Question 1

In public finance, money spent by the government on its programmes and activities is referred to as what?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question is about basic terms used in government budgeting and public finance. Governments collect money from various sources and then spend it on different programmes, schemes, and administrative functions. Understanding the difference between revenue and expenditure is essential for reading budget documents and answering economy related questions in competitive exams. Given Data / Assumptions: The context is government budgeting. The focus is money spent on government programmes. Options include revenue, obligation, expenditure, bonding, and surplus. Concept / Approach: In a government budget, revenue refers to receipts, that is, money coming in from taxes, fees, and other sources. Expenditure refers to payments made by the government to fund schemes, salaries, interest, subsidies, and capital projects. Obligations are commitments to pay, but not the actual payments themselves. Bonding refers to issuing bonds to borrow money. Surplus refers to the situation where revenue exceeds expenditure. The correct term for the act of spending money on programmes is expenditure. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that a standard budget is divided into two main sides, receipts and expenditure.Step 2: Money spent on health, education, defence, infrastructure, and welfare schemes appears on the expenditure side.Step 3: Revenue is the term used for money received, not money spent.Step 4: Therefore, the technical term for money spent is government expenditure.Step 5: Select expenditure as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Looking at any budget speech or budget summary, you will see headings such as revenue expenditure, capital expenditure, and total expenditure. These sections list the amounts allocated to different ministries and schemes. On the other side, you see revenue receipts, capital receipts, and so on. This layout confirms that the standard term for spending is expenditure. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Revenue is the opposite side of the budget and refers to inflows, especially tax and non tax receipts. Obligation can mean a promise or legal duty to pay but is not the usual label for actual spending in budget tables. Bonding refers to raising funds by selling government bonds to investors. Surplus is the excess of revenue over expenditure and is a result, not the act of spending itself. Common Pitfalls: Some learners casually use revenue to mean any government money, including outflows, which leads to confusion. Others confuse deficit and expenditure, thinking that high spending automatically means a deficit, which is only true if spending is greater than revenue. Keeping the basic budget identity clear, where revenue is incoming funds and expenditure is outgoing funds, will help avoid these mistakes in exam questions. Final Answer: Money spent on government programmes and activities is referred to as expenditure in public finance.

Question 2

In cost accounting, sales commissions paid to the sales force are generally classified as which type of cost?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question comes from basic cost and management accounting. It asks how sales commissions should be classified. For exam purposes, it is important to distinguish between product costs, which are tied to producing goods, and period costs, which are linked to time periods and are expensed in the period in which they are incurred. Sales commissions are a typical example used to test this classification. Given Data / Assumptions: The cost item in question is sales commissions paid to sales staff. The context is cost classification in accounting. Options include period costs, indirect labour, overhead, product costs, and direct material. Concept / Approach: Product costs include direct material, direct labour, and manufacturing overhead. These costs are attached to units of goods and become part of inventory until the goods are sold. Period costs include selling, distribution, and administrative expenses that are related to time periods rather than individual units. Sales commissions arise only when sales are made and are part of selling and distribution expenses. Therefore, they are treated as period costs rather than product costs. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify whether sales commissions are incurred in the factory or in the selling function.Step 2: Realise that these payments are linked to the selling activity, often based on a percentage of sales.Step 3: Selling and distribution costs are typical period costs and are not included in the cost of inventory.Step 4: Therefore, sales commissions should be classified as period costs, specifically as selling expenses.Step 5: Choose the option that states period costs as the classification. Verification / Alternative check: In standard cost sheets, product costs stop at the cost of goods manufactured. Afterwards, a separate section called selling and distribution overhead is added to arrive at the cost of sales. Sales commissions appear in this later section, confirming that they are not part of manufacturing cost or product cost. In income statements, they are typically expensed in the period in which the related sales occur, again showing their period cost nature. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Indirect labour refers to wages of factory workers who are not directly engaged in production, such as supervisors or maintenance staff, not sales personnel. Manufacturing overhead includes factory related indirect expenses, not selling costs. Product costs are those that are capitalised as inventory; including sales commissions there would overstate inventory value. Direct material costs cover raw materials and components, which is clearly different from sales commissions. Common Pitfalls: A common error is to treat any cost that varies with the level of sales or production as a product cost. While sales commissions do vary with sales volume, they are linked to selling activity, not to manufacturing activity. Another pitfall is ignoring the location and function where the cost arises. A good rule is to ask whether the cost could exist even if there were no manufacturing, but only trading. Sales commissions would still exist in a pure trading firm, which confirms that they are not manufacturing product costs. Final Answer: Sales commissions are generally classified as period costs (selling and administrative expenses) in cost accounting.

Question 3

A business organisation that is owned and controlled by a single individual is known as which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question relates to basic forms of business organisation. Understanding the differences between a sole proprietorship, partnership, company, and non profit entity is very important for commerce, business studies, and general knowledge about the Indian economy. The most simple and common form of business ownership is the one owned by a single individual. Given Data / Assumptions: The business has only one owner. The owner controls and manages the business. There is no mention of incorporation or separate legal personality. Concept / Approach: A sole proprietorship is a business owned, financed, and controlled by one person. The owner gets all the profits and bears all the risks. In contrast, partnerships involve two or more persons. Companies such as private limited or public limited companies have separate legal identity and can have many shareholders. Non profit organisations are set up for charitable or social purposes and do not distribute profits to owners in the usual way. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Focus on the phrase owned by one person, which is the key clue.Step 2: Recall that a sole proprietorship is defined exactly in these terms.Step 3: Recognise that a partnership by definition must have more than one owner.Step 4: Limited liability companies and public companies involve registration and can have many shareholders, not just one individual owner.Step 5: Therefore the correct answer is sole proprietorship. Verification / Alternative check: Examples of sole proprietorships include many small retail shops, neighbourhood grocery stores, and small service providers such as local tailors or small repair shops. In these cases, a single individual usually takes all major decisions and receives the profit. Larger firms such as banks or big manufacturing companies are almost always organised as partnerships or companies, which confirms the distinction. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Non profit organisations are typically governed by a board or trust and are not described simply as businesses owned by one person. Limited liability companies and public limited companies have separate legal personality and shareholder structures, even if at the very beginning they may have a small number of shareholders. Partnership firms, by definition, involve at least two persons agreed to do business and share profits. None of these match the simple one person ownership described in the question. Common Pitfalls: Sometimes learners confuse sole proprietorship with single person company, which is a separate legal concept created under company law, where a single person can form a company with limited liability. In basic business studies questions, however, the phrase business owned by one person almost always refers to the traditional sole proprietorship. Always read the level of the question; if it is introductory, simple forms like sole proprietorship and partnership are usually tested. Final Answer: A business owned and controlled by one person is called a sole proprietorship.

