Question 1

According to Census based measures of urbanisation, which one of the following states of India has the highest percentage of its population living in urban areas and is therefore the most urbanised among the options given?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Urbanisation is an important topic in Indian geography and economy, and exams often ask about which states are more urban or more rural. Urbanisation is usually measured as the percentage of population living in urban areas. This question asks you to identify, from the given options, which state is the most urbanised according to Census data. Given Data / Assumptions: Four Indian states are listed as options: Maharashtra, Mizoram, Goa, and Tamil Nadu. Urbanisation is measured as the share of people living in areas classified as urban by the Census. We use the standard Census based ranking where Goa has one of the highest urban shares among Indian states. Concept / Approach: To answer this, one needs to recall approximate urbanisation levels from Census data. While states like Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu have large urban populations in absolute numbers, the percentage of population living in urban areas is highest for some smaller states and union territories. Among the states listed, Goa has a very high proportion of urban population relative to its total population, making it more urbanised in percentage terms than the others in the list. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that the question is about percentage urban, not absolute number of urban residents.Step 2: Note that Maharashtra has large cities like Mumbai and Pune, but also a very large rural population, so its urban share, while high, is not the highest among small states.Step 3: Tamil Nadu is also highly urbanised, but again, Goa has an even higher percentage.Step 4: Mizoram has significant rural areas and does not top the urbanisation chart.Step 5: Recall that Goa is a small coastal state with a very high share of people living in urban areas, making it the most urbanised among the options. Verification / Alternative check: Looking at Census tables on urbanisation, union territories like Delhi and Chandigarh are the most urbanised overall, but among states, Goa stands out with a very high urban share. Exam oriented geography books often mention Goa as one of the most urbanised states, which helps confirm this answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Maharashtra: High absolute urban population but lower percentage urban than Goa due to a huge rural base. Mizoram: A northeastern state with a mix of urban and rural settlements, not the most urbanised among Indian states in percentage terms. Tamil Nadu: Has a high level of urbanisation, but again, Goa slightly exceeds it in percentage terms according to Census statistics. Common Pitfalls: Many students confuse absolute numbers with percentages. They may choose Maharashtra simply because Mumbai is the largest city. The key is to focus on the proportion of population living in urban areas, where smaller states or union territories often have higher percentages. Remembering this distinction helps avoid common mistakes in urbanisation related questions. Final Answer: Goa is the most urbanised state among the options given.

Question 2

The Golden Quadrilateral highway project connects India's major metropolitan cities by a network of four-lane and six-lane roads. Which one of the following towns is not located on this Golden Quadrilateral route?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Golden Quadrilateral is one of India's most important highway projects, designed to connect Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata through high quality national highways. Many exam questions ask which cities lie on this network and which do not. This question tests whether you can identify a town that is not on the Golden Quadrilateral route. Given Data / Assumptions: The project connects the four metro cities through intermediate cities and towns. The options are Ajmer, Ahmedabad, Jabalpur, and Gaya. We assume the commonly referenced alignment of the Golden Quadrilateral from National Highways Authority of India. Concept / Approach: The Golden Quadrilateral connects Delhi to Mumbai via cities like Jaipur and Ahmedabad, Mumbai to Chennai via Pune and Bengaluru, Chennai to Kolkata via Vijayawada and Bhubaneswar, and Kolkata back to Delhi via cities like Gaya, Varanasi, and Kanpur. Ajmer in Rajasthan and Ahmedabad in Gujarat lie on the Delhi Mumbai stretch, and Gaya lies on the Kolkata Delhi stretch. Jabalpur, located in Madhya Pradesh, lies more centrally in India and is not on the main Golden Quadrilateral alignment. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the four legs of the Golden Quadrilateral: Delhi Mumbai, Mumbai Chennai, Chennai Kolkata, and Kolkata Delhi.Step 2: Match Ajmer with the Delhi Mumbai route, where it appears as one of the towns the highway passes through.Step 3: Match Ahmedabad with the Delhi Mumbai leg, as it is a major city on this route.Step 4: Match Gaya with the Kolkata Delhi leg, since the route from Kolkata towards Delhi passes near Gaya and Varanasi.Step 5: Observe that Jabalpur is located in Madhya Pradesh away from the standard Golden Quadrilateral corridors, so it is not on the Golden Quadrilateral route. Verification / Alternative check: Maps of the Golden Quadrilateral and official documentation from the National Highways Authority of India show the exact alignment. These confirm the presence of Ahmedabad, Ajmer, and Gaya along its stretches, while Jabalpur does not appear on the main corridor, confirming that it is not on the Golden Quadrilateral route. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Ajmer: Lies on the important Delhi Mumbai highway route and is part of the Golden Quadrilateral alignment. Ahmedabad: A major commercial city on the Delhi Mumbai section of the Golden Quadrilateral. Gaya: Located on the Kolkata Delhi stretch and included in the Golden Quadrilateral corridor alignment. Common Pitfalls: Some students think only very large cities are part of the Golden Quadrilateral, and they may not be aware that towns like Gaya and Ajmer are also on the route. Others may choose incorrectly because they are more familiar with Jabalpur as a big city in Madhya Pradesh. Always rely on the actual highway alignment rather than familiarity with city names. Final Answer: Jabalpur is not on the Golden Quadrilateral route.

