Question 1

In the composition of a country's national income, which of the following is typically the largest component?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question deals with the structure of national income accounts. National income can be broken down by type of income such as wages, profits, rent, and interest. Understanding which part is the largest helps you interpret how income is distributed in an economy and is a common issue in macroeconomics and national income accounting questions. Given Data / Assumptions: We are looking at the broad components of national income. Options include proprietors income, compensation of employees, corporate profits, rental income, and net interest. The task is to identify which component usually has the largest share. Concept / Approach: National income by income method sums up compensation of employees, operating surplus (which includes profits, rent, and interest), and mixed income of the self employed. In most economies, the total wages and salaries paid to employees, along with employer contributions to social security, form the largest part of national income. This is called compensation of employees. It reflects the fact that the majority of productive activity involves labour, and labour costs are significant across all sectors. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that compensation of employees includes all monetary and non monetary benefits paid to workers.Step 2: Compare it with other components like proprietary income, which is the mixed income of unincorporated businesses.Step 3: Corporate profits represent only the profit part of incorporated enterprises and are generally smaller than total wages paid to workers.Step 4: Rental income and net interest are also relatively small compared with the huge wage bill across the entire economy.Step 5: Therefore, compensation of employees is the largest component of national income. Verification / Alternative Check: If you think practically, every sector, whether agriculture, manufacturing, or services, employs labour and pays wages. Even highly capital intensive sectors still require skilled employees. This means that the sum of wages and salaries across all sectors will typically exceed the sum of profits, rents, and interest. Official data on national accounts for many countries, including India, confirm that employee compensation is the single largest component. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Proprietors income refers only to self employed and unincorporated business incomes, which, while important, do not exceed aggregate wages in most economies. Corporate profits account only for profit after costs and are smaller than total wages. Rental income is limited to payments for the use of land and property and forms a relatively minor share. Net interest is also narrower and mostly includes interest flows after paying interest expenses. None of these categories generally equal compensation of employees in size. Common Pitfalls: Students may misinterpret the term national income and assume it is mainly profits of companies or taxes collected by the government. Another mistake is ignoring the role of non wage labour income and confusing it with wages. However, in almost all standard national income accounting systems, the single largest category remains compensation of employees, so it is a safe fact to remember for exams. Final Answer: The largest component of national income in most economies is compensation of employees, that is, wages, salaries, and related benefits paid to workers.

Question 2

Under the minimum reserve system of currency issue, the Reserve Bank of India must maintain assets of at least what total value?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question falls under the topic of Indian banking and monetary system. It specifically refers to the minimum reserve system used by the Reserve Bank of India for issuing currency notes. Earlier, India followed other systems such as the proportional reserve system. Understanding the amount and composition of minimum reserves is a common factual point in banking awareness. Given Data / Assumptions: The question is about the minimum reserve system for the issue of bank notes. It asks for the minimum total value of assets to be maintained by the RBI. Options include different rupee amounts in crore units. Concept / Approach: Under the minimum reserve system, the Reserve Bank of India is required to maintain a minimum amount of assets consisting of gold and foreign securities plus rupee securities. The key fact to remember is that the total minimum value of these assets should not be less than 200 crore rupees, of which at least 115 crore rupees must be in gold. This allows flexibility in note issue while ensuring basic backing of the currency. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the minimum reserve system replaced the earlier proportional reserve system.Step 2: Under this system, a fixed minimum amount of assets must be maintained, not a fixed ratio to the notes issued.Step 3: The critical figure for total assets under this system is 200 crore rupees.Step 4: Out of this, 115 crore rupees must be held in the form of gold bullion and gold coin.Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer for the minimum total assets requirement is 200 crore rupees. Verification / Alternative Check: When revising, it helps to memorise the pair of numbers together: 200 crore rupees total and 115 crore rupees in gold. Any option that does not match the total of 200 crore rupees can then be eliminated quickly in the exam. Since 85 and 115 crore rupees clearly fall short of the total requirement, and 210 or 250 crore rupees have never been part of the standard requirement, 200 crore rupees stands out as the correct value. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 85 crore rupees and 115 crore rupees are only parts of the composition, with 115 crore rupees referring specifically to the gold component, not to the total assets. 210 crore rupees and 250 crore rupees are not mentioned in the legal provisions governing the minimum reserve system and thus do not represent the statutory minimum. They are therefore incorrect in the context of this question. Common Pitfalls: Many learners confuse the minimum total assets requirement with the gold portion and wrongly choose 115 crore rupees. Another issue is mixing up older and newer systems of note issue, such as the proportional reserve system, where the backing was expressed as a percentage of notes issued. To avoid errors, always link the phrase \"minimum reserve system\" with the pair 200 crore rupees total and 115 crore rupees in gold. Final Answer: Under the minimum reserve system of currency issue, the Reserve Bank of India must maintain assets worth at least 200 crore rupees in total.

Question 3

In macroeconomics, the term \"total output\" of an economy is essentially a synonym for which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question comes from basic macroeconomic terminology. In simple models of the economy, concepts like aggregate demand, aggregate supply, and gross domestic product are closely related but not identical. The phrase \"total output\" refers to the total quantity of goods and services produced, and the question asks which standard macroeconomic term best matches this meaning. Given Data / Assumptions: The phrase used is \"total output\" of the economy. The options include aggregate demand, gross domestic product, aggregate supply, equilibrium, and net national product. We must identify the concept that directly represents the total production side. Concept / Approach: Aggregate demand represents the total planned expenditure on domestically produced goods and services. Aggregate supply represents the total quantity of goods and services that producers in an economy are willing and able to supply at different price levels. In equilibrium, aggregate demand equals aggregate supply, and at that point both are equal to the actual level of output, commonly measured by GDP. Among these, the theoretical concept that refers to total output offered for sale by producers is aggregate supply. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Note that aggregate demand is about total spending or demand, not directly about production.Step 2: Gross domestic product is a measure of the monetary value of final output, but in macro models the term \"total output\" is more directly aligned with aggregate supply schedules.Step 3: Aggregate supply describes the relationship between the price level and the total output that firms are willing to produce.Step 4: Equilibrium is a condition where aggregate demand equals aggregate supply and is not itself a measure of output.Step 5: Therefore, the macroeconomic synonym for total output is aggregate supply. Verification / Alternative Check: In most textbook diagrams, total output is plotted on the horizontal axis, while the price level is on the vertical axis. The curve labelled \"AS\" shows how total output varies with the price level. This is the aggregate supply curve. Aggregate demand is plotted separately. When students talk about shifts in total output at full employment or long run potential, they discuss shifts in the aggregate supply curve, which supports the identification of aggregate supply with total output. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Aggregate demand measures total planned spending and includes consumption, investment, government expenditure, and net exports, not output directly. Gross domestic product is a numerical measure of output at a given time and can be equal to total output in equilibrium, but within the theory context, total output corresponds to the supply side. Equilibrium is just the point where demand and supply intersect, not a separate variable. Net national product adjusts national income for depreciation and is again an income measure, not the conceptual supply curve. Common Pitfalls: A common confusion is between GDP and aggregate supply, because in equilibrium they end up with the same numerical value. However, the question is phrased in terms of macroeconomic terminology used in models, where aggregate supply is the correct term for total output. Another pitfall is assuming that anything \"total\" must automatically be aggregate demand, but here the emphasis is clearly on production, not expenditure. Final Answer: In macroeconomic theory, the phrase \"total output\" of the economy is essentially a synonym for aggregate supply.

