Question 1

On 10 April 2017, the Lok Sabha passed the Motor Vehicles Act Amendment Bill 2016, under which the compensation for death in hit and run cases was increased from Rs 25,000 to what minimum amount?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question relates to legislative changes introduced through the Motor Vehicles Act Amendment Bill 2016, passed by the Lok Sabha on 10 April 2017. One of the important features of this amendment was an increase in compensation for victims of road accidents, especially in hit and run cases. Keeping track of key numerical changes in such social welfare provisions is common in general awareness sections. Given Data / Assumptions: - The earlier compensation for death in hit and run cases was Rs 25,000. - The amendment increased this amount. - The options give different possible new minimum compensation figures. - The question specifically mentions death, not injury. Concept / Approach: The Motor Vehicles Act Amendment Bill 2016 significantly enhanced compensation in hit and run cases. For death, the compensation was increased from Rs 25,000 to Rs 2 lakh. Exam questions usually ask for this new minimum amount as a direct fact. Recognising that the figure is Rs 2 lakh, not the higher figures given in some options, is enough to answer correctly. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall from current affairs that one objective of the amendment was to make compensation more realistic and supportive for victims. Step 2: Remember that the amount in hit and run death cases was raised eight times from Rs 25,000 to Rs 2 lakh. Step 3: Check the options for the figure Rs 2 lakh or more. Step 4: Confirm that other options give higher amounts that do not match the official minimum. Step 5: Select Rs 2 lakh or more as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Many government press releases and policy summaries specify that compensation in hit and run cases was increased to Rs 2 lakh for death and Rs 50,000 for grievous injury. Remembering this pair of figures helps confirm that the correct answer for death is Rs 2 lakh, not the larger numbers sometimes used as distractors. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Rs 5 lakh or more is higher than the revised minimum compensation for hit and run death cases under this amendment. Rs 10 lakh or more mixes up the figure associated with general accident claims with the special fixed amount for hit and run cases, leading to confusion. Rs 15 lakh or more has no direct connection with the specific provision described in the question. Rs 1 lakh or more understates the enhancement and does not match the officially notified increase from Rs 25,000 to Rs 2 lakh. Common Pitfalls: A typical mistake is to confuse different compensation schemes and caps, such as those for general motor accident claims and those fixed specifically for hit and run incidents. Another pitfall is to assume that the highest number in the options is always correct. Carefully linking the exact figure Rs 2 lakh with hit and run death cases helps avoid these errors. Final Answer: Under the 2016 amendment, the compensation for death in hit and run cases was increased to a minimum of Rs 2 lakh.

Question 2

Manohar Parrikar, a senior political leader from Goa, served in the Union Council of Ministers of India in which of the following ministerial roles?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question tests knowledge of important personalities in recent Indian politics and the portfolios they have held. Manohar Parrikar was a prominent leader from Goa who held both state level and national level positions. Recognising the key role he played in the Union Government is part of general political awareness. Given Data / Assumptions: - The personality mentioned is Manohar Parrikar. - He is associated with Goa and national politics. - The options list several important Union ministerial portfolios. - The question asks which post he held in the Union Council of Ministers. Concept / Approach: Manohar Parrikar served as the Defence Minister of India in the central government before returning to state politics as Chief Minister of Goa. His tenure as Defence Minister included important decisions related to national security and defence procurement. Therefore, when a question asks which ministerial role he held at the Union level, the correct answer is Defence Minister. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall notable facts about Manohar Parrikar his association with Goa and his role in central politics. Step 2: Remember that he was appointed as Defence Minister in the Union Government. Step 3: Review the list of options which includes several ministries. Step 4: Identify Defence Minister among these options. Step 5: Select Defence Minister as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: News reports, biographies, and political summaries consistently mention Manohar Parrikar as former Defence Minister of India. If one also remembers that he later resigned from this post to become Chief Minister of Goa again, that reinforces the recall that he held the defence portfolio, not the other ministries listed. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Railway Minister refers to a different portfolio that has been held by other leaders, not by Manohar Parrikar at the Union level. Finance Minister is a very prominent role dealing with economic and fiscal policy, but Manohar Parrikar did not serve in that position in the central government. Human Resource Development Minister, now often called Education Minister, is again a distinct ministry with other office holders. Home Minister is responsible for internal security and related issues, but that portfolio was not held by Manohar Parrikar. Common Pitfalls: Some learners might confuse Manohar Parrikar with other national leaders who have held multiple portfolios. Another potential confusion arises because he is known both as Chief Minister of Goa and as Defence Minister at the centre. Remembering this dual role clearly helps avoid mixing him up with holders of the finance or railway portfolios. Final Answer: At the Union level, Manohar Parrikar served as the Defence Minister of India.

Question 3

Article 27 of the Constitution of India, which provides freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion, forms part of which broader constitutional category?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The question refers to Article 27 of the Constitution of India. This Article deals with freedom as to payment of taxes for the promotion of any particular religion. The task is to identify to which broad constitutional category this Article belongs. Knowing which provisions fall under Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, or other headings is basic but very important polity knowledge. Given Data / Assumptions: - Article 27 talks about freedom regarding payment of taxes used to promote religion. - The options include Union Government, State Government, Directive Principles of State Policy, Fundamental Rights, and Fundamental Duties. - The question asks which category Article 27 is part of, not which level of government implements it. Concept / Approach: Articles 25 to 28 of the Constitution deal with the right to freedom of religion and are located in Part III, which contains the Fundamental Rights. Article 27 specifically prohibits compelling any person to pay taxes whose proceeds are used for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion. Since it is located in Part III, it is clearly a Fundamental Right of citizens, not a Directive Principle or an administrative provision. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Part III of the Constitution from Article 12 to Article 35 covers Fundamental Rights. Step 2: Identify that Articles 25 to 28 within Part III relate to religious freedom. Step 3: Note that Article 27 is one of these and thus lies within the Fundamental Rights chapter. Step 4: From the options, pick the category that best matches this placement, which is Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizen. Step 5: Mark The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizen as the answer. Verification / Alternative check: Reviewing any standard table of contents of the Constitution confirms that Article 27 sits within Part III. Directive Principles are in Part IV, and Fundamental Duties are in Part IVA. This structural classification confirms that Article 27 belongs to the Fundamental Rights and not to any of the other categories listed. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The Union Government and the State Government are levels of government, not types of constitutional provisions. The Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in Part IV and give broad guidance for governance, but Article 27 is not among them. The Fundamental Duties are listed in Part IVA and describe duties of citizens, whereas Article 27 sets out a right and protection, not a duty. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates confuse the location of different Articles if they have not revised the structure of the Constitution clearly. Others focus only on the content of Article 27 and not on where it is placed. A simple way to avoid this is to remember that all rights related to equality, freedom, protection in respect of conviction, and freedom of religion fall within Part III as Fundamental Rights. Final Answer: Article 27 forms part of the Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizen.

