polity textbooks and commentaries on the Emergency provisions clearly state that after specific constitutional amendments, the rights under Articles 20 and 21 became non-derogable, meaning they cannot be suspended even when Emergencies are declared. They often highlight this point as a safeguard to prevent abuse of emergency powers as happened in the past. Reading Article 359 with its provisos confirms that the President cannot suspend the right to move any court for enforcement of these two Articles. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Article 19: Rights under Article 19 can be suspended during a National Emergency on grounds of war or external aggression. Article 22 and 23: These Articles can face restrictions; they are not specifically protected in the same way as Article 20 and 21 with respect to suspension of enforcement. Article 24 and 25: These cover prohibition of child labour in factories and freedom of religion; while they are important rights, the question of non suspension in Emergency is specifically tied to Articles 20 and 21. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to focus too much on Article 19, which is a prominent set of rights, and assume it must be the one that cannot be suspended. Exam history, however, shows that Article 19 rights have been suspended in past Emergencies. Another pitfall is to treat all rights as equally fragile or equally protected during Emergency. To avoid such confusion, remember the special status of Articles 20 and 21 as core protections of personal liberty and criminal justice that the Constitution does not allow to be suspended even in crisis. Final Answer: The Fundamental Rights that cannot be suspended even during an Emergency are those guaranteed under Article 20 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.

Question 2

Which Constitutional Amendment Act of India inserted Article 21A and made elementary education a Fundamental Right for children aged six to fourteen years?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Education is a key area where the Indian Constitution has evolved over time. Initially, free and compulsory education for children was placed among the Directive Principles of State Policy. Later, in recognition of its importance, Parliament decided to elevate elementary education to the status of a Fundamental Right. This was done by inserting Article 21A into the Constitution. The question asks you to identify which Constitutional Amendment Act brought about this major change. Given Data / Assumptions: The issue is making elementary education a Fundamental Right. Four Constitutional Amendments are listed as options: 84th, 85th, 86th, and 87th. The correct Amendment inserted Article 21A and modified related provisions. We assume familiarity with the broad timeline of educational reforms in the Constitution. Concept / Approach: The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, is the Amendment that made elementary education a Fundamental Right. It inserted Article 21A, stating that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine. It also modified Article 45 and added a new Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(k) requiring parents and guardians to provide opportunities for education to their children in this age group. The other Amendments listed in the options dealt with different issues such as representation and service matters, not with Article 21A. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the insertion of Article 21A, dealing with the right to education, was done by the 86th Amendment Act.Step 2: Note that the same Amendment rearranged the Directive Principle on education and introduced a Fundamental Duty related to children's education.Step 3: Compare the four Amendments listed and identify 86th as the one associated with education rights.Step 4: Confirm that the 84th, 85th, and 87th Amendments relate to other issues such as delimitation and reservation, not to Article 21A.Step 5: Select the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Indian polity textbooks and exam guides always link the phrase right to education as a Fundamental Right with the 86th Constitutional Amendment. They explain that while education was originally a Directive Principle under Article 45, the 86th Amendment upgraded the right to elementary education by adding Article 21A under the chapter on Fundamental Rights. Official summaries of Constitutional Amendments also clearly identify the 86th Amendment as the one related to making elementary education a Fundamental Right. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 84th Constitutional Amendment Act: This Amendment dealt with the delimitation of constituencies and related population figures. 85th Constitutional Amendment Act: It focused on service matters, particularly reservation in promotions. 87th Constitutional Amendment Act: It related to readjustment of constituencies and census data, not education rights. Common Pitfalls: Since several Amendments numbered in the 80s and 90s were passed around similar times, students sometimes mix up the numbers. The best way to avoid confusion is to memorise a few high impact Amendments with their key themes: for example, 42nd as the Mini Constitution, 44th for right to property, and 86th for the right to education. Associating the number 86 with school age children and Article 21A makes it easier to recall the correct answer quickly in exam conditions. Final Answer: The Constitutional Amendment Act that inserted Article 21A and made elementary education a Fundamental Right is the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of India.

Question 3

In the financial committee system of the Indian Parliament, which committee is often described as the "twin sister" of the Estimates Committee?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Parliamentary financial committees play a crucial role in ensuring legislative control over public expenditure. In India, three major financial committees are frequently discussed together: the Public Accounts Committee (PAC), the Estimates Committee, and the Committee on Public Undertakings (COPU). Textbooks sometimes refer to one of these as the "twin sister" of the Estimates Committee because their functions are closely related. This question tests whether you can identify that committee correctly. Given Data / Assumptions: The question is about the "twin sister" of the Estimates Committee. Options include the Public Accounts Committee, Committee on Public Undertakings, Departmental Standing Committee, and Committee of Privileges. We assume familiarity with the basic roles of these committees. The focus is on the relationship between committees that examine public expenditure and public sector performance. Concept / Approach: The Estimates Committee examines budget estimates to suggest economies and improvements in organisation and policy before money is spent. The Committee on Public Undertakings examines the reports and accounts of public sector undertakings to evaluate their efficiency and financial performance. Because both committees are concerned with how public money is planned and used, especially in relation to government enterprises, COPU is often described as the "twin sister" of the Estimates Committee. The Public Accounts Committee focuses more on auditing expenditure already incurred, while Departmental Standing Committees and the Committee of Privileges have different mandates. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Estimates Committee works primarily with budget estimates and suggestions for savings and efficiency.Step 2: Note that the Committee on Public Undertakings reviews the performance and accounts of public sector enterprises, which are major users of public funds.Step 3: Recognise that this similarity of focus on the use of public money, especially in undertakings, leads textbooks to label COPU as the "twin sister" of the Estimates Committee.Step 4: Distinguish this from the Public Accounts Committee, which focuses on post audit examination of government expenditure as a whole.Step 5: Choose the Committee on Public Undertakings as the correct answer from the list of options. Verification / Alternative check: Indian polity and public administration books that discuss financial committees often use the phrase "twin sister of the Estimates Committee" to describe the Committee on Public Undertakings. They do so because both committees examine aspects of planned spending and functioning in detail, though from slightly different angles. In contrast, descriptions of the Public Accounts Committee emphasise its role in audit and accounting, not as a twin of the Estimates Committee. This consistent phrasing across multiple sources confirms that COPU is the correct match for the question. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Public Accounts Committee: It is a key financial committee, but it is focused on post audit scrutiny and is not commonly described as the twin sister of the Estimates Committee. Departmental Standing Committee: These committees examine bills and demands for grants for specific ministries, but the twin sister label is not used for them. Committee of Privileges: It deals with breaches of privilege and contempt of the House, a very different function from financial oversight. Common Pitfalls: Because PAC and COPU are both financial committees, candidates sometimes assume that the oldest or most famous one must be the twin sister of the Estimates Committee. This leads to incorrectly selecting PAC. To avoid this, it is useful to remember each committee's main focus: PAC for audit of expenditure, Estimates for budget estimates, and COPU for public undertakings. Linking the phrase twin sister specifically with COPU in your memory will help you quickly answer similar questions in exams. Final Answer: The parliamentary committee often described as the "twin sister" of the Estimates Committee is the Committee on Public Undertakings.

