Question 1

What is the approximate percentage share of the population of India in the total population of the world?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: India is widely known as one of the most populous countries in the world. Understanding its share in the global population provides context for discussions on resources, development, and international comparisons. Exam questions often ask for an approximate percentage of the world population represented by India. This question focuses on that approximate share, using simple rounded figures. Given Data / Assumptions: We are asked for the approximate percentage of the world population made up by residents of India. The options given are 6 percent, 26 percent, 16 percent, and 36 percent. We assume a typical exam context where India is considered to have around one sixth of the world population. Exact current values may shift slightly, but the common rounded figure remains a useful approximation. Concept / Approach: For many years, India has been described as having about one sixth of the world population. One sixth expressed as a percentage is approximately 16.7 percent. In exam questions, this is often rounded to 16 percent. The other options are either far too low or far too high when compared with standard demographic data. Thus, 16 percent is the closest and most widely accepted approximation to India's share of world population in many general knowledge questions. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the common statement that India has roughly one sixth of the world population.Step 2: Convert one sixth into a percentage by computing 100 / 6, which is about 16.7 percent.Step 3: Look at the options: 6 percent is far too low, while 26 and 36 percent are extremely high and unrealistic.Step 4: The value 16 percent is closest to the approximate figure of about 16.7 percent.Step 5: Therefore, 16 percent is the correct approximate share. Verification / Alternative check: Demographic summaries often compare India and China as the two most populous countries, each with around 15 to 20 percent of the world total in the past. Textbooks and exam guides typically quote India's share as about 16 percent. None of the other options match commonly cited figures. This repeated use of 16 percent as the approximate ratio confirms that it is the correct choice here. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 6 percent: This severely underestimates India's share in world population and does not match standard demographic descriptions. 26 percent: This would imply that over a quarter of the world population lives in India, which is much higher than accepted estimates. 36 percent: This would mean more than a third of the world population is in India, which is clearly unrealistic. Common Pitfalls: Some learners may be misled by the large absolute population of India and pick very high percentages such as 26 or 36 percent. Others may underestimate and choose very low values. A reliable memory technique is to remember that India accounts for roughly one out of every six people on the planet, which directly points to a figure around 16 to 17 percent. Final Answer: The approximate percentage share of India in world population is about 16 percent.

Question 2

According to the 2001 Census, the decadal growth rate of the population of India during 1991–2001 was closest to which of the following values?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Decadal growth rate of population is an important demographic indicator that shows how much the population has increased over a ten year period. The Census of India publishes this rate for each decade. Questions about the growth rate during specific decades are common in competitive exams. This question focuses on the decadal growth rate for the period 1991 to 2001. Given Data / Assumptions: The decade under consideration is 1991 to 2001. The options for decadal growth rate are 13 percent, 17 percent, 21 percent, and 25 percent. We are looking for an approximate value that matches Census 2001 data. We assume that minor rounding is acceptable in the answer. Concept / Approach: The decadal growth rate is calculated as the percentage increase in population over a ten year period. According to Census 2001, the population of India increased by a little more than 21 percent between 1991 and 2001. The exact value is slightly above 21 percent, but exam questions usually round this to 21 percent. Among the options presented, 21 percent is the closest match to the official decadal growth rate. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall from demographic data that the population of India in 1991 and 2001 and the official decadal growth rate were published together.Step 2: The decadal growth rate for 1991 to 2001 is slightly above 21 percent.Step 3: Compare this with the given options: 13, 17, 21, and 25 percent.Step 4: Values like 13 and 17 percent are too low compared with the known rate, while 25 percent is somewhat too high.Step 5: The option that closely matches is 21 percent, which is widely used in exam oriented summaries.Step 6: Therefore, 21 percent is the correct approximate decadal growth rate for 1991 to 2001. Verification / Alternative check: Standard tables in exam guides on Indian demography show decadal growth rates for each census decade. For the decade 1991 to 2001, the value listed is about 21 percent. These tables highlight a modest reduction from earlier decades while still indicating substantial growth. No reference material supports 13, 17, or 25 percent as the official decadal growth rate for this period, which reinforces the correctness of 21 percent. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 13 percent: This is far below the recorded decadal increase and does not match census data. 17 percent: This underestimates the actual growth, which remained above 20 percent during this decade. 25 percent: This overestimates the growth; it is higher than the official value for 1991 to 2001. Common Pitfalls: Some students may confuse decadal growth rates from different census decades, since the rate has been gradually declining over time. Others might misremember the figures due to mixing up state level and national level data. A helpful strategy is to remember that India saw decadal growth slightly above 20 percent around 1991 to 2001, which fits naturally with the 21 percent option. Final Answer: The decadal growth rate of India's population during 1991 to 2001 was close to 21 percent.

Question 3

Which one of the following states or Union Territories of India has more than 50 percent tribal population in its total population?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Scheduled Tribes form an important part of India's social structure, and their distribution varies widely across different states and Union Territories. Some regions have only a small tribal population, while a few have a majority of residents belonging to tribal communities. This question asks which of the given states or Union Territories has more than half of its total population classified as tribal. Given Data / Assumptions: The options are Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Himachal Pradesh, and Puducherry. We are looking for a region where tribals form more than 50 percent of the population. We assume census based classification of Scheduled Tribes and official statistics on their population shares. Concept / Approach: Dadra and Nagar Haveli is known for having a very high proportion of tribal population in its total population, exceeding 50 percent. This is due to the presence of several tribal communities that have historically inhabited the area. Andaman and Nicobar Islands, while having a notable tribal presence, do not have tribals forming a majority of the total population. Himachal Pradesh and Puducherry both have relatively small shares of Scheduled Tribes compared with their overall population. Therefore, Dadra and Nagar Haveli is the correct answer. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Consider Andaman and Nicobar Islands. This Union Territory does include tribal groups such as the Andamanese and Nicobarese, but the overall share of tribals is less than half of the total population.Step 2: Consider Dadra and Nagar Haveli. This Union Territory has a population in which tribal communities form a clear majority, with more than 50 percent of residents identified as Scheduled Tribes.Step 3: Consider Himachal Pradesh. It has some tribal districts and communities but the tribal share is much smaller than 50 percent of the state population.Step 4: Consider Puducherry. This Union Territory has a negligible tribal population in terms of percentage.Step 5: From this comparison, it is clear that only Dadra and Nagar Haveli fits the condition of having more than 50 percent tribal population. Verification / Alternative check: Demographic data from the census and exam guides on social groups show that the proportion of Scheduled Tribes in Dadra and Nagar Haveli is above 50 percent. In contrast, the corresponding figures for Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Himachal Pradesh, and Puducherry are much lower. This consistent reporting across sources verifies that Dadra and Nagar Haveli is the correct option. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Andaman and Nicobar Islands: Contains important tribal groups but tribals do not form the majority of the population. Himachal Pradesh: Has tribal pockets but the total tribal population is a small fraction of the state total, well below 50 percent. Puducherry: Has almost no tribal population in percentage terms and therefore cannot satisfy the condition given in the question. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may incorrectly assume that any region famous for tribal communities must have a majority tribal population. It is important to distinguish between the presence of notable tribal groups and the actual percentage of tribals in the total population. Remembering that Dadra and Nagar Haveli is one of the few Union Territories with a tribal majority helps avoid confusion. Final Answer: Dadra and Nagar Haveli has more than 50 percent tribal population in its total population.

