Question 1

According to Census 2011, what is the correct descending order of population size for the major Indian urban agglomerations Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Urban agglomerations are continuous urban spreads that include a city and its adjoining urban areas. Census 2011 is a crucial reference point for questions on India's population geography. Competitive examinations often ask about the ranking of India's largest cities or urban agglomerations by population. This question checks whether you know the relative sizes of Mumbai, Delhi, Kolkata and Chennai as per the 2011 Census, which is still widely used as the latest official census data for population comparisons in many exams. Given Data / Assumptions: - Four major urban agglomerations are involved: Mumbai, Delhi, Kolkata and Chennai. - The reference year for population is Census 2011. - We must arrange the cities in descending order, from largest population to smaller. - Only one of the given sequences correctly matches the 2011 Census urban agglomeration rankings. Concept / Approach: As per Census 2011, the largest urban agglomeration by population in India was Mumbai, followed very closely by Delhi. Kolkata had the third largest urban agglomeration, and Chennai ranked below these three. The key concept is to recall that Mumbai remained marginally ahead of Delhi in 2011, even though Delhi's growth was rapid. Therefore, any sequence where Delhi appears before Mumbai in a descending list is automatically incorrect. Similarly, Kolkata cannot appear above either Mumbai or Delhi, and Chennai cannot be ranked above Kolkata in this specific census ranking. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Mumbai had the highest urban agglomeration population in 2011, so it must come first in any descending order. Step 2: Delhi was the second largest urban agglomeration, so it must come immediately after Mumbai. Step 3: Kolkata was ranked third, so it follows Delhi in the sequence. Step 4: Chennai, being smaller than Kolkata in urban agglomeration population, must come last among the four. Step 5: The correct descending order is therefore Mumbai – Delhi – Kolkata – Chennai, which matches option "Mumbai – Delhi – Kolkata – Chennai". Verification / Alternative check: A quick check is to remember headline facts: Mumbai and Delhi are always cited as India's top two megacities, with figures above 16 million in their urban agglomerations in 2011. Kolkata is traditionally the third major metropolis of eastern India, and Chennai is an important southern metropolis but with a slightly smaller urban agglomeration population. Whenever you see an option where Delhi appears before Mumbai or Kolkata appears ahead of Delhi, that option conflicts with census based rankings and can be eliminated. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Delhi – Mumbai – Kolkata – Chennai is wrong because Delhi cannot precede Mumbai in descending order when Mumbai had the larger agglomeration population in 2011. Mumbai – Kolkata – Delhi – Chennai is wrong because Kolkata did not outrank Delhi; Delhi's agglomeration was larger than Kolkata's. Kolkata – Chennai – Mumbai – Delhi is wrong because it incorrectly places Kolkata and Chennai before Mumbai and Delhi, contradicting both common knowledge and census data. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse city proper population with urban agglomeration population, or they recall newer projections where Delhi may overtake Mumbai and apply these to older census questions. Another trap is relying on regional prominence rather than actual numerical rankings, which leads some candidates to think Kolkata might be second largest due to its historic importance. Always pay attention to the reference year mentioned in the question and remember that for Census 2011 the order remains Mumbai first, Delhi second, Kolkata third and Chennai fourth. Final Answer: In Census 2011 the correct descending order of population size for these urban agglomerations is Mumbai – Delhi – Kolkata – Chennai.

Question 2

Which one of the following pairs of Indian military training institute and its location is not correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: India has several specialised military training institutions that prepare officers and soldiers for different operational environments, from high altitude warfare to air defence and strategic planning. General knowledge questions often test whether candidates can correctly associate these institutes with their locations. This question asks you to identify which pair is not correctly matched, so you must know at least the basic locations of the main institutions listed, rather than only their names or functions. Given Data / Assumptions: - Four pairs of institution and location are given. - Army War College is paired with Mhow. - High Altitude Warfare School is paired with Gulmarg. - Army Air Defence College is paired with Pune. - Rashtriya Indian Military College is paired with Dehradun. - Exactly one of these pairs has the wrong location. Concept / Approach: The key concept is simple factual recall. The Army War College, a premier training institution for senior army officers, is located at Mhow in Madhya Pradesh. The High Altitude Warfare School, which trains soldiers in mountain and snow warfare, is based at Gulmarg in Jammu and Kashmir. Rashtriya Indian Military College, a feeder institution for the National Defence Academy, is located in Dehradun, Uttarakhand. The Army Air Defence College, however, is not in Pune; it is actually located at Gopalpur in Odisha. So the approach is to verify each pair and single out the mismatch. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Confirm that Army War College is in Mhow. This is a well known fact and the pair is correct. Step 2: Confirm that High Altitude Warfare School is in Gulmarg, a high altitude region suitable for mountain warfare training, so this pair is also correct. Step 3: Recall that Rashtriya Indian Military College is in Dehradun, which is correct and has historic links to officer training. Step 4: Check the remaining pair. Army Air Defence College is actually situated in Gopalpur in the state of Odisha, not in Pune. Step 5: Therefore, the incorrect pair is "Army Air Defence College : Pune". Verification / Alternative check: You can cross check using your knowledge of regional clusters: Dehradun is famous for a number of military and training institutions including the Indian Military Academy and Rashtriya Indian Military College. Gulmarg is naturally suited for high altitude warfare training. Mhow has long been associated with higher command and staff training. Pune is known for institutions like the National Defence Academy and some air force establishments, not the Army Air Defence College. This pattern supports the conclusion that the Pune pairing is the odd one out. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Army War College : Mhow is correct, because the college is historically and presently located in Mhow in Madhya Pradesh. High Altitude Warfare School : Gulmarg is correct; Gulmarg's terrain and climate make it the ideal location for this specialised training facility. Rashtriya Indian Military College : Dehradun is correct, as Dehradun is the long standing home of RIMC and related military institutions. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to associate every military institution related to officer training with Pune, simply because the National Defence Academy is located there. This over generalisation leads some candidates to accept "Army Air Defence College : Pune" as correct. Another pitfall is confusing different training establishments that have similar sounding names or overlapping functions. Careful revision of the locations of key academies and colleges before the exam largely eliminates these errors. Final Answer: The pair that is not correctly matched is Army Air Defence College : Pune.