Question 4

Which of the following economists was recently appointed as a Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question belongs to Indian banking and current affairs. The Reserve Bank of India has a Governor and several Deputy Governors who play key roles in monetary policy, financial regulation, and internal administration. Examinations often ask about newly appointed Governors and Deputy Governors because these posts are widely covered in the news. Given Data / Assumptions: The post in question is Deputy Governor of the RBI. The word \"recently\" refers to a specific appointment period, widely discussed in news and current affairs material. The options include names of senior central banking and economic personalities. Concept / Approach: Viral Acharya is a well known economist and academic who was appointed as a Deputy Governor of the RBI. He has taught at leading international universities and has done research on financial stability and banking crises. His appointment was significant because it brought strong academic expertise into the central bank's leadership team. Other names in the options refer to different posts or earlier appointments in the RBI or outside it. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the composition of the RBI top management, which includes one Governor and multiple Deputy Governors.Step 2: Identify which of the listed persons were deputies and which were Governors or held other roles.Step 3: Urjit Patel and Raghuram Rajan have served as Governors, not newly appointed Deputy Governors in the period referred to.Step 4: S. S. Mundra and R. Gandhi were Deputy Governors earlier but not the ones referred to as recently appointed in the context of the question.Step 5: Viral Acharya is the economist known for being appointed as a Deputy Governor of the RBI, so select his name. Verification / Alternative Check: You can often recall newspaper headlines announcing Viral Acharya as the \"new RBI Deputy Governor\" and describing him as an academic from a foreign university. The other names are highly familiar but associated with different roles or earlier time periods. This method of associating each person with a specific role in memory helps you avoid confusion in the exam hall. Why Other Options Are Wrong: S. S. Mundra and R. Gandhi were already Deputy Governors and are not the ones described by the word \"recently\" in the period covered by the question. Urjit Patel was elevated to the post of Governor, not Deputy Governor, in that time frame. Raghuram Rajan is a former RBI Governor and a renowned academic, but he is not the person newly appointed as Deputy Governor in the news item that this question refers to. Common Pitfalls: The main pitfall is simple name confusion. Because all the options are related to the central bank or economic policy, candidates sometimes mark a familiar name like Raghuram Rajan without carefully reading the exact post mentioned. Another mistake is not keeping track of the timeline of appointments, which leads to mixing up who was appointed when. Regular revision of monthly current affairs can help avoid such errors. Final Answer: The economist who was recently appointed as a Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India is Viral Acharya.

Question 5

India has emerged as the ______ largest aviation market in the world, with passenger traffic of over 10 crore reported for 2016 to 2017.

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question belongs to Indian economy and infrastructure, specifically the civil aviation sector. It asks about India's ranking in the global aviation market based on passenger traffic in 2016 to 2017. Such rankings reflect the rapid growth of air travel in India and feature prominently in economic surveys and news reports. Given Data / Assumptions: The year of reference is 2016 to 2017. The ranking is based on passenger traffic of over 10 crore. The options are ordinal ranks from 1st to 5th. Concept / Approach: India has seen rapid growth in domestic and international air passenger traffic due to rising incomes, low cost carriers, and improved airport infrastructure. According to government and media reports, India became the third largest aviation market in the world in terms of domestic passenger traffic, behind the United States and China. Therefore, when a question links the figure of over 10 crore passengers in 2016 to 2017 with India's global ranking, the correct rank is third. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall from current affairs that India overtook some other major aviation markets in this period.Step 2: Note that the top two markets by size are the United States and China.Step 3: India then comes next, making it the third largest in terms of passenger traffic.Step 4: The specific figure of over 10 crore passengers supports this classification.Step 5: Therefore, choose 3rd as the correct ranking. Verification / Alternative Check: You can verify by recalling headlines and reports such as \"India emerges as world's third largest aviation market.\" These were widely quoted in newspapers and government press releases. If you know that India is not yet ahead of the United States and China, you can safely rule out 1st and 2nd. Fourth and fifth positions are too low given the high passenger numbers mentioned, leaving third as the correct and logical choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: First and second positions are occupied by larger and more mature aviation markets. The United States has a very developed airline industry, and China has also grown rapidly. Fourth or fifth place rankings would underestimate India's progress and contradict the specific reports for 2016 to 2017. Therefore, all options other than 3rd fail to match the documented ranking. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates remember that India was the ninth largest aviation market at earlier points and do not update their information. Another pitfall is confusing overall ranking with ranking by some narrower metric like international passengers only or cargo traffic. The question clearly refers to passenger traffic of over 10 crore in 2016 to 2017, which corresponds to the third place ranking. Final Answer: India, with passenger traffic of over 10 crore in 2016 to 2017, emerged as the 3rd largest aviation market in the world.