Question 4

In national income accounting, Gross Domestic Product at factor cost is obtained by making which adjustment to GDP at market prices?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question belongs to national income accounting, a core area of macroeconomics and Indian economy. It asks how to derive Gross Domestic Product at factor cost from GDP at market prices. Understanding the difference between factor cost and market price and the role of indirect taxes and subsidies is essential for correctly interpreting official national income figures. Given Data / Assumptions: We are given GDP at market prices as the starting point. We want to arrive at GDP at factor cost. Options involve adding or subtracting indirect taxes, subsidies, depreciation, and net factor income from abroad. Concept / Approach: Market price includes the effects of indirect taxes such as excise duty and GST and also reflects subsidies given on products. Factor cost represents the income received by factors of production, such as wages, rent, interest, and profit, before the effect of product related taxes and subsidies. Therefore, to go from market price to factor cost, we remove indirect taxes and add subsidies. Net factor income from abroad and depreciation relate to converting between domestic and national aggregates or between gross and net values, not between factor cost and market price. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the basic relationship: GDP at market prices equals GDP at factor cost plus indirect taxes minus subsidies.Step 2: Rearrange this relationship to express GDP at factor cost in terms of GDP at market prices.Step 3: This gives GDP at factor cost equals GDP at market prices minus indirect taxes plus subsidies.Step 4: Compare this expression with the options provided.Step 5: The option that matches this adjustment is GDP minus indirect taxes plus subsidies. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify by using a simple numerical example. Suppose GDP at market prices is 1000 units, indirect taxes are 100 units, and subsidies are 20 units. Then GDP at factor cost equals 1000 minus 100 plus 20, which is 920 units. If you add back the indirect taxes and subtract subsidies, you would move in the opposite direction, from factor cost to market prices. This confirms the correct direction of adjustment. Why Other Options Are Wrong: GNP minus depreciation allowances gives net national product at market price, not GDP at factor cost. NNP plus depreciation allowances gives gross national product, not the domestic aggregate at factor cost. GDP minus subsidies plus indirect taxes reverses the correct signs and would move from factor cost to market prices, not the other way round. GNP minus net factor income from abroad gives GDP, but this calculation deals with domestic versus national concepts, not factor cost versus market price. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to memorise formulas mechanically and then confuse the direction of adjustments. Students often forget whether to add or subtract taxes and subsidies when converting between factor cost and market price. A helpful rule is to remember that factor cost is closer to the income received by factors, so you must strip away product taxes and add back subsidies. Writing a small chain of equalities from GDP at factor cost to GDP at market prices and then reversing it during revision can prevent errors in the exam. Final Answer: GDP at factor cost is obtained from GDP at market prices by subtracting indirect taxes and adding subsidies, that is, GDP minus indirect taxes plus subsidies.

Question 5

Under which Five Year Plan did the Government of India introduce the new agricultural strategy that led to the Green Revolution?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question connects Indian planning history with agricultural development. The Green Revolution refers to the introduction of high yielding varieties of seeds, chemical fertilisers, irrigation expansion, and improved farming practices, which led to a sharp rise in food grain production. Knowing under which Five Year Plan the government adopted this new agricultural strategy is a standard question in Indian economy and history examinations. Given Data / Assumptions: The focus is on the new agricultural strategy that triggered the Green Revolution. The question is about the Five Year Plan under which it was introduced. Options list the Second, Third, Fourth, Sixth, and Seventh Five Year Plans. Concept / Approach: The early plans of India had different priorities. The First Plan concentrated on agriculture and irrigation due to the food crisis at independence. The Second Plan emphasised heavy industry and the public sector, following the Mahalanobis model. The new agricultural strategy, which came to be known as the Green Revolution, was launched during the period of the Third Five Year Plan and subsequent years, particularly in the mid 1960s. It was further intensified in later years but was conceptually introduced around the time of the Third Plan. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Third Five Year Plan covered the period from 1961 to 1966.Step 2: The mid 1960s saw food shortages, leading to attempts to increase production rapidly.Step 3: During the Third Plan period, the government began to adopt the new agricultural strategy, including intensive agriculture districts and high yielding variety programmes.Step 4: Later plans consolidated and extended these measures, but the initial policy shift occurred under the Third Plan.Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is the Third Five Year Plan. Verification / Alternative check: You can cross check by lining up the chronology of important events. The Green Revolution in India is usually dated to around 1965 to 1968, when new seeds and inputs began to be used extensively in states like Punjab, Haryana, and western Uttar Pradesh. This timeline coincides with the Third Plan and the early years following it. The Second Plan (1956 to 1961) was still strongly oriented toward heavy industry, while the Fourth Plan (1969 onwards) built on gains already started by the Green Revolution approach. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The Second Plan focused on rapid industrialisation and did not launch the Green Revolution strategy. The Fourth, Sixth, and Seventh Plans came later and were important for consolidating and extending agricultural advances, but they were not the initial launch pad for the new strategy. Exam questions that mention the introduction or origin of the Green Revolution in India normally expect the Third Five Year Plan as the answer. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes mistakenly associate the Green Revolution solely with later plans because its visible impact on production continued for decades. Others confuse the early emphasis on agriculture in the First Plan with the specific Green Revolution strategy, which involved modern inputs and technology rather than simply expanding area or irrigation. To avoid errors, tie the term Green Revolution to the mid 1960s and the Third Plan period in your memory. Final Answer: The new agricultural strategy that led to the Green Revolution was introduced under the Third Five Year Plan of India.