Question 4

Singhbhum in the state of Jharkhand is famous for the mining and production of which of the following minerals?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Knowledge of important mineral producing regions is a common part of Indian geography questions in competitive exams. Singhbhum, a region in present day Jharkhand, is well known for its mineral deposits. This question tests whether you can correctly identify the main mineral for which the Singhbhum area is particularly famous. Given Data / Assumptions: The region named in the question is Singhbhum in Jharkhand. The options given are coal, copper, iron, and aluminium. We assume standard school level geography information about major mineral belts in India. Concept / Approach: Singhbhum is historically known as a major copper producing region in India. The Singhbhum Copper Belt has been an important source of copper ore for many years. While Jharkhand as a state is rich in several minerals including coal and iron ore, the specific association of the name Singhbhum in many exam questions is with copper deposits. Aluminium, which is usually obtained from bauxite, is not the primary mineral associated with this region in standard textbooks. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the major mineral belts of India: the Chota Nagpur plateau region is rich in coal, iron, manganese, and other minerals.Step 2: Within this area, Singhbhum in Jharkhand is especially known for the Singhbhum Copper Belt.Step 3: Coal deposits are also found in Jharkhand, but they are more associated with places like Jharia and Bokaro rather than Singhbhum by name.Step 4: Iron ore is present in the broader region, but again the textbook link between Singhbhum and copper is more direct.Step 5: Aluminium is not primarily linked with Singhbhum in standard exam oriented mineral maps.Step 6: Therefore, copper is the mineral for which Singhbhum is especially famous. Verification / Alternative check: Maps and tables in Indian geography texts identify the Singhbhum Copper Belt as a significant copper producing area. When exam questions mention Singhbhum along with a list of minerals, copper is almost always the expected answer. Coal and iron are associated with other well known coalfields and iron ore belts, while Singhbhum stands out for copper in the context of objective type questions. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Coal: While Jharkhand has rich coal reserves, Singhbhum specifically is not best known in exam literature for coal. Iron: There are iron ore deposits in the region, but the name Singhbhum is most strongly tied to copper in standard question banks. Aluminium: Aluminium is mainly extracted from bauxite, and Singhbhum is not listed as a principal bauxite or aluminium producing area in basic geography guides. Common Pitfalls: Because Jharkhand is rich in multiple minerals, students sometimes confuse which mineral is associated with which district. To avoid this, it helps to remember specific pairings, such as Jharia with coal and Singhbhum with copper. These associations frequently appear in one line questions and can be scored easily if memorised carefully. Final Answer: Singhbhum is famous for its copper deposits.

Question 5

The Sundarbans region of eastern India is an example of which type of ecosystem?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Sundarbans is a unique natural region located in the delta of the Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers, spanning parts of India and Bangladesh. It is famous for its dense vegetation, tidal creeks, and rich wildlife, including the Bengal tiger. Exam questions often ask what type of ecosystem the Sundarbans represents. Understanding this classification is important for ecology and environment topics in general studies. Given Data / Assumptions: The region described is the Sundarbans of eastern India. The options include forest ecosystem, mangrove ecosystem, grassland ecosystem, and marine ecosystem. We assume a basic understanding of what mangrove forests are and where they are found. The question refers to the dominant and characteristic ecosystem type of the Sundarbans. Concept / Approach: The Sundarbans is the largest contiguous mangrove forest in the world. Mangroves are salt tolerant trees and shrubs that grow in tidal coastal regions, especially in estuaries and deltas. The Sundarbans vegetation consists mainly of mangrove species adapted to saline, waterlogged conditions. Although it is also a forest and it is influenced by marine waters, the most specific and correct classification among the options is mangrove ecosystem. Forest ecosystem is too broad, and grassland and strictly marine ecosystems do not correctly describe the dominant habitat. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Sundarbans lies in the deltaic region at the mouth of the Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers.Step 2: The area is regularly influenced by tides and has vegetation adapted to saline, swampy conditions.Step 3: Such vegetation consists of mangrove trees with stilt roots and other adaptations to brackish water.Step 4: Ecosystems dominated by such vegetation are called mangrove ecosystems.Step 5: While the Sundarbans is a forest, the more precise name for its ecosystem type is mangrove ecosystem, which distinguishes it from other forests.Step 6: Therefore, among the given options, mangrove ecosystem is the most accurate classification. Verification / Alternative check: Environmental science texts and international conservation bodies describe the Sundarbans as the world's largest mangrove forest and a classic example of a mangrove ecosystem. These references emphasise the presence of species like Heritiera fomes, locally known as sundari, from which the region gets its name. The character of the ecosystem is defined by these mangrove species and the tidal environment, confirming that mangrove ecosystem is the correct label. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Forest ecosystem: While technically true in a broad sense, this term is too general and does not capture the specific mangrove character of the Sundarbans. Grassland ecosystem: The Sundarbans is not dominated by grasses but by mangrove trees and shrubs, so this option is clearly incorrect. Marine ecosystem: The area is influenced by marine waters but consists mainly of coastal and estuarine forests rather than open ocean or purely marine conditions. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates choose forest ecosystem because they know the Sundarbans is a forested region, but they miss the more specific category of mangroves. Others might be misled by its coastal location and pick marine ecosystem. To avoid these mistakes, remember that mangrove forests represent a special type of coastal forest, and the Sundarbans is the most famous example of a mangrove ecosystem in India. Final Answer: The Sundarbans is an example of a mangrove ecosystem.