Question 6

Among the following, which source yields the maximum tax revenue for Indian State Governments?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question is related to the revenue structure of Indian State Governments. It asks which source of tax revenue contributes the most to state finances. Understanding which taxes form the bulk of state level income is important for exams that cover federal finance, fiscal policy, and the Indian economy. Given Data / Assumptions: We are considering major tax sources for State Governments. Options include excise duties, commercial taxes, land revenue, customs revenue, and stamp and registration fees. The question refers to the traditional pattern before full implementation of new systems like GST. Concept / Approach: Historically, States in India derived a large part of their tax revenue from sales tax or value added tax on goods. These taxes are often grouped under the term commercial taxes. While States also earn from state excise on items like alcohol, land revenue, and stamp duties, the largest single category of own tax revenue has been sales tax or VAT. Customs revenue is a central tax and is not a major source of direct income to States. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Eliminate customs revenue because it is mainly collected by the Union Government.Step 2: Recognise that land revenue has declined in importance over time and is now a very small part of state income.Step 3: State excise duties are significant but generally smaller than total commercial taxes.Step 4: Stamp and registration fees are important for property transactions but still fall short of sales tax or VAT.Step 5: Conclude that commercial taxes, that is, sales tax or VAT, provide the maximum tax revenue to State Governments. Verification / Alternative Check: You can check this by reviewing any state budget, where commercial taxes normally occupy the first position among tax heads on the revenue side. Even after the introduction of VAT and later GST, earlier exam questions often relied on this fact. This cross check confirms that commercial taxes are the main own tax revenue source for States. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Excise duties at the state level are mainly on alcohol and certain goods and are important but not the largest category. Land revenue has steadily declined due to policy changes and limited revenue potential. Customs revenue is a central tax, and only a portion may be shared with States indirectly. Stamp and registration fees, while sizeable in some states, typically come after commercial taxes in magnitude, so they cannot be the maximum source on an all India basis. Common Pitfalls: Students often confuse central excise with state excise and overestimate its role in state finances. Another mistake is to assume that land revenue is still the main source, which was true historically but no longer holds. To avoid confusion, remember that pre GST, commercial taxes like sales tax and VAT were the primary engines of state tax revenue. Final Answer: The source that yields the maximum tax revenue for Indian State Governments is commercial taxes (sales tax or VAT).

Question 7

Which Indian bank launched \"Project Nishchay\" in partnership with The Boston Consulting Group (BCG) as part of its turnaround strategy?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question is from Indian banking current affairs. It refers to \"Project Nishchay\", a strategic initiative launched by a particular bank in collaboration with The Boston Consulting Group, also known as BCG. Such projects are aimed at business transformation, cost reduction, and improving financial health, and they are often highlighted in financial news, making them important for exams. Given Data / Assumptions: The project name is \"Project Nishchay\". The consulting partner is The Boston Consulting Group (BCG). The question asks which Indian bank launched this project. Concept / Approach: Public sector banks that face high non performing assets and capital constraints often launch structured turnaround programmes with the help of professional consulting firms. IDBI Bank, which had significant stress on its balance sheet, announced a comprehensive transformation programme called Project Nishchay in partnership with BCG to improve its performance, asset quality, and profitability. Recognising this pairing of the project name with the stressed bank is the key to answering the question. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall which banks were in the news for high non performing assets and government supported restructuring.Step 2: Identify which of these banks announced a large turnaround and cost optimisation programme named Project Nishchay.Step 3: Note that IDBI Bank, not SBI, Dena Bank, or others, was consistently associated with this specific project name in financial news.Step 4: The consultancy partner mentioned in the question, BCG, also confirms the link with IDBI Bank.Step 5: Therefore, select IDBI Bank as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative Check: If you recall that IDBI Bank had a dedicated transformation agenda and was placed under closer monitoring by regulators, it makes sense that this bank engaged in a formal project with a top consulting firm. SBI has its own consolidation and digital programmes but not under the name Nishchay. Smaller banks such as Dena Bank or Yes Bank have had different internal initiatives and are not typically linked with this particular project name, which helps confirm the answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: State Bank of India has undertaken multiple reforms and mergers but did not brand its major transformation project as Nishchay with BCG. Dena Bank has been subject to prompt corrective action and restructuring, yet the widely reported Project Nishchay was not attributed to it. Yes Bank and Bank of Baroda have had other strategic initiatives but, again, not this specific named project. Thus these options do not match the combination of bank, project name, and consulting partner mentioned in the question. Common Pitfalls: Candidates may rely on partial memory of various project names such as Saksham, Utkarsh, or Udaan that different banks have used. Without careful revision, it is easy to mix up which project belongs to which bank. Another pitfall is guessing SBI for any banking reform related question because it is the largest public sector bank, but that approach often leads to errors. Always link the correct project name with the correct institution in your notes. Final Answer: The bank that launched \"Project Nishchay\" in partnership with The Boston Consulting Group is IDBI Bank.

Question 8

In Indian economic policy, the abbreviation NREGP stands for which of the following government schemes?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question checks your familiarity with important Indian government scheme abbreviations. NREGP, more commonly known later as MGNREGA after updates, is one of the flagship social security and employment programmes in rural India. Knowing the correct full form of such abbreviations is crucial for both prelims and mains level objective questions. Given Data / Assumptions: The abbreviation given is NREGP. The scheme is related to rural policy and employment. Options include several similar sounding expansions involving rural, employment, and education. Concept / Approach: NREGP stands for National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme, which was an earlier name associated with what later became the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act scheme. The programme guarantees a minimum number of days of wage employment to rural households who are willing to do unskilled manual work, thereby providing both livelihood security and creation of durable assets in rural areas. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Focus on the core idea behind the scheme, which is guaranteeing employment, not education.Step 2: The word \"Rural\" appears correctly in NREGP, so any full form must include rural.Step 3: Eliminate options that centre on education, since that is not the primary focus of NREGP.Step 4: The phrase \"National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme\" correctly reflects both the target area and the employment guarantee nature.Step 5: Therefore, choose National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme as the correct expansion. Verification / Alternative Check: You can recall that the Act later came to be popularly known as NREGA and then MGNREGA (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act). All of these variants consistently retain the core words \"Rural Employment Guarantee\". None of the authentic names ever use the word \"Educational\" or \"Rapid\" as in some distractor options provided here. Why Other Options Are Wrong: National Rural Educational Guarantee Programme would refer to an education based scheme, which is not what NREGP is about. National Rapid Employment Guarantee Programme and National Rapid Educational Guarantee Programme introduce the term rapid, which does not figure in the official name. National Renewable Energy Generation Programme is completely unrelated to rural employment and appears only as a distractor using the same initials. Common Pitfalls: Because several major programmes share similar initials, candidates sometimes confuse NREGP with initiatives in education or energy. Another mistake is to misremember the order of words as Employment Rural or Rural Employment Guarantee Act and then pick an option that does not exactly match the legal or official name. When revising, always write down the exact full form of major schemes, paying attention to each word in the title. Final Answer: NREGP stands for National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme, an important employment guarantee scheme for rural households.