Question 4

Under the Constitution of India, who appoints the Finance Commission that recommends the distribution of financial resources between the Union and the States?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Finance Commission of India is a constitutional body created to recommend how tax revenues should be shared between the Union and the States and among the States themselves. Its establishment at regular intervals is mandated by the Constitution so that Centre State financial relations remain balanced and updated. This question asks you to identify the authority that appoints the Finance Commission under the constitutional framework. Given Data / Assumptions: The subject is the Finance Commission of India. Options list the RBI Governor, the CAG of India, the President of India, and the Union Finance Minister. We assume awareness that the Finance Commission is a constitutional body under Article 280. The focus is on who formally constitutes and appoints the Commission. Concept / Approach: Article 280 of the Constitution of India provides that the President shall, within two years from the commencement of the Constitution and thereafter at the expiration of every fifth year or at such earlier time as the President considers necessary, constitute a Finance Commission. This means that the authority to appoint the Chairman and members of the Finance Commission lies with the President of India. The Finance Minister may be involved in recommending names or receiving reports, but the formal appointment power is vested in the President, not in the RBI Governor or the CAG. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the wording of Article 280, which clearly says that the President shall constitute a Finance Commission.Step 2: Understand that constituting a commission includes appointing its Chairman and members.Step 3: Recognise that while the Union Finance Minister works closely with the Commission and presents its recommendations, the Minister is not the appointing authority under the Constitution.Step 4: Note that the RBI Governor and the CAG have their own statutory and constitutional roles but do not appoint the Finance Commission.Step 5: Select the President of India as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Constitutional commentaries and polity textbooks always state that the Finance Commission is constituted by the President under Article 280. Government notifications announcing the formation of each Finance Commission are also issued in the name of the President. These notifications list the members and terms of reference, confirming that the appointment power rests with the President and not with other high offices mentioned in the options. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Governor of RBI: The RBI Governor is responsible for monetary policy and banking regulation, not for appointing constitutional commissions on finance sharing. Comptroller and Auditor General of India: The CAG audits government accounts but does not constitute the Finance Commission. Union Finance Minister: The Finance Minister may propose terms of reference and interact with the Commission but is not the constitutional appointing authority. Common Pitfalls: Because the Finance Commission deals with financial matters, candidates sometimes assume that the Union Finance Minister or RBI Governor must appoint it. Another confusion is the similarity between financial oversight bodies such as the CAG and the Finance Commission. To avoid such mistakes, remember that the power to constitute major constitutional commissions, including the Finance Commission, typically lies with the President of India, acting on the advice of the Council of Ministers. Final Answer: The Finance Commission of India is constituted and its members are appointed by the President of India under Article 280 of the Constitution.

Question 5

India's first and fastest multi-petaflops supercomputer "Pratyush" was designed under which Union Ministry of the Government of India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Supercomputing capability is important for advanced scientific research, including weather forecasting, climate modelling, and ocean studies. India has commissioned several high performance computing systems for these purposes. "Pratyush" is a notable multi petaflops supercomputer that marked a significant step forward in India's computing power. This question asks you to identify the Union Ministry under whose ambit this supercomputer was designed and installed. Given Data / Assumptions: The supercomputer in question is "Pratyush," described as India's first and fastest multi petaflops system. Options list the Ministry of Earth Sciences, Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, Ministry of Defence, and Department of Space. We assume awareness that Pratyush is used heavily for weather and climate related computations. The focus is on the administrative ministry responsible for it. Concept / Approach: "Pratyush" is primarily used for numerical weather prediction, climate research, and studies of monsoon, cyclones, and ocean dynamics. These areas fall under the domain of the Ministry of Earth Sciences, which oversees institutions such as the India Meteorological Department (IMD) and the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology. Consequently, the supercomputer was designed and deployed under the Ministry of Earth Sciences. Although advanced electronics and computing technology are involved, the purpose and institutional home connect it more directly to Earth Sciences than to defence or space agencies. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Pratyush is heavily associated with improved weather forecasting and climate modelling for India.Step 2: Connect weather and climate services in India with the Ministry of Earth Sciences, which is responsible for IMD and related organisations.Step 3: Recognise that while the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology deals with digital policies, it is not the primary sponsor of weather supercomputers.Step 4: Note that Ministry of Defence and Department of Space use high performance computing for their own research, but Pratyush is specifically tied to Earth science applications.Step 5: Select Ministry of Earth Sciences as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: News reports and official press releases on the inauguration of Pratyush frequently mention the Ministry of Earth Sciences and highlight its role in improving monsoon and cyclone forecasts. They describe Pratyush as installed at centres under this ministry, reinforcing the connection. By contrast, supercomputers used by defence or space agencies are typically referenced in other contexts and programmes, helping to distinguish Pratyush from those systems. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology: While this ministry deals with digital policies and IT promotion, it is not the primary sponsor of this weather focused supercomputer. Ministry of Defence: Defence research organisations may have their own computing infrastructure, but Pratyush is focused on meteorology and climate, not defence specific tasks. Department of Space: This department runs the space programme and may use supercomputers, but Pratyush is explicitly linked to Earth Sciences and meteorological research. Common Pitfalls: Because supercomputers involve advanced electronics and are often used in defence and space research, candidates sometimes assume that any major supercomputer must be under those departments. Another confusion comes from not linking the name Pratyush with weather and climate services. To avoid such errors, connect Pratyush with monsoon and cyclone forecasting and remember that these fall under the Ministry of Earth Sciences in India. Final Answer: India's multi petaflops supercomputer "Pratyush" was designed and deployed under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.

Question 6

According to the Constitution of India, which of the following is NOT listed as a Fundamental Duty of citizens under Article 51A?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution of India to remind citizens that rights come with responsibilities. Article 51A lists these duties. Competitive exams frequently ask which items are or are not included in that list. Many options mix language from Directive Principles of State Policy with the wording of Fundamental Duties to test your ability to distinguish between them. This question asks which statement is not a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A. Given Data / Assumptions: The focus is on Fundamental Duties under Article 51A. Options include respecting the National Flag, defending the country, providing education to one's child, and promoting village and cottage industries. We assume familiarity with the basic text of Article 51A and with some Directive Principles. The aim is to separate actual Fundamental Duties from similar sounding policy goals in other parts of the Constitution. Concept / Approach: Article 51A includes duties such as respecting the National Flag and National Anthem, defending the country, protecting the environment, and, after the 86th Amendment, providing opportunities for education to children between six and fourteen years of age. The promotion of village and cottage industries, however, is not listed as a Fundamental Duty; it appears instead as a Directive Principle in Article 43, which directs the State to encourage cottage industries on an individual or cooperative basis. Therefore, while promoting cottage industries is an important policy goal, it is not framed as an individual Fundamental Duty of citizens under Article 51A. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that respecting the National Flag and National Anthem is explicitly mentioned as a Fundamental Duty in Article 51A(a).Step 2: Remember that defending the country and rendering national service when called upon is also a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(d).Step 3: Note that the 86th Amendment added Article 51A(k), making it a duty for parents or guardians to provide opportunities for education to their children aged six to fourteen years.Step 4: Recognise that promoting village and cottage industries is mentioned in the Directive Principles (Article 43), focusing on State policy rather than individual citizen duty.Step 5: Conclude that promoting village and cottage industries is not a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A, making that option the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: A quick check of Article 51A shows a list of duties related to national symbols, constitutional ideals, unity and integrity, defence, public property, environment, scientific temper, and education for children. No clause specifically directs citizens to promote village and cottage industries. When you turn to Article 43 in Part IV, you find the reference to the State promoting cottage industries. This clear separation between Part IIIA (Fundamental Duties) and Part IV (Directive Principles) confirms that option relating to village and cottage industries is not a Fundamental Duty. Why Other Options Are Wrong: To respect the National Flag: This is explicitly a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(a). To defend the country and render national service: This appears in Article 51A(d) and is a clear Fundamental Duty. To provide opportunities for education to one's child: After the 86th Amendment, this became a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(k). Common Pitfalls: Because many exam questions draw from similar sounding constitutional language, students often confuse Directive Principles with Fundamental Duties. It is natural to think that supporting cottage industries might be a citizen duty, but constitutionally it is framed as a directive for the State. To avoid such errors, it helps to memorise a compact list of Fundamental Duties and to keep in mind that socio economic development goals like promoting cottage industries usually appear in the Directive Principles rather than in the duties of individual citizens. Final Answer: The statement that is not a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A is "To promote village and cottage industries in rural areas as a personal citizen duty."