Question 6

During the last decade, which sector of the Indian economy has shown the most remarkable expansion in terms of contribution to national income?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question examines your understanding of structural changes in the Indian economy. Over time, different sectors have grown at different speeds, changing their relative contribution to national income. In recent decades, the service or tertiary sector has played a leading role in Indias economic growth. Recognising this trend is important for questions on growth, development, and sectoral composition of GDP. Given Data / Assumptions: The time frame mentioned is the last decade, reflecting recent trends. Options include the primary, secondary, tertiary, mining, and handloom sectors. The question asks which sector has shown remarkable expansion, especially in terms of contribution to GDP or national income. Concept / Approach: The primary sector includes agriculture, forestry, and fishing. The secondary sector covers manufacturing, construction, and industry. The tertiary sector includes services such as trade, transport, finance, real estate, information technology, communication, tourism, education, and health. In India, growth in services has been especially strong, driven by IT and business process outsourcing, financial services, telecommunications, and modern retail. As a result, the tertiary sector now contributes the largest share to GDP and has expanded more rapidly than the primary and secondary sectors. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Indias GDP composition has shifted from agriculture toward services over the last several decades.Step 2: In the most recent decade, services like IT, banking, telecom, and tourism have grown at high rates.Step 3: Agricultural growth has been more modest and subject to monsoon dependence.Step 4: Manufacturing has grown but has not matched the service sector in terms of share and speed.Step 5: Therefore, the sector that has shown the most remarkable expansion is the tertiary or services sector. Verification / Alternative check: Looking at any recent Economic Survey or basic data on the Indian economy, you will find that services account for well over half of GDP, whereas agriculture contributes a much smaller share. For example, the IT and business process management industry alone contributes a significant percentage of GDP and exports. This supports the widely accepted view that India is now a service led economy, not primarily an agricultural or manufacturing led one. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The primary sector remains important for employment and food security but has not shown the same high growth rate as services. The secondary sector, including manufacturing, has expanded but has often been described as not growing as fast as desired, leading to debate about missing manufacturing growth. Mining and quarrying is a small and volatile component and cannot be called the main driver. Handloom and cottage industries are important for traditional employment but do not dominate GDP growth. Common Pitfalls: Some learners assume that because most people in India still work in agriculture, the primary sector must be the most dynamic. However, employment share and income share are different concepts. Another pitfall is to think that manufacturing must lead growth as it did historically in many developed countries. India has followed a somewhat different pattern, with services playing a disproportionately large role, so it is important to update older models with actual data from the Indian case. Final Answer: During the last decade, the sector that has shown the most remarkable expansion in the Indian economy is the tertiary sector (services such as IT, trade, and finance).

Question 7

Which of the following is definitely a major indicator of the overall state of the economy of a country?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question asks you to identify a key macroeconomic indicator that reflects the overall health or state of an economy. Many statistics can be collected, such as inflation rates, bank counts, and food grain stocks, but some indicators are more central than others. Recognising which variable is widely used as a summary measure of economic performance is important for exams on Indian economy and general studies. Given Data / Assumptions: The options include GDP growth rate, inflation rate, number of banks, stock of food grains, and number of notes printed. The phrase definitely a major indication suggests a broad, widely accepted measure. We are interested in the overall state of the economy rather than a narrow aspect. Concept / Approach: Gross Domestic Product measures the total value of final goods and services produced in an economy. The rate of GDP growth over time shows how fast the economy is expanding or contracting. It captures changes in output, income, and production across sectors. Although inflation, employment, and other variables also matter, GDP growth rate is usually the single headline indicator that governments, media, and international agencies use to describe economic performance. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify which option directly measures total production or income in the economy.Step 2: The rate of GDP growth does this by comparing GDP across years.Step 3: Inflation rate measures changes in the price level, which is important but does not by itself show whether output is rising or falling.Step 4: The number of banks or stock of food grains are specific sectoral statistics, not all economy indicators.Step 5: Therefore the best single major indicator of the state of the economy is the rate of GDP growth. Verification / Alternative check: You can confirm this by observing how economic news is reported. Headlines often say that an economy grew by a certain percent in a year, or that growth has slowed down. International institutions like the World Bank and IMF publish GDP growth forecasts as shorthand for economic performance. Inflation, bank numbers, or food stocks are discussed, but none of them replace GDP growth as the main summary statistic. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Inflation is an important indicator of price stability but does not measure the level of economic activity or total output. The number of banks may reflect financial sector development to some degree but tells you little about agriculture, industry, and services output. The stock of food grains matters for food security but is influenced by policy and storage decisions and cannot summarise the whole economy. The number of notes printed is a technical matter for currency management and is not used as a performance indicator. Common Pitfalls: Students may be tempted to pick inflation because it affects daily life through prices of goods. However, the question asks about the state of the economy as a whole, for which growth in output and income is more central. Another pitfall is to look at very visible items such as the number of banks without thinking about how little they say about sectors like manufacturing or services. Always prefer broad, output based measures such as GDP growth when asked about overall economic performance. Final Answer: The variable that is definitely a major indicator of the overall state of an economy is the rate of GDP growth over time.

Question 8

Which of the following schemes was launched specifically to promote basic education in India and attract children of school going age to attend classes?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question is about major social sector schemes in India. Several flagship programmes have aimed to improve education, nutrition, and health. The question focuses on the scheme whose central purpose is to attract children of school going age to attend classes and to promote basic education, especially for children from poorer households. Given Data / Assumptions: The schemes listed include Pulse Polio Abhiyan, Operation Flood, Mid Day Meal Scheme, Operation Blackboard, and Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan. We must identify which scheme directly uses incentives like meals to pull children into school. The emphasis is on attendance and attraction to classes rather than infrastructure alone. Concept / Approach: The Mid Day Meal Scheme provides cooked meals to children in primary and upper primary schools. The objectives are to improve nutritional status, encourage enrolment, reduce dropouts, and promote regular attendance. Pulse Polio Abhiyan is a health campaign to eradicate polio. Operation Flood was a dairy development programme. Operation Blackboard aimed to improve basic infrastructure such as classrooms, blackboards, and teaching aids. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan is a broader mission to achieve universal elementary education, but the specific attraction through free meals is a feature of the Mid Day Meal Scheme. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify schemes that are clearly not education focused. Pulse Polio Abhiyan relates to health, and Operation Flood relates to milk production.Step 2: Among the education related schemes, distinguish between those that improve infrastructure or universal access and those that directly attract children with incentives.Step 3: Operation Blackboard focuses on providing physical facilities in schools, such as blackboards and classrooms.Step 4: Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan is a broad programme for universal elementary education, including infrastructure, teacher recruitment, and community mobilisation.Step 5: The Mid Day Meal Scheme specifically uses provision of meals as an incentive to bring children to school, matching the wording of the question. Verification / Alternative check: Think about how parents in poor households might decide whether to send a child to school or to work. A free cooked meal provides a direct economic benefit and reduces hunger, making schooling more attractive. News reports and government documents about the Mid Day Meal Scheme regularly highlight its role in raising enrolment and attendance, which confirms that attraction to school is a core objective. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Pulse Polio Abhiyan is a health initiative to vaccinate children against polio and does not directly address school attendance. Operation Flood helped create the White Revolution in milk production and is an agricultural and cooperative sector programme. Operation Blackboard improves teaching conditions but does not itself provide an incentive like food to children. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan is important for education but is not as specifically described as an attraction through meals; the question matches the Mid Day Meal Scheme more closely. Common Pitfalls: Because several education programmes exist, candidates may confuse them, especially Operation Blackboard and Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan. The key hint in this question is attract children in school going age to attend classes, which should immediately suggest incentives like mid day meals rather than only infrastructure or general policy. In exam preparation, it helps to make a small table linking each scheme with its main instrument and objective. Final Answer: The scheme launched to promote basic education by attracting school going children to attend classes is the Mid Day Meal Scheme.

