Question 1

A factory manufactures a cell phone with a variable cost of Rs 15 per unit and sells it at a price of Rs 24 per unit. If the breakeven quantity for the factory is 2400 units, what is the total fixed cost of the factory?

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Introduction / Context: This problem applies basic cost volume profit analysis from managerial economics or business accounting. The breakeven point is the level of output at which total revenue equals total cost and profit is zero. Knowing the selling price, variable cost per unit, and breakeven quantity allows you to compute the fixed cost of production. This type of calculation is very useful for planning, pricing, and financial decision making in firms. Given Data / Assumptions: Selling price (P) = Rs 24 per unit. Variable cost per unit (VC) = Rs 15 per unit. Breakeven quantity (Q_BE) = 2400 units. Fixed cost (FC) is constant and does not vary with output. We assume all units produced at breakeven are sold and there are no inventories. Concept / Approach: At the breakeven point, total revenue equals total cost. Total revenue is price multiplied by quantity, and total cost is fixed cost plus variable cost per unit multiplied by quantity. The contribution per unit is defined as price minus variable cost. At breakeven, total contribution equals total fixed cost. Thus, the fixed cost can be found either by equating total revenue and total cost or by using the contribution method. The simplest formula here is fixed cost = contribution per unit * breakeven quantity. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Compute the contribution per unit, which is selling price minus variable cost: contribution per unit = 24 - 15 = Rs 9.Step 2: Recall the breakeven condition: at the breakeven point, total contribution equals fixed cost.Step 3: Compute total contribution at the breakeven output: total contribution = contribution per unit * Q_BE = 9 * 2400.Step 4: Multiply 9 by 2400 carefully: 9 * 24 = 216, then add two zeros to get 21600. So total contribution is Rs 21600.Step 5: Since total contribution at breakeven equals fixed cost, fixed cost = Rs 21600.Step 6: Match this value with the options and select Rs 21600. Verification / Alternative check: We can verify the answer by explicitly computing total revenue and total cost at the breakeven quantity. Total revenue (TR) at 2400 units is P * Q = 24 * 2400 = Rs 57600. Total variable cost (TVC) is VC * Q = 15 * 2400 = Rs 36000. If fixed cost is 21600, then total cost (TC) = TVC + FC = 36000 + 21600 = Rs 57600. Since TR equals TC at this quantity, profit is zero, which confirms that 2400 units is indeed the breakeven point with fixed cost of Rs 21600. This internal consistency check supports the calculation. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Rs. 36000: This equals total variable cost at the breakeven quantity, not the fixed cost, so it does not satisfy the breakeven condition. Rs. 57600: This is total revenue at 2400 units and would imply zero variable cost if taken as fixed cost, which is not consistent with the given variable cost. Rs. 14400: This value leads to total cost lower than total revenue at 2400 units, implying a profit, so it cannot be the fixed cost at breakeven. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse variable cost with fixed cost and mistakenly use variable cost in place of contribution per unit. Another common error is miscomputing the multiplication by breakeven quantity, especially when large numbers and zeros are involved. It is also common to mix up total revenue and fixed cost because both are large numbers. Carefully writing out the formula and verifying with a second method, as shown above, is a reliable way to avoid these mistakes in exams and practical applications. Final Answer: The fixed cost of the factory is Rs 21600.

Question 2

According to standard macroeconomic theory, an increase in the growth rate of the nominal money supply in an economy will generally lead to which of the following outcomes in the long run?

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Introduction / Context: This question examines your understanding of the relationship between money supply and inflation in macroeconomics. Many monetary theories, including the quantity theory of money, suggest that changes in the growth rate of the nominal money supply have important long run effects on the price level. Recognising the typical direction of this effect is vital for interpreting monetary policy and inflation outcomes in an economy. Given Data / Assumptions: The focus is on the growth rate of nominal money supply, not on a one time change. We are considering long run effects rather than short run fluctuations. The options include lower inflation, higher inflation, lower interest rates, and currency appreciation. We assume that real output and velocity are relatively stable in the long run, as in the quantity theory framework. Concept / Approach: According to the quantity theory of money and many modern macro models, in the long run, inflation is primarily a monetary phenomenon. If the central bank increases the growth rate of the nominal money supply persistently, and real output grows at a lower rate, the excess growth of money will eventually be reflected in higher growth of the price level, that is, a higher rate of inflation. Short run interest rates and exchange rates may respond in complex ways, but in the long run, the main predictable outcome of higher money growth is higher inflation, not permanently lower interest rates or automatic currency appreciation. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the basic quantity equation in growth rate form: growth of money supply plus growth of velocity equals inflation plus growth of real output.Step 2: In the long run, if velocity is roughly stable and real output growth is determined by real factors, an increase in money growth must lead mainly to an increase in inflation.Step 3: Therefore, a higher growth rate of nominal money supply is associated with a higher long run rate of inflation.Step 4: Lower inflation would require slower money growth, not faster, so option suggesting lower inflation is inconsistent.Step 5: While an expansion in money supply can reduce interest rates in the short run, in the long run, nominal interest rates tend to incorporate expected inflation, so they may even rise with higher inflation.Step 6: Currency appreciation is more likely with tight monetary policy; loose money growth often leads to depreciation rather than appreciation. Verification / Alternative check: Empirical studies across many countries show a strong long run correlation between money growth and inflation. Cross country comparisons over long periods indicate that economies with sustained high money supply growth usually experience sustained high inflation, while those with low money growth have low inflation. This evidence supports the theoretical argument that increasing the nominal money growth rate pushes up inflation in the long run. Although short run dynamics can be noisy, the long run pattern is robust and underpins many central bank strategies that target inflation by controlling money growth or interest rates. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Lower rate of inflation: This would result from tighter monetary policy or slower money growth, not from increasing the money growth rate. Lower interest rates: Monetary expansion may temporarily lower interest rates, but in the long run, higher inflation expectations can raise nominal interest rates, so this is not the main long run effect. Currency appreciation: Persistent high money growth is more likely to weaken the domestic currency relative to foreign currencies rather than strengthen it. Common Pitfalls: Some learners focus only on short run effects, recalling that an increase in money supply can lower interest rates and stimulate the economy, and hence they mistakenly choose lower interest rates or lower inflation. It is important to note the phrase in the long run in such questions. Over long horizons, real variables are determined by technology and resources, and nominal variables like inflation adjust to monetary policy. Keeping this distinction clear helps in choosing higher inflation as the correct long run outcome of faster money growth. Final Answer: An increase in the growth rate of the nominal money supply generally leads to a higher rate of inflation in the long run.

Question 3

In a perfectly competitive market, a profit maximising firm chooses its output level by following which of the following rules about price and marginal cost?