Question 6

Which one among the following is recognised as a biodiversity hot spot in India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The term biodiversity hot spot refers to a region that has a very high level of species richness and endemism, but is also under significant threat from human activities. Certain areas of the world, including parts of India, have been identified as global biodiversity hot spots. Exam questions often ask candidates to recognise which Indian regions have this status. This question focuses on identifying the correct hot spot among the given options. Given Data / Assumptions: The options are Western Ghat, Sundarban, Chilka Lagoon, and Eastern Ghat. The concept of hot spots is based on international criteria, including high endemism and threat levels. We assume familiarity with basic geography of India and the locations of these regions. We look for the region officially listed as a biodiversity hot spot. Concept / Approach: In India, two main regions have been internationally recognised as biodiversity hot spots: the Western Ghats and the Eastern Himalaya. The Western Ghats, extending along the western coast of India, are known for high species diversity and many endemic plants and animals. While Sundarban, Chilka Lagoon, and the Eastern Ghats are ecologically important, they are not officially designated as global biodiversity hot spots in the same sense as the Western Ghats. Therefore, the correct answer among the given options is Western Ghat, meaning the Western Ghats region. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the definition of a biodiversity hot spot as used in conservation biology.Step 2: Remember that Western Ghats and Eastern Himalaya are the two major hot spots that lie partly or wholly in India.Step 3: Examine the options. Western Ghat corresponds to the Western Ghats hot spot.Step 4: Sundarban is a mangrove region of high ecological value, but it is not classified as a hot spot under the original global hot spot list.Step 5: Chilka Lagoon is a large brackish water lagoon in Odisha, important for birds but not a designated global hot spot.Step 6: Eastern Ghat is a hill range along the eastern coast, also ecologically significant but not listed as a global hot spot like the Western Ghats.Step 7: Therefore, the Western Ghat option is the correct choice. Verification / Alternative check: Conservation literature and environment textbooks frequently mention the Western Ghats as one of the global biodiversity hot spots. Many exam questions repeat this fact, pairing Western Ghats with Eastern Himalaya as examples from India. The other regions in the options may be Ramsar sites, national parks, or important ecological areas, but they are not labelled hot spots in the same global framework. This consistent classification confirms that Western Ghat is the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Sundarban: It is a World Heritage Site and critical mangrove ecosystem but is not included in the global hot spot list in the same way as Western Ghats. Chilka Lagoon: It is an important wetland and Ramsar site known for migratory birds but not recognised as a biodiversity hot spot. Eastern Ghat: While biologically valuable, it has not been given the formal hot spot label that Western Ghats have. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse different conservation labels such as hot spots, World Heritage Sites, Ramsar sites, and biosphere reserves. This can lead to incorrect choices when several ecologically important areas are listed as options. To avoid this, it is useful to memorise specifically which regions are called hot spots, namely Western Ghats and Eastern Himalaya for India. Final Answer: The Western Ghat region is recognised as a biodiversity hot spot in India.

Question 7

Which one of the following is the highest gravity dam among the dams listed?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Dams are important structures in geography and general knowledge, used for irrigation, power generation, and flood control. They can be classified by design, such as gravity dams, arch dams, and earthen dams. Some dams are particularly notable for their height. This question asks which dam among the given options is the highest gravity dam. Given Data / Assumptions: The dams listed are Beas Dam, Nangal Dam, Bhakra Dam, and Hirakud Dam. We are specifically concerned with the height of the dam structure and the fact that it is a gravity dam. We assume standard textbook information on major Indian dams and their characteristics. Concept / Approach: Bhakra Dam, built on the Sutlej River, is one of the highest gravity dams in the world and has often been described in textbooks as the highest straight gravity dam at the time of its construction. It is significantly taller than Hirakud Dam, which is known more for its great length than height. Nangal Dam is a smaller dam downstream of Bhakra, and Beas Dam is not as high as Bhakra either. Thus, among the options, Bhakra Dam is the highest gravity dam. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall key facts about Bhakra Dam, which is a concrete gravity dam on the Sutlej River with a substantial height.Step 2: Remember that Hirakud Dam on the Mahanadi River is very long and is famous as one of the longest earthen dams but is not as high as Bhakra.Step 3: Note that Nangal Dam is a smaller dam located downstream of Bhakra and does not match Bhakra in height.Step 4: Beas Dam is also not as high as Bhakra Dam when comparing structural heights.Step 5: From this comparison, Bhakra Dam clearly stands out as the highest gravity dam among the listed options. Verification / Alternative check: Geography books often highlight Bhakra Dam as a major engineering achievement in independent India and mention its impressive height. In contrast, Hirakud is typically highlighted for its length and reservoir capacity. Multiple exam questions and tables of major dams categorise Bhakra as one of the highest gravity dams, confirming that it is the correct answer here. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Beas Dam: An important dam but not remarkable for height in the way Bhakra is. Nangal Dam: A smaller structure downstream of Bhakra, built mainly as a barrage and power station support, not the highest dam. Hirakud Dam: Famous as a long dam across the Mahanadi River and known for its extensive reservoir, but it is not as high as the Bhakra gravity dam. Common Pitfalls: Some students confuse the length of a dam with its height and may select Hirakud because they recall it as a record holding dam. It is important to read the question carefully and focus on what is being asked. Height refers to the vertical dimension of the dam structure, while length refers to how long the dam extends along the river. Recognising that Bhakra stands out for height and Hirakud for length helps avoid this confusion. Final Answer: Bhakra Dam is the highest gravity dam among the dams listed.

Question 8

According to Census data, the increase in the literacy rate in India during the period 1991–2001 was approximately how many percentage points?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Literacy rate is a key human development indicator that shows the percentage of people who can read and write with understanding. The change in literacy over a decade reflects the success of education policies and programmes. Many exam questions focus on the increase in literacy rates between specific census years. This question asks about the increase in the literacy rate of India during the period 1991 to 2001. Given Data / Assumptions: The period under consideration is from the 1991 Census to the 2001 Census. We are looking for the increase, that is, the difference between the literacy rate in 2001 and 1991. The options given are 10.8 percent, 12.6 percent, 14.3 percent, and 15.5 percent. We assume standard census figures for total literacy rate. Concept / Approach: According to Census 1991, the overall literacy rate in India was a little above 52 percent. By Census 2001, the literacy rate had risen to around 64 percent. The increase is therefore slightly more than 12 percentage points. In exam summaries this increase is usually given as 12.6 percentage points. Among the options provided, 12.6 percent is the one that matches the known increase in literacy during 1991 to 2001. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall approximate literacy rates: around 52 percent in 1991 and around 64 percent in 2001.Step 2: Compute the increase: 64 minus 52 equals about 12 percentage points.Step 3: The more precise official figures give an increase close to 12.6 percentage points.Step 4: Compare this with the options: 10.8, 12.6, 14.3, and 15.5.Step 5: The option 12.6 percent matches the documented increase, while the others are either too low or too high.Step 6: Therefore, 12.6 percent is the correct answer for the increase in literacy rate during 1991 to 2001. Verification / Alternative check: Exam oriented materials on Indian demography often include a table showing literacy rates and their change between censuses. For the 1991 to 2001 period, these tables typically show an increase of about 12.6 percentage points. This figure is used repeatedly in previous year questions, confirming that it is the standard value expected in competitive exams. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 10.8 percent: This understates the progress made in literacy and does not match the official difference between 1991 and 2001. 14.3 percent: This overstates the actual increase in literacy rate over the decade. 15.5 percent: Also overestimates the improvement and does not align with the census data. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes mistake the literacy rate itself for the increase and may recall only one of the two census values. Others may confuse national level values with state level figures or male female differences. To avoid such confusion, it is helpful to remember that the increase in total literacy for India during 1991 to 2001 is about 12 to 13 percentage points, with 12.6 percent being the precise figure often quoted. Final Answer: The literacy rate in India increased by about 12.6 percentage points between 1991 and 2001.