Question 4

During which Five Year Plan period in India was the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development NABARD established as an apex development finance institution?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: NABARD, the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development, is a key development finance institution in India that supports agriculture and rural development projects. The question asks during which Five Year Plan period NABARD was established. This is a typical economy and planning fact that appears in competitive exams. Given Data / Assumptions: - The institution in focus is NABARD. - The options list different Five Year Plans. - The question is about the period during which NABARD came into existence. Concept / Approach: NABARD was established in 1982 as an apex development bank for agriculture and rural development. This date falls in the Sixth Five Year Plan period, which ran from 1980 to 1985. Therefore, the correct association is between NABARD and the Sixth Plan. Linking the year of establishment with the plan timelines is the key to answering correctly. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that NABARD was set up in the early nineteen eighties. Step 2: Note that the Sixth Five Year Plan covered the years from 1980 to 1985. Step 3: Match the year 1982 of NABARD s establishment with the Sixth Plan period. Step 4: Check the options and identify Sixth Plan as one of them. Step 5: Choose Sixth Plan as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Standard economic history references and NABARD s own introductory material mention that it was set up in 1982 during the Sixth Plan era. The Fifth Plan ended before this, and later plans obviously came afterwards, confirming that the Sixth Plan is the correct match. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The Fifth Plan belongs to an earlier period ending in the late nineteen seventies, before NABARD was established. The Third Plan is much older and associated with early planning years after independence, not with specialised financial institutions like NABARD. The Ninth Plan belongs to the late nineteen nineties, long after NABARD was already functioning. The Seventh Plan followed the Sixth Plan and covers years after NABARD was already created, so it cannot be the plan during which NABARD was established. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes mix up which institutions were created in which plan because there are many bodies like NABARD, EXIM Bank, and others. A helpful strategy is to create a small table linking institutions with plan numbers and years, revising it regularly so that such questions can be answered quickly. Final Answer: NABARD was established during the Sixth Five Year Plan period.

Question 5

Which Part of the Constitution of India specifically lays down the procedure for amendment of the Constitution by the Parliament?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The question relates to the structure of the Constitution of India, which is divided into various Parts, each dealing with a specific set of provisions. It asks which Part deals with the procedure for amending the Constitution. Knowing where key procedures and rights are located is a basic but frequently tested point in polity. Given Data / Assumptions: - Several Parts of the Constitution are given as options. - The focus is on the Part that contains the amendment procedure. - The learner is expected to know the numbering and subject of at least the major Parts. Concept / Approach: The procedure for amendment of the Constitution is provided in Part XX, which presently consists of Article 368. This Part describes how Parliament can amend the Constitution, including different kinds of majorities and where state ratification is required. Therefore, Part XX is the correct answer when asked about amendment procedures. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the broad contents of important Parts of the Constitution. Step 2: Remember that Part XX is titled Amendment of the Constitution. Step 3: Connect Article 368, which sets out the amendment process, with Part XX. Step 4: Scan the options for Part XX. Step 5: Select Part XX as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Looking at any standard copy of the Constitution or its contents page quickly confirms that Part XX carries the heading Amendment of the Constitution and includes Article 368. This makes the association straightforward and easy to verify. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Part XIV deals with Services under the Union and the States, not constitutional amendments. Part XVI relates to special provisions for certain classes, including Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and other specified groups. Part XVIII deals with emergency provisions, such as national and state emergencies and financial emergency. Part XII concerns finance, property, contracts, and suits, not the amending procedure. Common Pitfalls: Candidates often memorise Articles but neglect the titles of Parts. This can lead to confusion when a question asks for the Part number rather than the Article number. A useful technique is to create a short list linking a few crucial Parts with their subjects, for example Part III for Fundamental Rights, Part IV for Directive Principles, Part XVIII for emergencies, and Part XX for constitutional amendments. Final Answer: The procedure for amending the Constitution is contained in Part XX of the Constitution of India.

Question 6

Who has the authority to make laws for Union Territories on any subject included in the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List under the Constitution of India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The question focuses on legislative powers in relation to Union Territories. Unlike states, Union Territories have a different constitutional position, and the distribution of legislative powers is correspondingly different. Knowing who can make laws for Union Territories on subjects from all three lists is a part of both polity and federalism topics. Given Data / Assumptions: - The geographic units in question are Union Territories, not states. - The subjects can be from the Union List, State List, or Concurrent List. - The options list various national authorities and office holders. Concept / Approach: For Union Territories, Parliament has the power to make laws on any subject in the Union List and the State List as well as the Concurrent List, subject to specific provisions for territories with legislatures. The key principle is that Parliament retains comprehensive legislative competence over Union Territories. Therefore, when the question asks who can legislate on any subject in all three lists for Union Territories, the correct answer is Parliament. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Union Territories are administered by the Union and that Parliament has wider legislative powers over them than over states. Step 2: Note that the question explicitly mentions all three lists, indicating a very broad competence. Step 3: Remember that Parliament is the body that can legislate for Union Territories on subjects from all three lists. Step 4: Locate The Parliament among the options. Step 5: Select The Parliament as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Polity texts that explain Articles dealing with Union Territories clearly state that Parliament may make laws for any part of the territory of India, including Union Territories, on any subject in the State List as well as the Union and Concurrent Lists. This confirms that Parliament has this broad authority, while other bodies do not. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The President of India exercises executive power and issues ordinances, but ordinances are temporary and do not replace the regular law making role of Parliament. The Prime Minister of India heads the Council of Ministers but does not personally make laws; that is the function of Parliament. The Home Minister plays a leading role in the administration of Union Territories, yet the law making authority still lies with Parliament. The Supreme Court of India interprets laws and the Constitution but does not legislate for Union Territories. Common Pitfalls: Some learners may mistakenly focus on executive roles, such as the President or Home Minister, because they are heavily involved in Union Territory administration. It is important to distinguish between making laws and executing them. In the Indian system, legislating for Union Territories on all three lists is the prerogative of Parliament. Final Answer: The authority to make laws for Union Territories on subjects in all three lists lies with the Parliament.