Question 9

Which of the following indices is developed to measure life expectancy, education level, literacy and standard of living of people in a country?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question belongs to the topic of development indicators. Traditional measures such as GDP per capita look only at economic output, but modern approaches also consider health, education, and living standards. The Human Development Index was developed to provide a more comprehensive measure of development across countries and is widely used in United Nations reports and competitive examinations. Given Data / Assumptions: The variables mentioned are life expectancy, literacy, education, and standard of living. Several indices are listed, including inflation indices, share market indices, and HDI. We must select the index that combines these human development dimensions. Concept / Approach: The Human Development Index is a composite index that typically includes three main dimensions: health (measured by life expectancy at birth), education (measured by indicators such as mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling), and standard of living (measured by gross national income per capita). It is specifically designed to move beyond purely economic measures and to capture human well being. Inflation indices and financial market indices measure very different things and do not include all these dimensions. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Focus on the combination of health, education, and income or living standards mentioned in the question.Step 2: Recall that HDI is defined using life expectancy, education indicators, and income per person.Step 3: Inflation indices such as Consumer Price Index and Wholesale Price Index measure price changes, not education or life expectancy.Step 4: Sensex tracks share prices of selected companies on the stock exchange, which is related to capital markets rather than human development.Step 5: Statutory Liquidity Ratio is a banking regulation ratio and has nothing to do with human development measurement. Therefore, HDI is the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: If you regularly read United Nations Development Programme reports or summaries in newspapers, you will see annual rankings of countries by the Human Development Index. These rankings are always discussed in terms of how long people live, how educated they are, and what their average incomes are. No other index among the options is described in this way, which confirms that HDI is the one that matches the variables listed in the question. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Inflation indices measure how fast prices are rising for a basket of goods, which affects purchasing power but does not directly incorporate education or health in their formula. Sensex is a stock market index used to track the performance of major shares on the exchange and is primarily a financial indicator. Statutory Liquidity Ratio is a regulatory requirement for banks to hold a certain percentage of deposits in specified liquid assets. Wholesale Price Index focuses on price changes at the wholesale level, not human development dimensions. Common Pitfalls: Some learners confuse HDI with purely economic indices such as GDP per capita or stock indices because all appear in economic news. Others may not remember which development index uses what components. To avoid confusion, it is helpful to make a short list during revision linking HDI to life expectancy, education, and standard of living, and to remember that it is published in the Human Development Report of the United Nations Development Programme. Final Answer: The index developed to measure life expectancy, literacy, education, and standard of living is the Human Development Index (HDI).

Question 10

In India, the Economic Survey that reviews the performance of the economy is published by which institution?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question focuses on an important policy document in India, the Economic Survey. The Economic Survey presents a detailed review of the performance of the Indian economy over the past year and provides an analytical base for the Union Budget. Knowing which institution is responsible for publishing this document is a common requirement in civil services and banking examinations. Given Data / Assumptions: The document in question is the Economic Survey of India. Options include the Chief Economic Adviser, the Ministry of Finance, other ministries, and the Reserve Bank of India. The key phrase is published by, which refers to the ministry responsible for issuing the document. Concept / Approach: The Economic Survey is prepared under the supervision of the Chief Economic Adviser, who is an official in the Department of Economic Affairs. However, the document is formally brought out and published by the Ministry of Finance. It is tabled in Parliament before the Union Budget. Thus, while the Chief Economic Adviser plays a major role in writing it, the institutional responsibility for publication rests with the Ministry of Finance. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Economic Survey is linked closely to the Union Budget, which is the responsibility of the Ministry of Finance.Step 2: Recognise that the Chief Economic Adviser heads the team that drafts the survey but works within the Ministry of Finance.Step 3: The question is about which institution publishes the survey, not who authors it.Step 4: The Reserve Bank of India publishes its own reports, such as the Annual Report and various monetary policy statements, not the Economic Survey.Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is the Ministry of Finance, Government of India. Verification / Alternative check: News reports each year mention the Finance Minister and the Chief Economic Adviser when the Economic Survey is released. The document itself is issued under the name of the Ministry of Finance and is available on the official website of that ministry. This clearly associates the publication responsibility with the Ministry of Finance rather than with other government departments or the central bank. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The Office of the Chief Economic Adviser is part of the Ministry of Finance and is not a separate publishing ministry. The Ministry of Home Affairs deals with internal security, law and order, and administration of some territories, not macroeconomic analysis. The Ministry of External Affairs handles foreign policy and diplomatic relations. The Reserve Bank of India is the central bank and publishes monetary and financial stability reports, but not the Economic Survey. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates choose the Chief Economic Adviser because of the strong personal association of that office with the Economic Survey. However, the question asks for the institution that publishes it, which is formally the Ministry of Finance. Others think of the Reserve Bank because it is heavily involved in economic policy, but its main publications are different. Reading the exact wording of the question carefully helps avoid such confusion. Final Answer: In India, the Economic Survey is published by the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.