Question 9

As per the Census of 2001, which one of the following was the least urbanised state of India in terms of percentage of population living in urban areas?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Urbanisation refers to the proportion of people living in urban areas as opposed to rural areas. The level of urbanisation varies greatly across different states in India. Some states have large metropolitan areas and high urban shares, while others remain predominantly rural. This question asks which state among the given options was the least urbanised according to the 2001 Census. Given Data / Assumptions: The reference is the Census of 2001. The states listed are Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Himachal Pradesh, and Uttar Pradesh. The least urbanised state is the one with the smallest percentage of its population living in areas classified as urban. We assume standard census definitions for urban areas. Concept / Approach: Census 2001 data show that Himachal Pradesh had one of the lowest levels of urbanisation among Indian states, with less than ten percent of its population living in urban areas. In contrast, states like Uttar Pradesh, while having a large rural population, still had a larger urban share compared to Himachal Pradesh. Arunachal Pradesh and Assam also had higher levels of urbanisation than Himachal Pradesh. Therefore, among the given options, Himachal Pradesh was the least urbanised state in 2001. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Consider Uttar Pradesh. It has several big cities such as Lucknow, Kanpur, and Varanasi, and its urban share is higher than ten percent.Step 2: Consider Assam. It has cities like Guwahati and other towns, giving it a moderate level of urbanisation, above that of Himachal Pradesh.Step 3: Consider Arunachal Pradesh. It is a sparsely populated hill state, but its urban share is still not the lowest when compared to Himachal Pradesh.Step 4: Consider Himachal Pradesh. Census data indicate that only a small fraction of its population lived in urban areas in 2001, making it one of the most rural states.Step 5: From this comparison, Himachal Pradesh emerges as the least urbanised state among the four options for the 2001 Census. Verification / Alternative check: Tables in exam preparation books that summarise urbanisation levels show Himachal Pradesh near the bottom of the list for 2001, with an urban population share below ten percent. The corresponding figures for Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, and Uttar Pradesh are higher. This pattern is consistent across multiple sources and confirm that Himachal Pradesh was the least urbanised state among those listed. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Arunachal Pradesh: It is relatively less urbanised, but its urban share is not as low as that of Himachal Pradesh according to 2001 data. Assam: Has several towns and cities, giving it a higher urban percentage than Himachal Pradesh. Uttar Pradesh: Despite being largely rural, it has a significant urban population in many cities and therefore a higher urbanisation level than Himachal Pradesh. Common Pitfalls: Some students assume that the largest or poorest states are automatically the least urbanised, without checking actual percentages. Others may think that hill states with small populations are always more urban. The correct approach is to remember specific census findings: Himachal Pradesh is often cited as the least urbanised state in earlier census years, including 2001. Final Answer: As per the 2001 Census, Himachal Pradesh was the least urbanised state among the options given.

Question 10

According to the 2001 Census, Maharashtra has the largest urban population in India. Which pair of states comes next in terms of size of urban population?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Urban population figures provide insight into the scale of cities and towns in different states. While the level of urbanisation is measured as a percentage, the absolute size of the urban population in each state can be quite different. This question mentions that Maharashtra had the largest urban population according to the 2001 Census and asks which pair of states had the next largest urban populations. Given Data / Assumptions: Maharashtra is stated to have the largest urban population in 2001. The options list pairs of states: Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu; Delhi and Punjab; Haryana and Gujarat; West Bengal and Delhi. We are looking for the states that had the second and third largest urban populations after Maharashtra. We assume census based urban population numbers for various states. Concept / Approach: According to 2001 Census data, Maharashtra had the largest urban population. The next largest urban population was in Uttar Pradesh, which, despite being less urbanised in percentage terms than some smaller states, has a very large total population with many cities and towns. Tamil Nadu also had a substantial urban population and ranked closely after Uttar Pradesh. While states like West Bengal and cities like Delhi are highly urbanised, their absolute urban population sizes in 2001 were lower than those of Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. Thus, the correct pair is Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Start with the given information that Maharashtra had the largest urban population.Step 2: Recall that Uttar Pradesh has a very large total population and many urban centres, giving it a high absolute urban population.Step 3: Tamil Nadu has a high level of urbanisation and several major cities such as Chennai, Coimbatore, and Madurai, making its urban population large.Step 4: Compare this with Delhi and Punjab. Delhi is fully urban but is a small Union Territory in terms of area and total population, while Punjab has a smaller population than Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.Step 5: Haryana and Gujarat also have significant urban populations but do not exceed Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu in 2001.Step 6: West Bengal and Delhi together do not match the combined urban population of Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu when examining census figures.Step 7: Therefore, the correct pair coming after Maharashtra is Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. Verification / Alternative check: Exam oriented tables summarising urban population by state for the 2001 Census often rank states in order of absolute urban population. These tables place Maharashtra first, followed by Uttar Pradesh and then Tamil Nadu. Other states and Union Territories, including West Bengal and Delhi, appear lower in the ranking. This consistent ordering confirms that the pair Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu is the correct choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Delhi and Punjab: Delhi has a very high urban share but a smaller total population, and Punjab does not have as large an urban population as Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu combined. Haryana and Gujarat: Both are important industrial states but their urban populations in 2001 were below those of Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. West Bengal and Delhi: West Bengal has a large urban population but when paired with Delhi, this combination still does not align with the ranking given by census figures that place Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu higher. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse urbanisation percentage with absolute urban population. A state with a higher percentage urban is not always the one with the largest number of urban residents. To avoid this confusion, it is important to remember specific rankings for total urban population and recognise that population heavy states like Uttar Pradesh can have very large urban populations even if their urban share is moderate. Final Answer: After Maharashtra, the states with the largest urban populations according to the 2001 Census were Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Question 11