Question 7

Which Fundamental Right in the Constitution of India guarantees that all persons shall be equal before the law and shall be equally protected by the laws of the country?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The question refers to a specific wording in the Constitution of India that says all persons shall be equal before the law and shall be equally protected by the laws of the country. This phrase captures a core democratic principle and is part of a particular group of Fundamental Rights. Given Data / Assumptions: - The phrase equal before the law and equal protection of the laws is highlighted. - The options list different clusters of Fundamental Rights, such as Right to Equality and Right to Freedom. - The learner is expected to know which cluster this phrase belongs to. Concept / Approach: Article 14 of the Constitution states that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. Article 14 is part of the group of provisions known collectively as the Right to Equality, which runs from Article 14 to Article 18. Therefore, the Fundamental Right that embodies this phrase is the Right to Equality. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the major groups of Fundamental Rights in Part III of the Constitution. Step 2: Remember that the Right to Equality covers Articles 14 to 18 and begins with the equality before law provision. Step 3: Note that the exact phrase equal before the law and equal protection of the laws comes from Article 14. Step 4: Identify from the options that the group name for this set of provisions is Right to Equality. Step 5: Select Right to Equality as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: A quick look at any standard summary of Fundamental Rights shows that the Right to Equality is the first group and that it explicitly includes Article 14. The other rights groups, such as Right to Freedom or Right to Freedom of Religion, begin with different opening Articles and different key phrases, confirming that they do not contain this particular wording. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Right to Freedom, which covers Articles 19 to 22, mainly deals with freedoms such as speech, movement, and protection in respect of conviction for offences, not the general equality clause. Right against Exploitation, in Articles 23 and 24, prohibits traffic in human beings, forced labour, and child labour in factories, which is important but conceptually separate from equality before law. Right to Freedom of Religion covers Articles 25 to 28 and focuses on religious liberty, not the overarching principle of legal equality for all persons. Cultural and Educational Rights, in Articles 29 and 30, protect minority interests in culture and education and do not state the general equality before law principle. Common Pitfalls: A common error is to confuse the broad sounding phrase equality before the law with other rights such as protection from discrimination in specific fields or equal opportunity in public employment. While these are also part of the Right to Equality, the precise wording in the question comes from Article 14. Remembering that Article 14 introduces the Right to Equality group helps keep this mapping clear. Final Answer: The Fundamental Right that guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws is the Right to Equality.

Question 8

Which Central Government scheme aims to strengthen organised rural Panchayats and make Indian villages more self-sustained?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Rural local self government through Panchayati Raj Institutions is one of the core features of democratic decentralisation in India. Over the years, the Union Government has launched several campaigns and schemes to empower Gram Panchayats, improve village level planning, and make villages more self-reliant in social and economic terms. The question asks you to identify which specific Central Government initiative focuses on strengthening organised rural Panchayats so that villages can become more self-sustained, not just in infrastructure but also in governance and community participation. Given Data / Assumptions: The focus is on a Central Government scheme or campaign. The main aim mentioned is to set up or strengthen an organised rural Panchayat structure. The ultimate objective is to make villages more self-sustained and self-reliant. Options include different flagship schemes related to social welfare, education, women empowerment, and rural development. Concept / Approach: To answer this question, you should recall the objectives and themes of major Central Government schemes. Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday Abhiyan was specifically conceived as a campaign to promote village development, strengthen Panchayati Raj, and encourage coordinated efforts for rural upliftment. In contrast, many other schemes focus on particular sectors such as clean cooking fuel, maternal health, or school education. Matching the key phrase organised rural Panchayat and self-sustained villages with the primary focus of each scheme leads you to the correct option. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Read the stem carefully and underline phrases like organised rural Panchayat and villages more self-sustained. Step 2: Recall that Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday Abhiyan is a campaign emphasising village development, community awareness, and strengthening Panchayati Raj Institutions. Step 3: Compare this with Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana, which focuses on providing LPG connections to women from poor households, not on Panchayat organisation. Step 4: Note that Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Yojana focuses on safe motherhood services and Vidyanjali Yojana deals with volunteer participation in schools. Step 5: Recognise that Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana is about model villages adopted by Members of Parliament, which is related to model development but not specifically a Panchayat strengthening campaign like Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday Abhiyan. Step 6: Therefore, the only option that directly matches organised rural Panchayat and village self-reliance as a campaign theme is Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday Abhiyan. Verification / Alternative check: Another way to verify is to recall the broad slogans or themes associated with these initiatives. Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday Abhiyan literally translates to From the rise of the village, the rise of India, clearly indicating a Panchayat and village centric thrust. Government publicity around this campaign highlighted Gram Sabha meetings, awareness on social issues, and capacity-building for elected Panchayat representatives. No such Panchayat centric language is the primary focus of Ujjwala, Surakshit Matritva, or Vidyanjali, which confirms that option A is the best fit. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana is a clean energy and health related scheme aimed at providing LPG connections to women from below poverty line households, not a Panchayat strengthening campaign. Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Yojana targets safe motherhood and antenatal care services. Vidyanjali Yojana promotes community and volunteer participation in school education. Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana focuses on holistic development of villages adopted by Members of Parliament, which certainly promotes self-sufficiency but is not specifically framed as a campaign to organise and empower Gram Panchayats in the same way as Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday Abhiyan. Therefore, all of these are not the exact match required by the question. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to choose Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana because it also talks about model villages and self-sufficiency. However, that scheme is centred on Members of Parliament adopting villages, not on a nationwide Panchayat awareness and strengthening campaign. Another error is being misled by the word Panchayat in Pradhan Mantri LPG Panchayat related campaigns associated with Ujjwala, but Ujjwala itself is primarily a LPG connection scheme. Always focus on the exact description in the question: organised rural Panchayat and self-sustained villages driven by a broad campaign. Final Answer: The correct scheme is Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday Abhiyan, which specifically aims to strengthen rural Panchayats and promote self-reliant village development.

Question 9

Under which Article of the Constitution of India is the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) established as a constitutional body?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Union Public Service Commission, commonly known as UPSC, is a key constitutional body in India responsible for conducting examinations and recruitment for various prestigious posts in the Union Government. For Indian polity and constitution based examinations, it is very important to know under which specific Article of the Constitution this body is created, because that reflects its constitutional status, independence, and powers. This question directly tests your knowledge of the exact Article that provides for the establishment of the Union and State Public Service Commissions. Given Data / Assumptions: The question is about the constitutional basis of the Union Public Service Commission. We must identify the correct Article number from the options. Options include Article 315, Article 250, Article 300, and Article 52, along with one additional distractor. We assume the standard text of the Constitution of India as amended. Concept / Approach: The relevant portion of the Constitution is Part XIV, which deals with Services under the Union and the States. Within this Part, Article 315 clearly states that there shall be a Public Service Commission for the Union and a Public Service Commission for each State or for groups of States. Because the Union body is the UPSC, it is established under Article 315. The other Articles listed in the options belong to different parts of the Constitution and refer to different topics, so they can be eliminated by recalling their subject matter. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall which Part of the Constitution deals with Public Service Commissions. It is Part XIV. Step 2: Remember that Article 315 at the beginning of this Part lays down that there shall be a Public Service Commission for the Union and for the States. Step 3: Cross check that Article 250 is related to the power of Parliament to legislate during an emergency, and therefore is not about UPSC. Step 4: Note that Article 300 deals with suits and proceedings by or against the Union and the States, again unrelated to UPSC. Step 5: Article 52 provides for the office of the President of India and not a commission. Step 6: Eliminate these incorrect options and choose Article 315 as the article establishing the Union Public Service Commission. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative verification technique is to remember that Articles in the 320s, like Article 324, deal with the Election Commission, while Articles in the early 300 range, like Article 300, refer to legal proceedings. Public Service Commissions are grouped under Articles 315 to 323. Therefore, if you can recall this range, you immediately know that the correct Article must fall in this band and specifically 315 for establishment. This cross checking using the grouping of Articles in the Constitution confirms that Article 315 is correct. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Article 250 is concerned with the power of Parliament to legislate on any matter in the State List when a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, so it has no connection with UPSC. Article 300 is related to legal proceedings by or against the Union or a State. Article 52 describes the President of India. Article 324 deals with the powers and functions of the Election Commission of India, which is another constitutional body but is not a Public Service Commission. Hence all these Articles are unrelated to the creation of UPSC. Common Pitfalls: Many learners confuse Article 315 with Article 320, because Article 320 talks about the functions of Public Service Commissions. Some also mix up Article 315 with Article 324, since both UPSC and the Election Commission are constitutional bodies. To avoid this, remember a simple association: 315 for the establishment of Public Service Commissions and 320 for their functions, while 324 is exclusively for the Election Commission. Final Answer: The Union Public Service Commission is established under Article 315 of the Constitution of India.