Question 7

Which Amendment to the Constitution of India fixed that the size of the Council of Ministers at the Union and State levels shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members of the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly of a State?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: At one time, both the Union and several State governments in India had very large Councils of Ministers, leading to concerns about unnecessary expenditure and the creation of excessively big cabinets for political reasons. To address this, a Constitutional Amendment placed a ceiling on the size of the Council of Ministers. This question asks you to identify which Amendment prescribed that the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha or the Legislative Assembly of a State. Given Data / Assumptions: The issue is the maximum size of the Council of Ministers at Union and State levels. The question mentions the 15 percent limit. Options list the 87th, 90th, 91st, and 97th Constitutional Amendments. We assume familiarity with reforms aimed at curbing the size of ministries and anti defection related changes. Concept / Approach: The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, introduced several changes to strengthen the anti defection provisions and to limit the size of the Council of Ministers. It inserted a new clause providing that the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister or Chief Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members of the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly of a State. This ceiling was motivated by the need to promote efficiency and reduce the costs and distortions associated with very large cabinets. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the 91st Amendment is associated with anti defection reforms and the ceiling on the number of ministers.Step 2: Note that it fixed the maximum size of the Union and State Councils of Ministers at 15 percent of the strength of the relevant elected house.Step 3: Compare the Amendment numbers given in the options and identify 91st as the one connected to this provision.Step 4: Recognise that the 87th and 97th Amendments dealt with other constitutional issues such as constituency delimitation and cooperative societies.Step 5: Select the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Constitutional summaries and polity textbooks explicitly state that the 91st Amendment placed a cap on the number of ministers at the Union and State levels, setting the limit at 15 percent of the membership of the Lok Sabha or a State Legislative Assembly. They discuss this change alongside strengthened anti defection measures like disqualification of defectors from receiving ministerial office. No other Amendment is associated with this specific 15 percent ceiling, confirming that the 91st Amendment is the answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 87th Constitutional Amendment Act: This Amendment dealt mainly with readjustment of parliamentary constituencies based on census figures. 97th Constitutional Amendment Act: It concerns cooperative societies and added provisions related to their promotion and regulation, not the size of councils of ministers. 90th Constitutional Amendment Act: This Amendment related to reservation and other specific matters but not to limiting the size of ministries. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes confuse the numbering of Amendments in the 80s and 90s, especially when multiple reforms occurred in a short period. Another mistake is to misremember the percentage or link it with wrong Amendment numbers. To avoid such errors, it helps to associate the 91st Amendment with two keywords: anti defection strengthening and 15 percent limit on the Council of Ministers. This association makes it easier to recall the correct answer even under exam pressure. Final Answer: The ceiling that the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of the House strength was introduced by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act of India.

Question 8

The landmark judgement of the Supreme Court of India in the Vishakha case (Vishakha and Others v. State of Rajasthan, 1997) pertains to which of the following issues?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Vishakha case is one of the most important gender justice decisions of the Supreme Court of India. Before Parliament enacted a specific law on sexual harassment at the workplace, this case provided crucial guidelines to protect women employees from harassment and to hold employers responsible for maintaining a safe work environment. Exam questions frequently ask what subject this landmark judgement deals with. Given Data / Assumptions: The question names the Vishakha case (Vishakha and Others v. State of Rajasthan, 1997). Options include sexual harassment at the workplace, Sati, dowry death, and rape. We assume awareness that the judgement led to the famous Vishakha Guidelines. The focus is on recognising the specific legal issue addressed by the Supreme Court in this case. Concept / Approach: In the Vishakha case, the Supreme Court responded to the absence of specific domestic law on sexual harassment at the workplace by framing detailed guidelines using constitutional provisions and international conventions such as CEDAW. These guidelines defined sexual harassment, laid down employer obligations, and required internal complaint mechanisms in workplaces. The decision thus addressed sexual harassment of women at the workplace and created binding standards until Parliament later enacted the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act. It did not primarily deal with Sati, dowry death, or the broader law of rape, although all these are related to women's safety in different ways. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Vishakha case is famous for the Vishakha Guidelines on workplace sexual harassment.Step 2: Understand that these guidelines were directed at employers and institutions to prevent and redress sexual harassment of women employees.Step 3: Recognise that Sati, dowry death, and rape are governed by different laws and case law, not by the Vishakha judgement specifically.Step 4: Compare the options and identify the one mentioning sexual harassment at the workplace and prevention guidelines.Step 5: Select that option as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Any standard Indian polity or law book that covers Supreme Court landmark judgements lists Vishakha as the case where guidelines on sexual harassment at the workplace were issued. The judgment is widely referred to in later legal and policy documents as the basis for institutional mechanisms to handle such complaints. Separate sections in exam guides cover legislation on Sati, dowry, and rape under different headings, confirming that these topics are not the primary subject of the Vishakha ruling. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The practice of Sati: Laws banning Sati come from other statutes and cases, not from the Vishakha decision. Dowry death and cruelty by husband or relatives: These are addressed in sections of the Indian Penal Code and the Dowry Prohibition Act, not specifically by Vishakha. Criminal law relating to rape: While the Vishakha case touches on women's safety, major reforms on rape law came through different cases and amendments, such as those following the Nirbhaya case. Common Pitfalls: Because several high profile cases relate to violence against women, candidates may confuse them, especially if they remember only that a case is about women's rights. To avoid this, tie each case name to a simple keyword: Vishakha with workplace sexual harassment; Shah Bano with maintenance for divorced Muslim women; Nirbhaya with criminal law amendments on sexual offences, and so on. This mental mapping helps ensure that you pick the correct issue for each case name in MCQs. Final Answer: The Vishakha judgement pertains to sexual harassment of women at the workplace and the Supreme Court guidelines for its prevention and redressal.