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Introduction / Context: This question tests a core principle of microeconomics: how a perfectly competitive firm decides the quantity of output that maximises its profit. In perfect competition, firms are price takers, which means they accept the market price and cannot influence it. Understanding the profit maximisation rule in terms of marginal cost and price is essential for analysing firm behaviour, deriving supply curves, and drawing cost and revenue diagrams. Given Data / Assumptions: The firm operates in a perfectly competitive market. The firm is a price taker and faces a horizontal demand curve at the market price. The question asks for the condition that determines the profit maximising output level. The options refer to different relationships between price, marginal cost, and average total cost. Concept / Approach: In perfect competition, the market sets a price that the firm cannot change. The firm chooses how much to produce. The profit maximising rule is to produce where marginal cost equals marginal revenue, provided that price covers at least average variable cost. For a competitive firm, marginal revenue equals price because each additional unit sold adds exactly the price to total revenue. Therefore, the condition for optimal output becomes price equals marginal cost. Average total cost is relevant for determining whether the firm earns profit, breaks even, or incurs loss, but it does not by itself determine the profit maximising quantity. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that a profit maximising firm produces where marginal revenue equals marginal cost.Step 2: In perfect competition, marginal revenue equals price because each unit sold contributes exactly the market price to revenue.Step 3: Substituting marginal revenue with price, the condition becomes price equals marginal cost.Step 4: The firm then chooses the quantity at which its marginal cost curve intersects the given price, as long as price is not below average variable cost.Step 5: Setting price equal to or greater than marginal cost is too vague; profit maximisation requires equality at the chosen output, not just inequality.Step 6: Setting output such that price equals average total cost leads to zero profit but does not necessarily maximise profit; it may be a special case.Step 7: Setting price above marginal cost is not possible in perfect competition because the firm cannot choose price; the market determines it. Verification / Alternative check: Graphically, for a perfectly competitive firm, the demand curve is horizontal at the market price. The marginal revenue curve coincides with that line. The marginal cost curve typically slopes upwards. The equilibrium output is determined at the intersection of the marginal cost curve and the horizontal price line. This intersection point satisfies price equals marginal cost. At this quantity, any expansion would add more to cost than to revenue, reducing profit, and any reduction would mean the firm is not taking advantage of profitable opportunities. This visual reasoning supports the algebraic result that the profit maximising output occurs where price equals marginal cost. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Setting price such that price is equal to or greater than its marginal costs: In perfect competition, the firm does not set price, and an inequality does not give a unique optimal output. Setting output such that price equals average total costs: This condition implies zero economic profit and is not the general rule for profit maximisation. Setting price so that it is greater than marginal cost: The firm again cannot choose price; and having price greater than marginal cost suggests that increasing output could still raise profit. Common Pitfalls: Some learners mix up average and marginal concepts and assume that setting price equal to average total cost is the profit maximising rule. Others forget that in perfect competition, the firm cannot choose price and only chooses quantity. A useful guideline is to always start with the general rule marginal revenue equals marginal cost for profit maximisation and then specialise it for perfect competition by setting marginal revenue equal to price. Final Answer: In perfect competition, a firm maximises profit by setting output such that price equals marginal cost.

Question 4

Match the characteristics with the corresponding market structures: (a) Differentiated products that are close substitutes for consumers, so their demand curves are relatively elastic; (b) Homogeneous product where all firms goods are perfect substi…

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Introduction / Context: This question checks your understanding of how different market structures are characterised by the nature of the products sold and the degree of substitutability between different firms goods. Correctly identifying whether a market has differentiated products or a homogeneous product is essential for distinguishing between monopolistic competition, pure competition, and monopoly. This knowledge is widely tested in examinations covering microeconomics and industrial organisation. Given Data / Assumptions: Characteristic (a): Differentiated products that are close substitutes, leading to relatively elastic but not perfectly elastic demand curves. Characteristic (b): Homogeneous product where all firms goods are perfect substitutes for consumers. The options propose different pairings of these characteristics with monopolistic competition, pure competition, and pure monopoly. We assume standard definitions of these market structures from microeconomic theory. Concept / Approach: In monopolistic competition, many firms sell similar but not identical products. Each firm differentiates its product through brand, quality, location, or other features, yet products remain close substitutes so that consumers can switch between brands. As a result, each firm faces a downward sloping but relatively elastic demand curve. In pure or perfect competition, all firms sell a homogeneous product that is indistinguishable in the eyes of consumers, leading to perfectly elastic demand facing each firm. Pure monopoly, on the other hand, involves a single seller of a unique product with no close substitutes, which does not match either given characteristic. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Match characteristic (a). Differentiated but close substitute products are a defining feature of monopolistic competition, not pure monopoly or pure competition.Step 2: Therefore, (a) should be paired with monopolistic competition.Step 3: Match characteristic (b). A homogeneous product that is a perfect substitute across firms is characteristic of pure or perfect competition.Step 4: In pure monopoly, the product has no close substitutes and certainly is not homogeneous across many firms, so this does not fit.Step 5: Comparing these matches with the options, only option (a) Monopolistic Competition, (b) Pure Competition aligns with both characteristics.Step 6: Therefore, the correct pairing is: (a) Monopolistic Competition, (b) Pure Competition. Verification / Alternative check: Standard textbooks describe monopolistic competition using examples such as branded soaps, restaurants, or clothing stores, where each seller offers a slightly different product but consumers still see them as alternatives. The market structure is characterised by freedom of entry and many sellers. In contrast, examples of pure competition include agricultural markets for wheat or rice, where individual farmers produce virtually identical products. These descriptions closely match the two characteristics in the question and confirm the identification made above. Why Other Options Are Wrong: (a) Monopolistic Competition, (b) Pure Monopoly: Pure monopoly does not involve homogeneous products supplied by many firms; it is a single firm situation. (a) Pure Monopoly, (b) Pure Competition: Swaps characteristic (a) incorrectly, because monopoly involves unique products with no close substitutes, not differentiated close substitutes among many firms. (a) Pure Monopoly, (b) Pure Competition (duplicate option): This again misassigns characteristic (a) to monopoly, which is incorrect for the reasons given. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse differentiated products with monopoly, thinking that any product differentiation means a monopolist. In reality, many firms can differentiate their products within the same industry, which leads to monopolistic competition. Another common mistake is to assume that homogeneous products always correspond to monopoly, when in fact homogeneity across many firms is the hallmark of perfect competition. Keeping these distinctions clear will help you accurately identify market structures in exam questions. Final Answer: (a) corresponds to monopolistic competition and (b) corresponds to pure competition.

Question 5

According to recent Indian Census data used in many exams, which Indian state is identified as having the lowest sex ratio (number of females per 1000 males) among the options given?

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Introduction / Context: The sex ratio, defined as the number of females per 1000 males, is an important demographic indicator that reflects gender balance in a population. In India, certain states have historically reported low sex ratios due to a combination of social, economic, and cultural factors. This question asks you to identify which state, among the given options, is recognised in many exam oriented summaries as having the lowest sex ratio according to recent census data. Given Data / Assumptions: The options are Haryana, Punjab, Uttar Pradesh, and Arunachal Pradesh. We refer to commonly cited census data in general studies materials, where Haryana and Punjab are known for particularly low sex ratios. We assume that the question is based on typical exam references where Haryana is highlighted as the state with the lowest sex ratio. The sex ratio is measured as females per 1000 males for the total population. Concept / Approach: Haryana and Punjab have both faced serious concerns regarding gender imbalance, especially in the child sex ratio, due to practices like gender selective discrimination. Over multiple census rounds, Haryana has often recorded the lowest or one of the lowest sex ratios in India. While Punjab also has a low sex ratio, it tends to be slightly higher than Haryana. Uttar Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh, though not ideal, generally have higher sex ratios compared to these two north western states. Thus, in standard multiple choice questions, Haryana is usually presented as the state with the lowest sex ratio among such options. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Focus on the two states most known for low sex ratios: Haryana and Punjab.Step 2: Recall that Haryana has frequently been highlighted in reports and exam materials as having the worst sex ratio figures.Step 3: Check Uttar Pradesh. It has its own issues with gender balance but its sex ratio is generally higher than that of Haryana and Punjab.Step 4: Consider Arunachal Pradesh. Being a north eastern state, it tends to have a more balanced or sometimes even favourable sex ratio compared to north western states.Step 5: Comparing these, Haryana consistently appears at the bottom in sex ratio rankings among Indian states.Step 6: Therefore, Haryana is correctly identified as the state with the lowest sex ratio among the options. Verification / Alternative check: General studies books and census based summaries often present a table listing states with the highest and lowest sex ratios. In these tables, Kerala or some north eastern states usually appear with high or balanced sex ratios, while Haryana appears among the lowest. Punjab is also low but typically not lower than Haryana. Uttar Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh do not occupy the absolute bottom of these lists. These repeated patterns in exam materials confirm that Haryana is intended as the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Punjab: Although Punjab has a low sex ratio, it is generally slightly higher than Haryana and is not usually identified as the single lowest. Uttar Pradesh: This state has a large population and faces many demographic challenges, but its sex ratio is not the lowest compared to Haryana. Arunachal Pradesh: This state typically reports a more balanced or even favourable sex ratio, so it is far from being the lowest. Common Pitfalls: Some learners confuse absolute numbers with ratios and assume that the most populous state must have the lowest sex ratio. Others remember that both Haryana and Punjab are problematic and guess randomly between them. A simple way to remember is that Haryana, being smaller and more rural in many parts, is repeatedly highlighted as having the worst gender imbalance in many census discussions and exam questions. Final Answer: Haryana is identified as the Indian state with the lowest sex ratio among the options given.