Question 3

Which of the following sectors is generally not classified as part of the core infrastructure sector in the Indian economy?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Infrastructure sectors are those that provide essential services and facilities needed for the functioning of the economy, such as power, transportation, and basic industrial inputs. Many exam questions ask which activities count as infrastructure and which do not. This question asks you to identify the sector that is not considered part of the core infrastructure sector in India. Given Data / Assumptions: Options include software, cement, petroleum, and steel. We focus on the traditional definition of infrastructure and core industries used in Indian economic statistics. Core industries usually include sectors that supply key intermediate goods or essential services. Concept / Approach: In the Indian context, core infrastructure industries include sectors like coal, crude oil, natural gas, petroleum refinery products, fertilisers, steel, cement, and electricity. These sectors provide essential inputs to the rest of the economy. Software, on the other hand, is part of the service sector, specifically information technology and software services. While software is important and contributes to growth and exports, it is not classified as a core infrastructure sector in the usual official lists. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the eight core industries: coal, crude oil, natural gas, refinery products, fertilisers, steel, cement, and electricity.Step 2: Compare each of the options with this list.Step 3: Cement is explicitly one of the core industries and clearly an infrastructure sector.Step 4: Petroleum in the form of crude oil and refinery products is also part of the core infrastructure sector.Step 5: Steel is one of the eight core industries and provides crucial infrastructure inputs.Step 6: Software does not appear among the listed core infrastructure sectors and is instead part of the modern services sector. Verification / Alternative check: Official releases on the Index of Eight Core Industries from the Government of India list the sectors that are counted as core. Software or information technology services are not part of that list, while cement, petroleum, and steel clearly are. This confirms that software is the correct answer for a non infrastructure sector among the options. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Cement: Recognised as one of the eight core industries because it is essential for construction and infrastructure development. Chemical petroleum products: Crude oil and petroleum refinery products are also core industries and form a central part of infrastructure for transport and energy. Steel: Another key core industry providing essential material for construction, transport, and machinery, clearly part of infrastructure related sectors. Common Pitfalls: Because software and information technology contribute heavily to India's growth and exports, some students may mistakenly treat them as infrastructure. The key is to distinguish between core infrastructure industries and high value services. Core infrastructure usually refers to sectors that underpin physical production and distribution, not to services like software development. Final Answer: Software is not classified as a core infrastructure sector.

Question 4

Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY), a major rural employment generation programme in India, was launched in which of the following years?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY) was an important employment generation scheme aimed at providing wage employment in rural areas through the creation of community assets. Many exam questions focus on the launch years of major government schemes, because dates help differentiate one programme from another. This question checks whether you know when JRY was launched. Given Data / Assumptions: The question is about the launch year of Jawahar Rozgar Yojana. Four years are listed as options: 1985, 1987, 1991, and 1989. We assume basic familiarity with the history of rural employment schemes in India. Concept / Approach: Jawahar Rozgar Yojana was launched in 1989 by merging earlier rural employment programmes such as the National Rural Employment Programme and the Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme. The aim was to create additional wage employment opportunities for the rural poor and to create durable assets for rural development. Therefore, the correct year to remember is 1989. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that JRY was a successor scheme combining earlier rural employment schemes.Step 2: Note that the scheme came into operation towards the end of the 1980s.Step 3: Official records and exam guides consistently state that JRY was launched in 1989.Step 4: Compare this with the options and identify 1989 as the matching year.Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is that JRY was launched in 1989. Verification / Alternative check: Rural employment policy timelines show that earlier schemes like the National Rural Employment Programme and the Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme were in operation before 1989. In 1989, these were merged into Jawahar Rozgar Yojana. Later schemes like Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana and Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act came after JRY, which confirms the sequence and the launch year of 1989. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 1985: This year is too early for JRY; at that time earlier employment schemes were still in place. 1987: Again, this is not the year of the merger and creation of JRY. 1991: By this time, JRY was already running; 1991 is associated with economic reforms, not with the launch of JRY. Common Pitfalls: Students may mix up the years of different employment schemes, especially because several programmes with similar names were launched in the 1980s and 1990s. A useful tip is to remember that JRY marks the transition from earlier schemes in 1989, making it easier to pick the correct year in exams. Final Answer: Jawahar Rozgar Yojana was launched in 1989.

Question 5

In India, the Community Development Programme aimed at integrated rural development was formally started on which of the following dates?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Community Development Programme was one of the earliest efforts by the Government of India to promote rural development through a multi purpose approach to agriculture, education, health, and infrastructure. Exam questions often ask about the date on which this programme was formally launched, because it marks an important milestone in the history of planned rural development in India. Given Data / Assumptions: We are given four dates representing different years but the same day and month. The question asks for the starting date of the Community Development Programme in India. We assume familiarity with the fact that many important programmes were launched on Gandhi Jayanti, which is October 2. Concept / Approach: The Community Development Programme was formally inaugurated on October 2, 1952. It aimed to carry out all round rural development through community participation and government support. This date is significant because it links the programme to Gandhi Jayanti, symbolising an emphasis on rural uplift and self reliance. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Remember that the programme started soon after independence during the early 1950s.Step 2: Note that many rural development programmes of that era were launched on October 2.Step 3: Official historical records state that the Community Development Programme started on October 2, 1952.Step 4: Compare this with the options provided.Step 5: Select October 2, 1952 as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Historical accounts of rural development in India and standard exam guides list October 2, 1952 as the launch date for the Community Development Programme. This programme later influenced other schemes and projects, reinforcing the importance of knowing its start date. Why Other Options Are Wrong: October 2, 1957: This is later than the actual launch and does not match historical records. October 2, 1959: Also incorrect and not associated with the start of this programme. October 2, 1961: By this time, the Community Development Programme was already in operation and being modified, so it is not the correct starting year. Common Pitfalls: Many learners remember the day and month (October 2) but confuse the year because several programmes were started on the same date in different years. To avoid this, it helps to fix 1952 in memory as the year when the Community Development Programme began, early in the planning era. Final Answer: The Community Development Programme in India started on October 2, 1952.

Question 6

The Mid-Day Meal Scheme in India is a welfare programme designed primarily to provide nutritious cooked food to which of the following groups?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Mid-Day Meal Scheme is one of the largest school feeding programmes in the world and is a key part of India's strategy to improve school enrolment, retention, and nutrition. For competitive exams, it is important to know the main target group for this scheme. This question checks whether you can correctly identify who receives the mid day meals under the scheme. Given Data / Assumptions: The scheme mentioned is the Mid-Day Meal Scheme. Four possible beneficiary groups are listed: hospital patients, school going children, daily wage employees, and girls in hostels. We rely on the official design of the scheme as implemented across India. Concept / Approach: The Mid-Day Meal Scheme is targeted at school going children, particularly those in government and government aided primary and upper primary schools. The idea is to provide a cooked meal during the school day to improve nutritional status and to encourage children from poor households to attend and stay in school. While other groups may benefit from different welfare schemes, the mid day meal programme specifically focuses on children attending school. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that mid day meals are served in schools during lunch break.Step 2: Recognise that the scheme is closely linked with universalisation of elementary education and child nutrition.Step 3: Note that the scheme operates in primary and upper primary schools, covering children in specific age groups.Step 4: Compare this with the options; only school going children match the known target group.Step 5: Conclude that school going children are the primary beneficiaries of the Mid-Day Meal Scheme. Verification / Alternative check: Official documents and reports on the Mid-Day Meal Scheme clearly state that its main objectives are to boost enrolment, retention, and attendance in schools and to improve nutritional levels among children. The scheme is implemented in schools, not in hospitals or workplaces, which confirms that the beneficiaries are school going children. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Those taking treatment in hospitals: They may receive nutrition through hospital services, but that is not through the Mid-Day Meal Scheme. Daily wage employees: Some states have schemes for workers, but these are different from the school focused mid day meals. Girls residing in hostels: There are separate hostel and scholarship schemes for girls, but mid day meals are specifically linked with day time schooling in primary and upper primary institutions. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse the Mid-Day Meal Scheme with other food and nutrition programmes, such as those related to anganwadi centres or targeted at specific vulnerable groups. To avoid confusion, remember that the word mid day refers to lunchtime in schools and is aimed at school going children. Final Answer: The Mid-Day Meal Scheme is designed to provide nutritious food to school going children.