As per the 2001 Census, which one of the following cities was not classified as a megacity of India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: In demographic studies, a megacity is usually defined as an urban agglomeration with a very large population, often above a specific threshold such as five million people. The Census of India identifies certain cities as megacities based on their urban agglomeration populations. This question asks which city among the options was not a megacity according to the 2001 Census. Given Data / Assumptions: The reference year is the 2001 Census. The cities listed are Ahmedabad, Chennai, Bangaluru (Bengaluru), and Ranchi. We assume the standard definition used by Census 2001 for megacities. We need to identify the city whose population was below the megacity threshold at that time. Concept / Approach: In 2001, cities like Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai, Bangalore, Hyderabad, and Ahmedabad were commonly referred to as large metropolitan or megacity level urban agglomerations. They all had multi million populations. Ranchi, while an important city and later capital of Jharkhand, had a much smaller population and did not meet the megacity criteria in 2001. Therefore, among the options given, Ranchi was not classified as a megacity. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Consider Chennai. It has long been one of India's largest metropolitan cities and clearly qualifies as a megacity.Step 2: Consider Bangaluru (Bengaluru). It experienced rapid growth and by 2001 had a population large enough to place it among major metropolitan cities.Step 3: Consider Ahmedabad. It is also one of the largest cities in western India with a multi million population, qualifying it as a major metro and megacity in that era.Step 4: Consider Ranchi. Although it is an important city, its population in 2001 was much lower than that of traditional megacities like Chennai, Bengaluru, or Ahmedabad.Step 5: Therefore, Ranchi is the city that was not classified as a megacity in the 2001 Census. Verification / Alternative check: Lists of megacities based on Census 2001 typically include Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai, Hyderabad, Bangalore, and Ahmedabad. Ranchi does not appear in these lists. Exam oriented geography and demography books reproduce this information, often grouping Ranchi under emerging or medium sized cities rather than megacities. This confirms that Ranchi was not a megacity in 2001. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Ahmedabad: Recognised as a large metropolitan city with a population well above the megacity threshold in 2001. Chennai: One of India's oldest and largest metropolitan centres and clearly a megacity. Bangaluru: By 2001, it had become a major technology and industrial hub with a large urban agglomeration population, qualifying it as a megacity. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may confuse the term megacity with simple capital city status. They might think that because Ranchi is a state capital, it must be a megacity. However, megacity status depends on population size, not on administrative importance. Others may underestimate the size of cities like Ahmedabad or Bengaluru. To avoid errors, it helps to remember which cities consistently appear in lists of India's largest metropolitan areas. Final Answer: Ranchi was not classified as a megacity of India in the 2001 Census.

Question 12

Under the Bharat Nirman Programme, which one of the following is not one of the identified core areas targeted for rural infrastructure development?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Bharat Nirman was a time bound programme of the Government of India aimed at strengthening rural infrastructure in key sectors. It identified specific core areas such as irrigation, roads, housing, electrification, drinking water, and rural telephony. Exam questions frequently ask which components formed part of this programme and which did not. This question checks whether you can identify the option that does not belong to the core areas of Bharat Nirman. Given Data / Assumptions: The options given are irrigation, rural electrification, rural housing, and computer education in schools. We are asked to select the item that is not one of the programme's core infrastructure areas. We assume the standard official list of Bharat Nirman components. Concept / Approach: Bharat Nirman focused on six main areas of rural infrastructure: irrigation, rural roads, rural housing, rural electrification, rural drinking water supply, and rural telephony. These sectors were chosen to improve basic infrastructure and connectivity in rural regions. Computer education in schools, although important for human resource development, was not listed as a core component of Bharat Nirman. Education initiatives fall under other schemes and programmes in the education sector. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the six components of Bharat Nirman: irrigation, rural roads, rural housing, rural electrification, rural drinking water, and rural telephony.Step 2: Match irrigation with the list. It is clearly one of the core areas aimed at improving agricultural productivity.Step 3: Match rural electrification with the list. Providing electricity to villages is one of the stated goals.Step 4: Match rural housing with the list. The programme aimed to support construction of houses for the rural poor.Step 5: Consider computer education in schools. This is related to education and technology but does not appear among the six key rural infrastructure components.Step 6: Therefore, computer education in schools is not a core area under Bharat Nirman. Verification / Alternative check: Policy documents and exam oriented summaries of Bharat Nirman consistently provide the same list of six areas without mentioning school based computer education. When questions have asked about the components of Bharat Nirman in past examinations, the answers always revolve around irrigation, roads, housing, electrification, drinking water, and telephony. Education programmes, including computer education, are usually tied to other schemes such as Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan or ICT in schools, and not to Bharat Nirman. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Irrigation: Clearly one of the main components aimed at creating additional irrigated area and improving water availability. Rural Electrification: A core objective of the programme, which sought to provide electricity to uncovered villages and habitations. Rural Housing: Bharat Nirman included targets for constructing houses for the rural poor, making it an important programme component. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may think that any programme related to rural development or education must be part of Bharat Nirman. This leads to incorrect assumptions when reading options like computer education in schools. The key is to memorise the exact set of six core areas and recognise that Bharat Nirman deals primarily with physical infrastructure rather than sectoral schemes in education or health. Final Answer: Computer education in schools is not one of the core areas identified under the Bharat Nirman Programme.

Question 13

As per Indian telecom news, MTNL recently launched its 3G mobile service and became the first telecom operator to do so in India. In this context, what is the full form of the letter G in 3G?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The question refers to MTNL launching its 3G mobile service and asks about the meaning of the letter G in the term 3G. This is a basic general knowledge and technology awareness question that appears often in exams related to Indian economy, banking and computer awareness. 3G is part of the global standard terminology used for mobile communication networks, and understanding what each generation represents helps in interpreting news about telecom upgrades such as 4G and 5G as well. Given Data / Assumptions: MTNL launched a 3G mobile service in India. The notation 3G is a standard telecom term used worldwide. The question asks specifically about the full form of the letter G in 3G. Options suggest different possible expansions such as Global, Generation, Growth and Gravity. Concept / Approach: In mobile telecommunications, the letter G in terms like 2G, 3G, 4G and 5G stands for Generation. These labels describe successive generations of mobile network technology. First generation systems were analogue voice systems, second generation introduced digital voice, third generation introduced higher speed data and multimedia, fourth generation delivered even higher data rates suitable for mobile broadband, and fifth generation focuses on ultra high speed, low latency connectivity. Therefore, when we see 3G, it literally means third generation mobile technology. Words like Global, Growth or Gravity do not match the standard technical terminology used by telecom standards bodies such as the ITU. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that 3G, 4G and 5G are used in telecom news to describe different generations of mobile network technology.Step 2: Recall that the common explanation of these terms in textbooks and articles is second generation, third generation, fourth generation and so on.Step 3: Match this with the options and identify that only the word Generation fits this pattern.Step 4: Conclude that the letter G in 3G stands for Generation and select that option as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: A quick check is to think of how people explain upgrades in everyday language. When a country moves from 3G to 4G, newspapers say that it is moving from third generation services to fourth generation services. Official documents and telecom training material also expand 3G as third generation mobile communication system. You will never see a formal standard that expands 3G as third global or third growth. This consistent usage in multiple sources confirms that Generation is the only correct expansion of the letter G in this context. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A, Global, is wrong because although mobile networks are global in reach, the letter G does not stand for Global in the naming convention. Option C, Growth, is incorrect because it does not describe a technical standard, only a general idea. Option D, Gravity, clearly has no connection with mobile network generations. Only option B, Generation, reflects the accepted telecom terminology for 3G, 4G and 5G as successive generations of mobile technology. Common Pitfalls: Some learners casually guess Global because mobile phones are used worldwide, or Growth because higher generations often bring higher speeds and economic growth. Another mistake is not connecting 3G with the phrase third generation that is often mentioned when new services are launched. To avoid such errors, remember that in telecom abbreviations, G means Generation, and the number before it indicates which generation of network technology is being discussed. Final Answer: In 3G mobile services, the letter G stands for Generation, so 3G means third generation mobile technology.