Question 9

Under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), who selects or constitutes the Social Audit Committee to review the implementation of the scheme at the village level?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) aims to provide livelihood security in rural areas by guaranteeing wage employment. Transparency and accountability are central features of the scheme, and social audits are a key tool to ensure that funds are spent properly and that beneficiaries actually receive the work and wages due to them. This question asks who is responsible for selecting the Social Audit Committee that conducts such audits at the village level. Given Data / Assumptions: The scheme under discussion is MGNREGA. The focus is on the Social Audit Committee, a body that reviews implementation. Options include the Chief Minister, Gram Sabha, Mayor, and Block Development Officer. We assume awareness that social audits are intended to be participatory and community driven. Concept / Approach: MGNREGA design emphasises community participation and bottom up monitoring. The Gram Sabha, consisting of all eligible adult voters in a village, is central to planning, monitoring, and auditing the scheme. Social Audit Committees are selected or constituted by the Gram Sabha so that ordinary villagers can examine records, inspect works, and question officials. This ensures that auditing is not controlled solely from above by government officers but has genuine local involvement. Therefore, the Gram Sabha is the correct answer, not higher level functionaries like the Chief Minister or BDO. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that MGNREGA places strong emphasis on social audits by the community itself.Step 2: Understand that the Gram Sabha is the basic village assembly and is repeatedly mentioned in the Act as the key local body for planning and monitoring.Step 3: Recognise that a Social Audit Committee selected by the Gram Sabha reflects the principle of people's participation and transparency.Step 4: Note that the Chief Minister, Mayor, or Block Development Officer occupy higher or different levels of government and are not the ones who constitute this village level committee.Step 5: Select the Gram Sabha of the village as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Guidelines issued for the implementation of MGNREGA and for conducting social audits emphasise that the Gram Sabha is responsible for selecting members of the Social Audit Committee. Training material for social audit also explains that the committee should be composed of villagers who are not directly involved in the execution of works and that selection is done in open Gram Sabha meetings to ensure transparency. These details reinforce the centrality of the Gram Sabha in constituting the Social Audit Committee. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Chief Minister of the State: The Chief Minister oversees broad policy and implementation but does not directly select village level Social Audit Committees. Mayor of the nearest urban local body: MGNREGA primarily targets rural areas and Gram Panchayats, not urban municipalities. Block Development Officer (BDO): While the BDO has administrative responsibilities in MGNREGA, the scheme deliberately gives the Gram Sabha the power to select the Social Audit Committee to ensure community ownership. Common Pitfalls: Because many government schemes are implemented top down, students may instinctively choose an administrative officer such as the BDO or a high level political figure such as the Chief Minister as the appointing authority. However, MGNREGA is designed to empower local communities. To avoid confusion, remember that the Gram Sabha is the central institution for planning, monitoring, and auditing under this Act, and that social audits are meant to be citizen led rather than purely bureaucratic exercises. Final Answer: Under MGNREGA, the Social Audit Committee is selected or constituted by the Gram Sabha of the village.

Question 10

According to the Constitution of India, which of the following statements about the powers of the President of India is or are correct? 1. The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President. 2. The executive power shall be exercised b…

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Constitution of India defines the position and powers of the President in Part V. While the President is the formal head of the State and the executive, the actual exercise of power happens according to constitutional provisions and the system of responsible government. This question presents three statements about the executive power of the Union and the command of the defence forces and asks you to identify which statements correctly reflect the constitutional wording. Given Data / Assumptions: Statement 1: The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President. Statement 2: The executive power shall be exercised by the President only through officers subordinate to him. Statement 3: The supreme command of the defence forces of the Union shall be vested in the President. The code options combine these statements in different ways. We assume the question is based on Articles 52, 53 and 74 of the Constitution. Concept / Approach: Article 53(1) of the Constitution states that the executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the Constitution. Article 53(2) further provides that the supreme command of the defence forces of the Union shall be vested in the President. The key difference between Statement 2 and the constitutional text is that the Constitution says either directly or through officers subordinate to him, whereas Statement 2 uses the word only, which wrongly excludes direct exercise. Thus, Statements 1 and 3 correctly reflect the Constitution, but Statement 2 does not. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Compare Statement 1 with Article 53(1). The Constitution clearly says that the executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President, so Statement 1 is correct.Step 2: Compare Statement 2 with the same Article. The constitutional text allows the President to exercise executive power either directly or through subordinate officers. Therefore, the word only in Statement 2 makes it inaccurate, because it removes the possibility of direct exercise.Step 3: Compare Statement 3 with Article 53(2), which states that the supreme command of the defence forces of the Union shall be vested in the President; this matches Statement 3 exactly.Step 4: Conclude that Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while Statement 2 is not.Step 5: From the answer codes given, select the option that corresponds to 1 and 3 only. Verification / Alternative check: Reading Articles 52 and 53 in the bare Constitution confirms that the President is the formal head of the Union executive and that executive power is vested in that office. The phrasing "either directly or through officers subordinate to him" is crucial and frequently highlighted in polity textbooks. They also note that the President is the Supreme Commander of the defence forces as a matter of constitutional form, even though actual control is exercised on the advice of the Council of Ministers. These details verify that only Statements 1 and 3 align with the constitutional language. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 1, 2 and 3: This would treat Statement 2 as correct, but it misstates the Constitution by using only instead of either directly or through. 1 and 2 only: Includes the incorrect Statement 2 but excludes the correct Statement 3 about defence forces. 3 only: Ignores the clearly correct Statement 1 about the vesting of executive power. Common Pitfalls: A common trap in such questions is a small change of wording, such as inserting only where the Constitution uses either directly or through. Students focusing only on the general idea may overlook these details and mark Statement 2 as correct. To avoid such errors, pay close attention to qualifying words in constitutional language. Another pitfall is to assume that because the President is a nominal head, statements about executive power must be incorrect; however, the Constitution still vests formal power in the President, even though it is exercised on ministerial advice. Final Answer: The statements that correctly reflect the constitutional position are 1 and 3 only, so the correct option is the code representing Statements 1 and 3.