Question 9

Who was appointed as the Director General of Goods and Services Tax Intelligence (DG GSTI) in India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question is part of Indian economy and taxation related current affairs. It refers to the appointment of the Director General of Goods and Services Tax Intelligence, often abbreviated as DG GSTI. This body is responsible for detecting tax evasion and enforcing compliance under the GST system, and its leadership position is often mentioned in news and exam oriented materials. Given Data / Assumptions: The post mentioned is Director General of Goods and Services Tax Intelligence. We are asked to identify the person appointed to this post. The options list several names from different fields including administration and diplomacy. Concept / Approach: GST intelligence deals with indirect tax administration and investigation, so the head of this organisation is typically a senior officer from the Indian Revenue Service or customs and central excise stream, not a general security or diplomatic figure. John Joseph, an Indian Revenue Service officer with experience in customs, was appointed as DG GST Intelligence, which aligns with this profile. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that DG GSTI is an enforcement and intelligence role within the indirect tax framework.Step 2: Eliminate names that are primarily associated with foreign diplomacy, such as Richard Verma, a former United States ambassador to India.Step 3: Also eliminate names associated mainly with national security or intelligence outside the tax domain.Step 4: Identify John Joseph as the career revenue service officer linked with customs, excise, and GST enforcement posts.Step 5: Select John Joseph as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative Check: If you follow economic and tax news, you may recall headlines specifically mentioning John Joseph taking charge as DG GST Intelligence, often highlighting his previous experience in customs and central excise. None of the other names feature in connection with this specific office, which makes it easier to verify once you pay attention to their professional backgrounds. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Uttam Singh and Gurindar Chadha are not prominently known for leading GST intelligence. Richard Verma is a foreign diplomat, not an Indian tax officer, and cannot hold such an administrative post in India. Ajit Doval is India's National Security Advisor, dealing with strategic and security matters, not with the specific area of GST intelligence and enforcement. Hence, all these options are mismatched with the role described in the question. Common Pitfalls: Examinees sometimes pick a very famous name like Ajit Doval or Richard Verma under pressure, even if the role clearly belongs to a revenue service officer. Another pitfall is not distinguishing between different intelligence agencies, such as income tax intelligence, central investigative agencies, and GST intelligence. Careful reading of the post title and linking it with the correct service cadre is essential. Final Answer: The person appointed as Director General of Goods and Services Tax Intelligence (DG GSTI) is John Joseph.

Question 10

Which of the following is an example of representative money rather than commodity money?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question is from the basics of money and banking in economics. It distinguishes between commodity money, which has intrinsic value, and representative money, which represents a claim on some commodity or deposit but does not have high intrinsic value itself. Understanding this difference is important to grasp how modern money and banking systems evolved. Given Data / Assumptions: The task is to identify which item listed is representative money. Options include salt, land, gold, a check, and silver coins. Representative money should stand for a claim on value rather than be valuable mainly as a physical commodity. Concept / Approach: Commodity money is money whose value comes from the material it is made of, such as gold or silver coins, cattle, or salt. Representative money, by contrast, consists of tokens, paper notes, or documents that can be exchanged for a fixed quantity of a commodity or for bank deposits. A check is a written order directing a bank to pay a specified amount from the drawer's account to a specified person. The check itself has no intrinsic value, but it represents a claim on deposited money, so it is a classic example of representative money. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify which options are commodities with intrinsic value. Salt, land, gold, and silver coins all have inherent value or direct use.Step 2: Recognise that a check is a piece of paper with almost no intrinsic value.Step 3: Understand that the value of a check comes from what it represents, namely a claim on the drawer's bank account.Step 4: Representative money is defined as something that represents a claim to money or commodities rather than being inherently valuable.Step 5: Therefore, the item that best fits representative money is a check. Verification / Alternative Check: If you think about how you would pay using each item, gold and silver coins can directly be melted or used as jewellery, and land has direct productive use, which are features of commodities. A check, however, needs to be presented at a bank in order to be converted into currency or deposited, and on its own it cannot be consumed or used in production. This confirms that it functions as a representation of underlying value, consistent with representative money. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Salt has historically been used as commodity money in some societies because it can be consumed and has direct value. A tract of land has intrinsic value as a productive asset and is not merely a representation of money. Gold and silver coins are classic examples of commodity money because their value is tied to the precious metal content. They are not representative money, even though modern paper money may once have been convertible into such metals. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse paper currency, which is fiat money, with representative money, and then incorrectly try to place metal coins in the same category. Another common error is to think that anything written on paper, including government bonds or checks, is simply \"paper money\" and not understand that a check is a claim on bank deposits. Clarity about definitions of commodity, representative, fiat, and credit money helps avoid such mistakes. Final Answer: The correct example of representative money among the given options is a check, because it represents a claim on deposited funds rather than having significant intrinsic value itself.

Question 11

National income is fundamentally based on which of the following broad measures?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question tests basic understanding of what national income measures in macroeconomics. Different ways of measuring national income exist, such as the production method, income method, and expenditure method, but all should conceptually arrive at the same aggregate value. The question asks you to identify the correct underlying concept among the options given. Given Data / Assumptions: The term used is \"national income\" for a country. Options include state revenue, production of goods and services, net profit and expenditure, sum of all income fractions, and stock market growth. We must select the broad idea that best describes what national income is based on. Concept / Approach: National income is the total value of all final goods and services produced within a country's borders in a given period, usually a financial year, when measured as net national product at factor cost or similar aggregates. Although governments collect revenue and incur expenditure, these are not direct definitions of national income. Stock market movements also do not directly measure national income. Thus, the core idea behind national income is the production of goods and services in the economy. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the production method of measuring national income, which adds up the value added at each stage of production.Step 2: Remember that the income method sums wages, profits, rent, and interest, all of which are generated from production of goods and services.Step 3: Recognise that government revenue or profit are only parts of the economy and cannot represent total national income on their own.Step 4: Note that stock market prices reflect expectations and asset values, not the direct flow of goods and services produced.Step 5: Therefore, national income is fundamentally based on the production of goods and services in the economy. Verification / Alternative Check: Official definitions of GDP and related aggregates, which are closely linked to national income, always refer to the total market value of final goods and services produced in a country. Government revenue may rise or fall due to tax policies without a proportional change in production. Similarly, stock indices may be volatile without reflecting real output changes. This cross check confirms that the production of goods and services is the central foundation for measuring national income. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Total revenue of the state is only the income of the government sector, not of the entire nation. Net profit earned and expenditure made by the state focus again only on the government, ignoring households and private firms. The phrase \"sum of all fractions of income\" is vague and does not clearly state what is being added. Growth in stock market prices reflects asset price movements and investor sentiment, not national output or income. Common Pitfalls: Some learners mistakenly equate the government budget with the national economy and therefore confuse government revenue or expenditure with national income. Others focus heavily on stock market indices as indicators of economic performance and forget that indices do not directly measure the quantity of goods and services produced. Always link national income with production and remember that income and expenditure are alternative ways of valuing the same underlying output. Final Answer: National income is fundamentally based on the production of goods and services in the economy during a given period.