Question 3

At which place on the Earth's surface is the gravitational force experienced by objects maximum?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The strength of gravitational force experienced at the Earth's surface is not exactly the same everywhere. It varies slightly due to the planet's shape and rotation. Understanding where gravity is maximum is a basic but important concept in physical geography and physics. This question checks whether you know the relationship between latitude, Earth's rotation, its equatorial bulge and how these affect the value of acceleration due to gravity at different locations such as the equator and the poles. Given Data / Assumptions: - Four possible locations are given: equator, Tropic of Cancer, Tropic of Capricorn and the poles. - We assume a basic model of the Earth as an oblate spheroid that rotates on its axis. - Variations in gravitational force are small but measurable. - We neglect local geological anomalies and focus on the general latitudinal pattern. Concept / Approach: Two main factors cause variation in gravity: the Earth's rotation and its shape. Rotation produces a centrifugal effect that is greatest at the equator and zero at the poles. This effectively reduces the apparent gravity at the equator. The Earth is also slightly flattened at the poles and bulged at the equator, so the polar radius is smaller. Since gravitational force is stronger at smaller distances from the centre of mass, being physically closer at the poles increases gravity. Combined, these effects mean that the value of acceleration due to gravity is maximum at the poles and minimum at the equator. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that centrifugal effect due to rotation is highest at the equator, reducing effective gravity there. Step 2: Recognise that centrifugal effect is zero at the poles, so gravity is not reduced by rotation at those points. Step 3: Understand that the Earth's equatorial bulge makes the equatorial radius larger, so the equator is farther from the Earth's centre. Step 4: At the poles, the radius is smaller, so the distance to the centre is less and the gravitational pull is stronger. Step 5: Therefore, among the given options, gravitational force is maximum at the poles. Verification / Alternative check: Standard physics and geography texts often present numerical values of acceleration due to gravity: approximately 9.78 m/s^2 at the equator and about 9.83 m/s^2 at the poles. Even without remembering exact numbers, you can remember the qualitative rule that gravity increases from the equator towards the poles. The Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn lie between the equator and poles, so gravity there is intermediate. Since the question asks for the maximum value, the poles must be chosen. Why Other Options Are Wrong: At the equator, gravity is least because both the larger radius and maximum centrifugal effect reduce effective gravitational pull. At the Tropic of Cancer, gravity is higher than at the equator but still lower than at the poles, so it cannot be the maximum value on Earth. At the Tropic of Capricorn, the situation is similar to the Tropic of Cancer; gravity is intermediate, not maximum, because the latitude is not as high as the poles. Common Pitfalls: A frequent mistake is to assume gravity must be highest where the Earth rotates fastest, leading to the wrong idea that the equator has maximum gravity. Another common confusion is between mass and weight; gravity does not change the mass of an object, only its weight. Remembering the link between distance from the Earth's centre and gravity, as well as the diminishing centrifugal effect toward the poles, helps avoid these misconceptions. Final Answer: The gravitational force acting on objects at the Earth's surface is maximum at the poles.