Question 11

According to the Preamble, the Constitution of India declares the country to be all of the following, except which one of the options given below?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Preamble to the Constitution of India is often described as the identity card of the Constitution. It expresses the ideals, values and basic character of the Indian state. Many competitive-exam questions ask you to recall the exact descriptive terms used in the Preamble. This question checks whether you can distinguish between what the Constitution actually says and what people may casually assume about India's ideology, especially regarding democracy, socialism, secularism and communism. Given Data / Assumptions: The question refers specifically to the Preamble of the Constitution of India. The key descriptive terms in the Preamble include words like sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic, justice, liberty, equality and fraternity. You are asked to identify which one term in the options is not used in the Preamble to describe India. It is assumed that the question is based on the Preamble as amended (for example, the words socialist and secular were added by the 42nd Amendment). Concept / Approach: To answer this question correctly, you need to remember or reconstruct the exact phrase used in the Preamble: that India is a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic. Any option that does not appear in this description is the odd one out. The best approach in such questions is to mentally recite the Preamble, pick out the state-describing words, and compare them with the given choices. This is a straightforward recall-based general-knowledge problem, but aspirants sometimes get confused between ideological labels such as socialist and communist. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the relevant part of the Preamble – it declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic. Step 2: List the descriptive terms: sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic. Step 3: Compare each option with this list. Democratic republic is directly present through the words democratic and republic. Socialist is clearly in the Preamble after the 42nd Amendment. Secular is also explicitly included. Step 4: Notice that the word communist does not appear anywhere in the Preamble. India follows a democratic and parliamentary system with multiple parties, not a one-party communist system. Step 5: Therefore, communist is the only option that is not a constitutional description of India in the Preamble. Verification / Alternative check: You can cross-check by recalling the popular phrase often taught in civics: India is a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic. None of these words is communist. In standard political science terminology, socialism and communism are related but different concepts. Socialism in the Indian constitutional context reflects a mixed economy and welfare orientation, not a classical communist one-party state. Hence, communist is clearly not a Preamble term, confirming that it must be the correct answer to this question. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Democratic republic: This phrase is directly rooted in the Preamble. Democratic refers to rule by the people through elected representatives, and republic refers to a head of state who is elected rather than a hereditary monarch. Socialist: The word socialist was added to the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment in 1976, indicating India's commitment to social and economic justice. Secular: The word secular, also added by the 42nd Amendment, emphasizes equal respect for all religions and the absence of a state religion in India. Common Pitfalls: Students often casually equate socialism with communism, leading to confusion. Another common mistake is to assume that because some political parties in India may use the term communist, the Constitution itself must describe India as a communist state. A further error is to misremember the Preamble wording and omit the fact that socialist and secular were added later. Always distinguish clearly between constitutional vocabulary and political party ideologies or slogans. Final Answer: The Preamble declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic, but it does not describe India as a communist state. Therefore, the correct answer is communist.

Question 12

In the Rajya Sabha (Council of States), what is the fixed tenure of an individual member in years under the Constitution of India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Rajya Sabha, or Council of States, is the upper house of the Parliament of India. Unlike the Lok Sabha, which can be dissolved, the Rajya Sabha is a permanent body. However, individual members do not sit for life; they have a fixed tenure. This question checks whether you correctly remember the length of a Rajya Sabha member's term, an important constitutional fact frequently tested in examinations on Indian polity and governance. Given Data / Assumptions: The question is about the tenure of an individual member of the Rajya Sabha, not about the life of the house itself. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house, but one third of its members retire at regular intervals. The options are given in years: 8, 6, 4 and 2, so you need to pick one specific tenure as provided in the Constitution and the Representation of the People Acts. No special or exceptional circumstances (like by-elections to fill casual vacancies) are being asked; it is about the normal full term of a member. Concept / Approach: The key concept is that the Rajya Sabha is a continuing body, with staggered terms. Each member is elected (or nominated) for a fixed term, and every two years roughly one-third of the members retire. This arrangement ensures continuity while still allowing periodic change. To answer the question, you must recall the standard tenure for a Rajya Sabha member, which is six years, with retirement on a rotational basis every two years. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the basic structure of Parliament – the Lok Sabha has a normal tenure of five years, whereas the Rajya Sabha is a permanent body. Step 2: Remember that one-third of Rajya Sabha members retire every two years, which implies staggered terms instead of simultaneous expiry. Step 3: To allow one-third of the house to retire every two years, the complete term for each member must be six years (2 years x 3 cycles). Step 4: Compare this with the options: 8, 6, 4 and 2 years. Only six years matches the constitutional provision for a Rajya Sabha member's tenure. Step 5: Conclude that the correct answer is six years. Verification / Alternative check: You can cross-check this fact from standard polity summaries: Rajya Sabha members are elected for a term of six years, with one-third retiring every second year. This is a well established and widely repeated point in NCERT books, Laxmikanth's Indian Polity and other exam-preparation texts. The President's nominated members also follow the same six-year tenure rule unless they resign or are disqualified earlier. Hence, six years is undoubtedly the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 8 years: No Indian parliamentary house prescribes an eight-year tenure for its members. This number does not fit the rotational pattern of one-third retiring every two years. 4 years: Four years would not support the rotation pattern of one-third retiring every two years over a complete cycle while maintaining the permanent nature of the house. 2 years: Two years is the retirement interval, not the full term. Every two years some members retire, but each individual member serves for six years unless there is a casual vacancy. Common Pitfalls: Many learners confuse the two-year retirement interval with the total tenure and mistakenly think that members serve for two years. Others try to align the Rajya Sabha term with the Lok Sabha term of five years, which is incorrect. There is also confusion between the concept of a permanent house and life tenure for individuals. Remember that the house continues forever, but members do not; they rotate out after their six-year term. Final Answer: Each member of the Rajya Sabha normally holds office for a term of six years, with approximately one-third of the members retiring every second year.

Question 13

In the structure of urban local government in India, which type of institution generally administers and controls the larger metropolitan urban areas?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Urban local government in India is organised at different levels depending on the size and population of the settlement. Smaller towns, transitional areas between rural and urban, and large metropolitan cities all have different institutional forms. This question checks whether you can match the correct type of local body with a larger urban area. Understanding this hierarchy is important for exams on Indian polity, governance and public administration. Given Data / Assumptions: The question is about which institution controls a larger urban area, especially a big city or metropolitan region. You are given options such as Nagar Panchayat, Municipal Panchayat, Municipal Corporation and a generic option claiming that none is correct. Standard Indian local-government terminology is assumed, where the three usual forms are Nagar Panchayat, Municipal Council (or Municipality) and Municipal Corporation. Concept / Approach: The basic approach is to recall the three common types of urban local bodies in India: Nagar Panchayat, Municipal Council (nagar palika or municipality) and Municipal Corporation (mahanagar palika). A Nagar Panchayat is set up for a transitional area (from rural to urban). A municipality governs a medium-sized town. A municipal corporation is created for larger cities with a high population and significant economic importance. Therefore, when the question refers to the institution that controls a larger urban area, the correct answer should be the Municipal Corporation. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that rural local bodies include Gram Panchayats, Panchayat Samitis and Zila Parishads, whereas urban local bodies include Nagar Panchayats, Municipalities and Municipal Corporations. Step 2: Understand the hierarchy: Nagar Panchayat is for a small transitional town, a Municipal Council for a medium town, and a Municipal Corporation for a large city or metropolitan area. Step 3: Compare the options. Nagar Panchayat clearly refers to a smaller transitional area and cannot be for the largest urban areas. Step 4: The term Municipal Panchayat is not the standard official nomenclature used in the Constitution or the 74th Amendment context; it is likely a distractor. Step 5: Municipal Corporation is explicitly the body constituted for larger urban areas, often with more than a certain statutory population threshold. Step 6: Therefore, Municipal Corporation must be the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this from basic civics: the Constitution (74th Amendment) and subsequent municipal laws of states provide for corporations for big cities such as Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata and Bengaluru. These bodies handle complex functions, including water supply, roads, public health and urban planning for large populations. Smaller towns such as transitional areas between rural and urban are usually governed by Nagar Panchayats. Therefore, the hierarchy clearly places Municipal Corporations at the top in terms of city size and importance. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Nagar Panchayat: This is meant for areas in transition from rural to urban, generally smaller and not yet full-scale cities. It does not administer the largest urban areas. Municipal Panchayat: This is not the standard constitutional term. The usual term is Municipal Council or Municipality for medium towns. Even if someone informally uses Municipal Panchayat, it would not refer to the largest metropolitan cities. No option is correct: This is wrong because Municipal Corporation is indeed the correct and constitutionally recognised body for large urban areas. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse Nagar Panchayat with Municipal Council, thinking both are similar. Another mistake is to believe that any body with the word Panchayat in its name is rural, which is not always true; Nagar Panchayat is urban but for smaller areas. Some may also be misled by the phrase Municipal Panchayat even though it is not part of the usual threefold classification. Remember the simple progression: Nagar Panchayat (small), Municipality (medium), Municipal Corporation (large). Final Answer: The type of city administration that generally controls and governs a larger metropolitan urban area is the Municipal Corporation.