Question 14

In labour economics, structural unemployment arises mainly due to which of the following types of causes?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The question deals with structural unemployment, which is one of the important types of unemployment studied in macroeconomics and labour economics. Understanding the different types of unemployment, such as frictional, cyclical and structural, is essential for analysing employment policies and the impact of economic development strategies. Structural unemployment is linked to long run changes in the structure of an economy rather than short term ups and downs in demand. Given Data / Assumptions: The question specifically mentions structural unemployment. We are asked to identify the main type of cause that gives rise to this form of unemployment. The options refer to deflationary conditions, heavy industry bias, shortage of raw materials and inadequate productive capacity in a downturn. We assume standard textbook definitions of structural versus cyclical and frictional unemployment. Concept / Approach: Structural unemployment arises when there is a mismatch between the skills or location of workers and the pattern of jobs available in the economy. This usually happens because of long term structural changes, such as a shift from agriculture to industry, from industry to services, adoption of new technologies, or a development strategy that emphasises heavy, capital intensive industry. In such situations, some workers may no longer have the skills demanded by new sectors, or jobs may move to new regions while workers remain elsewhere. This is different from cyclical unemployment, which is caused by short term fluctuations in overall demand, and different from frictional unemployment, which arises from normal job search and transition. Therefore, any option that captures long run structural changes, such as a heavy industry bias that changes the composition of labour demand, is closest to the correct explanation of structural unemployment. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that structural unemployment is associated with changes in the structure of the economy and long term mismatches in skills and jobs.Step 2: Note that deflationary conditions and inadequate productive capacity in a recession are typical causes of cyclical or demand deficient unemployment.Step 3: Observe that a short term shortage of raw materials is a temporary supply disturbance and does not permanently change the structure of employment.Step 4: Recognise that a development strategy with a heavy industry bias and other structural changes alters the pattern of labour demand in a lasting way and can create structural unemployment, making that option the best answer. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this understanding by considering how economies transform over decades. When economies move from labour intensive agriculture to capital intensive heavy industry, some rural workers may not have the education or skills required in factories. Later, when economies move from heavy industry to high technology services, some factory workers may again find their skills obsolete. These are classic examples of structural unemployment. In contrast, a general fall in demand during a recession or a deflationary phase leads to cyclical unemployment, which can reduce once demand recovers, without necessarily changing the structure of jobs. This comparison confirms that structural unemployment is linked to structural changes, not short term demand conditions. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A is wrong because deflationary conditions are primarily associated with cyclical or demand deficient unemployment, not structural unemployment. Option C is incorrect because a shortage of raw materials is usually temporary and sector specific, not a broad structural shift. Option D is also incorrect because inadequate productive capacity in a downturn describes a cyclical slump, not a long term change in the pattern of labour demand. Only option B, which refers to heavy industry bias and long run structural changes, aligns with the concept of structural unemployment. Common Pitfalls: Students often confuse structural unemployment with cyclical unemployment because both involve job losses. Another common mistake is to equate any problem in the economy with structural issues, even when the cause is clearly a short term fall in demand. To avoid these errors, remember that cyclical unemployment moves with the business cycle, while structural unemployment persists even when the overall economy recovers, because the underlying structure of industries and skills has changed. Linking structural unemployment with long lasting changes in technology, sectoral composition and development strategy will help you select the correct option in such questions. Final Answer: Structural unemployment arises mainly due to long run structural changes, such as a heavy industry bias that alters the pattern of demand for labour.

Question 15

In the Integrated Rural Development Programme known by the abbreviation IRDP, what does the letter I stand for?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: India has implemented several anti poverty and rural development schemes over the years, many of which are known by their abbreviations. IRDP is one such scheme that appears frequently in examinations on Indian economy and rural development. The question checks whether you know the correct expansion of the letter I in IRDP, which is important for understanding the full name and nature of the programme. Given Data / Assumptions: The scheme is commonly abbreviated as IRDP. The programme is related to rural development and poverty alleviation. The options suggest different possible expansions of the letter I such as Integrated, Indian, Insurance and Internal. We assume the standard government name of the scheme used in official documents. Concept / Approach: IRDP stands for Integrated Rural Development Programme. This scheme was designed to provide income generating assets and credit support to rural households below the poverty line, integrating various sectoral efforts such as agriculture, animal husbandry and small industry in a coordinated manner. The word Integrated is key to understanding the scheme, as it indicates that support from different departments and agencies is combined to help the rural poor. Therefore, the letter I in IRDP clearly stands for Integrated, not Indian, Insurance or Internal. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the full name of IRDP from your study of Indian rural development programmes.Step 2: Recognise that IRDP is expanded as Integrated Rural Development Programme in official material.Step 3: Match this expansion with the options given and identify that only the word Integrated fits correctly.Step 4: Select Integrated as the correct expansion of the letter I in IRDP. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by recalling similar abbreviations for development schemes. For example, many Indian schemes begin with Integrated to show that they combine multiple components, such as Integrated Child Development Services. IRDP follows this same pattern by focusing on integrated support for rural development. Textbooks and government reports consistently refer to it as the Integrated Rural Development Programme, which confirms that I stands for Integrated. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option B, Indian, is wrong because the full name is not Indian Rural Development Programme. Option C, Insurance, is incorrect because IRDP is not primarily an insurance scheme; it is about asset creation and credit for rural households. Option D, Internal, has no connection with the official name or purpose of the programme. Only option A correctly identifies Integrated as the first word in the full name of IRDP. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to guess Indian whenever a scheme abbreviation begins with I, because the scheme relates to India. However, many programme names begin with other words such as Integrated, International or Inclusive. Relying only on guesswork can lead to wrong answers. It is better to memorise the full forms of key abbreviations like IRDP, ICDS, MGNREGA and so on. This will help you quickly recall the correct word in the exam without confusion. Final Answer: In IRDP, the letter I stands for Integrated, as the full name is Integrated Rural Development Programme.