Question 4

With which neighbouring country did India formally exchange revised border maps as part of a land boundary settlement agreement?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: India shares land borders with several countries and has had long standing boundary issues with some of them. One important development in recent years was the formal exchange of border maps as part of a Land Boundary Agreement that aimed to settle disputes over enclaves and adverse possessions. This question checks whether you can identify the specific neighbour with whom India carried out such an exchange of revised border maps, a key milestone in regional diplomacy and boundary management. Given Data / Assumptions: - Four neighbouring countries are listed: China, Sri Lanka, Pakistan and Bangladesh. - The question refers to a formal exchange of border maps as part of a land boundary settlement. - We assume the context of the high profile Land Boundary Agreement implemented in the last decade. - Exactly one of these countries is associated with that specific map exchange. Concept / Approach: India's Land Boundary Agreement with Bangladesh resolved a complex enclave problem where small pockets of territory belonging to one country lay deep inside the other. To implement the agreement, both countries had to redraw and exchange detailed border maps, so that land parcels could be legally transferred and residents could select their preferred citizenship. India's disputes with China and Pakistan involve different forms of boundary negotiations, often without comprehensive implemented land boundary exchange of this kind. Sri Lanka shares a maritime boundary with India and does not fit the typical land boundary map exchange context. Identifying the only neighbour with a widely publicised Land Boundary Agreement leads you to Bangladesh. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that India's most publicised Land Boundary Agreement in recent years was with Bangladesh. Step 2: Note that this agreement involved exchange of enclaves, redrawing of the land boundary and formal exchange of maps. Step 3: Consider India–China relations: although there are Line of Actual Control maps and discussions, a comprehensive settled land boundary with exchanged maps has not been fully implemented. Step 4: Consider India–Pakistan borders: there are disputes and agreements, but not a recent large scale land boundary map exchange similar to the one with Bangladesh. Step 5: Sri Lanka mainly shares maritime boundaries with India, so it is not the correct context for a land boundary map exchange. Step 6: Therefore, the correct answer is Bangladesh. Verification / Alternative check: If you remember news headlines about the settlement of enclaves in Cooch Behar and surrounding areas, they specifically referenced India and Bangladesh exchanging maps and implementing the Land Boundary Agreement. There were widely covered ceremonies showing officials from both sides exchanging documents and boundary charts. No other neighbour from the options was linked to such a major enclave settlement. This reinforces that Bangladesh must be the country referred to in the question. Why Other Options Are Wrong: China is wrong because India and China still have unresolved boundary disputes without a comprehensive land boundary settlement and map exchange of this type. Sri Lanka is wrong because the main India–Sri Lanka boundary issues are maritime and not centred on a large land boundary map exchange involving enclaves. Pakistan is wrong because although India and Pakistan share a significant land border, there was no recent Land Boundary Agreement involving large scale exchange of border maps and enclaves like with Bangladesh. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates confuse this Land Boundary Agreement with other boundary discussions, especially with China, due to frequent media coverage of Line of Actual Control issues. Others may think about maritime boundary settlements with Sri Lanka and mistakenly assume they involved similar map exchanges. To avoid such confusion, link the keyword "enclaves" and "Land Boundary Agreement" specifically with Bangladesh in your memory, as that combination is unique in India's neighbourhood diplomacy. Final Answer: India formally exchanged revised border maps as part of a land boundary settlement agreement with Bangladesh.

Question 5

In Tundra climate regions, biodiversity is comparatively low mainly because the reproductive warm season is very short. Evaluate the relationship between these two statements.

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Tundra climate is found in very high latitude regions near the Arctic and, in limited areas, near the Antarctic. It is characterised by long, extremely cold winters and very short, cool summers. Questions on this biome often focus on why biodiversity is low and how climate controls plant and animal life. This question presents two related statements and asks you to judge both their correctness and whether the second logically explains the first, a common reasoning pattern in competitive exams. Given Data / Assumptions: - Statement I: In Tundra climate, biodiversity is comparatively less. - Statement II: Tundra climate has a shorter reproductive warm period. - We must assess the truth of each statement independently. - We must also decide if the short warm period is the main reason for low biodiversity. - We assume standard climatological definitions of the Tundra biome. Concept / Approach: In ecology and climatology, biodiversity depends heavily on the length and favourability of the growing season. In Tundra regions, temperatures remain below freezing for most of the year, soils may be frozen as permafrost and liquid water is scarce in winter. Only during a brief summer do temperatures rise enough for plants to grow, reproduce and complete their life cycles. This short warm period drastically limits the number of species that can adapt and thrive, resulting in comparatively low biodiversity. Thus, we expect both statements to be true and the second to be a correct explanation of the first. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Consider Statement I. It is well established that Tundra supports fewer plant and animal species than tropical or temperate biomes, so biodiversity is indeed comparatively low. Statement I is true. Step 2: Consider Statement II. The Tundra climate is characterised by a very short summer season when temperatures are above freezing and plant growth is possible. The reproductive warm period is therefore short. Statement II is also true. Step 3: Analyse causation. Because the warm season is very brief, only specially adapted species can complete their life cycles within that window. This directly leads to fewer species overall. Step 4: Therefore, the short reproductive warm period is a primary reason why biodiversity is low in Tundra regions. Step 5: Both statements are true and Statement II correctly explains Statement I. Verification / Alternative check: Textbooks on biogeography and ecology describe how tropical rainforests, with year round warmth and moisture, support maximum biodiversity, while polar and Tundra regions, with very cold conditions and short growing seasons, support minimal biodiversity. In Tundra, only hardy grasses, mosses, lichens and a limited range of animals can survive. This pattern reinforces that the climatic shortness of the growing season is a controlling factor. Therefore, the explanatory relationship between the two statements is logical and widely accepted. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Saying both statements are true but not explanatory is wrong because the short warm period directly causes low biodiversity, so there is a clear cause and effect link. Claiming Statement I is true but Statement II is false is incorrect because climatological data clearly show a very short warm season in Tundra regions. Asserting that Statement I is false but Statement II is true is also wrong because biodiversity in Tundra is undeniably low when compared with most other biomes. Common Pitfalls: Some students focus only on low temperatures and ignore the importance of duration of the favourable season. Others may think that low biodiversity is due only to poor soils or lack of light, overlooking the combined effect of extreme cold and the short period of warmth. Remember that in high latitude regions there is actually abundant summer light, but the season is too short for many species to adapt. Keeping this nuance in mind helps you understand why the explanation in Statement II is appropriate. Final Answer: Both statements are individually true, and the second statement correctly explains the first, so the correct choice is Both statements are individually true and the second statement correctly explains the first.