Question 6

In national income accounting, Net National Product (NNP) of a country is defined as which of the following aggregates?

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Introduction / Context: This question tests your understanding of key aggregates used in national income accounting, especially the difference between gross and net measures and between domestic and national concepts. Net National Product (NNP) is one of the central indicators used to measure the net value of goods and services produced by the residents of a country after accounting for depreciation. Knowing how to express NNP in terms of other aggregates is essential for exam questions on macroeconomic measurement. Given Data / Assumptions: We are dealing with four related aggregates: Gross Domestic Product (GDP), Gross National Product (GNP), net income from abroad, and depreciation allowances. The options present different combinations of these aggregates to define NNP. We assume standard definitions from national income accounting. Depreciation allowances represent the consumption of fixed capital during the production process. Concept / Approach: Gross National Product measures the total market value of final goods and services produced by the residents of a country during a given period, regardless of where the production occurs. It is related to GDP by the formula GNP = GDP plus net income from abroad. Net National Product is the net form of GNP and is obtained by subtracting depreciation from GNP. In other words, NNP excludes the value needed just to replace worn out capital and reflects the net addition to the capital stock. Thus, the correct definition of NNP is GNP minus depreciation allowances. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the relationship between GDP and GNP: GNP = GDP + net income from abroad.Step 2: Understand that gross measures include depreciation, while net measures exclude it.Step 3: Net National Product is therefore computed as NNP = GNP - depreciation.Step 4: Compare this with the options: option (d) explicitly states GNP minus depreciation allowances, which matches the definition.Step 5: Check that other options either mix domestic and national concepts incorrectly or mix gross and net concepts incorrectly.Step 6: Therefore, the correct expression for NNP from the given options is GNP minus depreciation allowances. Verification / Alternative check: If you start from GDP and want to reach NNP, you can follow the chain of adjustments. First, add net income from abroad to go from GDP to GNP. Second, subtract depreciation to go from GNP to NNP. Symbolically: NNP = GDP + net income from abroad - depreciation. This is consistent with writing NNP simply as GNP minus depreciation. When you check textbook definitions or example calculations, you will see the same expression used for Net National Product, confirming that option (d) is correct. Why Other Options Are Wrong: GDP minus depreciation allowances: This gives Net Domestic Product (NDP), not Net National Product, because it does not adjust for net income from abroad. GDP plus net income from abroad: This is the definition of Gross National Product (GNP), not NNP, because depreciation has not been subtracted. GNP minus net income from abroad: This simply returns to GDP and does not account for depreciation; it is therefore not NNP. Common Pitfalls: Students often confuse domestic with national aggregates and gross with net aggregates. A helpful approach is to separate the two adjustments: one from domestic to national (adding or subtracting net income from abroad) and one from gross to net (subtracting depreciation). By handling these adjustments step by step, you can quickly check whether a given combination correctly represents NNP or some other aggregate. Final Answer: Net National Product (NNP) is defined as Gross National Product (GNP) minus depreciation allowances.

Question 7

Should parents in India in future be forced by law to opt for only one child instead of two or more children as at present? Statement 1: Yes, this is the only way to check the very rapidly increasing population of India. Statement 2: No, this type o…

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Introduction / Context: This question is framed in the typical assertion type format often used in competitive exams to test analytical reasoning as well as basic knowledge of policy and global experience. It focuses on population control policy and asks whether a strict one child law should be imposed on parents in India. The two statements provide reasons for and against such a policy, and you must judge their correctness, not simply agree or disagree personally. The task is to evaluate the truth of each statement based on factual and logical grounds. Given Data / Assumptions: Statement 1 claims that forcing a one child policy is the only way to control India rapid population growth. Statement 2 claims that no other country in the world has adopted such pressure tactics. We consider well known examples of population policies and the variety of tools available to governments. We evaluate whether the strong words only way and not adopted by any other country are factually justified. Concept / Approach: When assessing such statements, it is important to separate extreme claims from more balanced ones. The phrase only way in Statement 1 is very strong and implies that other measures like education, voluntary family planning, incentives, and improved health services cannot control population, which is not correct. Statement 2 is also factually incorrect because at least one major country, China, famously adopted a one child policy for many years, which is widely documented. Therefore, both statements are flawed, and the correct response is that neither 1 nor 2 is true. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Evaluate Statement 1. Many countries have significantly reduced fertility rates through voluntary methods, education, women empowerment, and access to contraception without using a compulsory one child law.Step 2: This shows that a strict one child policy is not the only way to control population growth; it is one extreme option among many, and its necessity is not established.Step 3: Therefore, Statement 1 is not correct because of its exclusive and absolute claim.Step 4: Evaluate Statement 2. The statement says that such a pressure tactic is not adopted by any other country in the world.Step 5: In reality, China implemented a one child policy for several decades, a clear counterexample to this claim.Step 6: Since at least one country has used such a policy, Statement 2 is also factually incorrect.Step 7: As both statements are incorrect, the appropriate option is that neither 1 nor 2 is true. Verification / Alternative check: Looking at global demographic experiences, several countries, including India itself, have achieved substantial declines in fertility through non coercive approaches such as voluntary family planning, improved health care, and higher female literacy. These examples contradict the idea that compulsion is the only effective tool. At the same time, the widely discussed case of China one child policy directly contradicts the claim that no other country has adopted such tactics. When both statements conflict with real world evidence, it becomes clear that neither should be regarded as true. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Only 1 is true: This would require accepting the extreme claim that no other policy mix can control population growth, which is contradicted by many international experiences. Only 2 is true: This would require ignoring the well known example of a country that did implement a one child policy, which makes the statement factually wrong. Either 1 or 2 is true: This suggests that at least one statement must be correct, but in this case both are demonstrably false, so this option cannot be chosen. Common Pitfalls: Some test takers may agree emotionally with one of the statements and mark it as true without carefully examining the absolute terms like only way and any other country. Others may not recall specific international examples and assume that no nation has tried such policies. To answer assertion questions correctly, it is vital to focus on logical precision and factual knowledge rather than personal opinion or partial information. Final Answer: Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is true, so the correct option is that neither 1 nor 2 is true.