Question 11

In India, population density is officially defined as the number of persons living per which unit of area?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question is from Indian geography and demography. Population density is a basic indicator used in census reports and economic surveys. It shows how crowded or sparsely populated an area is. Different countries may use different units, so it is important to know what unit India uses in its official statistics. Given Data / Assumptions: The term is population density in the Indian context. We are asked about the unit of area used in the definition. Options include per square mile, per square kilometre, per lakh square mile, per lakh square kilometre, and per hectare. Concept / Approach: Population density is calculated as total population divided by area. In India, as in many other countries following the metric system, the area is measured in square kilometres. Census documents routinely express density as number of persons per square kilometre. Some older texts or international comparisons sometimes use square miles, but that is not the standard unit in Indian official usage. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that India uses the metric system officially, which favours kilometres rather than miles.Step 2: Population density figures in Indian census reports are given as persons per square kilometre.Step 3: Units like per lakh square kilometre or per hectare are not standard for expressing national population density.Step 4: Therefore, the correct unit is per square kilometre.Step 5: Select the option that states per square kilometre. Verification / Alternative check: Think of commonly quoted figures such as Indias population density being over three hundred or four hundred persons per square kilometre in some census years. If the unit were per square mile or per lakh square kilometre, the numbers would look drastically different and would not match what is seen in textbooks or government reports. This confirms that per square kilometre is the correct unit. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Per square mile is a unit used in some non metric systems, but Indian census reports do not use it as the primary unit. Per lakh square mile or per lakh square kilometre are unusual and would produce very small numerical values, which are not the standard representation. Per hectare is often used for agricultural productivity measures such as yield per hectare, not for national population density. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes see data in foreign publications that use square miles and get confused about what India uses. Another pitfall is mixing up units used for different indicators, such as hectares for land productivity and square kilometres for population. During revision, it is useful to make a small note that population density in Indian official documents is always expressed as persons per square kilometre. Final Answer: In India, population density is defined as the number of persons living per square kilometre of area.

Question 12

Which state of India has the largest area among all Indian states?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This question is from basic Indian geography. It asks you to identify the state with the largest area. Area and population rankings of states are frequently asked in competitive examinations and are part of general awareness about the country. Knowing which state is largest by area helps in understanding regional diversity, resource distribution, and map based questions. Given Data / Assumptions: The question is restricted to Indian states, not including union territories. The options list major states such as Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, and Gujarat. We are concerned with area, not population. Concept / Approach: Rajasthan is known as the largest state of India in terms of area. It covers a significant portion of northwestern India and includes part of the Thar Desert. While Uttar Pradesh has the largest population, its area is smaller than that of Rajasthan. Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat are also large states by area but are still behind Rajasthan in the ranking. Therefore, when asked about the state with the largest area, Rajasthan is the correct answer. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Rajasthan is often described in textbooks and exams as the largest state by area.Step 2: Remember that Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state but not the largest in land area.Step 3: Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra are large central and western states but are smaller in area than Rajasthan.Step 4: Gujarat, though extensive along the western coast, also has less area than Rajasthan.Step 5: Conclude that Rajasthan is the correct choice. Verification / Alternative check: Looking at a political map of India, Rajasthan covers a broad region from the border with Pakistan across to states like Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh. Its large desert region and multiple districts give it a visibly greater land area compared with other states. Standard geography tables also list Rajasthan at the top of state area rankings, which confirms this choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Uttar Pradesh leads in population, which can mislead students, but in area it is smaller than Rajasthan. Madhya Pradesh is sometimes called the heart of India and has large area, yet it still ranks below Rajasthan. Maharashtra is a populous and industrial state on the western coast, but its area is also less than that of Rajasthan. Gujarat is important for ports and industry but is not the largest in area. Common Pitfalls: A frequent mistake is to confuse largest by population with largest by area and to pick Uttar Pradesh. Another error is to rely only on visual impressions from a map without remembering exact rankings. During preparation, it can be helpful to memorise a small list: Rajasthan as largest by area, Uttar Pradesh as largest by population, and states like Sikkim and Goa among the smallest by area. Final Answer: The state of India that has the largest area is Rajasthan.

Question 13

According to the sequence of national population counts, the 2011 Census of India could be considered which numbered census of the country?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Census of India is conducted every ten years and provides a complete count of the country population along with many social and economic details. General knowledge questions often ask which number a particular census represents in the historical sequence. The 2011 exercise is especially important because it is the most recent completed census. This question tests awareness of how the 2011 Census fits into the long series of national population counts that began in the nineteenth century. Given Data / Assumptions: Census in India is held every ten years as a nationwide exercise. Regular modern censuses started in the late nineteenth century and continued at each decennial interval. The question is about the ordinal number of the 2011 Census in that national sequence. The options suggest it might be the 13th, 14th, 15th, 16th, or 12th census. Concept / Approach: To answer this question correctly, we need to recall that the Government of India officially describes the Census 2011 as the fifteenth Census in the unbroken series of modern national censuses. Earlier counts in the nineteenth century included the first complete census, followed by repeated exercises every ten years. When we continue this counting up to the year 2011, the result is that Census 2011 is treated as the fifteenth national census. Therefore, the correct choice among the options is the fifteenth census. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the modern, regular decennial censuses of India began in the late nineteenth century and have been conducted every ten years.Step 2: Understand that each new census increases the count by one, so that by the time of 2011 a long series has been completed.Step 3: Remember from standard general knowledge references that Census 2011 is described as the fifteenth Census of India in this series.Step 4: Match this remembered description with the options given in the question.Step 5: Select the option that states 15th census as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: General studies books used for civil services, banking, and staff selection examinations clearly note that Census 2011 is the fifteenth National Census of India and the seventh census after independence. Government publicity material for Census 2011 also emphasised this numbering. These consistent references provide a strong cross check that the correct option is fifteenth census rather than any other number in the list. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The options 12th census, 13th census, 14th census, and 16th census do not match the officially accepted counting of national censuses. They are included only to test whether the learner knows the exact ordinal number. Choosing 13th or 14th would underestimate how many censuses have been conducted, while 16th would overstate the count. Since official documentation identifies Census 2011 as the fifteenth census, all these alternatives are incorrect. Common Pitfalls: Many candidates know that censuses have been held regularly but do not keep track of the exact sequence and therefore guess a nearby number. Under exam pressure it is easy to confuse fifteenth with fourteenth or thirteenth. To avoid this, it helps to connect the 2011 Census with a simple memory aid, such as noting that it is the fifteenth national census and the seventh in independent India. This reinforces the correct figure in memory. Final Answer: The 2011 Census of India is considered the 15th census in the national series of population counts.