Question 6

Regarding the National Water Academy (NWA) in India, which of the following statements is or are correct?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The National Water Academy (NWA) is an important institution in India's water resources management framework. It focuses on training in service engineers and professionals who work in central and state organisations dealing with planning, development and management of water resources. This question gives two statements about NWA and asks you to judge both their correctness and whether they accurately describe the institution. Questions like this test your awareness of key national training institutions and their roles. Given Data / Assumptions: - Statement 1: The primary objective of NWA is to function as a Centre of Excellence in training for in service engineers from central and state organisations on various aspects of water resource planning. - Statement 2: NWA is located in New Delhi. - We must determine which statement or statements are correct. - We assume current official information about NWA's mandate and location. Concept / Approach: NWA was established to build capacity in the water resources sector by providing specialised training programmes for engineers and officials. Its objectives include improving skills in water resources planning, operation, management and use of modern tools and techniques. Therefore, describing it as a Centre of Excellence for training in these areas is accurate. However, NWA is not located in New Delhi; it is headquartered in Pune, Maharashtra. The approach is to accept the functional description in Statement 1 as true and reject the incorrect location in Statement 2. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Examine Statement 1. It mentions NWA as a Centre of Excellence for training in service engineers from central and state organisations in water resource planning aspects. Step 2: Cross check this with your knowledge that NWA conducts specialised training courses, workshops and capacity building programmes for water sector professionals across India. Step 3: Conclude that Statement 1 is essentially correct in describing NWA's primary objective. Step 4: Examine Statement 2, which says NWA is located in New Delhi. Step 5: Recall that NWA is actually located in Pune, not in New Delhi, so Statement 2 is false. Step 6: Therefore, only Statement 1 is correct, and the right option is "1 only". Verification / Alternative check: Another way to verify is to remember that many water related training and research institutions are spread out geographically: for example, the Central Water and Power Research Station is near Pune, and NWA is also in Pune. New Delhi hosts several ministries and policy bodies but not this particular academy. If you have ever seen course announcements or training notifications mentioning NWA, they typically refer to Pune as the venue, which further confirms that Statement 2 is incorrect. Why Other Options Are Wrong: "2 only" is wrong because the location in New Delhi is incorrect and the function described in Statement 1 is valid. "Both 1 and 2" is wrong since Statement 2 is false; both cannot be correct simultaneously. "Neither 1 nor 2" is wrong because dismissing both statements would ignore the accurate functional description of NWA in Statement 1. Common Pitfalls: A common error is to assume that any national level academy linked with central ministries must be located in New Delhi, leading candidates to accept Statement 2 without careful recall. Another pitfall is paying less attention to institutional mandates and more to acronyms, which may cause confusion between NWA and other organisations. To avoid such mistakes, it is helpful to link each acronym with both its function and its city when you revise, for example, remembering "NWA, water training, Pune" as a single memory chunk. Final Answer: Only the first statement about the role of the National Water Academy is correct, so the right choice is 1 only.