Question 8

The money that the Government of India spends on the development of infrastructure in the country can come from which of the following sources? I. Loans from institutions such as the World Bank or Asian Development Bank (ADB) II. Taxes collected fro…

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Introduction / Context: This question explores the possible sources of funds that the Government of India can use to finance infrastructure development. Infrastructure projects are typically capital intensive and require large sums of money over long periods. Understanding the range of financing options available to the government is crucial for exams on public finance, Indian economy, and banking. The question lists three potential sources and asks you to determine which of them can legitimately contribute to infrastructure spending. Given Data / Assumptions: Source I: Loans from international financial institutions such as the World Bank and the Asian Development Bank. Source II: Tax revenues collected from individuals and firms in the domestic economy. Source III: Loans from the Reserve Bank of India, which can include ways and means advances or other forms of borrowing by issuing government securities. We assume that the government can use both domestic and external sources of finance for capital expenditure. Concept / Approach: Government expenditure on infrastructure is typically part of capital expenditure in the budget. The government can finance this expenditure through current tax revenues, borrowing from domestic sources (including the central bank and commercial banks), and borrowing from external sources such as multilateral institutions and foreign governments. Loans from the World Bank and ADB are a recognised form of external assistance for infrastructure. Taxes collected from citizens constitute a major component of government revenue used to fund both current and capital spending. Borrowing from the RBI through the sale of government securities or temporary advances also provides funds when tax revenue is insufficient or the government wants to spread the cost of projects over time. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Evaluate Source I. Multilateral institutions such as the World Bank and ADB routinely extend loans for infrastructure projects in transport, energy, and water, so this is a valid source.Step 2: Evaluate Source II. Taxes collected from the public form the core of government revenue and are used to finance many types of expenditure, including infrastructure, so this is also valid.Step 3: Evaluate Source III. The government can borrow from the RBI by issuing government securities or through temporary advances; these borrowed funds can be allocated to infrastructure projects.Step 4: Since all three sources are credible and commonly used in practice, none can be excluded.Step 5: Therefore, the correct option is that all I, II and III are sources of funds for infrastructure spending. Verification / Alternative check: If you look at government budget documents, you will see sections on tax revenue, non tax revenue, market borrowings, and external assistance. Infrastructure outlays are often financed through dedicated schemes supported by external loans and through budgetary allocations funded by taxes and borrowing. In addition, the RBI acts as a banker to the government and facilitates borrowing operations. These facts show that all three listed sources play roles in financing infrastructure, confirming that the answer includes all of them. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Only I: This ignores the fundamental importance of tax revenue and domestic borrowing in infrastructure finance. Only II: This would suggest that the government cannot or does not borrow for infrastructure, which contradicts actual practice. Only III: This would exclude taxes and external loans, which are significant and widely used sources. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates think in very narrow terms and assume that infrastructure must be financed only from taxes or only through foreign loans. Others may believe that borrowing from the RBI is always inflationary and therefore never used, which is not accurate. The correct perspective is that governments typically use a mix of revenue and borrowing to fund large long term projects. Recognising this mix helps you select the inclusive option when all listed sources are in fact valid. Final Answer: The Government of India can finance infrastructure development from all three sources: multilateral loans, tax revenues, and borrowing from the RBI.

Question 9

Micro credit or micro finance is a relatively new approach to banking with the poor in which small amounts of bank credit are extended to low income households mainly through which institutional mechanism in India?

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Introduction / Context: This question focuses on the concept of micro credit or micro finance, which aims to provide small loans and financial services to poor households who are often excluded from formal banking. In India, a distinctive institutional model has evolved for delivering such credit in a sustainable and socially supportive way. Recognising which mechanism is most closely associated with micro finance helps you understand rural development and financial inclusion strategies in the country. Given Data / Assumptions: The term micro credit or micro finance refers to small loans and related services targeted at low income clients. The options include Self Help Groups, Anganwadi, Cooperative Credit Societies, and the Reserve Bank of India. We assume awareness of the Self Help Group bank linkage programme and other rural development initiatives. The question asks through which institutional approach bank credit is extended to the poor under this new model. Concept / Approach: In India, the most prominent model for delivering micro finance has been the Self Help Group bank linkage programme. In this model, small groups of poor, usually women, come together to form Self Help Groups, pool their savings, and then access bank credit as a group. The group guarantees loans for its members, reduces transaction costs, and builds credit discipline. Anganwadi centres are part of the Integrated Child Development Services and focus on health and nutrition, not formal credit delivery. Cooperative credit societies are older institutions that serve farmers and local communities but are distinct from the micro finance innovations highlighted in recent decades. The Reserve Bank of India is the central bank and regulator, not the direct provider of micro loans at the grassroots level. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that micro finance in India is popularly associated with group based lending to poor women in rural and semi urban areas.Step 2: The Self Help Group model involves groups that save regularly and then receive bank loans linked to the group corpus.Step 3: This model has been widely promoted by NABARD and commercial banks and is considered a key innovation in banking with the poor.Step 4: Anganwadi centres primarily deliver nutrition and pre school education services and are not the main channels for bank credit.Step 5: Cooperative credit societies provide credit, but they are not described as the novel micro credit approach referred to in the question.Step 6: The Reserve Bank of India regulates banks but does not directly implement group based micro lending at the village level.Step 7: Therefore, the correct answer is that micro credit is extended mainly through Self Help Groups. Verification / Alternative check: Development reports and exam oriented summaries on financial inclusion often highlight the Self Help Group bank linkage programme as the largest micro finance programme in the world. They explain how SHGs are formed, how they interact with banks, and how they empower women while expanding access to credit. These descriptions match the phrase novel approach to banking with the poor. Anganwadi and cooperative societies are referenced in different contexts, and the RBI is a regulator, confirming that SHGs are the intended answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Anganwadi: These centres focus on child and maternal nutrition and pre school education and are not designed to function as micro credit institutions. Co operative Credit Societies: These are important in rural finance but are part of a longstanding cooperative structure, not the newer micro finance model described here. Reserve Bank of India: The RBI formulates policy and regulates the banking system but does not directly implement group based micro lending schemes for the poor. Common Pitfalls: Some learners confuse any rural institution with micro finance and may incorrectly choose cooperative societies or Anganwadi. Others may know the RBI role in authorising micro finance institutions and think it is the direct channel. To avoid such confusion, remember that micro finance delivery at the village level in India is typically organised through Self Help Groups linked to formal banks, which is the hallmark of the Indian model. Final Answer: Under the micro credit approach in India, bank credit to the poor is mainly extended through Self Help Groups.

Question 10

According to commonly cited Indian Census data, which one of the following states records the highest sex ratio (number of females per 1000 males) among the options given?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The sex ratio is an important demographic indicator that shows the number of females per 1000 males in a population. In India, different states exhibit very different sex ratios due to social, cultural, and economic factors. Some states are known for particularly favourable or balanced sex ratios. This question asks which state among the given options is widely recognised in exam oriented materials as having the highest sex ratio. Given Data / Assumptions: The options are Kerala, Karnataka, Meghalaya, and Tamil Nadu. We refer to commonly cited census data in general studies texts, where Kerala is known for a very high sex ratio. The sex ratio discussed is for the total population, not just children. We assume that the question is based on well known census figures where Kerala is at or near the top among Indian states. Concept / Approach: Kerala is frequently highlighted for its high sex ratio and high female literacy rate. In many census rounds, it has recorded more females than males per 1000 population, which is unusual in the Indian context. While states like Meghalaya and Tamil Nadu also have comparatively better sex ratios than many north Indian states, they usually do not surpass Kerala in this indicator in standard census tables. Karnataka has a moderate sex ratio but is not at the very top. Therefore, among these options, Kerala is the state that records the highest sex ratio. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Kerala is often at the top of human development indicators in India, including literacy and sex ratio.Step 2: Compare Kerala with Karnataka. Karnataka has improved but generally does not surpass Kerala in sex ratio figures.Step 3: Compare Kerala with Meghalaya and Tamil Nadu. Both have better sex ratios than many other states, but Kerala typically appears with the highest value in census based rankings.Step 4: General studies books frequently present Kerala as the example of a state with more balanced female male ratios.Step 5: Therefore, Kerala is the correct answer among the options. Verification / Alternative check: When you look at tables of sex ratio by state in Indian census documents and exam preparation materials, Kerala often shows a sex ratio above 1000 females per 1000 males, a figure higher than most other states. Meghalaya and Tamil Nadu do have relatively good sex ratios but they usually rank below Kerala. Karnataka is somewhere in the middle. These repeated patterns across multiple sources confirm that Kerala is intended as the correct choice for highest sex ratio among the options listed. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Karnataka: While not among the worst, Karnataka sex ratio is generally lower than Kerala and does not top the national rankings. Meghalaya: This north eastern state may have a favourable sex ratio, and in some specific categories like child sex ratio it may perform well, but overall it is not consistently ranked above Kerala. Tamil Nadu: This state has improved its sex ratio but still typically does not match Kerala very high figure. Common Pitfalls: Some learners may focus on regional stereotypes or select a state based on recent news rather than on consistent census patterns. Others might confuse child sex ratio with overall sex ratio. Keeping a clear memory that Kerala is widely used as the textbook example of a state with a high sex ratio helps avoid such confusion and ensures quick and accurate answers in the exam. Final Answer: Kerala records the highest sex ratio among the states listed in the options.