Question 14

Which one of the following is not a typical demographic characteristic of the population of a developed country?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Demography is the study of population characteristics such as birth rate, death rate, growth rate, urbanisation, literacy, and life expectancy. Developed and developing countries usually show very different demographic profiles. General knowledge and economics examinations often ask which features best describe a developed country. This question reverses the pattern and asks which feature is not characteristic of a developed country, so the learner has to identify the one option that does not fit the typical profile. Given Data / Assumptions: Developed countries usually have advanced economies, high incomes, and strong social indicators. Typical demographic features of developed countries include low birth rates, low death rates, high urbanisation, and low population growth. The options mix such features with a contrasting pattern of high birth and high death rates. The task is to locate the single feature that does not match the usual demographic profile of a developed country. Concept / Approach: In demographic transition theory, developed countries are in the later stages where both birth rates and death rates are low, and population growth is either very slow or almost stable. They also tend to have a high proportion of people living in urban areas, high literacy, and long life expectancy. High birth and high death rates together are typical of an early, pre industrial stage found in least developed economies. Therefore the correct approach is to identify that high birth rate and high death rate is the only option that goes against the defining pattern of developed countries. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that developed countries usually have low birth rates because of better education, access to family planning, and changing social norms.Step 2: Recall that they also have low death rates due to better medical care, nutrition, and public health systems.Step 3: Note that these countries are highly urbanised and show low overall population growth.Step 4: Look at the options and recognise that options a, c, d, and e all describe low birth and death rates, high urbanisation, and high literacy or life expectancy, which are consistent with developed countries.Step 5: Identify that high birth rate and high death rate in option b describes a very different situation and is therefore not characteristic of a developed country. Verification / Alternative check: Standard geography and economics textbooks explain that the demographic transition in developed countries has passed through stages from high birth and high death rates to low birth and low death rates. In the final stage, population growth stabilises and indicators like literacy, urbanisation, and life expectancy improve significantly. By comparing this description with the options, we clearly see that high birth and high death rates belong to an early stage of development, not to the final developed stage. This confirms that option b is the correct choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Low birth and low death rates in option a are typical of developed countries. A high proportion of urban population in option c is also a hallmark of advanced economies. Low growth rate of population in option d fits the later stages of demographic transition. High level of literacy and life expectancy in option e are also standard indicators of development. Therefore, all of these are characteristics of developed countries and do not answer the question asking which feature is not characteristic. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may misunderstand the question and look for a characteristic rather than an exception, forgetting that the question uses the word not. Others may confuse high birth rate with population growth in developing countries and misinterpret the context. To avoid such mistakes, it is important to read the question carefully and connect it with the demographic transition model, which clearly distinguishes high birth and death rates as features of underdeveloped economies. Final Answer: High birth rate and high death rate is not a characteristic of the population of a developed country.

Question 15

Which one of the following state and demographic feature pairs is correctly matched in the context of India?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Indian demographic statistics are frequently tested in competitive examinations, especially when they relate to population density, sex ratio, and the share of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. Many questions present state and indicator pairs, asking the candidate to identify which pair is correctly matched. This question focuses on such pairs in the context of the 2001 Census and tests whether the learner can remember which demographic superlatives belong to which states. Given Data / Assumptions: The options list several Indian states paired with various demographic distinctions such as highest population density, highest sex ratio, highest percentage of Scheduled Castes, and highest percentage of Scheduled Tribes. The time frame implied by conventional exam material is largely based on the 2001 Census for such questions. We assume that the answer key is anchored to the commonly taught facts from that Census period. The task is to find the pair that correctly reflects the demographic distinction of the state during that reference period. Concept / Approach: According to data widely used in exam guides for the 2001 Census, West Bengal was recognised as the state with one of the highest population densities among major Indian states. Other states in the options are paired with distinctions that are actually associated with different states. For example, the highest sex ratio at that time was linked with Kerala, not Himachal Pradesh. The highest percentage of Scheduled Castes is associated with another state, and the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribes is usually linked to states such as Mizoram or other north eastern states rather than Nagaland. Therefore, the only correctly matched pair among the options is the one that pairs West Bengal with highest density of population. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that population density refers to the number of persons per square kilometre.Step 2: Remember that in the 2001 Census West Bengal was commonly cited as having one of the highest population densities among major Indian states, which exam books summarised as highest density of population for such questions.Step 3: Consider the other pairs. Himachal Pradesh is a hilly state with relatively low population density and does not lead in sex ratio; Kerala is better known for a very high sex ratio.Step 4: Uttar Pradesh has a very large absolute population but not the highest percentage of Scheduled Castes in its population; that distinction is associated with other states.Step 5: Nagaland has a significant Scheduled Tribes population, but the highest percentage among states is usually attributed to another north eastern state, so this pair is not strictly correct.Step 6: Conclude that the only fully correct pair is West Bengal with highest density of population among major states in that period. Verification / Alternative check: Demography chapters in Indian geography books state that West Bengal had a very high population density in 2001, exceeding many other states and often listed in exam tables as the state with the highest density among major states. At the same time, the leading sex ratio is attributed to Kerala, and the states with the highest percentage of Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes are different from those mentioned in the incorrect options. This comparison with standard data confirms that the West Bengal and density pair is the one correctly matched entry. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Himachal Pradesh does not have the highest sex ratio; Kerala is better known for that distinction. Uttar Pradesh has a large absolute Scheduled Caste population but not the highest percentage share in its population. Nagaland does have many Scheduled Tribes, but the highest percentage among states is generally noted for another north eastern state, not Nagaland itself. The statement about Punjab and lowest urbanisation is also not accurate because other states and union territories have lower urbanisation levels. Therefore, options b, c, d, and e are not correctly matched pairs. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes confuse absolute numbers with percentage values. For example, a state with a large number of Scheduled Caste persons may not have the highest percentage of Scheduled Castes in its population. There is also a tendency to guess on the basis of incomplete memory, especially with many similar sounding superlatives. To avoid such errors, it is important to memorise key demographic facts in an organised way, such as tables of states with highest density, highest literacy, and special caste and tribe statistics. Final Answer: West Bengal paired with highest density of population is the correctly matched state and demographic feature in this question.