Question 7

Which of the following schemes was specifically launched to promote basic education in India by attracting children of school going age to attend classes regularly through the provision of free cooked meals?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Many government schemes in India focus on different social objectives such as health, nutrition, and education. It is important for exam aspirants to know which scheme targets which objective. This question asks you to identify the scheme that aims to promote basic education by attracting children to school through the provision of free meals during the school day. Given Data / Assumptions: Four options are given: Pulse Polio Abhiyan, Operation Flood, Mid Day Meal scheme, and None of these. The description clearly refers to a scheme that combines education and nutrition to improve school attendance. We assume familiarity with the main goals of each named scheme. Concept / Approach: The Mid Day Meal scheme is designed to offer free cooked meals to children in government and government aided schools. Its objectives include increasing enrolment, reducing dropouts, improving attendance, and providing nutritional support. By offering a meal at school, it provides an incentive for parents to send children to school regularly. Other schemes listed have different focuses, such as immunisation or milk production, and are not primarily about school attendance. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Pulse Polio Abhiyan is a health campaign targeted at eradicating polio through vaccination, not directly aimed at school attendance.Step 2: Remember that Operation Flood is a dairy development programme that created a milk grid and promoted milk production.Step 3: The Mid Day Meal scheme provides cooked meals in schools to children, linking nutrition and primary education.Step 4: The description in the question matches the design of the Mid Day Meal scheme.Step 5: Therefore, the correct option is the Mid Day Meal scheme. Verification / Alternative check: Official guidelines for the Mid Day Meal scheme list as objectives: enhancing enrolment, improving children's retention in school, boosting regular attendance, and improving the nutritional status of children. This matches the description in the question. Pulse Polio Abhiyan and Operation Flood are widely known campaigns in different sectors, which confirm that they do not fit the description. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Pulse Polio Abhiyan: A national immunisation campaign against polio, focusing on health and disease eradication, not on school meals or attendance. Operation Flood: A programme that transformed India's dairy sector and made the country a major milk producer, with no direct link to school meals and classroom attendance. None of these: Incorrect because the Mid Day Meal scheme clearly fits the description given in the question. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes choose None of these if they are not confident about the exact name of the scheme or if they confuse different welfare programmes. To avoid this, it is useful to attach clear mental pictures to major schemes: cooks and school lunches for Mid Day Meal, polio drops for Pulse Polio, and milk cooperatives for Operation Flood. Final Answer: The scheme described is the Mid Day Meal scheme.

Question 8

For which of the following social security schemes is the entire insurance premium of the assured person paid by the Central Government, so that the beneficiary does not have to pay any premium personally?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Insurance based social security schemes often involve sharing of premium payments between the government, employers, and beneficiaries. However, in some cases, the government pays the entire premium on behalf of the beneficiary. This question asks which scheme is designed in such a way that the Central Government pays the full premium of the assured person, making it an important example of fully subsidised social security support. Given Data / Assumptions: The schemes listed are Jawahar Bhima Yojana, Shiksha Sahyog Yojana, Swarnajayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana, and None of these. We need to recall which scheme has full premium support from the Central Government. We assume familiarity with basic features of these social security schemes. Concept / Approach: Shiksha Sahyog Yojana is an educational scholarship scheme associated with social security insurance programmes. It is designed so that the Central Government pays the entire insurance premium on behalf of eligible beneficiaries. This makes the scheme especially useful for poorer sections because they receive coverage and related benefits without paying premium from their own pocket. Other schemes mentioned have different funding arrangements and are not fully funded by the Central Government for the beneficiary's premium. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Jawahar Bhima Yojana is an insurance scheme for rural workers where contributions may be shared, but it is not fully funded for the individual's premium.Step 2: Remember that Shiksha Sahyog Yojana provides educational support linked with social security and is known for being fully subsidised in terms of premium payment by the Central Government.Step 3: Swarnajayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana is an urban employment scheme rather than an insurance programme, so the idea of premium payment does not apply in the same way.Step 4: Therefore, the scheme in which the entire premium of the assured person is paid by the Central Government is Shiksha Sahyog Yojana. Verification / Alternative check: Exam oriented Indian economy and social security notes frequently include a question almost identical to this one, with the answer clearly given as Shiksha Sahyog Yojana. This pattern is consistent across multiple reliable exam preparation sources, confirming that Shiksha Sahyog Yojana is the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Jawahar Bhima Yojana: Although it is an insurance scheme for weaker sections, the entire premium is not paid exclusively by the Central Government for every assured person. Swarnajayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana: This is an employment generation programme in urban areas, not an insurance scheme where individual premiums are discussed in the same sense. None of these: Incorrect because Shiksha Sahyog Yojana clearly fits the description of a scheme with the entire premium paid by the Central Government. Common Pitfalls: Because the names of Indian schemes are often long and similar, aspirants sometimes mix them up, especially when there are multiple yojanas related to employment or social security. It helps to associate Shiksha Sahyog with education and full government support of premium, so that you can quickly recall this connection in exams. Final Answer: Shiksha Sahyog Yojana is the scheme in which the entire premium of the assured person is paid by the Central Government.