Question 7

Which one of the following Indian states has the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribe population in relation to its total population?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The distribution of Scheduled Tribe population across India varies significantly from state to state. Some north eastern states have very high proportions of tribal communities, often forming a majority of the population. Understanding which state has the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribe population is an important aspect of Indian social and political geography, frequently tested in exams. This question asks you to compare four such states and identify the one where Scheduled Tribes form the largest share of the total population proportionally, not in absolute numbers. Given Data / Assumptions: - Four states are listed: Mizoram, Nagaland, Meghalaya and Arunachal Pradesh. - The term "highest percentage" refers to the share of Scheduled Tribes in the total population of that state. - We rely on Census based percentages commonly quoted in standard references. - Union territories such as Lakshadweep, which may have higher tribal percentages, are not included in the options. Concept / Approach: To answer this, you must recall approximate percentages of Scheduled Tribe population in these states. Mizoram and Nagaland both have very high tribal shares, above 80 percent in many datasets. Meghalaya and Arunachal Pradesh also have large tribal populations but slightly lower percentages than Mizoram. Among the four, Mizoram typically records the highest share of Scheduled Tribe population in percentage terms, making it the correct choice. The approach is to rank the states mentally by their tribal proportion rather than absolute population size. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that all four listed states are in India's north east and have significant Scheduled Tribe populations. Step 2: Recall that in Mizoram, Scheduled Tribes form an overwhelming majority of the population, with percentages exceeding 90 percent in many references. Step 3: Note that Nagaland also has a very high tribal percentage, but it is slightly lower than Mizoram's share when compared proportionally. Step 4: Meghalaya and Arunachal Pradesh also have large tribal communities; however, their Scheduled Tribe percentages are lower than those of Mizoram. Step 5: Therefore, among the four options, Mizoram has the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribe population relative to its total population. Verification / Alternative check: Standard tables in Indian geography textbooks show that, excluding union territories, Mizoram often tops the list of states by percentage share of Scheduled Tribe population. Even if you do not remember the exact numbers, you may recall that Mizo society is predominantly tribal and that the state was historically formed to address Mizo tribal aspirations. This context helps confirm that Mizoram logically has the highest tribal percentage among the given options. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Nagaland, while having a very high tribal percentage, generally ranks slightly below Mizoram in terms of the proportion of Scheduled Tribes in its total population. Meghalaya has a substantial tribal population but also has non tribal communities, so its overall tribal percentage is lower than that of Mizoram. Arunachal Pradesh has many tribal groups but covers a large area with diverse communities; its tribal share, though high, does not exceed Mizoram's share in percentage terms. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse absolute numbers with percentages, assuming that a larger state by area or population must have a higher percentage of tribal people. Others may overlook union territories and wrongly think of states like Arunachal Pradesh as automatically having the highest share. Focusing on the keyword "percentage" and recalling which state is predominantly tribal in composition helps avoid such errors. It is useful to remember that Mizoram and some small north eastern states top the list when percentages are considered. Final Answer: Among the given options, the state with the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribe population is Mizoram.

Question 8

Consider the tributaries of the Ganga River: 1. Gandak 2. Kosi 3. Ghaghara 4. Gomti. Which of the following shows the correct order of these rivers from east to west?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Ganga basin contains many important Himalayan and peninsular tributaries, and exam questions frequently test the ability to place these rivers in correct geographical order. Knowing their relative positions from east to west (or north to south) helps in understanding regional drainage patterns. This question focuses on four major tributaries in the eastern Gangetic plains Gandak, Kosi, Ghaghara and Gomti and asks you to arrange them from east to west as they join or flow towards the Ganga. Given Data / Assumptions: - Four tributaries of the Ganga are numbered: 1. Gandak, 2. Kosi, 3. Ghaghara, 4. Gomti. - We must order these rivers from east to west. - All four are important Himalayan or Himalayan fed tributaries in the eastern and central Ganga plains. - The course of each river is considered near its confluence with the Ganga. Concept / Approach: The idea is to visualise or recall a mental map of the Ganga basin in Bihar and eastern Uttar Pradesh. Kosi, known for its shifting course, is the easternmost among the given rivers, joining the Ganga in Bihar toward the eastern side. West of Kosi lies the Gandak, another important river entering the Ganga near Patna. Further west, Ghaghara flows through eastern Uttar Pradesh before joining the Ganga near Chhapra or downstream. The Gomti, which rises in the plains and flows through Lucknow, is located even further west and joins the Ganga at Varanasi. Thus, from east to west, the order is Kosi, Gandak, Ghaghara, Gomti, or numerically 2 – 1 – 3 – 4. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify Kosi as the easternmost river among the four; it enters Bihar from Nepal and meets the Ganga towards the east. Step 2: Recognise that Gandak lies west of Kosi; it also emerges from Nepal and meets the Ganga near Patna. Step 3: Note that Ghaghara flows further west, through eastern Uttar Pradesh, and then joins the Ganga downstream of the Gandak. Step 4: Recall that Gomti rises near the plains in Uttar Pradesh, flows through Lucknow and joins the Ganga at Varanasi, making it the westernmost of the four. Step 5: Convert this spatial arrangement into numerical order: Kosi (2), Gandak (1), Ghaghara (3), Gomti (4), giving 2 – 1 – 3 – 4. Verification / Alternative check: You can cross check by remembering key cities near these rivers. Kosi is often associated with floods in north Bihar. Gandak is linked with areas near Patna. Ghaghara flows near Gorakhpur and beyond, and Gomti is famous for flowing through Lucknow before joining the Ganga at Varanasi. Plotting these cities mentally from east (Bihar) to west (eastern to central Uttar Pradesh) confirms that the order from east to west is Kosi, Gandak, Ghaghara, Gomti. This validates the chosen sequence. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 3 – 4 – 1 – 2 is wrong because it places Ghaghara and Gomti in the eastern positions, which contradicts their actual locations west of Kosi and Gandak. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4 is wrong because it suggests Kosi, Ghaghara, Gandak and then Gomti, incorrectly placing Ghaghara east of Gandak. 1 – 2 – 4 – 3 is wrong since it starts with Gandak before Kosi and swaps the positions of Ghaghara and Gomti, all of which conflict with the real map. Common Pitfalls: Candidates often confuse the relative positions of Kosi and Gandak because both originate in Nepal and flow through Bihar. Another mistake is to assume that rivers which join further downstream on the Ganga must automatically be further east, which is not always true. To avoid such errors, practice drawing simple schematic maps of the Ganga basin and repeatedly marking important tributaries and nearby cities to reinforce spatial memory. Final Answer: From east to west, the correct order of these Ganga tributaries is 2 – 1 – 3 – 4 (Kosi, Gandak, Ghaghara, Gomti).