Question 16

According to recent Census data used in examinations, what is the rank of Bihar among Indian states in terms of total population size?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Questions about the relative population size of Indian states are common in competitive exams. Bihar is one of the most populous states in India, and candidates are often asked to recall whether it stands second, third, or at some other position when states are ranked by total population. This question specifically asks for the rank of Bihar by population size among Indian states according to recent Census data frequently used for general knowledge tests. Given Data / Assumptions: The ranking is based on total population of states, not on area or density. Union Territories are usually considered separately, so the focus is on full states. The reference is to the standard ranking from the 2011 Census, which many exam syllabi still use. The options suggest that Bihar might be 3rd, 4th, 5th, 11th, or 6th in population ranking. Concept / Approach: According to the 2011 Census, the most populous state in India is Uttar Pradesh, followed by Maharashtra. Bihar stands after these two and therefore occupies the third position in the list of states when they are ranked by total population. West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh follow after Bihar in that ranking. Thus, the correct conceptual understanding is that Bihar is the third most populous state in India by total population size. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the basic ranking of Indian states by population according to the 2011 Census.Step 2: Remember that Uttar Pradesh occupies the first position as the most populous state.Step 3: Note that Maharashtra comes second in terms of population size.Step 4: Recognise that Bihar follows next and therefore is placed at the third position among Indian states.Step 5: Compare this recall with the options given and choose 3rd as the correct rank. Verification / Alternative check: Standard general knowledge and Indian geography books that summarise Census 2011 data state clearly that Bihar is the third most populous state in India after Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra. Many exam oriented tables list the top five states by population and place Bihar in the third position in that list. Cross checking multiple such references confirms the accuracy of the third rank for Bihar. Why Other Options Are Wrong: If Bihar were ranked fourth or fifth, it would be placed after states like West Bengal or Andhra Pradesh, which is not the case in the 2011 Census rankings. The rank of eleventh and sixth are much lower than the actual position and are inconsistent with Bihar status as one of the most populous states. These incorrect options are included to test whether candidates know the correct relative position of Bihar among the largest states by population. Common Pitfalls: Candidates sometimes confuse rankings based on area, density, or literacy with rankings based on population. For example, some states that are large in area or dense in population may not necessarily have a higher total population than Bihar. Another common error is to remember that Bihar is very highly populated but to misplace it as second instead of third. To avoid such mistakes, it helps to memorise the ordered list of top states for each major indicator separately. Final Answer: Bihar ranks 3rd among Indian states in terms of total population size according to the Census data used in exams.

Question 17

Which state in India is estimated to have the largest coal reserves among the following options?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Coal is one of the most important energy resources in India and plays a central role in power generation and heavy industry. Questions about which states possess the largest coal reserves are common in Indian geography and economy sections of competitive examinations. This question asks the learner to identify which state, among the options listed, is estimated to have the largest coal reserves. Given Data / Assumptions: The focus is on coal reserves, not on current production alone. The options include Bihar, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, and Chhattisgarh. We assume that the question reflects the conventional classification used in many exam oriented books, where Jharkhand is highlighted for large coal deposits. The ranking is based on geological reserves and major coalfields located within state boundaries. Concept / Approach: Historically, the Damodar valley and adjacent regions in eastern India have been the heartland of Indian coal mining. The division of states over time created Jharkhand out of parts of Bihar, and most of the important coalfields such as Jharia, Bokaro, and Giridih now fall within Jharkhand. For this reason, Jharkhand is widely recognised as having very large coal reserves and is often mentioned in exam material as the state with the largest reserves, even though Chhattisgarh and Odisha also have significant deposits. Therefore, among the given options, Jharkhand is considered the correct choice. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall major coalfields of India, such as Jharia, Bokaro, Raniganj, Giridih, and Talcher.Step 2: Note that many of the most important and long established coalfields, especially Jharia and Bokaro, are located in Jharkhand.Step 3: Remember that when Bihar was bifurcated, most coal rich areas became part of the new state of Jharkhand.Step 4: Recognise that Bihar now has much smaller coal reserves compared to Jharkhand, and Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, and Chhattisgarh are also important but not usually cited as having the very largest reserves in the conventional exam key.Step 5: Conclude that Jharkhand is the correct answer to the question. Verification / Alternative check: Geography textbooks and government resource surveys describe Jharkhand as a major coal bearing state with several rich coalfields. Many general knowledge guides explicitly mention Jharkhand as the state with the largest coal reserves among the eastern belt states. Cross checking with such sources confirms that Jharkhand is the accepted answer in the context of competitive examinations, even though other states like Odisha and Chhattisgarh also have substantial reserves. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Bihar once included several coal mining areas, but after the creation of Jharkhand many major coalfields are now outside present day Bihar. Madhya Pradesh has coal but is not commonly identified as the top state for coal reserves. Odisha and Chhattisgarh have extensive deposits and are very important coal producing states, but in exam style questions Jharkhand is usually highlighted as having the largest coal reserves. Therefore, while these states are significant in coal production, they are not the intended correct answer here. Common Pitfalls: Students may incorrectly choose Bihar due to historical associations with coal mining or select Odisha or Chhattisgarh because of their modern production levels. The key is to remember the administrative change that shifted many coalfields into Jharkhand and to rely on the phrasing commonly used in exam reference books. Linking Jharia and Bokaro coalfields directly with Jharkhand can help reinforce this association. Final Answer: Jharkhand is the state estimated to have the largest coal reserves among the options provided.

Question 18

In which place is the Rail Wheel Factory of Indian Railways located among the following options?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Indian Railways has several specialised production units that manufacture different components such as wheels, coaches, locomotives, and rails. One such important unit is the Rail Wheel Factory, which produces wheels and axles for railway rolling stock. General knowledge questions often ask where this factory is located, especially because it is a key industrial installation in southern India. This question tests the candidate knowledge of the exact location of the Rail Wheel Factory. Given Data / Assumptions: The question refers specifically to the Rail Wheel Factory under Indian Railways. The options list several places, mainly from Karnataka: Srirangapatna, Kalaburagi (Gulbarga), Hampi, Yelahanka, and Hubballi. We assume that the learner has basic familiarity with major railway production units and their locations. The task is to choose the correct town or locality where the Rail Wheel Factory is situated. Concept / Approach: The Rail Wheel Factory is located at Yelahanka, which is a suburb in the northern part of Bengaluru city in the state of Karnataka. It was formerly known as the Wheel and Axle Plant and has been a major source of wheels and axles for Indian Railways. The other locations listed in the options are important historical or commercial centres in Karnataka but are not the site of this particular factory. Therefore, identifying Yelahanka as part of Bengaluru and linking it with the Rail Wheel Factory is the key to answering this question correctly. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that the Rail Wheel Factory is situated in Karnataka and is associated with Indian Railways production activities.Step 2: Recall that this factory is located at Yelahanka, which lies in the northern region of Bengaluru.Step 3: Examine the options and find Yelahanka listed as one of the choices.Step 4: Confirm that the other locations such as Srirangapatna, Kalaburagi, Hampi, and Hubballi are not known for hosting the Rail Wheel Factory.Step 5: Select Yelahanka as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Information from Indian Railways and state government industrial profiles clearly states that the Rail Wheel Factory is located in Yelahanka, Bengaluru. It is often mentioned in descriptions of major public sector units in Karnataka. General knowledge books that summarise important industrial locations also connect Yelahanka with the Wheel and Axle Plant, now called the Rail Wheel Factory. This confirms that Yelahanka is the accurate and accepted location. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Srirangapatna is a historic town near Mysuru known for its heritage sites, not for the Rail Wheel Factory. Kalaburagi (Gulbarga) is an important city in the northern part of Karnataka but does not host this specific railway unit. Hampi is a famous UNESCO World Heritage site known for the ruins of the Vijayanagara Empire, not a railway production centre. Hubballi is a major railway junction and commercial hub, but the Rail Wheel Factory is not located there. Hence, all these alternatives are incorrect in this context. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may confuse the Rail Wheel Factory with other railway workshops or coach factories located in different cities. Others may choose a larger well known city like Hubballi purely based on familiarity. To avoid such errors, it is useful to memorise key associations such as Yelahanka for Rail Wheel Factory, Kapurthala for Rail Coach Factory, and Chittaranjan for locomotive works. Final Answer: The Rail Wheel Factory of Indian Railways is located at Yelahanka in Bengaluru, Karnataka.