Question 9

Which of the following programmes is a government project specifically aimed at the development and management of rainfed watersheds in India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Watershed development is an important strategy for improving agricultural productivity and environmental sustainability in rainfed regions. India has launched several schemes and projects focused on watershed management. This question tests your knowledge of which acronym stands for a national watershed development project among the given options. Given Data / Assumptions: The options include DRDO, CARE, AVARD, and NWDPRA. We are asked to select the project related specifically to watershed development in India. We assume familiarity with common acronyms used in rural development and government projects. Concept / Approach: NWDPRA stands for National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas. This programme focuses on conservation of soil and water, improvement of land productivity, and sustainable livelihood in rainfed agricultural regions. The other acronyms refer to different organisations or programmes not primarily focused on watershed development as described in the question. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Expand each acronym in your mind or from your studies.Step 2: DRDO stands for Defence Research and Development Organisation, concerned with defence technology, not watershed development.Step 3: CARE is an international humanitarian organisation involved in relief and development, but not a specific Indian government watershed project.Step 4: AVARD stands for Association of Voluntary Agencies for Rural Development, which is a network of voluntary groups rather than a single government watershed project.Step 5: NWDPRA stands for National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas and matches exactly the description given in the question. Verification / Alternative check: Rural development and agricultural policy materials from the Government of India list NWDPRA as the main watershed development programme for rainfed areas. Questions in competitive exams often use this acronym to test knowledge of watershed schemes, reinforcing that NWDPRA is the correct answer here. Why Other Options Are Wrong: DRDO: This is a defence research organisation and has no direct connection with watershed development projects for agriculture. CARE: A non governmental international organisation engaged in humanitarian work; it is not the specific government watershed project listed in rural development programmes. AVARD: This is an umbrella body for voluntary agencies involved in rural development, not a dedicated national watershed project. Common Pitfalls: Acronyms can be confusing because they look similar and are used across many sectors. Students sometimes guess based on familiarity with the acronym rather than its full form. To avoid mistakes, try to remember key words like watershed and rainfed in connection with NWDPRA, which stands for National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas. Final Answer: NWDPRA is the project aimed at watershed development in rainfed areas of India.

Question 10

In the context of public finance and taxation, excise duty is a type of indirect tax that is levied mainly on which of the following activities?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Understanding different types of taxes is a key part of general knowledge for economic and competitive examinations. Excise duty is an important form of indirect tax, especially in the context of manufacturing and production. This question checks whether you can correctly identify the stage at which excise duty is levied. Given Data / Assumptions: The options cover different stages of a good's journey: export, import, sale, and production. We focus on the basic definition of excise duty as used in the Indian tax system, especially before the introduction of Goods and Services Tax for many items. We assume standard textbook definitions of customs duties, excise duties, and sales taxes. Concept / Approach: Excise duty is traditionally an inland tax on the manufacture or production of goods within a country. It is charged at the point where goods are produced, not at the point of import or export. Customs duty is levied on imports and exports at the border, while sales tax or value added tax applies at the point of sale. Therefore, excise duty is associated mainly with the production or manufacture stage. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that customs duty applies when goods cross national borders, that is, on import or export.Step 2: Recall that sales tax or value added tax applies when goods are sold to the final consumer or in the supply chain.Step 3: Excise duty is defined as a tax on the production or manufacture of goods within the country.Step 4: Compare the definitions with the options given.Step 5: Production of goods matches the definition of excise duty, so production is the correct option. Verification / Alternative check: Finance and taxation textbooks describe central excise duty as a duty levied on goods manufactured or produced in India. This is reinforced by official tax documentation and exam guides that contrast excise duty with customs duty and sales tax. Production is therefore the stage associated with excise duty. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Export of goods: Tax on exports is usually in the form of export duty, which is a type of customs duty, not excise duty. Import of goods: Tax on imports is customs duty, which is different from excise duty. Sale of goods: Taxes at the point of sale are sales tax, value added tax, or goods and services tax, not excise duty in the classical sense. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes mix up excise duty and sales tax because both are indirect taxes ultimately borne by consumers. It helps to remember that excise applies at the production stage, while sales related taxes apply when goods change hands. Another useful tip is to associate customs with the border, excise with the factory, and sales tax or value added tax with the shop. Final Answer: Excise duty is levied on the production of goods.

Question 11

Which among the following is not regarded as a normal function of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) within the Indian financial system?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank of the country and performs a wide range of functions related to currency, credit, and financial stability. Exam questions often ask which functions belong to the RBI and which do not, because this helps distinguish the role of a central bank from that of commercial banks. This question asks you to identify the function that is not considered a normal role of the RBI. Given Data / Assumptions: The options describe different possible roles: managing debt of other banks, acting as monetary authority, serving as banker to governments, and issuing bank notes. We assume knowledge of the core functions of the RBI as given in economic textbooks. The key is to distinguish functions relating to the state and the financial system from functions relating to individual commercial banks. Concept / Approach: The RBI has several major functions: it acts as the monetary authority and formulates and implements monetary policy, it is the banker to the central and state governments, it issues and manages currency notes, it acts as a banker's bank, and it maintains financial stability. However, the RBI does not act as a debt manager to individual commercial banks in the sense described in the option. It may provide liquidity support and act as lender of last resort, but managing debt of other banks is not described as a primary or normal function. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that formulating and implementing monetary policy is a core function of the RBI as monetary authority.Step 2: Recall that RBI serves as a banker to the Government of India and state governments, managing their accounts and some aspects of public debt.Step 3: Remember that RBI has the sole right to issue bank notes in India, making currency issuance one of its central responsibilities.Step 4: Consider the option about serving as debt manager to other banks. RBI may regulate and supervise banks, but managing their individual debts is not a standard listed function.Step 5: Therefore, the statement about serving as debt manager to other banks is the one that does not fit the normal description of RBI functions. Verification / Alternative check: Lists of RBI functions in standard Indian economy textbooks and official RBI documents mention currency issuance, government banking, regulation and supervision, development roles, and monetary policy. They do not list debt management for other banks as a core function. Although RBI may involve itself in resolution of stressed banks or provide emergency lending, this is different from a routine debt management role. Why Other Options Are Wrong: To work as monetary authority and implement its Monetary Policy: This is a primary function of the RBI and central to its role in managing inflation, credit, and liquidity. Serve as banker to central and state governments: RBI manages government accounts, facilitates payments, and helps in public debt management, which is a standard function. To serve as issuer of bank notes: RBI has the monopoly of note issue in India, making this one of its most important functions. Common Pitfalls: Some students misinterpret the RBI role of banker's bank and think it includes detailed debt management for each commercial bank. In reality, RBI provides liquidity facilities, supervision, and regulation, but banks manage their own debt portfolios. Keeping this distinction in mind helps in selecting the correct answer. Final Answer: The function that is not regarded as a normal role of the RBI is serving as debt manager to other banks.