Question 16

Under the Central Sales Tax (CST) law in India, is CST applicable on freight charges collected from the buyer, and if so, under what condition?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Central Sales Tax (CST) was a tax on inter state sales of goods in India in the pre GST regime. Many exam questions test conceptual understanding of what forms part of the taxable sale price for CST purposes. Freight or transportation charges are a common area of confusion. The question asks whether CST is applicable on freight charges collected from the buyer and under what condition. This is essentially a test of whether you know when freight is treated as part of the sale consideration for the goods. Given Data / Assumptions: We are dealing with CST on inter state sale of goods. The seller may collect freight or transport charges from the buyer. Freight may be either included in the sale price or shown separately. The question asks when CST is applicable on such freight charges. Concept / Approach: Under the general principle of sales tax law, the taxable turnover is based on the sale price of the goods. If freight or transport charges are an integral part of the sale price under the terms of the contract, and are included in the same invoice, then they form part of the taxable sale price and CST is chargeable on the total amount. However, if the buyer arranges and pays for freight directly to the transporter, or freight is clearly a separate contract not forming part of the sale price of the goods, it is usually not included in the taxable turnover for CST. Therefore, the key point is whether freight is included in the sale price and forms part of the same sale invoice. In that situation, CST would apply on the combined amount. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that CST is levied on the sale price of goods in an inter state sale.Step 2: Understand that any amounts which are part of the sale consideration under the contract, including freight borne by the seller and recovered from the buyer, are normally included in the sale price.Step 3: Distinguish this from cases where freight is paid separately by the buyer directly to a transporter, which is not part of the seller's turnover.Step 4: Select the option which states that CST is applicable when freight is included in the sale price and forms part of the same invoice, because this reflects the principle that such freight is part of the taxable sale price. Verification / Alternative check: A useful way to verify your reasoning is to imagine two scenarios. In the first, the seller quotes a single price per unit inclusive of delivery to the buyer's location and raises one invoice that shows a single amount for goods and freight together. Here, freight is clearly part of the sale price and CST should apply on the total. In the second scenario, the seller sells goods ex factory, and the buyer chooses and pays a transporter separately. In this case, the transporter's freight bill is independent of the sale of goods, and CST is calculated only on the ex factory sale price. Thinking through these scenarios confirms that CST applies to freight only when it is part of the sale price on the seller's invoice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A is wrong because it claims CST is never applicable on freight, which ignores situations where freight is built into the sale price. Option C is incorrect because when the buyer pays freight directly to the transporter, that payment is generally outside the seller's taxable turnover, so CST would not be applied on that freight. Option D is also wrong because CST is not automatically applied to all freight charges in every situation; only freight that is part of the sale price is normally taxed. Option B correctly captures the condition that freight included in the sale price and on the same invoice is subject to CST. Common Pitfalls: Students often memorise short statements like freight is not taxable without understanding the underlying principle. This can lead to incorrect answers when the freight is actually part of the contract price of the goods. Another common mistake is to confuse CST with later GST provisions, where the treatment of freight may follow different rules. In exam questions based on the CST framework, always return to the core idea that the tax is levied on the sale price of goods, and that any element which is part of that sale consideration, including delivery arranged by the seller and billed to the buyer, will normally attract CST. Final Answer: CST is applicable on freight charges when freight is included in the sale price and forms part of the same invoice for the inter state sale of goods.

Question 17

In corporate financial reporting, income tax expense is allocated to which of the following items in the statement of profit and loss?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Accounting standards require companies to present not only the total income tax expense for a period but also to allocate that tax charge to different components of profit such as continuing operations, discontinued operations and certain special items. This allocation helps users of financial statements understand how much tax relates to normal operations versus unusual or prior period items. The question asks which items can have income tax allocated to them, testing your understanding of basic corporate reporting principles. Given Data / Assumptions: The focus is on income tax expense in corporate financial statements. Items listed include discontinued operations, prior period adjustments and extraordinary items. Accounting standards generally require disclosure of tax effects on these items. The question asks whether tax is allocated to any one of these items or to all of them. Concept / Approach: Under most accounting frameworks, including Indian standards and international standards, profit or loss from continuing operations is reported net of related income tax. When a company has a discontinued operation, such as a business segment that has been sold, the profit or loss from that operation is also shown net of tax, and the tax effect is disclosed. Similarly, prior period adjustments that correct earlier period errors or changes in accounting policies may be presented net of the related tax effect so that users can see the impact on retained earnings. Extraordinary items, where they are separately disclosed under older frameworks, also have their associated tax effects reported. Therefore, income tax expense is allocated across several components, and the correct answer is that all of the listed items can receive an allocation of income tax. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the income statement distinguishes between profit from continuing operations and profit or loss from discontinued operations.Step 2: Recognise that standards require tax related to discontinued operations to be identified so that users can see the post tax effect.Step 3: Remember that prior period adjustments, when made, often require disclosure of the related tax effect because they affect equity and reported profit.Step 4: Note that extraordinary items, when separately disclosed, are also shown net of tax with a separate disclosure of the tax amount. This confirms that income tax is allocated to all these categories, making All of the above the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: A practical way to verify this is to look at a typical published annual report of a company. You will see that the profit and loss section has a line for tax expense, and notes often show a reconciliation of tax between continuing operations and other items. Discontinued operations are explicitly presented net of tax. Notes on prior period items and extraordinary items will usually mention how much of the amount represents tax. This consistent practice supports the idea that tax is allocated across all these components, not confined to only one category. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A, limited to discontinued operations, is incomplete because it ignores tax allocation to prior period adjustments and extraordinary items. Option B focuses only on prior period adjustments, which is again incomplete. Option C, extraordinary items only, is also incomplete and does not reflect the broader requirement to show tax effects on all major components where separate disclosure is provided. Only option D, All of the above, recognises that income tax expense is allocated to discontinued operations, prior period adjustments and extraordinary items as appropriate. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes think of tax as a single number that belongs only with ordinary profit. This can lead to underestimating the importance of tax allocation in financial reporting. Another common mistake is not distinguishing between gross amounts and net of tax amounts in the income statement. To avoid these issues, remember that transparent reporting requires companies to reveal how much tax relates to different parts of profit, so that analysts can better assess sustainable earnings and the impact of unusual or one time items. Final Answer: Income tax expense is allocated to discontinued operations, prior period adjustments and extraordinary items, so the correct choice is all of the above.

Question 18

In demand theory, an increase in the quantity demanded of a good means which of the following has occurred, assuming other factors remain constant?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: In microeconomics, it is very important to distinguish between a change in demand and a change in quantity demanded. Many exam questions are designed specifically to test whether you understand this difference. A change in demand refers to a shift of the entire demand curve because of factors such as income, tastes or prices of related goods. A change in quantity demanded, on the other hand, refers to a movement along the existing demand curve due to a change in the price of the good itself. Given Data / Assumptions: The question uses the phrase increase in the quantity demanded. We assume that other demand determinants such as income, tastes and prices of related goods remain constant. Options mention a shift of the demand curve, a decline in price, an increase in income and all of the above. The standard law of demand applies: price and quantity demanded are inversely related, other things equal. Concept / Approach: When economists say quantity demanded has increased, they mean that buyers are willing to purchase more units of the good at a particular price because the price has changed, causing a movement along the demand curve. This is different from an increase in demand, which would be shown as a rightward shift of the entire curve. A fall in the price of the good itself, holding all other factors constant, will lead to an increase in quantity demanded. Changes in income or tastes shift the demand curve rather than causing a movement along it, and those would be described as an increase in demand, not an increase in quantity demanded. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Focus on the precise wording increase in the quantity demanded, which refers to a movement along the demand curve.Step 2: Recall that such a movement occurs when the price of the good itself changes, under ceteris paribus conditions.Step 3: Identify that a decline in price will move the consumer downward along the demand curve to a higher quantity demanded.Step 4: Note that changes in income or tastes cause shifts in the curve and represent changes in demand, not changes in quantity demanded, so the correct option is the one that mentions a decline in price causing a movement along the curve. Verification / Alternative check: A helpful way to verify this is to sketch a simple downward sloping demand curve for a good. Mark an initial price and quantity on the curve. Then lower the price and see where the new equilibrium point lies on the same curve. You will find that the new point lies further to the right, representing a larger quantity demanded at the lower price, but the curve itself has not shifted. This is exactly what is meant by an increase in quantity demanded. By contrast, if consumers suddenly like the product more, the whole curve would shift to the right even at the same price, representing an increase in demand. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A is wrong because a shift of the demand curve to the right is an increase in demand, not an increase in quantity demanded. Option C is incorrect because an increase in income also causes the demand curve to shift, again representing a change in demand, not a movement along the same curve. Option D, All of the above, is wrong because it mixes both a movement along the curve and shifts of the curve, which is conceptually inconsistent with the specific phrase used in the question. Only option B correctly identifies that a decline in price leads to an increase in quantity demanded along the existing demand curve. Common Pitfalls: Many learners use the words demand and quantity demanded loosely in everyday language, but in economics they have precise meanings. A frequent exam mistake is to treat any increase in the amount purchased as an increase in demand even when the change is due to price. To avoid this error, practise reading questions carefully and mentally distinguishing between shifts of the curve (change in demand) and movements along the curve (change in quantity demanded). This will help you answer many related multiple choice questions correctly. Final Answer: An increase in the quantity demanded means that the price of the product has declined, causing a movement down along the existing demand curve.