Question 14

Under the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act (RERA), which came fully into effect from May 2017, what percentage of the funds collected from home buyers must be deposited by the builder in a separate bank account for that specific real est…

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, commonly called RERA, was enacted to bring transparency, accountability and consumer protection into the real estate sector. One of its most important provisions is that builders must keep a substantial portion of the funds collected from buyers in a dedicated bank account, ensuring that money raised for a project is actually used for that project. This question tests whether you remember the exact percentage that must be deposited, which is a frequently asked fact in exams related to economics, current affairs and Indian polity. Given Data / Assumptions: The question explicitly mentions that the Real Estate Act has come into effect from May 2017. It asks about the percentage of funds collected from buyers that must be deposited in a separate bank account linked to the same project. The purpose of this requirement is to prevent diversion of funds to other projects or uses. Only one of the given percentages (50%, 40%, 70%, 80%) matches the actual statutory requirement. Concept / Approach: RERA requires real estate promoters to deposit a fixed percentage of the amounts realised from allottees from time to time in a separate bank account. This money must be used only to cover the cost of construction and the land cost of that particular project. The standard figure you must remember is 70 percent. The approach is straightforward factual recall: if you know RERA's core requirement is 70%, you can immediately choose that option. If you are unsure, you might try to reason that the law demands a high proportion but not necessarily the entire amount, making 70% the most plausible among the given options. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the main consumer-protection features of RERA, such as compulsory project registration, disclosure norms and restrictions on use of buyer funds. Step 2: Focus on the specific rule that promoters must keep a large portion of the amount received from allottees in a separate bank account. Step 3: Remember that the Act fixes this portion at 70 percent of the amounts realised for the real estate project from the allottees, to be used only for that project. Step 4: Compare this with the options: 50%, 40%, 70% and 80%. The figure 70% exactly matches the legal requirement. Step 5: Therefore, 70% is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by recalling how RERA is often summarised in exam notes: “Promoter must deposit 70% of the amount realised from allottees in a separate bank account.” Various government FAQs, newspaper articles and coaching materials emphasise this 70% rule repeatedly because it is a key consumer-safety provision. Other percentages like 50% or 80% are not mentioned as statutory thresholds in this context, confirming that 70% is the correct value to remember. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 50%: While half the funds in a dedicated account might still offer some protection, RERA specifically mandates a higher threshold to ensure stronger financial discipline. Fifty percent is not what the Act prescribes. 40%: This figure is too low to guarantee that most of the buyers' money is safeguarded for the specific project. It does not match the wording of the law. 80%: Although 80% might sound even safer from a consumer perspective, the Act balances developer liquidity and consumer security at 70%. Eighty percent is not the figure written into the statute. Common Pitfalls: Candidates often confuse the exact percentage and choose 50% or 80% because they sound like neat fractions. Some aspirants also mix up numbers from other schemes or regulations, such as bank reserve requirements or different sectoral norms. To avoid this, always link the number 70% with RERA's project account rule in your memory, perhaps by using a mnemonic like “RERA saves 70 for buyers.” Making such associations helps you recall the correct percentage quickly in exams. Final Answer: Under RERA, promoters must deposit 70% of the amounts collected from home buyers in a separate bank account dedicated to that specific real estate project.

Question 15

In India, members of the All India Services such as the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) and the Indian Police Service (IPS) ultimately serve which level or levels of government?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The All India Services occupy a special and unique place in the Indian administrative system. They are created under Article 312 of the Constitution and include prominent services such as the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Police Service (IPS) and Indian Forest Service (IFoS). This question tests whether you understand the dual control and dual-role nature of these services, which is central to India's cooperative federalism model. Given Data / Assumptions: The question specifically refers to the All India Services, not to central services or purely state services. Examples include IAS, IPS and IFoS, which are commonly mentioned in polity and governance textbooks. You must determine whether these officers serve only the Union, only the states, only the Union Territories, or both the Union and the states. Concept / Approach: All India Services are so named because officers of these services are recruited and appointed by the Union Government, but they serve both the Union and the state governments. An IAS officer, for instance, may serve as a District Magistrate in a state for many years, and later be deputed to a central ministry or international organisation. The cadre management is shared, and the idea is to create an administrative link between the Centre and the states. The correct conceptual understanding is therefore that they serve both the Union and state governments, depending on postings and deputations. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the constitutional provision that Parliament can create one or more All India Services common to the Union and the states under Article 312. Step 2: Recognise that officers are recruited by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) and appointed by the President, reflecting central involvement. Step 3: Remember that most of their field postings, especially early in their career, are in the states, serving as district-level and state secretariat officers, thus serving state governments. Step 4: Understand that officers can also be deputed to central ministries, constitutional bodies and other Union-controlled institutions, where they serve the Union Government. Step 5: Conclude that All India Services serve both the Union and state governments, not just one level. Verification / Alternative check: Standard polity textbooks emphasize that the All India Services are a key instrument for maintaining administrative unity in a federal country. Their dual allegiance is reflected in cadre allocation to different states, as well as central deputation possibilities. If they served only the Centre, they would be called Central Services; if they served only the states, they would be purely State Services. The very name All India Services implies a pan-Indian role that cuts across Union and states, confirming the conclusion that they serve both levels of government. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Central Government only: This would describe Central Civil Services such as the Indian Revenue Service, not IAS or IPS, which primarily start their careers in state postings. State Government only: This would describe State Civil Services, recruited through state public service commissions, not All India Services which have a clear central component and central control in recruitment and cadre rules. Union Territories only: Officers of All India Services may serve in Union Territories, but that is not their exclusive domain. This option is far too narrow. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to think that because IAS officers spend much of their early career in states, they are purely state-level officers. Others think that since recruitment is done through the UPSC by the Union Government, they must be purely central officers. Both views miss the dual character. Always remember that All India Services are designed to serve as a strong administrative bridge between the Centre and the states, making their service domain explicitly both. Final Answer: Members of the All India Services, such as IAS and IPS officers, serve both the Union and State Governments at different stages of their careers.