Question 12

Entrepreneurship as a dynamic theory of business innovation and economic development was most prominently propounded by which of the following economists?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Entrepreneurship plays a central role in modern theories of economic growth and development. Among economists, Joseph A. Schumpeter is especially famous for highlighting the role of the entrepreneur as an innovator who introduces new combinations of resources, leading to creative destruction and economic progress. This question tests whether you can link the theoretical emphasis on entrepreneurship in business and economic development to the correct economist. Given Data / Assumptions: The options list four individuals: Thomas A. Coleman, Joseph A. Schumpeter, Adam Smith, and Douglas McGregor. We need to identify the economist associated with the theory of entrepreneurship as a driving force of business innovation. We assume basic knowledge of major economists and their key contributions. Concept / Approach: Joseph A. Schumpeter described the entrepreneur as the key agent of innovation who introduces new products, new methods of production, new markets, new sources of supply, and new forms of organisation. He argued that this process of innovation and creative destruction is central to economic development. While Adam Smith is known for his work on the wealth of nations and the role of markets, and Douglas McGregor is known for management theories such as Theory X and Theory Y, it is Schumpeter who is most strongly associated with a theory of entrepreneurship as a core driver of business dynamics. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Adam Smith focused mainly on classical economics, division of labour, and the invisible hand.Step 2: Remember that Douglas McGregor contributed theories related to human motivation and management, not a general economic theory of entrepreneurship.Step 3: Joseph A. Schumpeter emphasised entrepreneurs as innovators who bring about development through creative destruction.Step 4: The question refers to entrepreneurship as a theory of business and economic development, which aligns with Schumpeter's ideas.Step 5: Therefore, Joseph A. Schumpeter is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Books on entrepreneurship and development economics often dedicate sections to Schumpeter's theory of innovation driven growth. They highlight his idea that economic development is not a smooth continuation but a process driven by entrepreneurial innovations that disrupt the existing equilibrium. This confirms his central role in entrepreneurship theory. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Thomas A. Coleman: Not widely known in standard exam syllabi as a key theorist of entrepreneurship in the way Schumpeter is. Adam Smith: A foundational economist whose work focuses on markets and division of labour, but entrepreneurship is not the central theme in his theory. Douglas McGregor: Known for human motivation theories in management (Theory X and Theory Y), not primarily for a theory of entrepreneurship as a driver of economic development. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes select Adam Smith simply because he is the most famous name in economics. However, exam questions on entrepreneurship usually point to Schumpeter. A helpful memory cue is to link Schumpeter with the phrase creative destruction and the dynamic role of the entrepreneur. Final Answer: Entrepreneurship as a dynamic theory of business innovation was propounded by Joseph A. Schumpeter.

Question 13

In personal finance, what does the APR (Annual Percentage Rate) on a credit card actually determine about the cost of borrowing?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: APR stands for Annual Percentage Rate and is a very important term in personal finance, especially when we talk about credit cards and loans. Many new users confuse APR with simple interest rate, annual fee or some hidden charge. Examination questions on APR test whether you understand that APR is meant to summarise the overall yearly cost of borrowing on a credit product in percentage form. If you understand this clearly, you can compare different credit cards and loans in a rational way and avoid paying unnecessarily high interest charges over time. Given Data / Assumptions: The question is about APR on a credit card. We are asked what APR actually determines. We assume a standard consumer credit card used by an individual. The focus is on the cost of borrowing, not on rewards or fees credited to you. Concept / Approach: APR is defined as the yearly cost of borrowing, shown as a single percentage figure. For a credit card, this includes the interest rate the bank charges on revolving balances and may also reflect some compulsory fees as per regulatory definitions. The higher the APR, the more expensive it is to carry a balance from month to month. APR therefore helps consumers compare different credit products even if they have different fee structures and compounding conventions. It does not tell you your credit limit or the penalty for one missed payment as a rupee amount. Instead, it tells you how costly it is, on an annual basis, to borrow on that card if you carry unpaid balances. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify the key phrase in the question, which is APR on a credit card.Step 2: Recall that APR is defined in personal finance as the annualised cost of credit.Step 3: Connect APR with the idea of a percentage rate applied to the outstanding balance on the card.Step 4: Conclude that APR determines the yearly cost of borrowing on that card, not the bank fee paid to you, not the credit limit and not a one time penalty. Verification / Alternative check: A good way to verify your understanding is to imagine two credit cards. Card X has an APR of 18 percent and Card Y has an APR of 36 percent. If you carry the same unpaid balance on both cards for a year, Card Y will charge roughly double the interest cost of Card X. This confirms that APR is about the cost of borrowing. If APR were about the savings account or credit limit, comparing APR figures would not tell you anything about interest on borrowed amounts. Regulators around the world emphasise APR precisely so that consumers can compare borrowing costs easily. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A is wrong because APR is not the annual fee that the bank pays you for a savings account, it is what you pay to the bank when you borrow. Option C is wrong because APR is a percentage rate, not a fixed rupee penalty for one missed payment. Option D is wrong because the credit limit is decided by the bank based on your profile, but the limit itself is not determined by APR and is usually quoted as a rupee figure, not as a percentage rate. Common Pitfalls: Students often confuse APR with nominal interest rate or with simple interest that ignores compounding. Another common mistake is to think that APR is about rewards or cash back that the bank gives you. Some learners also assume that as long as they pay a small percentage of the bill, APR does not matter, but in reality carrying forward balances for many months under a high APR can lead to a large interest burden. It is also important not to confuse APR with Annual Percentage Yield, a term more common on savings products. Focusing on the name annual percentage rate helps you link it to the overall yearly cost of borrowing. Final Answer: The APR on a credit card determines the yearly cost of borrowing on that card, expressed as a percentage of the outstanding balance.