Question 11

According to Indian Census data used in many examinations, which one among the following states has the highest density of population (people per square kilometre) among the options given?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Population density, defined as the number of people per square kilometre, is a key indicator in population geography. It reflects how crowded a region is and affects infrastructure, resource use, and planning. In India, some states have very high population densities, while others are much more sparsely populated. This question asks you to identify which state among the given options is recognised in many exam oriented summaries as having the highest population density. Given Data / Assumptions: The states listed are Bihar, Kerala, Punjab, and Uttar Pradesh. We refer to commonly cited census data where states like Bihar and West Bengal appear with very high densities. The density measure is people per square kilometre of area. We assume that the question uses standard census rankings in which Bihar is at or near the top in population density among large states. Concept / Approach: Bihar is one of the most densely populated states in India, with more than a thousand people per square kilometre in recent census rounds. Uttar Pradesh has a very large population but also a larger area, so its density, while high, is typically lower than that of Bihar. Kerala is densely populated compared to many states but does not reach Bihar extremely high figures. Punjab also has a relatively high density but again is usually ranked below Bihar. Therefore, among the options provided, Bihar is the state with the highest population density. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Bihar and West Bengal are often highlighted as states with extremely high population density in India.Step 2: Among the options given, West Bengal is not present, leaving Bihar as the likely candidate.Step 3: Compare Bihar with Uttar Pradesh. Both are populous, but Bihar has a smaller land area, leading to a higher density figure.Step 4: Compare Bihar with Kerala. Kerala is densely populated but, in census tables, its density is usually lower than that of Bihar.Step 5: Compare Bihar with Punjab. Punjab density is high due to intensive agriculture and urbanisation, but again, it typically does not exceed Bihar.Step 6: Therefore, Bihar is correctly identified as the state with the highest density among the options. Verification / Alternative check: Population tables in exam guides that summarise census findings usually provide a list of states by population density. Bihar often appears at or near the top with values above 1000 persons per square kilometre, while Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, and Punjab show lower figures. When mock questions ask for the most densely populated state among a similar set of options, Bihar is consistently the correct answer. This repeated pattern across multiple sources verifies the selection. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Kerala: Although it has a significant population density, it is generally lower than Bihar extremely high density values. Punjab: This state has a relatively high density but not the highest in the country or among the options listed. Uttar Pradesh: Despite being the most populous state in absolute numbers, its density is reduced by its large land area and does not match Bihar figure. Common Pitfalls: A frequent mistake is to assume that the state with the largest total population must also have the highest density, which ignores differences in area. Another error is to associate density primarily with southern or coastal states. Remembering that Bihar and West Bengal stand out for extremely high densities helps you quickly identify Bihar as the correct answer when West Bengal is not among the choices. Final Answer: Among the options given, Bihar has the highest population density.

Question 12

According to the 2001 Census of India, what percentage of the total population lives in urban areas?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: India is a large and diverse country where population is distributed between rural villages and rapidly growing towns and cities. Examinations often ask about key census facts, because these numbers are used for planning development schemes and measuring the level of urbanisation. This question focuses on the percentage of the total population that lived in urban areas according to the 2001 Census of India, so it tests memory of a specific factual statistic as well as basic understanding of what urban population share means. Given Data / Assumptions: The reference is the official Census of India 2001. Total population of India in 2001 is taken as 100 percent. Urban population share is defined as the proportion of people living in statutory towns and census towns. Options given are 20.28, 22.52, 25.72 and 27.80 percent. No other year such as 1991 or 2011 is considered for this question. Concept / Approach: To answer this question correctly, one needs to know the definition of urban population and the official percentage reported by the 2001 census. Urban population share is calculated as urban population divided by total population, multiplied by 100. Competitive exams in India frequently test these benchmark numbers, so candidates are expected to recall that the 2001 Census reported an urban share of about 27.8 percent. The task is therefore not to compute anything from raw data but to recognise the correct census figure among close looking distractors that are lower values from earlier periods or approximate values which seem plausible but are not accurate for 2001. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Census of India is conducted every ten years and gives official figures on population and urbanisation. Step 2: For the year 2001, the total population was a little over one billion and the share living in urban areas was slightly more than one quarter of this total. Step 3: The exact reported share of urban population in 2001 was about 27.8 percent. Step 4: Compare this remembered value with the options. Among the options, 27.80 is the only one that matches this rounded census figure. Step 5: Conclude that 27.80 percent is the correct percentage of urban population out of the total population in India according to the 2001 Census. Verification / Alternative check: A simple way to verify is to recall that in 1991 the urban share was close to 26 percent and in 2011 it moved closer to 31 percent. The figure for 2001 should lie between these two values and closer to the 1991 share. Among the options, 27.80 fits neatly between the approximate 26 and 31 percent marks and is known from standard census tables, whereas the other values are either too low or not commonly cited in reference books. This cross check with trends in urbanisation over time supports that 27.80 percent is the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 20.28: This value is far too low and would correspond to an era when India was much less urbanised, not the 2001 census period. 22.52: This number is also lower than the known 2001 figure and does not match any standard census benchmark widely quoted in textbooks. 25.72: This value looks closer but still underestimates the 2001 urban share and does not align with the official 27.8 percent statistic. Any empty or missing option: It cannot be correct because the question is based on a specific numerical census result which is provided explicitly as 27.80 among the options. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse data from different census years, mixing up figures from 1991, 2001 and 2011. Another mistake is to choose a value that feels safe in the middle of the list without actually recalling the exact figure, which can lead to selection of 25.72 instead of 27.80. Some candidates may also think urbanisation was below one quarter in 2001, which is not correct because cities had already expanded quite a lot by that time. It is important to revise standard census tables so that numbers like population, density and urban share for 2001 and 2011 are clear in memory. Final Answer: The percentage of urban population to total population in India according to the 2001 Census was 27.80 percent.