Question 9

Which of the following statements about olive ridley sea turtles is or are correct?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Olive ridley turtles are a flagship marine species and an important part of questions on environment and biodiversity. They are well known for their mass nesting events called arribadas, and conservation efforts in India frequently refer to them. This question lists three statements about olive ridleys and asks you to identify which are correct. To answer, you must know basic biological facts about the species and their nesting sites, especially along the Indian coast. Given Data / Assumptions: - Statement 1: Olive ridleys are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world. - Statement 2: They live in warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic and Indian Oceans. - Statement 3: The Coromandel Coast in India is the largest mass nesting site for olive ridley turtles. - We must determine which combination of statements is correct. - We assume standard conservation and zoological references. Concept / Approach: Olive ridley turtles are indeed among the smallest of the sea turtle species and are known to be the most abundant globally. They inhabit tropical and subtropical waters of the Pacific, Atlantic and Indian Oceans, so both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are factually correct. The tricky part is Statement 3, which claims that the Coromandel Coast is the largest mass nesting site. In reality, in India the largest known mass nesting sites for olive ridleys are on the Odisha coast, especially Gahirmatha and nearby beaches, not on the Coromandel Coast further south. Thus, Statement 3 is incorrect, and the correct option must include only Statements 1 and 2. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Evaluate Statement 1. Olive ridleys are smaller compared to loggerhead, green and leatherback turtles and are considered the most abundant sea turtle species worldwide, so Statement 1 is true. Step 2: Evaluate Statement 2. Olive ridleys are distributed in warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic and Indian Oceans, which matches the standard description, so Statement 2 is true. Step 3: Evaluate Statement 3. The largest mass nesting (arribada) centres in India are on the Odisha coast, particularly Gahirmatha and Rushikulya, not on the Coromandel Coast; therefore Statement 3 is false. Step 4: Since 1 and 2 are true and 3 is false, the correct combination is "1 and 2 only". Verification / Alternative check: If you recall major conservation areas for olive ridleys in India, the Odisha coast is always highlighted in textbooks and news for spectacular arribadas, with thousands of turtles nesting on a single beach. The Coromandel Coast, which includes parts of Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh, has nesting sites but is not identified as the largest mass nesting region. Also, introductory environment material usually states that olive ridleys are the smallest and most abundant sea turtles and that their range spans three oceans, confirming Statements 1 and 2 as accurate. Why Other Options Are Wrong: "1, 2 and 3" is wrong because it includes Statement 3, which incorrectly names the Coromandel Coast as the largest mass nesting site. "2 and 3 only" is wrong since Statement 3 is false and Statement 1 is an important correct fact about olive ridleys. "1 only" is wrong because it ignores the correct Statement 2 about the species' wide distribution in warm oceanic waters. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes assume any eastern coast location mentioned in environment news must be the key nesting site and accept "Coromandel Coast" without recalling the more specific name "Odisha coast" or "Gahirmatha". Another error is to overthink Statement 1 and doubt that a widely distributed species can also be the smallest. Instead, rely on memorised standard descriptions from trusted sources and carefully read geographical labels in Statement 3. Distinguishing between general nesting areas and the largest mass nesting site is crucial here. Final Answer: Only the first two statements are correct, so the right choice is 1 and 2 only.