Question 14

Gross Domestic Product (GDP) can be calculated by summing which of the following major components of spending in an economy?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Gross Domestic Product, or GDP, is one of the most important macroeconomic indicators. It measures the market value of all final goods and services produced within a country in a given period. In the expenditure approach, GDP is broken into several broad spending categories. Examinations frequently test whether candidates remember the correct combination of these components and how they fit together in the standard GDP identity. Knowing this identity also helps you understand current affairs discussions about how different types of spending drive economic growth. Given Data / Assumptions: The question uses the expenditure method of calculating GDP. We are asked which combination of terms correctly describes the sum used in this method. Standard macroeconomic notation uses C for consumption, I for investment, G for government purchases and NX for net exports. Net exports equals exports minus imports. Concept / Approach: Under the expenditure approach, GDP is calculated as GDP = C + I + G + NX. Here C represents private consumption by households, I represents gross private domestic investment, G represents government purchases of goods and services, and NX represents net exports. Net exports are exports minus imports, because imports are not produced domestically. The key point is that imports are not simply added as a positive item in the GDP formula. Instead, they enter the identity through the net exports term. Any option that adds imports directly without subtracting exports is therefore incorrect. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the basic expenditure identity for GDP: GDP = C + I + G + NX.Step 2: Interpret NX as net exports, that is exports minus imports.Step 3: Look for the option that explicitly includes consumption, investment, government purchases and net exports.Step 4: Identify that only the first option correctly captures all four standard components of the expenditure approach. Verification / Alternative check: You can quickly verify by checking any standard macroeconomics textbook or reliable economic summary, where the expenditure approach always appears in the same form. Another quick mental check is to ask how imports affect GDP. If an option simply adds imports directly, that would raise GDP when imports rise, which is not correct because imports are foreign produced goods. Instead, they must be subtracted from exports to get net exports. Thinking through this logic further confirms that consumption, investment, government purchases and net exports are the correct set of components in the expenditure method of calculating GDP. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option B is wrong because it adds imports directly without considering exports, which is inconsistent with net exports. Option C is wrong because it replaces net exports with wages and salaries, which are part of the income approach, not the expenditure approach. Option D is wrong because it mixes household factor incomes rather than the spending categories needed for the expenditure method. Only the combination with net exports correctly reflects the standard GDP identity under the expenditure approach. Common Pitfalls: Candidates often mix up the expenditure and income approaches, confusing factor incomes such as wages, rent and interest with spending categories. Another common error is to forget that imports are not a separate positive term in the GDP formula but are netted out from exports. Students may also overlook that government purchases in this context refer to government spending on final goods and services, not transfer payments. Memorising the simple form GDP equals C plus I plus G plus NX and understanding what each letter stands for is the best way to avoid these mistakes in an exam setting. Final Answer: GDP can be calculated by summing consumption, investment, government purchases and net exports.

Question 15

Which of the following statements about how taxes are collected at different government levels is false?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Modern tax systems are layered, with revenue often collected at several levels of government such as local, state and national authorities. General knowledge questions about taxation test whether you understand this multi level structure and are aware that different regions can have different tax policies. The question here is asking you to identify the false or incorrect statement among four descriptions of how taxes are collected, so you must carefully compare each statement with basic facts about tax systems in federal countries like the United States. Given Data / Assumptions: The context is a federal system with local, state and national governments. Some states choose not to impose certain taxes, such as a state income tax or a general sales tax. Local bodies may levy property taxes or other local charges. There is no rule that amounts collected at each level must be equal. Concept / Approach: The correct conceptual approach is to recall that tax structures vary widely across states. In some federations, a few states do not have a state income tax, while others do. Similarly, certain states choose not to impose a state wide general sales tax. However, local governments and the national government still collect taxes. The false statement in the question will usually be an exaggerated or absolute claim that does not hold in reality, such as saying that tax collections must be equal at all levels. Recognising such unrealistic uniformity claims is a useful exam technique for questions that ask for the incorrect option. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Examine option A, which states that some states do not collect a state income tax. This is true in several real world cases.Step 2: Examine option C, which claims that taxes are collected at local, state and federal levels. This is also true in federal tax systems.Step 3: Examine option D, which states that some states do not collect a general state sales tax. This is again true in certain states.Step 4: Examine option B, which states that taxes at all three levels are exactly equal in amount, and identify this as false because tax revenues differ widely by level and region. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, you can consider a practical example from a federal country. The central government typically collects large revenues from income tax, customs and corporate tax. States collect less in comparison, and local bodies usually collect much smaller amounts from property tax and service charges. There is no requirement that these amounts match exactly. The very idea that local, state and federal tax collections could be exactly equal is unrealistic. This reasoning confirms that the statement about equality of collections is false, while the other statements simply describe variations in tax policy across states, which are known to occur. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A is a true statement because some states genuinely choose not to impose a state level personal income tax. Option C is also true because modern tax systems commonly have collection at local, state and federal levels. Option D is true as well, since some states do not levy a general sales tax, relying instead on other revenue sources. Only option B makes the obviously incorrect claim that the amounts collected at all three levels are exactly equal, which does not happen in practice and therefore is the false statement requested by the question. Common Pitfalls: One common mistake is not reading the word false or incorrect carefully and instead choosing a statement that looks different but is actually true. Another pitfall is assuming standardisation where none exists, such as thinking that the same tax must exist everywhere or that all levels must collect identical amounts. In the examination hall, always underline or mentally highlight whether you are being asked for a true statement or a false one, and then systematically test each option against your basic knowledge of how governments raise revenue. Final Answer: The false statement is that taxes collected at the local, state, and federal levels are all exactly equal in amount.