Question 10

In the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, in which list is the subject "foreign jurisdiction" included?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India divides legislative subjects between the Union and the States through three lists: the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List. Understanding which subject falls into which list is fundamental for mastering Indian polity, as it determines the competence of Parliament and State legislatures. The subject foreign jurisdiction is a specialised topic connected with the power of the Union regarding external or extra territorial matters. The question tests whether you remember in which list this subject is placed. Given Data / Assumptions: The focus is on the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India. We must identify the correct list that contains the subject foreign jurisdiction. Available options are Union, State, Global, Concurrent, and a generic residuary list option. We assume the standard structure of the Seventh Schedule with three lists. Concept / Approach: The Union List contains subjects of national and international importance where uniform legislation is essential, such as defence, foreign affairs, and citizenship. Foreign jurisdiction logically relates to the authority of the Indian State in matters outside its normal territorial limits or involving foreign territories and powers. Because these matters require a single national stance, they fall exclusively under the Union List. The State List mainly contains subjects of local or regional importance, and the Concurrent List contains areas where both Union and States can legislate. Therefore, by understanding the logic of distribution of powers, you can identify that foreign jurisdiction must fall in the Union List. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Seventh Schedule divides powers into Union, State, and Concurrent Lists. Step 2: Identify the nature of the subject foreign jurisdiction. It deals with the legal authority of India in areas involving foreign territories or international aspects. Step 3: Recognise that foreign affairs and related matters are typically of national importance and must be handled uniformly. Step 4: Remember that subjects like defence, foreign affairs, citizenship, and related fields are part of the Union List. Step 5: Conclude that foreign jurisdiction, due to its close connection to foreign affairs and external sovereignty, is placed in the Union List. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by recalling another example: foreign affairs and all matters which bring India into relation with any foreign country are explicitly listed in the Union List. Because foreign jurisdiction is conceptually linked to the same broad theme of external sovereignty and international responsibilities, it is sensible that it too is allocated to the Union List. The State List focuses more on issues like police, public health at the state level, and agriculture, which are clearly domestic in scope, confirming further that foreign jurisdiction cannot be in the State or Concurrent Lists. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The State List covers matters of regional concern such as public order within the state, police, and local government, which have little to do with external relations. The Concurrent List includes topics like criminal law and marriage where both Union and States legislate, not specialised areas like foreign jurisdiction. Global is not a constitutional category at all and is simply a distractor. The residuary list is not a list within the Seventh Schedule; residuary powers of legislation lie with Parliament under Article 248 and Entry 97 of the Union List, but foreign jurisdiction is explicitly listed and therefore is not just a residuary matter. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes confuse foreign jurisdiction with residuary powers or think it might be Concurrent because of confusion with international treaties that may affect both Union and States. However, the key is to remember that anything closely related to foreign affairs and external sovereignty belongs to the Union List. Careful reading of the Seventh Schedule entries, or at least remembering the broad themes, prevents such confusion. Final Answer: The subject foreign jurisdiction in the Seventh Schedule is included in the Union List.

Question 11

Who was appointed as the first Chairman of the Disinvestment Commission in India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: As India moved towards liberalisation and economic reforms in the 1990s, disinvestment of public sector undertakings became an important policy tool. To provide expert advice and structured recommendations on disinvestment, the Government of India set up a Disinvestment Commission. Knowing key personalities associated with this phase of economic policy is a common requirement in general knowledge and Indian polity questions. This question asks you to recall who served as the first Chairman of the Disinvestment Commission. Given Data / Assumptions: The subject is the Disinvestment Commission formed by the Government of India. We are asked specifically about the first Chairman of this Commission. Options include well known political leaders and economists, many of whom served in various high offices. We assume the context of the 1990s economic reform period. Concept / Approach: To answer such personality based questions, you need to connect the individual with the role and the time period. The Disinvestment Commission was set up in the mid 1990s, and G. V. Ramakrishna, a distinguished civil servant who earlier served as Chairman of SEBI, was appointed as its first Chairman. Other names in the options are prominent figures, but their major roles were in different institutions or capacities, which helps you eliminate them if you know their main associations. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Disinvestment Commission was created to advise the government on disinvestment strategies for public sector undertakings. Step 2: Remember that G. V. Ramakrishna was a senior civil servant known for heading SEBI and later the Disinvestment Commission during the reform era. Step 3: Consider Madhu Dandavate, who was a veteran socialist leader and served as Finance Minister and Railway Minister, but not as Chairman of the Disinvestment Commission. Step 4: Recall that C. Rangarajan is a noted economist and former Governor of the Reserve Bank of India and Chairman of the Prime Minister's Economic Advisory Council, not of the Disinvestment Commission. Step 5: Recognise that Indira Gandhi was a Prime Minister long before the formal disinvestment era of the 1990s and did not head this Commission. Step 6: Montek Singh Ahluwalia is associated more with the Planning Commission and economic advisory roles, again not as the first Chairman of the Disinvestment Commission. Step 7: Hence, the correct choice is G. V. Ramakrishna. Verification / Alternative check: You can cross verify by aligning the timeline. Disinvestment as a formal structured policy gained prominence after the 1991 economic reforms. G. V. Ramakrishna served in key regulatory roles around this period, especially as Chairperson of SEBI and then as the first Chairperson of the Disinvestment Commission. The other options achieved prominence in different time frames or roles that are not directly connected to disinvestment policy. This timeline check further confirms that G. V. Ramakrishna is the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Madhu Dandavate, while an important political leader and minister, was not associated with the Disinvestment Commission. C. Rangarajan is known chiefly as a central banker and economic adviser, not a disinvestment head. Indira Gandhi was a Prime Minister during a period when public sector expansion, not disinvestment, was the general policy. Montek Singh Ahluwalia is famous for his role in the Planning Commission and for contributing to economic planning and reforms, rather than chairing the Disinvestment Commission. Therefore, none of these names match the specific role asked in the question. Common Pitfalls: A frequent mistake is to pick a very famous economist like C. Rangarajan or Montek Singh Ahluwalia simply because the question involves economic reforms. Another error is to over associate any reform related body with well known political leaders like Indira Gandhi. To avoid these mistakes, try to form clear mental links between institutions and their key heads: SEBI and Disinvestment Commission with G. V. Ramakrishna, RBI with C. Rangarajan, and Planning Commission with Montek Singh Ahluwalia. Final Answer: The first Chairman of the Disinvestment Commission in India was G. V. Ramakrishna.