Question 10

Which one of the following statements about Elephanta Island near Mumbai is correct?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Elephanta Island, located off the coast of Mumbai in Maharashtra, is a UNESCO World Heritage Site famous for its rock cut cave temples. These caves are primarily dedicated to Lord Shiva and contain some of the finest examples of early medieval Indian rock cut art. Exam questions about Elephanta often focus on its religious association, artistic features and naming history. This question asks you to identify the correct statement among four options that describe different aspects of the island and its caves. Given Data / Assumptions: - Four statements are proposed regarding Elephanta Island. - One statement refers to how it got its name from a large elephant structure. - One claims it contains only one large cave. - One links it to a spectacular carving of Vishnu described in a specific Purana. - One associates the site with the Pashupata sect, a Shaivite tradition. - We assume standard archaeological and historical scholarship. Concept / Approach: The Elephanta caves are primarily Shaivite and are widely believed to be associated with the Pashupata sect, which is one of the earliest Shaivite sects. The caves are famous for the Trimurti or Maheshmurti sculpture of Shiva, not for a Vishnu carving described in the Vishnudharmottara Purana. The site actually has multiple rock cut caves, not just one large cave. As for naming, the island was indeed named Elephanta by colonial powers because of a stone elephant statue found near the shore, but this naming is sometimes attributed to the Portuguese rather than strictly to the British. In many exam keys, the most clearly correct and undisputed statement is the association with the Pashupata sect. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Evaluate the statement about the island containing one large cave only. In reality, Elephanta has several caves, with Cave 1 being the main one but not the only one. So this statement is false. Step 2: Evaluate the statement about a spectacular Vishnu carving described in the Vishnudharmottara Purana. Elephanta is renowned for Shaivite imagery, especially the three headed Shiva relief, not for a major Vishnu image tied to that Purana. So this statement is incorrect. Step 3: Consider the statement that the island is associated with the Pashupata sect. Historical and art historical studies link the Shaivite iconography at Elephanta to the Pashupata tradition, making this statement correct. Step 4: Examine the naming statement. While the island's name does come from a stone elephant figure, attributing the naming specifically to the British is less precise historically because the Portuguese are often credited. This ambiguity makes the statement less reliable as a fully correct exam choice. Step 5: Therefore, the most clearly correct statement is that Elephanta Island is associated with the Pashupata sect. Verification / Alternative check: If you recall descriptions of the site in standard history or art history texts, Elephanta is consistently described as a Shaivite centre, with sculptures depicting various forms of Shiva such as Nataraja and Ardhanarishvara. The scholarly discussion often mentions the Pashupata sect as the likely patrons or ideological influence. There is little emphasis on Vishnu imagery or on Elephanta as a Vaishnavite centre. This confirms that the statement about Pashupata association is the safe and correct choice in an exam setting. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The claim that Elephanta contains only one large cave is wrong because the complex includes multiple caves, even though one is the main and largest. The statement about a spectacular Vishnu carving described in the Vishnudharmottara Purana is wrong because Elephanta is primarily Shaivite and famous for the Shiva Trimurti, not a Vishnu sculpture. The naming statement is imprecise in attributing the name only to the British, and exam solutions typically prioritise the clearer religious association with Pashupata Shaivism instead. Common Pitfalls: Students often focus on the dramatic story of the elephant statue giving the island its name and may rush to choose that option without considering its historical nuances. Another pitfall is not distinguishing between different rock cut temple sites, confusing Elephanta with other cave complexes that may have prominent Vishnu sculptures. To avoid these errors, remember the core identity of Elephanta as a Shaivite site and connect it with the Pashupata sect as mentioned in scholarly accounts and exam oriented material. Final Answer: The correct statement about Elephanta Island is that it is associated with the Pashupata sect of Shaivism.

Question 11

In which one of the following Indian states is Loktak Lake, famous for its floating phumdis, situated?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Loktak Lake is an iconic freshwater lake known for its unique floating islands called phumdis. It is environmentally and culturally significant, supporting local livelihoods and biodiversity. Questions about Loktak Lake often appear in Indian geography and environment sections because it is closely associated with a particular state in the north east. This question simply asks you to recall which state hosts this famous lake. Given Data / Assumptions: - Four states are listed: Sikkim, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur and Meghalaya. - Loktak Lake is identified as a famous lake with floating phumdis. - We must choose the state where this lake is actually located. - We assume standard geography references for India's important lakes. Concept / Approach: Loktak Lake is located in the north eastern state of Manipur. It is often called the lifeline of Manipur because it supports fishing and agriculture and houses the Keibul Lamjao National Park, a floating national park. Sikkim and Meghalaya have their own notable water bodies, and Himachal Pradesh is known more for high altitude lakes and rivers in the western Himalayas. The approach is to associate the name "Loktak" and "phumdis" specifically with Manipur and eliminate the other states that do not match this well known pairing. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Loktak Lake is often mentioned alongside Manipur in geography texts and environmental news. Step 2: Remember that phumdis are floating mats of vegetation, soil and organic matter unique to Loktak Lake. Step 3: Note that Keibul Lamjao National Park, home of the endangered sangai deer, lies on a phumdi in this lake, further reinforcing the link with Manipur. Step 4: Recognise that Sikkim, Himachal Pradesh and Meghalaya are not commonly associated with Loktak Lake in any standard reference. Step 5: Conclude that Loktak Lake is situated in Manipur. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify by recalling that the Keibul Lamjao National Park, mentioned in many environment questions, is located in Manipur and is described as a floating national park on Loktak Lake. Also, "Loktak" often appears in north east focused questions and news about conservation of the sangai, which is the state animal of Manipur. None of the other listed states share this specific combination of lake, floating islands and endemic deer species. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Sikkim is wrong because it is more closely associated with high altitude lakes like Tsomgo (Changu) Lake, not Loktak. Himachal Pradesh is wrong since its famous water bodies include lakes such as Dal Lake near Dharamshala and high mountain lakes, not the lowland freshwater Loktak Lake. Meghalaya, while rich in rainfall and rivers, is not the state where Loktak Lake with phumdis is found. Common Pitfalls: A common error is to loosely associate all north eastern geographic features with any north eastern state, leading to random guessing among Sikkim, Meghalaya and Manipur. Another pitfall is confusion between Loktak Lake and other important lakes like Chilika in Odisha or Wular in Jammu and Kashmir. To avoid such confusion, create strong mental links: Loktak Lake, phumdis, Keibul Lamjao and sangai all belong together in Manipur. Final Answer: Loktak Lake is situated in the state of Manipur.