Question 13

Among the following major Indian rivers, which one has the greatest length within the country?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: India has many important rivers that support agriculture, drinking water, transport and religious life. General knowledge exams frequently ask about relative lengths and importance of these rivers. This question asks which river is the largest among four well known Indian rivers, where largest in this context refers to length within the country. Recognising that the Godavari is the longest river among the listed options is a standard geography fact that every aspirant should know. Given Data / Assumptions: We are comparing four rivers: Godavari, Kaveri, Yamuna and Krishna. Largest is interpreted as greatest length flowing within India, which is the usual meaning in Indian geography questions. No international rivers like the Ganga Brahmaputra combined system are included in the options. Typical approximate lengths: Godavari about 1465 km, Yamuna about 1376 km, Krishna about 1400 km, and Kaveri much shorter. We assume standard textbook values as used in Indian school and competitive exam syllabi. Concept / Approach: The task is a comparison of river lengths. One should remember the ranking of major peninsular and northern rivers by length. Among the given options, Godavari is known as the longest peninsular river of India, often called Dakshin Ganga or the Ganga of the South. While Yamuna is a very important northern river and a major tributary of the Ganga, its length is still less than that of the Godavari. Kaveri is much shorter and Krishna, though long, is again slightly shorter than Godavari. By recalling these standard facts, one can quickly select the correct option. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the approximate lengths of the four rivers from school geography or standard reference books. Step 2: Note that Godavari flows across several states in central and southern India and is widely described as the longest river in peninsular India. Step 3: Remember that Krishna and Yamuna are also long rivers but their total lengths within India are generally reported as slightly less than that of Godavari. Step 4: Kaveri is recognised as a shorter east flowing river compared to the others and therefore cannot be the largest among the four. Step 5: Conclude that Godavari is the correct answer because it has the greatest length among the options listed. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, one can cross check with typical exam oriented summaries which usually state the ranking of Indian rivers by length. They consistently identify the Ganga as the longest river of India and Godavari as the longest peninsular river. Since Ganga is not an option in this question, the focus shifts to these four rivers, and Godavari remains the longest among them. This cross reference with standard summaries confirms that selecting Godavari is accurate and aligns with commonly accepted data. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Kaveri: This river is significant for southern India but its total length is much shorter than Godavari, Krishna and Yamuna, so it cannot be the largest among the four. Yamuna: Although it is a long and important tributary of the Ganga, its length is still less than that of the Godavari and hence it is not the largest in this list. Krishna: Krishna is also a long peninsular river, but Godavari surpasses it in length, so Krishna is not the correct choice. Any empty option: No fifth river is considered in this comparison, so any blank option is irrelevant to the question. Common Pitfalls: A common error is to confuse importance with length and assume that Yamuna must be the largest because it flows through the national capital region and is frequently mentioned in news and textbooks. Another mistake is to overlook the phrase among the following and think of other rivers like the Ganga. Students should carefully read the options and remember that Godavari is especially emphasised as the longest river of peninsular India. Avoiding these confusions will help in answering similar geography questions correctly. Final Answer: Among the given Indian rivers, the one with the greatest length is Godavari.

Question 14

What was the main environmental objective of the Chipko Movement started by Sunderlal Bahuguna in 1973?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Chipko Movement is one of the most famous environmental movements in India and is often discussed in school textbooks and competitive exams. Led by environmental activists such as Sunderlal Bahuguna in the Himalayan region, villagers literally hugged trees to prevent them from being cut down. This question asks about the central theme of that movement, so it tests awareness of basic environmental history and the specific focus of Chipko. Given Data / Assumptions: The movement referred to is the Chipko Movement that began in the early 1970s. The movement is associated with Sunderlal Bahuguna and villagers of Uttarakhand region. Options include conservation of river water, conservation of forests, protection of birds and protection of cheetals. The question asks for the central theme or main objective, not side benefits or related issues. We assume standard textbook understanding of the movement. Concept / Approach: Chipko is a Hindi word meaning to cling. Villagers clung to trees and refused to move when contractors tried to fell them. The core idea was to protect forests from indiscriminate commercial logging that threatened local ecology, water sources and livelihood. While conserving rivers and wildlife are also important environmental goals, in this case the movement is specifically remembered as a forest conservation initiative. Therefore the correct approach is to identify which option best summarises this main focus. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that in the Chipko Movement villagers, especially women, hugged trees to prevent logging. Step 2: Understand that their protest was directed against large scale cutting of trees by contractors in the Himalayan forests. Step 3: Recognise that by protecting trees they were defending the forest ecosystem that supported soil conservation, water regulation and local livelihood. Step 4: Look at the options and identify the one that directly mentions protection of forests rather than any single animal species or river. Step 5: Conclude that conservation of forests is the central theme and select that option. Verification / Alternative check: Many exam guides summarise the Chipko Movement with a short phrase such as movement for forest conservation or people hugging trees to save forests. When reading about famous Indian environmental movements, Chipko is always presented as a classic example of community based forest protection. It is not introduced as a campaign for water conservation alone or for a specific species of bird or animal. This widely accepted description confirms that conservation of forests is the correct and most comprehensive choice among the alternatives given. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Conservation of river water: While protecting forests does help maintain river systems and water sources, the movement was not mainly framed as a river conservation campaign. Protection of birds: Forests do provide habitat for many birds, but the Chipko activists did not restrict their message to saving birds only, so this description is too narrow. Protection of cheetals: Cheetals are deer found in Indian forests, yet the movement did not focus on a single animal species and was more broadly about saving trees and forests. Any empty option: Blank options provide no meaningful environmental objective and can be ignored. Common Pitfalls: Some students may confuse Chipko with other conservation programmes that focus on wildlife sanctuaries or specific animals and therefore may be tempted by options mentioning birds or cheetals. Another confusion arises when candidates think that because forests affect rivers, the main goal must have been direct conservation of river water. It is important to remember that the hallmark image of Chipko is people hugging trees to stop them from being cut, so the core is forest conservation. Keeping this key image in mind helps avoid misinterpretation of the movement. Final Answer: The central environmental objective of the Chipko Movement was conservation of forests.

Question 15

According to the National Forest Policy of India, what fraction of the country's geographical area should ideally be maintained under forest and tree cover?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The National Forest Policy of India provides guidelines and targets for forest conservation and management. Competitive exams often test the policy target for the proportion of land that should be under forest and tree cover, because it reflects how a country balances development needs with environmental protection. This question checks whether the learner knows the recommended fraction of India's total geographical area that should ideally be covered by forests and trees. Given Data / Assumptions: The reference is the National Forest Policy of India. The policy specifies a target percentage of geographical area to be under forest and tree cover. Options given are half, one-third, one-fourth and one-fifth of the total geographical area. The question asks for the ideal target, not the actual current forest cover. No regional exceptions for hills or plains are mentioned in the question stem. Concept / Approach: The National Forest Policy clearly states that for a balanced environment, about one-third or 33 percent of the total geographical area of a country like India should be under forest and tree cover. Some detailed versions also mention a higher target for hill and mountainous regions, but the general national level goal remains one-third. Therefore, to answer this question, the candidate simply needs to recall this key figure and match it with the most appropriate description among the given options. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall from environmental studies that the National Forest Policy sets a target for forest cover. Step 2: Remember that this target is approximately 33 percent of the total geographical area of the country. Step 3: Translate 33 percent into fractional form, which is roughly equal to one-third. Step 4: Examine the options half, one-third, one-fourth and one-fifth and find the one which matches this remembered target. Step 5: Select one-third as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Textbooks in geography and environment commonly summarise this policy statement as the goal of bringing one-third of the area under forest cover for ecological balance. If one remembers that 50 percent would be unrealistically high for a densely populated developing country and that 20 to 25 percent is closer to current actual levels rather than the target, it becomes clear that the policy must aim higher than the current status but not as high as half. This reasoning again leads to one-third as the standard policy benchmark, confirming the answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Half: Fifty percent forest cover is not the official policy target for India and would be very difficult to achieve given the high population density and land needed for agriculture and settlements. One-fourth: A quarter of the geographical area is closer to actual forest cover in some periods, but the policy aims above this level, so this option underestimates the target. One-fifth: This would correspond to only 20 percent forest cover, which is clearly lower than both actual and target levels and does not reflect the policy goal. Any blank option: It does not represent a defined fraction and therefore cannot be correct. Common Pitfalls: Some students mix up the actual forest cover percentage with the policy target and may choose one-fourth because it sounds realistic. Others might mistakenly think that environmental policies always demand very high values and may be tempted by half. It is important to remember that the National Forest Policy represents a practical yet ecologically meaningful goal, which has been consistently quoted as one-third of the geographical area. Regular revision of such key environmental statistics helps avoid these confusions. Final Answer: The National Forest Policy aims to keep one-third of the geographical area of India under forest and tree cover.