Question 12

In the system of urban local government in India, which type of city administration governs smaller urban areas?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Urban local government in India is organised at several levels to cater to different sizes and stages of urbanisation. The Constitution, especially after the Seventy Fourth Amendment Act, recognises different forms of urban local bodies such as Municipal Corporations, Municipal Councils, and Nagar Panchayats. Understanding which body governs which type of town or city is important for both polity and general knowledge examinations. This question specifically targets your understanding of which urban local body is responsible for smaller urban areas. Given Data / Assumptions: We are dealing with urban local government under Part IX-A of the Constitution of India. The question asks about smaller urban areas, not large metropolitan cities. Options include Nagar Panchayat, Municipal Council, Municipal Corporation, a negative option, and Town Area Committee. We assume the standard classification followed after the Seventy Fourth Amendment. Concept / Approach: According to the constitutional framework and common practice in Indian states, there are broadly three categories of statutory urban local bodies. Municipal Corporations are established for large urban areas such as big cities and metropolitan regions. Municipal Councils, also known as Municipalities or Nagar Palikas in many states, are constituted for smaller urban areas that are clearly urban but not extremely large. Nagar Panchayats are formed for areas in transition from rural to urban, often called transitional areas. Therefore, when the question emphasises smaller urban areas, the correct answer points to Municipal Councils. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the three basic types of urban local bodies: Municipal Corporations, Municipal Councils, and Nagar Panchayats. Step 2: Note that Municipal Corporations are meant for large urban areas and big cities, so they do not match the phrase smaller urban areas. Step 3: Understand that Nagar Panchayats are for transitional areas that are moving from rural to urban status, not fully developed smaller towns. Step 4: Recognise that Municipal Councils are constituted for smaller urban areas where urbanisation is established but on a moderate scale. Step 5: Ignore the distractor No option is correct and Town Area Committee, which is used historically or in a limited manner and is not the standard constitutional classification. Step 6: Conclude that Municipal Council is the correct type of administration for smaller urban areas. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this classification by remembering the usual association: Municipal Corporation for large cities such as state capitals and metro cities, Municipal Council for smaller cities and towns, and Nagar Panchayat for semi urban transitional regions. Many state municipal acts also use similar terms like Nagar Palika for smaller urban areas. This cross check across various states reinforces that the correct match for smaller urban areas is the Municipal Council. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Nagar Panchayat is meant for areas in transition from rural to urban and not for fully developed smaller towns. Municipal Corporation clearly refers to large urban areas and therefore does not match the smaller category. The option No option is correct is a distractor and is incorrect because the Municipal Council option is indeed correct. Town Area Committee exists in some states as a legacy institution, but it is not the main constitutional classification used after the Seventy Fourth Amendment and is not the standard answer sought in polity based questions on urban local bodies. Common Pitfalls: A typical confusion arises between Nagar Panchayat and Municipal Council. Many learners focus only on the word Panchayat and mistakenly associate it with smaller or rural like areas, forgetting that Nagar Panchayat is specifically for transitional areas. Another common mistake is to think that any city administration, regardless of size, is automatically a Municipal Corporation. Reviewing the constitutional terms used in Part IX-A and examples from your own state or city can help fix these categories in memory. Final Answer: The urban local body that governs smaller urban areas is the Municipal Council.

Question 13

Under the Pradhan Mantri LPG Panchayat Yojana, how many "Pradhan Mantri LPG Panchayats" were planned to be organised across India over about one and a half years?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Pradhan Mantri LPG Panchayat initiative was launched as a community outreach and awareness component linked to the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana, which provides LPG connections to women from poor households. The LPG Panchayat meetings were designed to spread information on safe and clean usage of LPG, discuss benefits of shifting from traditional fuels, and gather feedback from beneficiaries. This question checks whether you remember the approximate scale of this outreach in terms of the number of LPG Panchayats planned over a period of about one and a half years. Given Data / Assumptions: The scheme in focus is the Pradhan Mantri LPG Panchayat Yojana linked to LPG usage awareness. The time frame mentioned is roughly one and a half years. We need to recall the total number of LPG Panchayats planned to be organised across the country. Options are in rounded figures like 1 lakh, 2 lakh, 3 lakh, 5 lakh, and 50,000. Concept / Approach: When dealing with scheme related numerical questions, it is important to remember at least the approximate scale even if the exact number slips from memory. The LPG Panchayat campaign had a target of about one lakh meetings, each involving villagers and Ujjwala beneficiaries. The figure was significant but not so huge as three or five lakh, and it was larger than fifty thousand. Therefore, among the options, 1 lakh is the correct and reasonable target that matches official announcements about the scheme. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that LPG Panchayats were village level meetings to create awareness about safe LPG usage and to interact directly with Ujjwala beneficiaries. Step 2: Remember that the government planned to organise such Panchayats on a large scale across India over a defined period. Step 3: Mentally compare the scale of 1 lakh with numbers like 50,000 and 2 lakh or more. One lakh is large yet realistic for a nationwide awareness programme over one and a half years. Step 4: Very high figures like 3 lakh or 5 lakh would require far more frequent meetings than typically planned and are therefore less likely. Step 5: Fifty thousand seems too small for a flagship national level awareness drive covering thousands of villages. Step 6: Conclude that the planned number was 1 lakh LPG Panchayats. Verification / Alternative check: Another way to cross check is to recall news coverage and government publicity during the launch phase of the LPG Panchayat campaign. The figure of about one lakh Panchayats was widely quoted as a target that would enable large scale direct engagement with rural women and LPG users. If you remember this key number as being frequently repeated in official communication, then it is easy to verify that none of the other options align with that widely cited target. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Two lakh, three lakh, and five lakh LPG Panchayats would drastically increase the frequency and resource requirement for the programme and were not part of the original stated target. These higher numbers function as distractors by appearing ambitious but they do not match the officially declared plan. The figure of 50,000 is comparatively modest and does not reflect the large scale national character of the campaign. Hence, all these alternatives are inconsistent with the known target of the scheme. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes confuse targets across schemes, mixing up the number of villages, households, or meetings. Another common error is to choose 2 lakh or 3 lakh assuming that a bigger number is more impressive, without recalling whether it was actually mentioned in any credible source. To avoid such mistakes, try to memorise key figures for major flagship programmes and relate them to simple memory aids, such as linking LPG Panchayat with the figure of one lakh meetings. Final Answer: The Pradhan Mantri LPG Panchayat Yojana planned to organise about 1 lakh LPG Panchayats across the country in roughly one and a half years.