Question 12

According to the 2017 Global Retail Development Index, which country replaced China as the top retail investment destination?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question comes from international business and Indian economy current affairs. The Global Retail Development Index (GRDI) is published to rank emerging markets for retail investment attractiveness. In 2017, there was significant news that one country overtook China to become the top retail destination in this index, and this fact is often tested in competitive exams. Given Data / Assumptions: The index referred to is the 2017 Global Retail Development Index. The question asks which country replaced China at the top position. Options include Russia, India, Japan, the United States of America, and Brazil. Concept / Approach: The GRDI focuses on emerging markets rather than advanced economies. It ranks countries on factors like market attractiveness, country risk, and market saturation. In 2017, India moved to the first position in the index, displacing China, due to reforms in foreign direct investment policies, strong economic growth, expanding middle class, and rapid development of modern retail formats. Therefore, the country that replaced China in that year was India. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Global Retail Development Index is about emerging markets, so highly developed economies like Japan and the United States are less likely to be at the top.Step 2: Among emerging economies, China was long a top destination but was overtaken in 2017.Step 3: India implemented major reforms and saw strong consumption growth, making it a very attractive retail market.Step 4: Reports in 2017 specifically highlighted that India had become number one in the GRDI.Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is India. Verification / Alternative Check: News articles at that time often carried headlines like \"India replaces China as top retail destination\" or \"India tops Global Retail Development Index\". These headlines clearly link India with the number one position and with the displacement of China. Russia and Brazil have been important markets but did not reach the top spot in that year, and Japan and the United States are not the focus of this emerging markets oriented index. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Russia and Brazil have faced economic and political challenges in recent years that reduced their attractiveness for retail investment, so they did not surpass China in the GRDI. Japan and the United States are advanced economies and are not typically grouped as emerging markets in this index, making them unlikely candidates for replacing China at the top. As a result, all options other than India contradict the widely reported index outcome for 2017. Common Pitfalls: The main pitfall is to assume that China still holds the top position out of habit, or to guess another emerging market like Brazil without recalling the specific news. Another error is not recognising that the GRDI is about emerging markets and thus thinking of the United States or Japan. Regular revision of key rankings and indices, especially where India has achieved top positions, can help you answer such questions accurately. Final Answer: In the 2017 Global Retail Development Index, India replaced China as the top retail investment destination.

Question 13

Which Union Territory of India has the highest literacy rate according to the latest Census data among the following options?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Literacy rate is an important socio economic indicator that shows how many people in an area can read and write with understanding. In India, Union Territories are smaller administrative regions that are directly governed by the central government, and their literacy performance is often compared in general knowledge and competitive exams. This question asks which Union Territory has recorded the highest literacy rate according to the latest national Census data among the given options. Knowing such facts helps candidates understand patterns of human development and regional progress within India. Given Data / Assumptions: The question is only about Union Territories of India, not about full states. The comparison is based on official Census data for literacy rate. The options provided are Delhi, Lakshadweep, Chandigarh, Puducherry, and Andaman and Nicobar Islands. We assume that the candidate is expected to know relative literacy rankings among these Union Territories. Concept / Approach: The literacy rate of a region is calculated as the percentage of literate persons in the population aged seven years and above. Union Territories often perform better than many large states because of their smaller size, better administrative reach, and higher urbanisation. Among the listed Union Territories, Lakshadweep consistently shows one of the highest literacy rates in India. Therefore, the approach is to recall which Union Territory holds the top rank in literacy according to the Census and compare it with the options provided. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that literacy rate means the percentage of people aged seven and above who can read and write with understanding.Step 2: Consider the Union Territories mentioned in the options: Delhi, Lakshadweep, Chandigarh, Puducherry, and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.Step 3: From Census data, Lakshadweep has an extremely high literacy rate that is higher than Delhi, Chandigarh, Puducherry, and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.Step 4: Therefore, among the listed options, Lakshadweep is the correct answer.Step 5: Confirm that none of the other Union Territories in the options surpass Lakshadweep in literacy rate. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative way to verify this is to remember that Kerala is the most literate state, and Lakshadweep, which is geographically close to Kerala and culturally influenced by it, also performs exceptionally well in literacy. Many exam preparation books and official statistics repeatedly mention Lakshadweep as the Union Territory with one of the highest literacy rates. Cross checking with standard general knowledge references confirms that Lakshadweep is ahead of Delhi, Chandigarh, Puducherry, and Andaman and Nicobar Islands in literacy percentage. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Delhi is a highly urbanised Union Territory with a good literacy rate, but it is still lower than that of Lakshadweep. Chandigarh also has high literacy but does not surpass Lakshadweep. Puducherry has a strong educational record but again does not lead this specific list. Andaman and Nicobar Islands have improved in literacy but remain below Lakshadweep. Therefore, none of these alternatives match or exceed the literacy rate of Lakshadweep. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes select Delhi or Chandigarh because they are more familiar urban centres, and they assume these must be the most literate regions. Another common mistake is to confuse the most literate state, which is Kerala, with a Union Territory and answer incorrectly based on that association. It is important to distinguish between states and Union Territories and to base the answer on official Census rankings rather than guesswork. Final Answer: Lakshadweep is the Union Territory of India with the highest literacy rate among the options given.