Question 16

In the history of Indian economic thought, who is popularly known as the father of Indian economics?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Indian economic thought developed through the writings and work of several nationalist leaders and social reformers during the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries. Among these, Mahadev Govind Ranade is often honoured with the title father of Indian economics or father of modern economic thought in India. Questions of this type check whether a candidate can connect key personalities with the titles and contributions for which they are remembered in Indian economic history. This knowledge is especially relevant for competitive examinations that integrate economics with modern Indian history. Given Data / Assumptions: The question asks specifically about the father of Indian economics. The options include Gopal Krishna Gokhale, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Adam Smith and Mahadev Govind Ranade. Adam Smith is known as the father of modern economics at the global level, not specifically Indian economics. Ranade was a prominent Indian judge, social reformer and economic thinker. Concept / Approach: Mahadev Govind Ranade wrote extensively on economic issues affecting India under colonial rule. He analysed topics such as industrialisation, agriculture, poverty and the impact of British economic policies on Indian society. His writings tried to apply economic reasoning to Indian conditions, and he strongly advocated industrial and social reforms. Because of his systematic and pioneering economic analysis focused on India, many scholars and textbooks refer to him as the father of Indian economics. By contrast, Gopal Krishna Gokhale is known more for political leadership and social reform, while Adam Smith is associated with global economic theory, not with Indian conditions specifically. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that Adam Smith is widely called the father of modern economics, but his work is not India specific.Step 2: Recall that Gopal Krishna Gokhale and Bal Gangadhar Tilak were leading nationalist politicians and social reformers.Step 3: Remember that Mahadev Govind Ranade is credited with detailed economic analysis of Indian society and is often referred to as the father of Indian economics.Step 4: Select Mahadev Govind Ranade as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, you can recall how exam preparation books present these associations. They usually state that Adam Smith is the father of economics in general, while Ranade is the father of Indian economics. They also highlight that Ranade belonged to the group of moderates in the Indian National Congress and wrote on industrialisation and economic reform, linking his economic analysis to policy suggestions for India. This repeated association in study material and historical overviews confirms that Ranade is the correct choice for the title mentioned in the question. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A, Gopal Krishna Gokhale, is wrong because he is mainly remembered as a political leader, parliamentarian and social reformer, though he did have economic views. Option B, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, is wrong because he is known as Lokmanya Tilak and as a militant nationalist leader, not as the father of Indian economics. Option C, Adam Smith, is internationally famous for his work The Wealth of Nations and is known as the father of modern economics globally, but not specifically as the father of Indian economics. Only option D correctly identifies Mahadev Govind Ranade with this Indian title. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse global and Indian titles, mixing up Adam Smith and Ranade. Another mistake is to assume that the most politically famous name among the options must be the right answer, which is not the case here. The safe strategy in such questions is to consciously separate world level epithets from India specific ones and to revise a list of important titles and personalities in advance. This helps avoid guesswork and improves accuracy in the examination. Final Answer: Mahadev Govind Ranade is popularly known as the father of Indian economics.

Question 17

In basic economic theory, the true economic cost of something is best defined in which way?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: One of the most fundamental ideas in economics is the concept of opportunity cost. Rather than looking only at the explicit money price of a good or activity, economists define the true economic cost as what you give up in order to obtain it. This includes the value of the next best alternative use of your time, money or other resources. Many introductory questions test your ability to distinguish between simple money cost and opportunity cost, which is the correct economic definition of cost used in decision making and economic analysis. Given Data / Assumptions: The question asks for the correct definition of the cost of something in economics. We assume rational decision makers who face scarcity of resources. Resources such as time and money can be used in alternative ways. The term cost refers to economic cost, not just the accounting or money cost. Concept / Approach: In economics, scarcity forces choices. Whenever you choose one option, you give up the opportunity to use the same resources for something else. The value of that next best alternative is called the opportunity cost. Therefore, economic cost includes both explicit costs (such as rupees paid) and implicit costs (such as the income you forgo by studying instead of working). Focusing only on the money you pay at the market does not capture this full concept. A correct definition must mention what you give up, not just the rupee amount or the time spent. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Read the options and identify which ones mention only money, only time, or the broader idea of what is given up.Step 2: Recall the textbook definition that economic cost equals the value of the next best alternative forgone.Step 3: Compare this definition with the option that mentions what you give up to get something, including alternative uses of resources.Step 4: Select that option as the correct description of economic cost. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this understanding through a simple example. Suppose you have enough savings to either take a professional course or go on a long vacation. If you choose the course, the opportunity cost is the enjoyment and relaxation you would have experienced on the vacation. This cost is real even though it is not paid in rupees. Similarly, if you choose to work instead of studying, the opportunity cost is the additional knowledge and future career options you might have gained. These examples show that economic cost must be defined in terms of alternatives forgone, not just money paid at the time of purchase. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A is wrong because it focuses only on the explicit rupee or dollar price, ignoring the value of sacrificed alternatives. Option C is wrong because economists do not ignore cost; they formalise it precisely through opportunity cost. Option D is wrong because cost is not always measured only in hours of time; it also includes alternative uses of money and other resources. Only option B gives the broader and correct definition by referring to what you give up to obtain something, including the next best alternative use of those resources. Common Pitfalls: Students often equate cost with price and fail to consider non monetary sacrifices such as lost leisure or missed opportunities. Another common mistake is to think of time spent as the only cost, instead of one among many components of opportunity cost. To avoid these errors, always remember that cost in economics refers to the value of the next best alternative that you cannot pursue because of your current choice. This perspective is central to understanding decision making under scarcity. Final Answer: In economics, the cost of something is whatever you give up to get it, including the value of the next best alternative use of your resources.

Question 18

Capitalism is an economic system in which which type of entities primarily own and control capital goods and productive resources?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Different economic systems are classified based on who owns and controls the means of production, especially capital goods such as factories, machines and financial assets. Capitalism is one of the most widely discussed systems in economics and political science. Questions about capitalism typically ask you to identify its defining feature, which is private ownership and control of capital goods and the presence of markets where goods and services are exchanged for profit. Understanding this clearly helps distinguish capitalism from socialism, mixed economies and command economies. Given Data / Assumptions: The question is about the basic definition of capitalism. Capital goods include tools, machines, factories and equipment used to produce other goods. Ownership and control patterns determine the label given to an economic system. The focus here is on who primarily owns capital goods in a capitalist system. Concept / Approach: In a capitalist system, private individuals and business firms own most of the productive resources and capital goods. They make production and investment decisions based on profit motives and market signals such as prices. The government may still regulate or own some sectors, but the dominant mode is private ownership and market based allocation. In contrast, in a socialist or command economy, the state owns and controls most major means of production. Therefore, any option that describes government or public ownership of all capital goods would characterise a different system, not capitalism. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Focus on the phrase capital goods and ask who owns them in a capitalist system.Step 2: Recall that capitalism is associated with private property, private firms and market competition.Step 3: Compare the options and locate the one that states private individuals and firms own and control most capital goods.Step 4: Confirm that this description matches the standard definition of capitalism and select it as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, you can think of classical examples such as the United States or other market based economies, where private companies own factories, technology and other capital goods, while individuals own financial capital and real assets. The government does regulate and tax these entities, but it does not normally own all productive resources. Textbook definitions also emphasise private ownership of capital, voluntary exchange and profit seeking behaviour as hallmarks of capitalism. This confirmation from real world examples and theory assures you that the private ownership option is correct. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option B is wrong because it describes a system where public entities own all capital goods, which is closer to a socialist or command economy. Option C is incorrect because international organisations such as the International Monetary Fund do not directly own the major industries of a country. Option D is wrong because religious institutions may own some property in specific cases, but they do not define the overall structure of a capitalist economy. Only option A captures the central feature that private individuals and firms own and control most capital goods in capitalism. Common Pitfalls: A common confusion is between capitalism and mixed economies, where both private and public sectors coexist. Even in a mixed economy, if the private sector dominates capital ownership, the system is usually still described as broadly capitalist. Students may also mistakenly equate capitalism only with free trade or only with democracy. For exam purposes, the safest and most precise way to remember the concept is that capitalism means predominantly private ownership of capital goods operating through markets for profit. Final Answer: Capitalism is an economic system in which private individuals and firms own and control most capital goods and productive resources.