Question 16

According to the Census of India 2001, what was the total population of the country?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Population figures from national censuses are fundamental data points for economics, planning and general studies. The Census of India 2001 was especially important because it was the first census after the economic reforms of the 1990s and recorded India crossing the one billion mark. This question checks whether the candidate knows the approximate total population reported in that census by asking them to identify the correct numerical value among similar looking options. Given Data / Assumptions: The reference year is Census of India 2001. The total population is expressed using the Indian system of commas. Options include three different large numbers and one generic option stating none of these. The correct approximate figure is slightly above one billion people. We assume awareness that the figure is specific to 2001 and not to 1991 or 2011. Concept / Approach: The key idea is that by 2001 India had slightly more than 100 crore people. In international notation this is written as about 1.028 billion, while in the Indian comma style it appears as 1,02,87,37,436. The other numerical options are intentionally close to confuse candidates who do not recall the exact arrangement of digits. To select the correct answer, one should remember the standard figure quoted in most textbooks and government documents for the 2001 census. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Census of India 2001 recorded a total population of about 102.87 crore. Step 2: Recognise that in the Indian comma format, 102.87 crore is written as 1,02,87,37,436. Step 3: Compare this structure of digits with the options given in the question. Step 4: Observe that option b exactly matches this known population figure from the census. Step 5: Select option b as the correct answer, rejecting other values and the none of these option. Verification / Alternative check: As an alternative check, one can convert the Indian number 1,02,87,37,436 into crores and lakhs. The first three digits from the left are 102, representing 102 crore, followed by the lakhs and thousands places. This matches the often quoted statement that the 2001 census recorded India's population as roughly 102.9 crore people. Any number significantly lower than 100 crore or higher than 110 crore would not be consistent with this known fact, which further confirms that option b is the correct one. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 1,02,71,01,012: This number is very close but not equal to the officially reported census figure, and small differences matter in factual questions. 10,12,52,751: This is much smaller than the known population and would correspond to only a little over 10 crore people, which is incorrect for 2001. None of these: This is wrong because one of the listed values, namely 1,02,87,37,436, does exactly match the official census statistic. Any blank option: Blank options do not describe any population figure and cannot be correct. Common Pitfalls: Candidates often get confused by the placement of commas and digits in large numbers, especially when reading in the Indian style. Because options are deliberately chosen to differ by only a small amount, casual guessing may lead to wrong answers. Some students also misremember the year associated with crossing one billion population and may pick an option that seems round or simple. To avoid such mistakes, it is advisable to memorise the approximate total population for at least the 1991, 2001 and 2011 censuses and to practise reading large numbers carefully. Final Answer: According to the Census of India 2001, the total population of the country was 1,02,87,37,436.

Question 17

According to the Census of India 2001, what was the population density of India in persons per square kilometre?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Population density is a basic demographic indicator that shows how many people live per unit area of land. In India, the census calculates this as the number of persons per square kilometre. For exam preparation, it is important to know the density reported in different census years, especially 2001 and 2011. This question asks specifically for the population density of India according to the 2001 Census. Given Data / Assumptions: The reference year is the Census of India 2001. Population density is expressed as persons per square kilometre. Options offered are 304, 324, 344 and 364 persons per square kilometre. The known official figure for 2001 is 324 persons per square kilometre. We ignore later census revisions or projections and focus only on the 2001 result. Concept / Approach: Population density is calculated by dividing the total population by the total land area. The census department has already done this calculation and published the figure. For 2001, this value is widely quoted in textbooks and exam material as 324 persons per square kilometre. Therefore, the task here is to recall this specific number and distinguish it from close looking distractor values such as 304 or 344 which may correspond to earlier or hypothetical figures. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that India's population in 2001 was about 1.028 billion people. Step 2: Remember from demographic summaries that this translated to a population density of 324 persons per square kilometre. Step 3: Look at the four options and identify which one matches this known figure. Step 4: Observe that option b, which states 324, is exactly the density quoted for the 2001 census. Step 5: Select 324 as the correct answer and reject the other numerical values. Verification / Alternative check: An alternative verification uses trend awareness. In 1991 the density was lower and in 2011 it increased further to 382 persons per square kilometre. Therefore the 2001 value must lie between these two, closer to the 2011 value but not as high. Among the provided options, 324 is the only number that fits this known pattern of steady but moderate growth. The numbers 304 and 344 either fall too low or too high, and 364 is even closer to the 2011 value than to 1991, which makes it unlikely for 2001. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 304: This might tempt students who know that density has been increasing but not by how much. However, 304 is lower than the actual 2001 density and does not match official data. 344: This value is higher than the documented 2001 density and may correspond to a later projection rather than the census figure. 364: This number is too high for 2001 and would suit a later period closer to the 2011 figure, so it is inconsistent with the question year. Any blank option: It cannot represent a numerical density and is irrelevant. Common Pitfalls: The most common mistake is mixing up density figures from different census years because all of them are in the range of 300 to 400 persons per square kilometre. Candidates sometimes rely on vague memory and pick the closest looking number rather than revising the exact figures. To avoid this, it is helpful to remember at least three anchor values: 267 for 1981, 324 for 2001 and 382 for 2011. Connecting these numbers with the general story of increasing crowding in India makes them easier to recall correctly in exams. Final Answer: According to the Census of India 2001, the population density of the country was 324 persons per square kilometre.

Question 18

According to the Census of India 2001, which Indian state recorded the highest decadal population growth rate during 1991 to 2001?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Decadal growth rate of population measures the percentage increase in population over a ten year period, which in India usually corresponds to the gap between two censuses. For the decade 1991 to 2001, some states experienced much faster population growth than others. This question asks which state recorded the highest decadal growth rate during that period according to the 2001 census, so it tests detailed knowledge of demographic patterns across Indian states. Given Data / Assumptions: The decade considered is from 1991 to 2001. The source of data is the Census of India 2001. The states in the options are Manipur, Meghalaya, Nagaland and Sikkim. We need to identify which of these states had the highest percentage growth in population over that decade. We rely on standard demographic tables used in exam preparation which report these figures. Concept / Approach: Decadal growth rate is calculated as population in the later census minus population in the earlier census, divided by the earlier population and multiplied by 100. However, for this exam question we do not need to compute the rate by hand; the census has already done that. The important fact is that Nagaland recorded a very high decadal growth rate in the 1991 to 2001 period, significantly higher than the other states listed. Therefore, the approach is to recall that Nagaland topped the list of states in terms of decadal population growth during that decade. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall from census based tables that Nagaland showed exceptionally high population growth between 1991 and 2001. Step 2: Compare this memory with the other states in the options, which had lower growth rates during the same decade. Step 3: Recognise that Manipur, Meghalaya and Sikkim did experience growth but did not surpass Nagaland in percentage terms. Step 4: Use this knowledge to narrow down the answer to Nagaland. Step 5: Mark Nagaland as the correct option. Verification / Alternative check: A cross check can be performed using typical exam preparation tables that list states by decadal growth rate. These tables usually highlight Nagaland as having one of the highest or the highest growth rates for 1991 to 2001. In contrast, states like Sikkim and Manipur, although growing, are not at the top of these lists. Even without the exact percentage figure, simply remembering that Nagaland stood out for its high reported growth confirms that Nagaland is the appropriate answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Manipur: This state did record population growth but not at the maximum level among all Indian states in that decade. Meghalaya: Meghalaya also grew but is not cited as the top state in terms of decadal growth rate for 1991 to 2001. Sikkim: With its small population base, Sikkim shows interesting demographic changes but did not outpace Nagaland in percentage growth for that period. Any blank option: Not relevant, because the census data clearly identifies specific states and Nagaland is among the given choices. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse the highest decadal growth states from different census decades, mixing up data from 1971 to 1981, 1981 to 1991 and 1991 to 2001. Others may assume that states with generally higher fertility rates in the plains must always top this list, overlooking smaller northeastern states like Nagaland that occasionally show very high recorded growth. To avoid such confusion, it is helpful to remember a few standout facts, such as Nagaland's very high decadal growth between 1991 and 2001, especially when preparing for geography and population questions. Final Answer: According to the Census of India 2001, the state with the highest decadal population growth rate during 1991 to 2001 was Nagaland.