Question 14

In the context of Indian irrigation projects, which of the following is known as the longest irrigation canal in India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Irrigation canals play a crucial role in Indian agriculture by carrying water to arid and semi arid regions that receive low and unreliable rainfall. General knowledge questions often ask about the largest, longest, or most important irrigation projects in the country. This question specifically focuses on identifying the longest irrigation canal in India from the given options. Knowing the answer helps candidates understand the scale of canal networks and the importance of water management in India, especially in dry regions such as Rajasthan. Given Data / Assumptions: The question is about the length of the irrigation canal, not about age or discharge capacity. The canals listed are: Yamuna Canal, Sirhind Canal, Indira Gandhi Canal, Upper Bari Doab Canal, and Sharda Canal. We assume standard textbook and exam references regarding major canals and their relative lengths. The focus is on a named irrigation canal, not on a river itself. Concept / Approach: Indira Gandhi Canal, earlier called the Rajasthan Canal, is one of the longest and most ambitious irrigation projects in India. It carries water from the Sutlej and Beas rivers, via the Harike Barrage, deep into the Thar Desert regions of Rajasthan. The approach to solving this question is to recall that the Indira Gandhi Canal extends for hundreds of kilometres and is widely known in exam oriented general knowledge as the longest irrigation canal in India. The other listed canals are important but shorter. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Read the question carefully and note that it asks for the longest irrigation canal in India.Step 2: Recall major irrigation canals: Yamuna Canal, Sirhind Canal, Indira Gandhi Canal, Upper Bari Doab Canal, and Sharda Canal.Step 3: Remember that the Indira Gandhi Canal, originating from the Harike Barrage in Punjab and stretching across large parts of Rajasthan, is famous for being extremely long and for transforming desert areas into irrigated land.Step 4: Compare this with other canals, which are regionally significant but shorter in total length.Step 5: Conclude that Indira Gandhi Canal is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, one can refer to standard geography textbooks and authentic reference sources that describe Indira Gandhi Canal as the longest irrigation canal in India, running for more than six hundred kilometres in total command length. It is often cited as a landmark project in post independence irrigation development, which confirms that it is longer than the Sirhind Canal, Upper Bari Doab Canal, Yamuna Canal, or Sharda Canal. This cross check supports the choice of Indira Gandhi Canal. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The Yamuna Canal is important for irrigation in the northern plains but is not as long as the Indira Gandhi Canal. The Sirhind Canal and Upper Bari Doab Canal are major canals in Punjab region but are shorter in overall length and command area. The Sharda Canal system is significant in Uttar Pradesh but again does not match the scale of the Indira Gandhi project. Therefore, none of these alternatives qualifies as the longest irrigation canal in India. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse rivers with canals or assume that a canal in a more densely populated region must be the longest. Another mistake is to rely only on familiarity with local canals rather than remembering national level superlatives. For exam preparation, it is important to memorise key projects like Indira Gandhi Canal and associate them with their distinguishing features such as length and the desert irrigation context. Final Answer: Indira Gandhi Canal is the longest irrigation canal in India among the given options.

Question 15

Gold mines in India are located mainly in which of the following areas among the options listed?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Mineral resource distribution is a common topic in Indian geography and general knowledge. Questions about the main locations of coal, iron, bauxite, or gold deposits are frequently asked in competitive examinations. This question focuses on identifying the area where gold mines in India have been traditionally located. Although production levels have changed over time, certain locations remain famous historically as centres of gold mining. Given Data / Assumptions: The question asks for the main location of gold mines among the given options. The options listed are Kolar, Raniganj, Jadugoda, Veeranam, and Neyveli. We assume the context of well known, historically important gold mining regions. We assume the candidate is aware that different regions are associated with different minerals. Concept / Approach: Kolar, specifically the Kolar Gold Fields in the state of Karnataka, is historically famous as a major gold mining region of India. For many years, Kolar Gold Fields were one of the deepest and oldest gold mines in the world. Other places in the options are primarily associated with other minerals or resources: Raniganj with coal, Jadugoda with uranium, Neyveli with lignite, and Veeranam with a water reservoir. Thus, the approach is to match each place with its most prominent resource and identify which one is linked with gold. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify the mineral or resource for which each place is known.Step 2: Recall that Kolar Gold Fields in Karnataka have been a traditional centre of gold mining and are widely discussed in economic geography.Step 3: Note that Raniganj in West Bengal is known mainly for its coalfields.Step 4: Recognise that Jadugoda in Jharkhand is famous for uranium mining and that Neyveli in Tamil Nadu is famous for lignite mining.Step 5: Conclude that, among the options, Kolar is the correct answer for gold mines. Verification / Alternative check: Standard geography textbooks and competitive exam guides refer to Kolar Gold Fields as the key historical centre of gold mining in India. Although some mining operations there have been suspended or reduced, the association of Kolar with gold is firmly established. In contrast, Raniganj, Jadugoda, Neyveli, and Veeranam are consistently categorised with other minerals or resources. This confirmation supports Kolar as the correct location. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Raniganj is a major coal mining area in the Damodar valley and not known for gold deposits. Jadugoda is a leading uranium mining centre under the Uranium Corporation of India. Neyveli is a prominent lignite mining and thermal power location. Veeranam is mainly known for a large water reservoir in Tamil Nadu and water supply projects, not for gold mining. Therefore, none of these other options matches the required condition of being a traditional gold mining centre. Common Pitfalls: Students may confuse different mining regions if they memorise only names without linking them to the correct minerals. Some might select Raniganj simply because they know it is a mining area, without remembering that it is coal based rather than gold based. To avoid such mistakes, candidates should create clear associations such as Kolar for gold, Raniganj for coal, Jadugoda for uranium, and Neyveli for lignite. Final Answer: Kolar is the area where gold mines in India are mainly located among the given options.