Question 16

Which central government scheme was launched specifically to create awareness about cleanliness and hygiene among children across India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: In recent years, the Government of India has launched several flagship schemes with different objectives such as financial inclusion, girl child empowerment, and cleanliness. This question focuses on one such initiative aimed specifically at promoting cleanliness and hygiene habits among children. Recognising the right scheme and correctly associating it with its objective is a common type of question in general studies and current affairs examinations. Given Data / Assumptions: The question asks about a central government scheme focused on cleanliness of children and awareness regarding hygiene. The options include Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana, Bal Swachhta Mission, Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana and Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Yojana. You must select the scheme whose core theme is cleanliness and hygiene, especially among children. Concept / Approach: The strategy here is to recall the primary objectives of each listed scheme. Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana promotes savings for the girl child's future. Jan Dhan Yojana focuses on financial inclusion by opening bank accounts for the unbanked. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao aims at improving the child sex ratio and girl's education. Bal Swachhta Mission, on the other hand, was launched as part of the wider Swachh Bharat campaign to reinforce cleanliness and hygiene habits among children through activities in schools and communities. By matching objectives, it becomes clear that Bal Swachhta Mission is the scheme directly related to creating awareness about cleanliness among children. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Swachh Bharat Abhiyan is the overarching cleanliness mission launched by the Government of India. Step 2: Remember that within this framework, Bal Swachhta Mission was started to focus specifically on cleanliness and hygiene among children, especially in schools and anganwadis. Step 3: Consider Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana. Its core aim is to encourage parents to build a fund for the girl child's education and marriage, not cleanliness. Step 4: Consider Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana, which is mainly about financial inclusion and ensuring at least one bank account per household. Step 5: Consider Beti Bachao Beti Padhao, which focuses on preventing female foeticide, improving child sex ratio and promoting girls' education. Step 6: Only Bal Swachhta Mission directly fits the description of a scheme to create awareness about the cleanliness of children. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this from government publicity campaigns and news articles about Swachh Bharat, where Bal Swachhta Mission is often mentioned as a component concentrating on children. Activities like cleanliness drives in schools, hand-washing campaigns, personal hygiene sessions and drawing competitions were organised under this mission. The other schemes are regularly covered in financial and social policy contexts but are not associated with cleanliness themes, confirming that Bal Swachhta Mission is the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana: This is a small savings scheme to secure the financial future of the girl child, with tax benefits and a special account, not a cleanliness campaign. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana: This scheme is about universal access to banking facilities, zero balance accounts, and financial literacy, unrelated to hygiene awareness for children. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Yojana: This programme aims to protect the girl child, improve the girl child sex ratio, and encourage girls' education. It is a social and gender campaign, not a cleanliness scheme. Common Pitfalls: Because many schemes were launched around the same time and carry catchy names, students sometimes mix them up. Another pitfall is to assume that any scheme mentioning children or girls must be about health or cleanliness, which is not always true. To avoid confusion, link each scheme with a clear keyword: Sukanya with savings, Jan Dhan with bank accounts, Beti Bachao with girl child protection, and Bal Swachhta with cleanliness for children. Final Answer: The scheme specifically launched to create awareness about cleanliness among children is the Bal Swachhta Mission.

Question 17

Which Fundamental Right in the Constitution of India guarantees that every person has the freedom to practice, profess and propagate the religion of their choice?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Constitution of India provides a detailed catalogue of Fundamental Rights that protect the dignity and liberty of individuals. Among them, religious freedom is a crucial component, reflecting India's plural and diverse society. This question checks whether you can correctly associate the phrases “practice, profess and propagate religion” with the specific Fundamental Right under which they are guaranteed. Given Data / Assumptions: The question explicitly mentions the freedom to practice, profess and propagate religion. These exact words appear in Article 25 of the Constitution of India. You must choose which named Fundamental Right bundle contains this guarantee: equality, freedom, freedom of religion or protection against exploitation. Concept / Approach: The Fundamental Rights are usually grouped as follows: Right to Equality (Articles 14–18), Right to Freedom (Articles 19–22), Right against Exploitation (Articles 23–24), Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25–28), Cultural and Educational Rights (Articles 29–30), and Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32). The specific language “practice, profess and propagate religion” is found in Article 25, which is part of the Right to Freedom of Religion. Therefore, the approach is to recall the classification of rights and identify that religious freedom falls under the Right to Freedom of Religion, not under the general Right to Freedom or Equality. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Article 25(1) of the Constitution says that all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practice and propagate religion, subject to public order, morality and health. Step 2: Remember that Articles 25 to 28 are grouped under the heading Right to Freedom of Religion. Step 3: Note that the Right to Equality (Articles 14–18) deals with equality before law, prohibition of discrimination, abolition of untouchability and abolition of titles, not religious freedom specifically. Step 4: Recognise that the Right to Freedom (Articles 19–22) focuses on freedoms such as speech, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession, as well as protection in respect of convictions and protection against arbitrary arrest. Step 5: Right against Exploitation (Articles 23–24) deals with prohibiting traffic in human beings, forced labour and child labour in hazardous employment. Step 6: Therefore, only the Right to Freedom of Religion correctly matches the wording about practicing, professing and propagating religion. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify your understanding by looking at how civics textbooks present Fundamental Rights. They usually have a separate heading titled “Right to Freedom of Religion,” which discusses freedom of conscience, religious practices, management of religious affairs, freedom from taxes for promotion of any particular religion and freedom from religious instruction in certain institutions. The exact phrase “practice, profess and propagate” is almost always quoted as part of this section, confirming that it belongs under the Right to Freedom of Religion. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Right to Equality: This guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws, prohibits discrimination on grounds such as religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth, and addresses issues like untouchability and titles. It does not itself enumerate the freedom to practice, profess and propagate religion, though it protects against discrimination on religious grounds. Right to Freedom: This bundle covers freedoms like speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession, and protections in respect of conviction and arrest. Religious practice is not its explicit focus. Right against Exploitation: This focuses on eliminating human trafficking, begar (forced labour) and child labour. It does not deal with religious freedom. Common Pitfalls: A frequent mistake is to confuse the Right to Freedom with the Right to Freedom of Religion because both titles contain the word freedom. Another error is to assume that, since religion is mentioned in non-discrimination clauses under the Right to Equality, that group must be the answer. Always remember that detailed religious freedom clauses, including the phrase “practice, profess and propagate,” belong to Articles 25–28 collectively titled Right to Freedom of Religion. Final Answer: The Fundamental Right that guarantees every person the freedom to practice, profess and propagate the religion of their choice is the Right to Freedom of Religion.