Question 14

Under the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) and Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (Prevention and Control) Bill, 2017, which provision is not included among its protections?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) and Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (Prevention and Control) Bill, 2017 was passed to provide a strong legal framework protecting the rights of persons living with HIV and AIDS in India. It focuses on non discrimination, confidentiality, and access to services. This question checks whether you can identify which statement does not align with the protective and rights based spirit of the law. Recognising the core principles of the Bill helps you quickly eliminate provisions that contradict privacy and dignity. Given Data / Assumptions: The law aims to prevent discrimination against persons living with HIV and AIDS. Key themes include confidentiality of HIV status, data protection, and prohibition of hateful behaviour. We must select the provision that is not included in or is contrary to the objectives of the Bill. Options include statements about data protection, forced disclosure, prohibition of hate, and anti discrimination in healthcare and insurance. Concept / Approach: The Bill emphasises confidentiality and informed consent regarding disclosure of HIV status. It mandates that establishments handling HIV related data must maintain privacy and data security. It also prohibits discrimination in employment, education, healthcare, and insurance, and penalises acts that promote hatred against persons living with HIV. Any provision suggesting that a person can be compelled to disclose HIV status without consent is contrary to these principles. Therefore, the option that supports forced disclosure without consent clearly does not belong to the protective framework of the law and is the correct choice for what is not included. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Read all the options carefully and identify the one that appears contrary to privacy and non discrimination. Step 2: Recognise that data protection measures for establishments handling information of persons living with HIV are consistent with the Bill and support confidentiality. Step 3: Examine the statement about compelling a person to disclose his or her HIV status without consent. This goes against the principle of informed consent and the right to privacy. Step 4: Note that the Bill prohibits any individual from advocating hatred or inciting negative feelings towards HIV positive persons, which aligns with anti discrimination aims. Step 5: The idea that discrimination in healthcare and insurance is prohibited is also consistent with the objectives of the Bill. Step 6: Therefore, the only option that is not included and contradicts the spirit of the Bill is the statement about compelled disclosure without consent. Verification / Alternative check: You can cross check by remembering that the Bill explicitly protects confidentiality and restricts disclosure of HIV related information except under specific, limited circumstances such as court orders or in certain medical contexts. The general rule is that disclosure requires informed consent. If the law itself is meant to prevent discrimination and safeguard dignity, it would not contain a blanket clause allowing forced disclosure without consent. On the other hand, data protection, prohibition of hate speech, and non discrimination in access to services are explicitly supported by the legislation, confirming that the forced disclosure statement is not part of it. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The requirement that establishments adopt data protection measures when handling HIV related information is fully aligned with the law's confidentiality provisions. The prohibition on advocating hatred or negative feelings towards persons living with HIV directly supports the objective of preventing stigma and discrimination. The emphasis on non discriminatory access to healthcare and insurance services ensures that persons living with HIV are not denied essential support. The statement that all of the above provisions are included cannot be correct, because the forced disclosure option contradicts the Bill, so option D is wrong as well. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may quickly choose All of the above due to a bias towards summary options, without carefully evaluating each statement. Others may not pay close attention to the phrase even without his or her consent and miss that this directly opposes the principle of confidentiality. A good practice is to identify the core values of any rights based law and check each option against those values. Anything that undermines privacy, consent, or non discrimination is unlikely to be a genuine feature of such legislation. Final Answer: The provision that is not included in the HIV and AIDS (Prevention and Control) Bill, 2017 is A person can be compelled to disclose his or her HIV status even without his or her consent.

Question 15

Which of the following institutions is a constitutional body under the Constitution of India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: In Indian polity, a very important distinction is made between constitutional bodies, statutory bodies, and extra constitutional advisory bodies. Constitutional bodies are explicitly mentioned in the Constitution and derive their powers and status directly from it. Statutory bodies are created by Acts of Parliament or State legislatures, while some councils and committees are created by executive orders. The question asks you to identify which among the given institutions is a constitutional body, meaning it has a clear basis in the text of the Constitution. Given Data / Assumptions: The options include several well known institutions: Central Information Commission, Lokpal and Lokayukta, National Development Council, Election Commission, and National Human Rights Commission. We must pick the one that is directly created by the Constitution of India. We assume the usual categorisation of these bodies as taught in standard polity textbooks. Concept / Approach: The Election Commission of India is explicitly mentioned in Part XV of the Constitution under Article 324. It is, therefore, a constitutional body. In contrast, the Central Information Commission is a statutory body created under the Right to Information Act. Lokpal and Lokayuktas are established by the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act. The National Development Council was an extra constitutional advisory body, and the National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body established under the Protection of Human Rights Act. Recognising these foundations helps you isolate the Election Commission as the only constitutional body among the given options. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the definition of a constitutional body: it must be provided for directly in the text of the Constitution. Step 2: Identify that Article 324 provides for the Election Commission of India, describing its composition and functions. Step 3: Remember that the Central Information Commission came into existence through the Right to Information Act, making it a statutory body. Step 4: Note that the Lokpal and Lokayukta institutions are set up under an Act of Parliament, again indicating a statutory character. Step 5: Recognise that the National Development Council was created by an executive resolution and does not feature in the Constitution. Step 6: Recall that the National Human Rights Commission is founded under the Protection of Human Rights Act and is therefore also statutory. Step 7: Conclude that the only institution that qualifies as a constitutional body in this list is the Election Commission. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative way to verify is to remember the key list of major constitutional bodies, which includes the Election Commission, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, the Finance Commission, the Union Public Service Commission, and others clearly mentioned in the Constitution. The Election Commission is always placed in this list. On the other hand, bodies like Lokpal, Information Commission, and Human Rights Commission are usually studied under the chapter on statutory bodies, never under the core constitutional body list. This pattern of classification confirms your conclusion. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The Central Information Commission is created under the Right to Information Act and is not mentioned in the Constitution. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas exist because of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, which means they too are statutory. The National Development Council was an extra constitutional advisory body that assisted in planning and policy matters but had no constitutional backing. The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body formed under the Protection of Human Rights Act. None of these have Articles devoted to them in the Constitution itself, unlike the Election Commission. Common Pitfalls: Many aspirants confuse the importance or prestige of an institution with its constitutional status. Just because a body is powerful or frequently in the news does not automatically make it a constitutional body. Another common confusion is between the Election Commission and the Central Information Commission, since both have the term Commission and operate nationally. Always check whether the institution is directly named in the Constitution. If not, it is usually statutory or extra constitutional. Final Answer: The institution that is a constitutional body in India is the Election Commission.