Question 16

In the context of Indian agriculture, what is the main nature of unemployment in the agricultural sector of India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Unemployment in developing economies like India takes different forms, especially in the agricultural sector. Understanding these forms is important for economics and general studies examinations. Agriculture in India is still largely dependent on monsoon rainfall, traditional practices, and small land holdings. As a result, two major types of unemployment commonly observed in agriculture are seasonal unemployment and disguised unemployment. This question asks the learner to identify the combined nature of unemployment in Indian agriculture. Given Data / Assumptions: The question deals specifically with the agricultural sector of India. The options mention seasonal unemployment, disguised unemployment, both together, and other forms such as open or cyclical unemployment. We assume a basic understanding of definitions of different unemployment types. The task is to choose which description best fits the real situation in Indian agriculture. Concept / Approach: Seasonal unemployment occurs when workers have jobs only during certain seasons, such as sowing or harvesting periods, and remain idle in off seasons. Disguised unemployment occurs when more people are engaged in a task than are actually required for the work, so that some workers contribute little or no marginal productivity. Indian agriculture is characterised by both issues: work is not available throughout the year for many labourers, and small farms often support more family members than needed for efficient production. Therefore, the correct conceptual description is that Indian agriculture faces both seasonal and disguised unemployment. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the definition of seasonal unemployment as a situation where employment is available only during certain periods of the year.Step 2: Recall the definition of disguised unemployment as a situation where the number of workers employed exceeds the number actually required, leading to very low or zero marginal productivity for some workers.Step 3: Examine the structure of Indian agriculture, which is dependent on monsoon seasons and is dominated by small and fragmented land holdings.Step 4: Recognise that farm workers often remain idle during non peak seasons, which shows seasonal unemployment, and that several family members may work on small plots where fewer workers would be sufficient, which shows disguised unemployment.Step 5: Conclude that both seasonal unemployment and disguised unemployment coexist in Indian agriculture. Verification / Alternative check: Textbooks on Indian economy and official reports frequently mention that agriculture in India suffers from both seasonal and disguised unemployment. Illustrative examples are often given where, if some workers left a small farm, total output would remain unchanged, which confirms disguised unemployment. Similarly, analysis of agricultural calendars shows that demand for labour peaks only during sowing and harvesting, causing seasonal unemployment in between. These consistent references confirm that the combined description is accurate. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Seasonal unemployment alone is an incomplete description because it ignores the problem of surplus labour on farms. Disguised unemployment alone also ignores the fact that employment is not evenly spread across the year. Open unemployment, where workers openly seek jobs and remain jobless, is more characteristic of urban sectors than of traditional agriculture. Cyclical unemployment is linked to business cycles in industrial economies and is less relevant for subsistence farming. Therefore, only the combined option correctly captures the nature of unemployment in Indian agriculture. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes choose only seasonal unemployment because they relate agriculture mainly to seasonal work, or only disguised unemployment because they have read about surplus labour on farms. The key is to remember that both features coexist simultaneously. Another mistake is confusing disguised unemployment with underemployment outside agriculture, but in exam context, the standard association is with rural farm labour. Final Answer: Both seasonal unemployment and disguised unemployment describe the nature of unemployment in Indian agriculture.

Question 17

The Government of India has renamed the NREGA scheme by associating it with the name of which national leader?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Rural employment schemes are central to India's social and economic policy. The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) is a major programme that provides guaranteed wage employment to rural households. At a later stage, the Government of India chose to rename and rebrand this scheme by associating it with the name of a prominent national leader. This question tests knowledge of that rebranded name and the leader with whom the scheme is linked. Given Data / Assumptions: The original name was NREGA, a rural employment guarantee scheme. The scheme was renamed by adding the name of a national leader. The options are Rajiv Gandhi, Indira Gandhi, Mahatma Gandhi, Jawaharlal Nehru, and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. We assume standard awareness of major flagged government schemes in India. Concept / Approach: The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act was rebranded as the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, abbreviated as MGNREGA. The addition of the name Mahatma Gandhi highlights the focus on rural empowerment, dignity of labour, and inclusive development, which resonate with his philosophy. By process of elimination and recall, the candidate should identify that NREGA is now commonly known as MGNREGA and that the leader associated with this updated name is Mahatma Gandhi. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the full expanded name of the scheme as used in official government documents and media.Step 2: Note that the scheme is widely referred to as Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, or MGNREGA.Step 3: Recognise that the name Mahatma Gandhi appears at the beginning of the expanded title.Step 4: Match this with the options given in the question.Step 5: Conclude that the correct leader associated with the renamed scheme is Mahatma Gandhi. Verification / Alternative check: Government websites, official notifications, and economic survey documents refer to the scheme consistently as MGNREGA. Media discussions on rural employment programmes also use the full name Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act. This confirms beyond doubt that the name of Mahatma Gandhi is officially linked with the scheme, and none of the other given leaders are part of its formal title. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Rajiv Gandhi, Indira Gandhi, Jawaharlal Nehru, and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel have many institutions, schemes, and awards named after them, but the rural employment guarantee act specifically uses the name of Mahatma Gandhi. There is no official version of the scheme called Rajiv Gandhi NREGA, Indira Gandhi NREGA, Nehru NREGA, or Patel NREGA. Therefore those options are not correct in this context. Common Pitfalls: Some learners remember only the abbreviation NREGA and may not recall that the scheme was renamed MGNREGA. Others may confuse this scheme with programmes that use the names of other leaders because many government initiatives carry names of prominent national figures. To avoid confusion, it is helpful to remember that the word rural, employment, and Mahatma Gandhi come together in the full form of MGNREGA. Final Answer: Mahatma Gandhi is the leader whose name has been associated with the renamed NREGA scheme, now called the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act.

Question 18

In decisions of the GST Council, the number of items kept in the 28 percent GST slab was reduced from 227 items to how many items?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Goods and Services Tax (GST) is India's comprehensive indirect tax system, which groups goods and services into different tax slabs. Early after GST implementation, there was criticism that too many common use items were placed in the highest 28 percent tax slab. In response, the GST Council gradually rationalised these rates. This question asks about a significant decision where the number of items in the 28 percent slab was cut from 227 items to a much lower figure. Knowing these numbers helps candidates understand how GST policy has evolved. Given Data / Assumptions: Originally, 227 items were placed in the 28 percent GST slab. The GST Council later reduced the number of items in this slab. Options include 125, 87, 100, 50, and 75 items as possible new totals. We assume this refers to the major rationalisation where the highest slab was significantly pruned. Concept / Approach: The key concept is that the GST Council aimed to reduce the burden of the highest tax slab by shifting many items to lower slabs. In a widely reported decision, the Council brought down the number of items in the 28 percent slab from 227 to only 50. Therefore, the approach is to recall the headline figure that the Council decided to keep 50 items in the 28 percent bracket while moving the rest into 18 percent or lower slabs. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Note that the original count of items in the 28 percent slab was 227.Step 2: Recall the major GST Council meeting where a large number of items were shifted from 28 percent to lower slabs.Step 3: Remember that after this decision only 50 items remained in the 28 percent bracket.Step 4: Compare this remembered figure with the options: 125, 87, 100, 50, and 75.Step 5: Select 50 items as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: One can verify this by referring to economic news summaries of GST Council meetings. A widely quoted outcome is that the number of items in the top 28 percent slab was reduced from 227 to 50. Many exam oriented current affairs compilations highlight this as a key reform step in making GST less burdensome for consumers. This independent confirmation supports the figure of 50 items. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Figures such as 125, 87, 100, or 75 items do not match the major policy milestone discussed in government and media reports. Although there were several rounds of rate rationalisation, the specific and well known reduction from 227 items to 50 items is what exam questions typically refer to. Therefore, the other numerical options are included only to test whether the candidate remembers the correct figure. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to guess a mid range number such as 87 or 100, thinking that the Council would reduce items but not very drastically. Another pitfall is to mix up this figure with other statistics related to the total number of GST slabs or items moved to different slabs. To avoid such confusion, learners should remember the simple and striking fact that only 50 items remained in the 28 percent slab after the major rationalisation. Final Answer: 50 items remained in the 28 percent GST slab after the GST Council reduced the original list of 227 items.