Question 18

In the Indian constitutional framework, the Right to Education is classified as which type of right?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Education is a key element in empowering citizens and enabling them to participate meaningfully in a democracy. In India, the status of the Right to Education has evolved over time. Originally mentioned as a Directive Principle, it was later elevated to the status of a Fundamental Right through a constitutional amendment. This question tests whether you know how the Right to Education is presently classified under the Constitution of India. Given Data / Assumptions: The question refers to the Right to Education “in our country,” clearly pointing to the Indian constitutional context. You are asked to identify whether it is recognised as a political, fundamental, social or legal right. It is assumed that you are aware of the 86th Constitutional Amendment and Article 21A. Concept / Approach: Originally, Article 45 of the Directive Principles of State Policy directed the State to endeavour to provide free and compulsory education for children up to a certain age. However, through the 86th Constitutional Amendment, a new Article 21A was inserted, making education for children between 6 and 14 years of age a Fundamental Right. This right is therefore no longer merely a policy goal; it is enforceable in a stronger sense. The approach is to recall this amendment and recognise that the Right to Education has been accorded Fundamental Right status, not just social or legal status, although it also has social and legal dimensions. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Article 21 of the Constitution deals with the fundamental right to life and personal liberty. Step 2: The Supreme Court, in various judgments, read the right to education into the right to life, considering education essential for a dignified existence. Step 3: Subsequently, the 86th Constitutional Amendment inserted Article 21A, explicitly providing that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right. Step 4: In addition, the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act (RTE Act), 2009, operationalised this Fundamental Right in statutory form. Step 5: Therefore, in current constitutional classification, the Right to Education is recognised as a Fundamental Right. Verification / Alternative check: Standard polity textbooks and NCERT materials clearly list the Right to Education as a separate Fundamental Right under Article 21A. Many exam questions explicitly refer to this article when asking about free and compulsory education for children aged 6–14 years. While the RTE Act gives it a detailed legal structure, its primary constitutional status is that of a Fundamental Right, which is why courts can issue writs to enforce it. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Political: Political rights typically concern participation in the political process, such as the right to vote or the right to contest elections. The Right to Education does not fall into this category. Social: Although education has a strong social dimension and is crucial for social justice, the wording of the question asks about its classification in the Constitution, where it is specifically designated as a Fundamental Right. Legal: While the right is also supported by a central statute (the RTE Act), the question emphasises its constitutional status, which is more precisely described as Fundamental rather than simply legal. Common Pitfalls: Some students remember only that education was a Directive Principle under Article 45 and forget the later amendment, leading them to underestimate its constitutional standing. Others see the RTE Act and think of it only as a statutory or legal right. A clear mental note should be made: after the 86th Amendment and Article 21A, free and compulsory education for children 6–14 years is a Fundamental Right, supported by statutory law. Final Answer: In the present Indian constitutional framework, the Right to Education is recognised as a Fundamental Right.

Question 19

The Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly prepared and wrote the text of the Constitution of India in which language?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Constitution of India is a foundational legal document, and questions about its making are a favourite topic in competitive examinations. One basic but important detail is the language in which the original Constitution was drafted and adopted. Knowing this helps you understand the historical context, the role of the Constituent Assembly and the later development of authoritative texts in other languages. Given Data / Assumptions: The question asks specifically about the language used by the Drafting Committee when it prepared and wrote the Constitution of India. The options include combinations of English, Hindi and Urdu, or only English. It is not asking about translations or later authoritative versions, but about the original drafting. Concept / Approach: Historically, the Constituent Assembly debates and most of the drafting work were conducted in English. While India is a multilingual country, English served as the working language of the Assembly due to the legacy of British rule and its status as a link language among members from different linguistic regions. The official original text of the Constitution adopted in 1949 was in English. Later on, an authoritative Hindi text was also prepared, but this came after the original English version. Therefore, the correct approach is to identify that the Drafting Committee wrote the Constitution only in English, not in multiple languages simultaneously. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee, and the Constituent Assembly functioned from 1946 to 1949. Step 2: Recognise that the Assembly's debates, proceedings and most official records were maintained in English, with translation and interpretation support where necessary. Step 3: Understand that the original Constitution adopted on 26 November 1949 was prepared in English and signed by the members in that language. Step 4: Although Hindi and other language versions were later produced, the question is about the drafting stage, not the later translations. Step 5: Therefore, among the options, “Only English” correctly reflects the language of the original draft. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this from standard constitutional history references, which consistently describe the original Constitution as being drafted and enacted in English. The authoritative Hindi translation was notified later under the Official Languages Act and related rules. Civil services preparation material also highlights that while India later moved towards greater use of Hindi, the foundational legal text at the time of adoption was in English only. Why Other Options Are Wrong: English and Hindi: At the drafting stage, Hindi was not used as a parallel language for the official constitutional text. The bilingual or multilingual approach came later for translations, not for the original draft. English and Urdu: There is no historical basis for claiming that the Drafting Committee produced an Urdu version along with the English version. English, Hindi and Urdu: This suggests a simultaneous trilingual drafting process, which is not how the Constituent Assembly operated. English was the primary working and drafting language. Common Pitfalls: Some students assume that because Hindi is designated as an official language and is widely used in government today, the Constitution must have been drafted in both English and Hindi from the start. Another confusion arises from the existence of authorised translations. These assumptions overlook the historical reality that English remained the working language of the Assembly. Always distinguish between original drafting and later translations or adaptations. Final Answer: The Drafting Committee prepared and wrote the original text of the Constitution of India in Only English.

Question 20

During which of the following periods did the Constituent Assembly of India deliberate upon, debate and finally adopt the Constitution of India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The making of the Indian Constitution is a landmark event in modern Indian history. Competitive exams frequently test factual details about the Constituent Assembly, including its composition, working procedures and the time taken to frame the Constitution. This question focuses specifically on the period during which the Assembly deliberated on and finalised the Constitution, culminating in its adoption on 26 November 1949. Given Data / Assumptions: The question is asking for the time span between the beginning of formal deliberations on the Constitution and its final adoption. The options all end in November 1949, reflecting the date of adoption, but they differ in the starting month and year. It is assumed that you know the first meeting date of the Constituent Assembly and the approximate duration of its work on the Constitution. Concept / Approach: The Constituent Assembly of India met for the first time on 9 December 1946. However, the real process of detailed deliberation, including debates in various sessions, committee work and final adoption of the Constitution, extended from December 1946 to November 1949. The total time taken is often quoted as about two years, eleven months and eighteen days. When selecting the correct option, you should identify the period that starts in December 1946 and ends in November 1949, which matches the historical record. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on 9 December 1946. Step 2: The Drafting Committee was formed later, and the Assembly continued to meet in several sessions over the next few years. Step 3: The Constitution was finally adopted on 26 November 1949, with the last session of the Assembly taking place in November 1949. Step 4: Recognise that the standard way of expressing the period of deliberation is from December 1946 to November 1949, which is often cited in textbooks. Step 5: Compare options: only option (c) explicitly mentions “December 1946 – November 1949,” which matches this widely accepted time frame. Step 6: Therefore, the correct answer is December 1946 to November 1949. Verification / Alternative check: Historical summaries of the Constituent Assembly's work often mention that it sat for 11 sessions, covering 165 days of sittings, over nearly three years. The standard textbooks cite the period as December 1946 to November 1949. While the Assembly first convened in early December, the actual detailed deliberation over the draft and subsequent amendments continued until November 1949, when the final version was adopted and signed. Why Other Options Are Wrong: November 1946 to November 1949: The Assembly did not meet in November 1946; its first meeting was on 9 December 1946. Therefore, this starting month is incorrect. November 1947 to November 1949: This excludes the crucial first year of deliberations in 1946–1947, including early debates, committees and drafting work. December 1947 to November 1949: This likewise omits an entire year of work that began in December 1946. The Assembly was already functioning and deliberating during 1947. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse the date of the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly with other milestone dates such as Independence Day (15 August 1947) or the date the Constitution came into effect (26 January 1950). Another common error is to assume that work on the Constitution started only after Independence, which is not correct. Always remember that the Constituent Assembly began its deliberations in December 1946, well before Independence, and completed its work by November 1949. Final Answer: The Constituent Assembly deliberated upon and finally adopted the Constitution of India during the period December 1946 to November 1949.

Indian Politics Questions