Question 19

Which one of the following is not a standard method used for the measurement of national income of a country?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: National income accounting is a core topic in macroeconomics. It deals with the measurement of the total value of goods and services produced within a country. Standard textbooks explain that there are three main methods that, in principle, should give the same estimate of national income. Examination questions often ask you to recall the names of these methods and to identify any option that does not belong to this standard list. This tests both basic memory and understanding of what each method measures. Given Data / Assumptions: National income can be measured by more than one method. The three accepted methods are the value added (or product) method, the income method and the expenditure method. The term investment is part of national income accounts but is not itself the name of a complete method. The question asks for the option that is not a method of measuring national income. Concept / Approach: The value added method sums the value added by each producing unit or industry in the economy. The income method sums all factor incomes such as wages, rent, interest and profit received by residents. The expenditure method sums the expenditures on final goods and services, usually in the form of consumption, investment, government expenditure and net exports. All three methods should, in theory, give the same value for national income. Investment, however, is a single component in the expenditure method, not a fourth independent method. Therefore, any option that lists investment method as a separate method is incorrect. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the three standard methods: product or value added method, income method and expenditure method.Step 2: Match these names with the options provided.Step 3: Observe that value added method, income method and expenditure method all appear as options and are legitimate methods.Step 4: Identify investment method as the odd one out that is not recognised as a full method of national income measurement. Verification / Alternative check: If you check any introductory macroeconomics text, it will explain national income measurement under three headings corresponding to product, income and expenditure. You will not find a separate section called investment method. Instead, investment is included as one of the spending components under the expenditure method. This cross check confirms that investment method is not a standard name for measuring national income and therefore must be the correct choice for this question. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A is correct as a method because the value added method, also called the product method, calculates national income by summing value added at each stage of production. Option B is correct because the income method sums factor incomes. Option C is correct because the expenditure method sums total spending on final goods and services. Option D, investment method, is wrong in this context because investment is only one component of expenditure and not an independent method of measuring national income. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes misinterpret the close relationship between investment and growth and assume that there must be an investment based method of calculating national income. Another error is to think that any macroeconomic term that appears in the national accounts can be used as the label for a method. To avoid such mistakes, it is important to memorise the three standard method names and remember that any fourth unfamiliar label is likely to be the incorrect option in such questions. Final Answer: The method that is not used as a standard way of measuring national income is the so called investment method.

Question 20

The Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana (SJSRY), launched on 1 December 1997 to provide gainful employment to the urban unemployed and underemployed poor, did not include which of the following earlier schemes?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana, commonly abbreviated as SJSRY, was an important urban poverty alleviation programme of the Government of India. It aimed to provide gainful employment to the urban unemployed and underemployed poor through self employment and wage employment components. When it was launched on 1 December 1997, SJSRY subsumed or merged several earlier urban schemes. Competitive examinations often ask which schemes were merged and which remained separate, because this reflects an understanding of how government programmes evolve over time. Given Data / Assumptions: SJSRY is an urban employment and poverty alleviation scheme. It became operational from 1 December 1997. It subsumed certain earlier schemes related to urban poverty. We must identify which option names a scheme that was not included under SJSRY. Concept / Approach: When SJSRY was introduced, it replaced or combined earlier schemes such as the Nehru Rozgar Yojana, the Urban Basic Services for the Poor programme and the Prime Minister Integrated Urban Poverty Eradication Programme. However, the Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana was primarily a scheme to promote self employment for educated unemployed youth and was not limited to urban local bodies. It was not formally subsumed within SJSRY. Therefore, the correct approach to this question is to recall which schemes were explicitly listed as merged into SJSRY and recognise that Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana continued separately. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Remember that SJSRY was designed to rationalise multiple urban poverty schemes.Step 2: List the schemes that were merged: Nehru Rozgar Yojana, Urban Basic Services for the Poor and Prime Minister Integrated Urban Poverty Eradication Programme.Step 3: Compare this list with the options given in the question.Step 4: Note that Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana is not among the schemes merged into SJSRY and therefore is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by noting the target groups and scope of the schemes. Nehru Rozgar Yojana and Prime Minister Integrated Urban Poverty Eradication Programme were clearly focused on urban unemployment and poverty, which aligned naturally with SJSRY and justified their merger. Urban Basic Services programmes also operated in poor urban localities. Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana, on the other hand, was a broader self employment scheme for educated unemployed youth in both urban and rural areas and had its own structure and guidelines. This difference in design and target group supports the conclusion that it was not merged into SJSRY. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A, Nehru Rozgar Yojana, is wrong as an answer because it was indeed one of the schemes merged into SJSRY. Option B, Urban Basic Services Programme, is also wrong because it was brought within the new umbrella framework. Option C, Prime Minister Integrated Urban Poverty Eradication Programme, is again wrong as an answer because this scheme was specifically conceived for urban poverty and was merged into SJSRY. Only option D, Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana, remained separate and therefore correctly answers the question asking which scheme was not included. Common Pitfalls: Candidates often confuse the two Prime Minister schemes because of similar names, without paying attention to the words integrated urban poverty. Another pitfall is to memorise only one or two of the merged schemes and then guess the rest. A better strategy is to make a concise table in your notes listing which older schemes were merged into which new umbrella programmes for both urban and rural areas. This helps you answer a wide variety of questions about government schemes accurately. Final Answer: SJSRY did not include the Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana, which continued as a separate self employment scheme.

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