Question 16

Which Constitutional Amendment Act inserted Part IX-A titled "The Municipalities" into the Constitution of India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The structure of local self government in India is constitutionally entrenched through two major amendments: one dealing with rural local bodies (Panchayats) and the other with urban local bodies (Municipalities). These amendments introduced new Parts and Schedules into the Constitution. The question asks specifically about the Constitutional Amendment that added Part IX-A, titled The Municipalities, thereby granting constitutional recognition to urban local government institutions across India. Given Data / Assumptions: We are concerned with a Constitutional Amendment Act that added Part IX-A. Part IX-A is named The Municipalities and deals with urban local bodies. Options include the 74th, 42nd, 39th, 10th, and 73rd Constitutional Amendment Acts. We assume knowledge of the broad impact of these amendments. Concept / Approach: Part IX of the Constitution, dealing with Panchayats, was added by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act. Its sister amendment, the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, focused on urban local bodies and added Part IX-A, The Municipalities. Other amendments like the 42nd and 39th are associated with changes in the Preamble, Directive Principles, strength of Parliament, and other areas, not specifically local bodies. Hence, by linking Part IX with the 73rd Amendment and Part IX-A with the 74th Amendment, you can easily identify the correct answer. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that local self government amendments came as a pair: one for rural areas and one for urban areas. Step 2: Remember that the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act added Part IX, titled The Panchayats, and the Eleventh Schedule. Step 3: Recognise that the companion 74th Constitutional Amendment Act addressed urban local bodies. Step 4: Note that this 74th Amendment inserted Part IX-A, titled The Municipalities, and the Twelfth Schedule. Step 5: Eliminate the 42nd, 39th, and 10th Amendments, which are known for other changes unrelated to Municipalities. Step 6: Also eliminate the 73rd Amendment because it deals with Panchayats, not Municipalities. Step 7: Conclude that the correct answer is the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act. Verification / Alternative check: Another verification method is to remember that both local government amendments were enacted in the early 1990s and are referred to together as the 73rd and 74th Amendments, sometimes called twin amendments. Many textbooks and examination syllabi present them as a pair: rural local bodies under the 73rd Amendment and urban local bodies under the 74th Amendment. This consistent pairing confirms that it is the 74th Amendment that inserted Part IX-A The Municipalities, not any of the other amendments listed. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act is often called a mini Constitution due to the large number of changes it introduced, including alterations to the Preamble and expansion of Directive Principles, but it does not insert Part IX-A. The 39th Amendment dealt with issues relating to elections and immunities for certain high offices. The 10th Amendment relates to the incorporation of certain territories and does not concern local bodies. The 73rd Amendment focuses on Panchayats and added Part IX, not Part IX-A. Hence, none of these match what is asked in the question. Common Pitfalls: The most frequent confusion is between the 73rd and 74th Amendments. Students sometimes forget which one is for Panchayats and which for Municipalities. A useful memory aid is to think of P for Panchayats and P for the number 73 if you associate it with rural areas first, and then remember that the next number 74 covers Municipalities. Keeping this paired structure in mind helps avoid mixing up these two crucial amendments. Final Answer: Part IX-A The Municipalities was inserted into the Constitution of India by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act.

Question 17

In the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill, 2016, the fund named "MVAF" is proposed to be created; what does the letter "A" stand for in "MVAF"?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill, 2016 introduced a number of reforms to improve road safety, strengthen penalties, and provide better support to victims of road accidents in India. One of the important provisions was the creation of a dedicated fund referred to as MVAF. Understanding what each letter in such acronyms stands for helps in linking the fund with its purpose. This question asks specifically about the meaning of the letter A in MVAF. Given Data / Assumptions: The Bill relates to motor vehicles and road safety. A fund named MVAF is proposed under the Bill. We must determine what A stands for in MVAF. Options include Amendment, Approval, Accident, Aspiration, and Assistance. Concept / Approach: MVAF stands for Motor Vehicle Accident Fund. The very purpose of the fund is to provide compulsory insurance like coverage or financial support to victims of road accidents, especially hit and run cases. Therefore, the central idea behind the fund is accidents, not amendments or approvals. By associating the fund with its intended role of supporting accident victims, you can correctly identify Accident as the word represented by A in the acronym. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill seeks to improve road safety and provide support to accident victims. Step 2: Understand that MVAF is a fund connected to motor vehicles and accidents, meant to offer financial assistance. Step 3: Expand the acronym logically: M for Motor, V for Vehicle, A for Accident, and F for Fund. Step 4: Compare this with the option Amendment, which refers to changing a law, not a core element of the fund's purpose. Step 5: Approval and Aspiration are generic terms that have no specific link to the idea of road mishaps or compensation. Step 6: Assistance is related to help, but in the standard naming pattern for such funds, the central event (the accident) is usually highlighted, not the general concept of assistance. Step 7: Conclude that Accident is the correct expansion for the letter A in MVAF. Verification / Alternative check: As a verification method, you can think of other similar welfare funds and how they are named. When the purpose is tied to a particular event, such as a disaster or accident, the name usually includes that event directly. The Motor Vehicle Accident Fund is clearly focused on accidents, especially hit and run cases and other incidents where victims need compensation. If you try to insert Amendment, Approval, Aspiration, or Assistance into the acronym, it sounds awkward and fails to communicate the central theme, confirming that Accident is the most accurate fit. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Amendment is linked to the broader process of changing a law, not the specific purpose of this fund. Approval has no direct connection to the fund's objective and would not usually be used as part of a welfare fund's name. Aspiration is a very general term and does not describe a concrete event or subject related to motor vehicles. Assistance may sound reasonable in a welfare context, but Indian legislative practice prefers more specific terms, and the commonly accepted expansion is Motor Vehicle Accident Fund, not Motor Vehicle Assistance Fund. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may overthink the acronym and consider Amendment simply because the Bill itself is an amendment to the Motor Vehicles Act. Others may be tempted by Assistance because the fund provides help to accident victims. To avoid confusion, always focus on the main event or condition that the fund addresses. In this case, the event is the accident, so Accident is the correct expansion. Final Answer: In the acronym MVAF, used in the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill, 2016, the letter A stands for Accident, as in Motor Vehicle Accident Fund.

Question 18

How many Lok Sabha (parliamentary) constituencies are there in the state of West Bengal?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Lok Sabha, or House of the People, is composed of members elected from various parliamentary constituencies across the states and union territories of India. Each state has a fixed number of seats based on its population, as determined by periodic delimitation exercises. Questions asking for the number of Lok Sabha seats in a particular state, such as West Bengal, are common in general knowledge and competitive examinations, especially those with a focus on Indian polity and current affairs. Given Data / Assumptions: The question is specifically about Lok Sabha constituencies in West Bengal, not Rajya Sabha seats. We must identify the correct total number of such constituencies. Options include 42, 2, 14, 40, and 25, representing different possible totals. We assume the existing distribution of Lok Sabha seats after the latest delimitation used in examinations. Concept / Approach: West Bengal is a populous state in eastern India and has a significant representation in the Lok Sabha. The state has been allocated 42 Lok Sabha constituencies. This figure is stable until a fresh delimitation exercise changes the seat distribution. Other numbers in the options either correspond to smaller states or are arbitrary distractors. Remembering approximate seat counts for major states like Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, West Bengal, Bihar, and Tamil Nadu can help in eliminating wrong choices quickly. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that West Bengal is one of the larger states in terms of population and therefore has a relatively high number of Lok Sabha seats. Step 2: Remember that West Bengal has 42 Lok Sabha constituencies, a figure frequently mentioned in election related news and reference books. Step 3: Compare this with the number 2, which is far too small and usually associated with tiny union territories. Step 4: Note that 14 or 25 would be typical for smaller or medium sized states, not for a state of West Bengal's size. Step 5: Consider 40, which is close but still lower than the actual number of 42 and does not match the official distribution. Step 6: Conclude that 42 is the correct number of Lok Sabha constituencies in West Bengal. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, you can recall that in discussions of major states, Uttar Pradesh is known for having 80 seats, Maharashtra around 48, and West Bengal 42. These figures are commonly repeated during general elections in media coverage. Another approach is to remember that West Bengal is more populous than states with around 25 or fewer seats, so its allocation must be higher. This reasoning supports the choice of 42 as the correct total. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The number 2 is clearly incorrect and applies only to very small union territories or states. Fourteen and twenty five also underestimate the representation of a populous state like West Bengal. The number 40, although close, does not match the officially recognised count and is simply a distractor designed to confuse those who remember only an approximate figure. Therefore, all options other than 42 are incorrect. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes confuse the numbers of Lok Sabha seats, Rajya Sabha seats, and assembly constituencies for a state. Another frequent error is to round off or guess when they remember only approximate values. To avoid this, it is useful to memorise exact Lok Sabha seat counts for major states and cross check them with population based intuition. West Bengal's count of 42 is one of these key figures. Final Answer: The state of West Bengal has 42 Lok Sabha (parliamentary) constituencies.