Question 19

The law of demand states that, other things being equal, how is the price of a good related to the quantity demanded of that good?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The law of demand is one of the most fundamental ideas in microeconomics. It describes the relationship between the price of a good and the quantity that consumers are willing and able to buy, holding all other factors constant. Almost every introductory economics course begins with this concept, and examination questions frequently test whether you can restate the law accurately and distinguish it from statements about shifts in demand. Given Data / Assumptions: The question explicitly mentions the law of demand. The condition other things equal, or ceteris paribus, is given. Options describe different possible relationships between price and quantity demanded, and some describe shifts in the demand curve. The standard understanding is that demand curves slope downward. Concept / Approach: The law of demand states that, other things equal, there is an inverse relationship between the price of a good and the quantity demanded. When the price rises, consumers typically buy less of that good, and when the price falls, they buy more. This inverse relationship leads to a downward sloping demand curve when quantity demanded is plotted horizontally and price is plotted vertically. The law of demand does not claim that higher prices cause the demand curve itself to shift, only that they cause movements along the curve. Therefore, the correct statement under the law of demand is that as the price increases, the quantity demanded will decrease. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the formal statement of the law of demand: other things equal, the quantity of a good demanded falls when the price rises and rises when the price falls.Step 2: Look at the options and find those that describe an inverse relation between price and quantity demanded.Step 3: Identify option A, which clearly states that as price increases, quantity demanded decreases.Step 4: Confirm that the other options either describe a direct relationship, or incorrectly suggest that a change in price shifts the entire demand curve, which is not what the law of demand states. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify the law of demand through a simple real life example. Consider a common product such as tea. If the price of tea doubles, many consumers will reduce their consumption or switch to substitutes such as coffee. If the price falls sharply, more people may drink tea or buy larger quantities. This behaviour reflects the inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded. Graphically, you can draw a downward sloping demand curve and observe that moving up along the curve corresponds to higher price and lower quantity, which is exactly what the law of demand describes. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option B is wrong because it claims that higher prices lead to higher quantity demanded, which would imply an upward sloping demand curve and contradicts the law of demand. Option C is incorrect because a fall in price causes a movement along the demand curve, not a shift of the entire curve to the right. Option D is also incorrect because a rise in price does not by itself cause the demand curve to shift left; it only moves the consumer to a different point on the same curve. Shifts occur due to factors like changes in income, tastes or prices of related goods, not due to price changes of the good itself. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse movements along the demand curve with shifts of the curve. They may think that any change in price shifts the demand curve, which is not correct. Another common mistake is to not pay attention to the phrase other things equal, which is crucial because the law of demand assumes that other determinants of demand remain constant while price changes. To answer such questions correctly, always focus on the inverse price quantity relationship and remember that shifts in the demand curve are caused by non price factors. Final Answer: The law of demand states that, other things equal, as the price of a good increases, the quantity demanded will decrease.

Question 20

In basic economics, the scarce economic resources used to produce goods and services are also commonly called what?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: One of the first ideas introduced in economics is that resources are scarce and must be used carefully to produce goods and services that satisfy human wants. These scarce resources are given a special name in economic theory, and many exam questions ask you to recall this terminology. Knowing the standard term helps you understand later topics such as production functions, cost analysis and income distribution. Given Data / Assumptions: The question asks about economic resources used to produce goods and services. Options include free goods, factors of production, public goods and consumption goods. We are working with basic introductory economic definitions. Economic resources are scarce and have alternative uses. Concept / Approach: Economic resources are also called factors of production. They are the inputs used to produce goods and services and include land, labour, capital and entrepreneurial ability. These resources are scarce relative to unlimited human wants, and they have alternative uses. Because they are scarce, society must decide what to produce, how to produce and for whom to produce, which are the central problems of an economy. Terms such as free goods, public goods and consumption goods refer to different categories of outputs or special types of goods, not to the underlying resources themselves. Therefore, the correct answer is factors of production. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify that economic resources refer to inputs used in the production process.Step 2: Recall the standard classification of inputs into land, labour, capital and enterprise.Step 3: Remember that these inputs are collectively known as factors of production.Step 4: Compare this with the options and select factors of production as the only term that matches this definition. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by thinking of a simple production example such as a small bakery. The economic resources it uses include land (the shop space), labour (the workers), capital (ovens, mixers, counters) and enterprise (the owner who organises the business and takes the risk). All of these together are the factors of production. The bread produced is a consumption good, not a resource. The pavement outside or the air used in baking are usually treated as free goods. A government funded street light would be an example of a public good. None of these terms describe the scarce inputs that the bakery actively pays for and allocates, which reinforces that factors of production is the correct term for economic resources. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A, free goods, is wrong because free goods are abundant and have no opportunity cost in economic terms, such as air in many situations. Economic resources are by definition scarce and have opportunity cost. Option C, public goods, is incorrect because public goods are a special type of output that is non rival and non excludable, such as national defence, not the resources used to produce them. Option D, consumption goods, refers to goods that are directly consumed by households, like food or clothing, again outputs rather than inputs. Only option B correctly identifies factors of production as the name for economic resources. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse the words goods and resources and may think that any important sounding term such as public goods must refer to the resources used in the economy. Another pitfall is to treat consumption goods as general economic goods and forget that the question is about resources used to produce those goods. To avoid these errors, always distinguish between inputs (factors of production) and outputs (goods and services), and remember that economic resources is another way of saying factors of production. Final Answer: Economic resources are also commonly called factors of production.

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