Question 19

Which one of the following rivers is classified as an international river because it flows through more than one country before reaching the sea?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Rivers can be classified as national or international depending on whether they flow entirely within one country or pass through more than one sovereign state. International rivers often require cooperation between countries for water sharing, navigation, and flood control. In the South Asian context, there are several rivers that cross national borders. This question asks which river among the options is considered an international river because it flows through more than one country. Given Data / Assumptions: The options are Brahmaputra, Cauvery, Krishna, Narmada, and Mahanadi. A river is considered international if it flows through the territory of at least two countries. The focus is on the main course of the river, not on minor tributaries. We assume standard school level knowledge of major Indian river systems. Concept / Approach: The Brahmaputra is a major river of Asia that flows through several countries. It originates in the Tibet region of China, where it is known as the Yarlung Tsangpo, then enters India through Arunachal Pradesh and flows through Assam, and finally enters Bangladesh, where it merges with the Ganga system before emptying into the Bay of Bengal. Because it crosses international boundaries and is shared by multiple countries, Brahmaputra is clearly an international river. In contrast, the Cauvery, Krishna, Narmada, and Mahanadi rivers flow mainly within India without passing into another sovereign country. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the course of the Brahmaputra river, beginning in Tibet, flowing through India, and ending in Bangladesh.Step 2: Recognise that this path crosses the borders of at least three different countries.Step 3: Consider the other rivers listed. Cauvery rises in Karnataka and flows through Tamil Nadu before entering the sea within India.Step 4: Krishna flows across states like Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh but remains entirely within India.Step 5: Narmada and Mahanadi also flow entirely within Indian territory.Step 6: Conclude that Brahmaputra is the only river among the options that qualifies as an international river. Verification / Alternative check: Maps of South Asia and Indian geography texts routinely show the route of the Brahmaputra across China, India, and Bangladesh. These sources also describe water sharing and flood management agreements related to Brahmaputra and the greater Ganga Brahmaputra Meghna system. No similar international boundary crossing is associated with the Cauvery, Krishna, Narmada, or Mahanadi. This confirms that Brahmaputra is correctly classified as an international river among the options. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Cauvery is a peninsular river confined to southern India and is the subject of inter state river water disputes, not international disputes. Krishna is another major peninsular river that flows only within India, despite crossing several state boundaries. Narmada flows through central India and empties into the Arabian Sea without entering any other country. Mahanadi flows through states like Chhattisgarh and Odisha but does not leave Indian territory. Therefore, none of these rivers meet the definition of international river used in this question. Common Pitfalls: Some students confuse inter state rivers with international rivers because both require cooperative agreements. For example, Cauvery is well known for water sharing disputes between Indian states, but it is not shared between countries. To avoid confusion, it is important to distinguish between rivers that cross internal state boundaries and those that cross international borders between sovereign nations. Final Answer: Brahmaputra is an international river because it flows through China, India, and Bangladesh before reaching the sea.

Question 20

As per the 2001 Census of India, followers of which religious community recorded the highest literacy rate among the options given?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Census data in India not only count the population but also provide information on literacy, religious composition, and many other social indicators. One interesting comparison made in these reports is the literacy rate of different religious communities. This question focuses on the 2001 Census and asks which religious group had the highest literacy rate among the options listed. Knowing such patterns is useful for exams that combine demography, sociology, and general knowledge. Given Data / Assumptions: The reference period is the 2001 Census of India. The question compares literacy rates across religious communities. The options are Buddhists, Christians, Jains, Sikhs, and Hindus. We assume that the candidate remembers which community is often cited as having the highest literacy rate. Concept / Approach: According to Census 2001 data, Jains recorded one of the highest literacy rates among all religious communities in India, significantly above the national average. Their literacy levels were higher than those of Christians, Buddhists, Sikhs, and Hindus. Therefore, the approach is to recall that Jains, although a relatively small community in terms of population, show very strong educational indicators, and to select them as the most literate group from the options. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Census calculates literacy as the ability to read and write with understanding among persons aged seven years and above.Step 2: Remember that comparisons of literacy rates show Jains at the top among religious communities in India in 2001.Step 3: Compare this recollection with other communities listed in the options, such as Christians, Buddhists, Sikhs, and Hindus.Step 4: Recognise that while Christians and Sikhs also have relatively high literacy, Jains are consistently reported as the community with the highest literacy rate.Step 5: Choose Jains as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Demographic summaries based on Census 2001 state that the literacy rate of Jains was far above the national average and higher than that of any other major religious community. Exam guidebooks often highlight this fact as a key point for questions on religion wise literacy patterns. Confirmation from multiple such summaries verifies that Jains were indeed the most literate community according to the 2001 Census data. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Christians have a literacy rate higher than the national average but lower than that of Jains. Buddhists and Sikhs also have better than average literacy in many areas but again do not surpass the Jain community overall. Hindus form the majority of the population and have a wide range of educational levels but do not top the literacy ranking among religious groups. Therefore, all these communities fall short of the highest literacy levels recorded for Jains in the 2001 Census. Common Pitfalls: Because Jains form a small percentage of India population, some learners tend to overlook them when thinking about national rankings and instead choose Christians or Sikhs, whose educational institutions are more visible. Others may guess based on regional experiences rather than national data. To avoid this, it is helpful to memorise a few key facts from Census comparisons, including that Jains had the highest literacy rate among religious communities in 2001. Final Answer: Jains had the highest literacy rate among the listed religious communities according to the 2001 Census of India.

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