Question 19

Which scheme was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi as part of the Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao campaign to promote savings for the girl child?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao campaign is a flagship initiative of the Government of India aimed at improving the status of the girl child through protection, education, and empowerment. As part of this broader effort, specific schemes were launched to encourage financial security and savings for girls. One of the key schemes created in this context is a small savings scheme that allows parents or guardians to open special accounts in the name of a girl child to build a long term corpus for her education and future. This question asks you to identify that scheme. Given Data / Assumptions: The broader campaign is Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao. The specific scheme in question is linked to promoting savings for the girl child. Options include Sukanya Samriddhi Account, Bal Swachhta Mission, Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana, Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Yojana, and Ladli Laxmi Yojana. We assume basic familiarity with popular government schemes. Concept / Approach: The Sukanya Samriddhi Account is a dedicated small savings scheme for the girl child, offering tax benefits and relatively high interest rates. It was promoted as part of the Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao initiative to encourage parents to save for their daughters education and well being. Other listed schemes focus on different objectives: cleanliness for children, general financial inclusion, overall awareness on saving the girl child, or state level girl child welfare programmes. By aligning the idea of a savings account specifically for girls with the options, Sukanya Samriddhi Account stands out as the correct answer. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify the key phrase in the question: promote savings for the girl child under the Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao umbrella. Step 2: Recall that Sukanya Samriddhi Account is a government backed deposit scheme that allows parents or guardians to open accounts in the name of girl children. Step 3: Note that Bal Swachhta Mission focuses on cleanliness and hygiene among children, not specifically savings. Step 4: Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana is a financial inclusion scheme for opening bank accounts for all households, not a special girl child savings account. Step 5: Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Yojana is the overarching campaign, not the specific savings instrument. Step 6: Ladli Laxmi Yojana is a state level scheme in some states, not the flagship national savings account scheme associated directly with Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao. Step 7: Conclude that Sukanya Samriddhi Account is the scheme launched to encourage savings for the girl child. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by recalling how Sukanya Samriddhi Account is marketed. It is often described as a part of the Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao initiative and is featured in government advertisements that show parents opening accounts for their daughters. The scheme provides income tax benefits and aims to create a fund for the girl's education and marriage. None of the other options match this description. Financial inclusion under Jan Dhan, cleanliness under Bal Swachhta, and general awareness under Beti Bachao Beti Padhao are all important, but only Sukanya Samriddhi Account directly embodies the savings component for the girl child. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Bal Swachhta Mission targets hygiene and sanitation for children and does not operate as a savings scheme. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana promotes basic bank accounts and financial literacy for all citizens, not a special product for girls. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Yojana is the main awareness and advocacy campaign, not a separate savings instrument. Ladli Laxmi Yojana exists in some states as a scheme to support the girl child, but it is not the specific national savings account scheme highlighted under the Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao campaign at the Union level. Common Pitfalls: A common error is to pick Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Yojana simply because the phrase appears in the question. However, the question asks for a scheme launched as part of this campaign to promote savings, not the campaign itself. Another trap is to select Jan Dhan Yojana because of its association with bank accounts, forgetting that it is not girl specific. To avoid confusion, always match the exact objective mentioned in the question savings for the girl child with the scheme that directly fulfils that objective. Final Answer: The scheme launched as part of Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao to promote savings for the girl child is the Sukanya Samriddhi Account scheme.

Question 20

In a municipality in India, how are all the members of the municipal body chosen by the people of the municipal area?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Municipalities are key institutions of urban local self government in India, responsible for the administration of towns and smaller cities. Democratic representation is central to their functioning. The Constitution and state municipal laws lay down the method of choosing members of municipalities. This question focuses on whether municipal members are elected directly by the people, elected indirectly, or nominated, thereby testing your understanding of how democratic representation works at the municipal level. Given Data / Assumptions: The institution in question is a municipality under Part IX-A of the Constitution. The focus is on how all members of a municipality are chosen by the people of the municipal area. Options explore different combinations of direct elections, indirect elections, and nominations. We assume the general pattern followed in Indian states as per the Seventy Fourth Amendment framework. Concept / Approach: Article 243R of the Constitution deals with the composition of Municipalities. It provides that all the seats in a Municipality shall be filled by persons chosen by direct election from the territorial constituencies in the municipal area. Although some states may have provisions for nominated members with special knowledge or experience, such nominated members do not have the same status as elected councillors, and the basic rule is that all seats are filled through direct elections. Therefore, the correct description of how members are chosen by the people is that they are elected directly. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the constitutional provision in Article 243R regarding the composition of Municipalities. Step 2: Note that the Article clearly states that all seats in a Municipality are to be filled by direct elections from wards or territorial constituencies. Step 3: Understand that indirect elections are usually used for positions such as Mayor or Chairperson, not for the basic membership of the municipal council. Step 4: Nominated members, where allowed, are limited in number and often do not have voting rights, so they do not form the core composition chosen by the people. Step 5: Since the question asks how all the members of a municipality are chosen by the people, the only accurate description is that they are elected directly. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by observing actual municipal elections in various cities and towns. Citizens vote directly for their ward councillors or corporators. These councillors together form the municipal council or municipal corporation. Indirect elections may later be used to select the Mayor or Chairperson from among these elected members, but that does not change the fact that members themselves are chosen through direct elections. This practical observation aligns with the constitutional provision and confirms the correct option. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Elected indirectly would describe a situation where representatives are chosen by other elected representatives, not by the people directly, which is not how ward members of a municipality are chosen. Nominated proportionally and nominated indirectly suggest appointed membership, which is not the primary rule for municipal councillors under the Constitution. The idea of partly nominated and partly elected might resemble some local arrangements but contradicts the constitutional mandate that all seats in a Municipality shall be filled by persons chosen by direct election. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes confuse the method of electing the Mayor with the method of electing municipal councillors. In many places, the Mayor is chosen indirectly by councillors, giving the impression that municipal representation is indirect. Another mistake is to think that because some members can be nominated, the body is partly nominated and partly elected. The question, however, is clearly about how the members are chosen by the people of the municipal area, which refers to direct elections only. Final Answer: All the members of a municipality are elected directly by the people of the municipal area.

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