Question 19

In which Indian state is the sex ratio (number of females per 1000 males) more than 1000 according to census data?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Sex ratio is an important demographic indicator that shows the number of females per 1000 males in a population. In many parts of India, the sex ratio has historically been below 1000, indicating fewer females than males. However, a few states have managed to achieve a sex ratio above 1000, meaning there are more females than males. This question tests whether the learner knows which state among the options has a sex ratio greater than 1000 according to census data. Given Data / Assumptions: Sex ratio is defined as number of females per 1000 males. Options listed are four large southern states: Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu. The question asks which state has a sex ratio of more than 1000. We use standard census data known from widely cited tables. The question refers to the general pattern where Kerala stands out with a higher sex ratio. Concept / Approach: Kerala is well known for its high human development indicators, which include high literacy, better healthcare and a favourable sex ratio. For multiple census years, Kerala has recorded a sex ratio above 1000, meaning there are more women than men in its population. In contrast, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu have sex ratios below 1000 or closer to 1000 but still not above it for the relevant census periods often discussed in exams. Therefore, the approach is to recall this widely known fact and match it with the correct option. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that sex ratio greater than 1000 means more females than males in a given population. Step 2: Remember that Kerala has long been cited as a state with a sex ratio above 1000 in many census reports. Step 3: Compare this with Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, which historically have sex ratios below 1000 or around it. Step 4: Conclude that Kerala is the only state among the options whose sex ratio clearly exceeds 1000. Step 5: Choose Kerala as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, one can refer to widely quoted census figures where Kerala often shows sex ratios around 1050 or slightly higher females per 1000 males, while Tamil Nadu is closer to 996 or similar values in many census years, and Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka typically remain below 1000. Kerala is frequently highlighted in textbooks and articles as a model state for social indicators, including sex ratio. This repeated emphasis in multiple sources supports the conclusion that Kerala is the only correct choice here. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Andhra Pradesh: This state has improved its sex ratio over time but has generally not crossed the 1000 mark in the census years most often referenced. Karnataka: The sex ratio in Karnataka remains below 1000, so it cannot be the correct answer to a question asking for a value above 1000. Tamil Nadu: Tamil Nadu has a relatively better sex ratio compared to some other states, yet it still usually falls slightly short of 1000. Any blank option: Not applicable because the question clearly expects a specific state name and Kerala fits that requirement. Common Pitfalls: Learners sometimes assume that all southern states have sex ratios above 1000 because of their relatively better social development indicators. This leads to confusion between Kerala and Tamil Nadu in particular. Another pitfall is to forget that crossing 1000 is a specific threshold and that even a value like 995, although high compared to some states, is still not above 1000. Regular revision of key demographic facts, especially about Kerala's exceptional position, helps avoid such mistakes. Final Answer: The Indian state whose sex ratio is more than 1000 females per 1000 males is Kerala.

Question 20

Which of the following is recognised as the fastest running train on Indian Railways among these options?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Indian Railways operates many categories of trains including passenger, express, superfast, Shatabdi and Rajdhani services. Questions in general awareness often ask which train is the fastest, based on average running speed between important cities. This question provides four specific trains and asks the candidate to identify which one is recognised as the fastest among them, focusing on well known premium services connecting major destinations. Given Data / Assumptions: Four trains are given as options: Mumbai Goa Superfast Express, New Delhi Lucknow Shatabdi Express, New Delhi Chandigarh Shatabdi Express and New Delhi Mumbai Rajdhani Express. Fastest refers to higher average speed over the scheduled route, not just maximum speed at any one point. All these trains are important services but only one has the highest average speed ranking among them. We refer to standard general knowledge sources used for competitive examinations. The question is not about the absolute fastest train today but about recognition among these traditional options. Concept / Approach: Rajdhani Express trains are premium long distance trains connecting the national capital with state capitals or major cities and are designed for high average speeds with limited stops. Among the trains listed, the New Delhi Mumbai Rajdhani Express has long been recognised as one of the fastest trains on Indian Railways in terms of average speed. While Shatabdi trains are also fast, they usually cover shorter distances. Therefore the sensible approach is to recall that Rajdhani Express services typically rank above ordinary superfast and many Shatabdi trains in speed lists. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify the category of each train. Mumbai Goa is a superfast express, two are Shatabdi Express trains, and one is a Rajdhani Express train. Step 2: Recall that Rajdhani Express trains are high priority, fully air conditioned and have high average speeds over long distances. Step 3: Remember that New Delhi Mumbai Rajdhani Express is especially known for its speed and premium status. Step 4: Compare this with the Shatabdi trains listed, which are fast but not generally ranked above the long distance Rajdhani in combined considerations of speed and category. Step 5: Conclude that New Delhi Mumbai Rajdhani Express is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: General knowledge books and question banks often mention New Delhi Mumbai Rajdhani Express and New Delhi Bhopal Shatabdi Express as among the fastest trains in India. When a question presents a list including only one Rajdhani Express and various other services, it is usually pointing toward the Rajdhani option. Furthermore, the Mumbai Goa Superfast Express is not normally cited in lists of the top few fastest trains. This pattern in exam material confirms that the New Delhi Mumbai Rajdhani Express is intended as the right choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Mumbai Goa Superfast Express: Although labelled superfast, it does not have the same high average speed ranking as Rajdhani Express services and is not normally quoted as the fastest train. New Delhi Lucknow Shatabdi Express: This is a fast day time intercity train but its average speed is lower than that of New Delhi Mumbai Rajdhani Express. New Delhi Chandigarh Shatabdi Express: Also a fast Shatabdi service, but again not generally ranked above the Rajdhani Express in speed based lists. Any blank option: No such option is relevant to the comparison. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may assume that all Shatabdi trains are faster than Rajdhani trains because Shatabdi services are marketed as high speed day trains. Others may simply guess based on familiarity with a particular route like Mumbai Goa. Another confusion is mixing this question with more recent developments such as semi high speed trains, which are not part of the options. To avoid these errors, aspirants should remember that among traditional long distance trains, Rajdhani Express services, including the New Delhi Mumbai Rajdhani Express, have long been recognised as some of the fastest in Indian Railways. Final Answer: Among the given options, the fastest running train on Indian Railways is the New Delhi Mumbai Rajdhani Express.

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