Question 19

In accounting, the single step income statement format places primary emphasis on which of the following aspects?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Financial statements can be presented in different formats depending on the level of detail required. The income statement is a key report that summarises the performance of a business over a period. Two common formats are the single step and the multiple step income statements. This question asks about the main emphasis of the single step income statement format, which is a fundamental concept in basic accounting and commerce courses. Given Data / Assumptions: The question refers specifically to the single step income statement. Options mention components of income from continuing operations, extraordinary items, total revenues and total expenses, gross profit, and the distinction between operating and non operating items. We assume standard textbook definitions of single step and multiple step formats. The aim is to identify which aspect is central to the single step presentation. Concept / Approach: In a single step income statement, all revenues are grouped together and all expenses are grouped together. The net income is then calculated in a single step as total revenues minus total expenses. This format does not emphasise intermediate subtotals such as gross profit or income from operations and does not give detailed classifications between operating and non operating items. The central idea is simplicity through aggregation, focusing on the overall totals rather than detailed breakdowns. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that in a single step income statement, revenues and gains are listed in one section, and expenses and losses are listed in another section.Step 2: Note that net income is obtained by subtracting total expenses from total revenues in a single calculation.Step 3: Observe that there is no explicit gross profit subtotal or separate presentation of operating and non operating sections like in a multiple step format.Step 4: Compare these characteristics with the options provided.Step 5: Conclude that the single step format emphasises total revenues and total expenses, which directly lead to net income. Verification / Alternative check: Standard accounting textbooks and reference materials define the single step income statement as one that summarises data into broad categories of total revenues and total expenses. Any reader who has seen an example of such a statement will notice that headings like sales, service revenue, and other income are grouped into a total revenues section, while cost of goods sold, salaries, rent, and other expenses are grouped into a total expenses section. The net result is presented as net income or net loss. This verifies that emphasis lies on totals rather than detailed components. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The various components of income from continuing operations are highlighted more clearly in multiple step statements, not in the single step format. Extraordinary items and accounting changes, where relevant, are disclosed but are not the primary emphasis of the single step design. The gross profit figure is a key subtotal in a multiple step income statement that shows sales minus cost of goods sold, and it is not separately highlighted in the single step approach. The distinction between operating and non operating items is also more characteristic of multiple step formats. Hence those alternatives do not correctly describe the main emphasis. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse multiple step and single step statements because both ultimately arrive at net income. They may incorrectly assume that gross profit must always be shown, or that operating income is always highlighted. To avoid such confusion, remember that the single step format focuses on simplicity, aggregating all revenues and all expenses into two totals, while the multiple step format provides more detailed interim subtotals such as gross profit and income from operations. Final Answer: Total revenues and total expenses are the primary focus and emphasis of the single step income statement format.

Question 20

As of the year 2017, which of the following is a valid fund manager for the National Pension System (NPS) in India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The National Pension System (NPS) is a government regulated retirement savings scheme in India that allows subscribers to invest through professional fund managers. Only entities approved by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) can act as pension fund managers under NPS. Competitive examinations often test which institutions are recognised NPS fund managers. This question focuses on identifying the correct fund manager from several similar sounding options. Given Data / Assumptions: The question refers to the situation around the year 2017. The scheme in question is the National Pension System, not an unrelated mutual fund or provident fund. The options are Axis Provident Fund, Yes Bank Pension Fund, ICICI Prudential Pension Fund, Punjab National Provident Fund, and Canara Retirement Savings Fund. We assume PFRDA rules that only specially registered companies can act as NPS pension fund managers. Concept / Approach: NPS fund managers in 2017 included companies such as ICICI Prudential Pension Fund Management Company, SBI Pension Funds, and UTI Retirement Solutions, among others. The official names clearly contain the words Pension Fund or Pension Funds, and they are registered with PFRDA. Many of the options in the question are distractors that mimic the style of mutual funds, provident funds, or bank products without being actual NPS pension fund managers. Recognising the exact name ICICI Prudential Pension Fund helps identify the correct option. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that ICICI Prudential has a dedicated entity called ICICI Prudential Pension Fund Management Company which acts as a fund manager under NPS.Step 2: Check the given options and locate the one that most closely matches this official name.Step 3: Note that the option ICICI Prudential Pension Fund closely represents the actual NPS fund manager.Step 4: Evaluate other options: Axis Provident Fund, Yes Bank Pension Fund, Punjab National Provident Fund, and Canara Retirement Savings Fund, which do not correspond to recognised NPS pension fund management companies in 2017.Step 5: Conclude that ICICI Prudential Pension Fund is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Verification can be done by referring to PFRDA lists of registered pension fund managers for NPS during that period. ICICI Prudential Pension Fund Management Company figures clearly among the approved entities. The other names in the options are not listed as NPS pension fund managers. This confirms that ICICI Prudential Pension Fund is the only correct choice among the alternatives provided. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Axis Provident Fund and Punjab National Provident Fund are not official names of NPS pension fund managers and appear to be misleading variations based on bank brands. Yes Bank Pension Fund sounds plausible, but there was no such NPS pension fund manager registered with that name in 2017. Canara Retirement Savings Fund is also not part of the core NPS pension fund manager list. Therefore, these options are distractors that test familiarity with actual official names. Common Pitfalls: Many aspirants rely on brand recognition and may assume that any large bank can act as an NPS fund manager with a similar sounding name. This can lead to incorrect guesses such as Yes Bank or Axis based options. To avoid such errors, candidates should memorise the exact names of registered NPS pension fund managers such as ICICI Prudential Pension Fund, SBI Pension Funds, UTI Retirement Solutions, and others published by PFRDA. Final Answer: ICICI Prudential Pension Fund is a valid National Pension System fund manager among the options listed.

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