Question 12

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of major rivers encountered from Chennai to Kolkata when travelling by road along the shortest route?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: India's eastern coastal plains are drained by several major rivers that flow from west to east into the Bay of Bengal. When travelling by road from Chennai to Kolkata along the coastal corridor, you cross these rivers in a definite geographical order. This question tests your ability to mentally map the east coast and place five major rivers Penneru, Krishna, Godavari, Mahanadi and Subarnarekha in the correct sequence from south to north, which corresponds to the road journey from Chennai to Kolkata. Given Data / Assumptions: - The journey is from Chennai in Tamil Nadu to Kolkata in West Bengal. - The route follows approximately the shortest practical road path along the east coast. - The rivers mentioned are Penneru, Krishna, Godavari, Mahanadi and Subarnarekha. - We need the order in which these rivers are encountered from south to north or from Chennai to Kolkata. Concept / Approach: From Chennai, as you move northwards along the coast into Andhra Pradesh, you first cross the Penneru (Penna) River. Continuing north, you then encounter the Krishna River in coastal Andhra Pradesh, followed by the larger Godavari River further north. As you enter Odisha, the next major river you cross is the Mahanadi near cities like Cuttack. Finally, before reaching Kolkata in West Bengal, you cross the Subarnarekha River, which flows through Odisha and West Bengal. Therefore, the correct order is Penneru, Krishna, Godavari, Mahanadi and Subarnarekha. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Starting from Chennai, the nearest major northward river is Penneru in southern Andhra Pradesh; this must be first in the sequence. Step 2: Moving further north, you reach the Krishna River which flows into the Bay of Bengal near cities like Vijayawada and Machilipatnam. Step 3: Continuing north, the next great river is Godavari, entering the Bay of Bengal near Rajahmundry and Yanam. Step 4: As you proceed into Odisha, the major river you cross is Mahanadi, which forms a delta near Cuttack and Paradeep. Step 5: Finally, closer to the West Bengal border and before reaching Kolkata, you cross the Subarnarekha River. Step 6: This south to north order is Penneru, Krishna, Godavari, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, matching option "Penneru, Krishna, Godavari, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha". Verification / Alternative check: You can verify the sequence using state boundaries. Penneru lies in southern Andhra Pradesh, Krishna in central Andhra Pradesh, Godavari in northern Andhra Pradesh, Mahanadi in Odisha and Subarnarekha near the Odisha–West Bengal region. The road journey from Chennai to Kolkata broadly tracks these states in this order: Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha and West Bengal. This consistent state wise progression supports the river order chosen and rules out options that include west coast rivers like Periyar or rivers that lie south of Chennai like Kaveri after Chennai in the sequence. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The option with Kaveri is wrong because Kaveri lies to the south of Chennai; you would cross it before reaching Chennai, not after departing Chennai for Kolkata. The option including Periyar is incorrect because Periyar is a west flowing river in Kerala and does not lie on the Chennai–Kolkata east coast route. The option starting with Penneru, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, Godavari, Krishna is wrong as it violates the correct south to north ordering of these rivers. Common Pitfalls: Many candidates ignore the directional clue and only recognise famous rivers, picking an option that lists familiar names without checking the latitude order. Others mix up west coast and east coast rivers, mistakenly including Periyar or misplacing Kaveri. To avoid such errors, always picture the map of India's coastline and remember that as you move northward along the east coast you encounter, in sequence, rivers draining Andhra Pradesh first, then Odisha, and finally those near West Bengal. Final Answer: The correct sequence of rivers encountered from Chennai to Kolkata by road is Penneru, Krishna, Godavari, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha.

Question 13

With regard to Project Tiger in India, which one of the following statements is not correct?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Project Tiger is one of India's flagship wildlife conservation programmes, launched to protect the Bengal tiger and its habitats. It is frequently discussed in environmental policy questions and current affairs. This question asks which statement about Project Tiger is not correct, so you must identify the option that contradicts well known facts about the project, its launch year, objectives and geographical spread of Tiger Reserves in the country. Given Data / Assumptions: - One statement states that Project Tiger was launched in 1973. - Another emphasises preservation of tiger habitats and tigers as natural heritage. - A third states that the project aims to ensure a viable population of tigers in India. - The last statement claims that there are no Tiger Reserves in the north eastern part of India. - We must find the statement that is factually incorrect. Concept / Approach: Project Tiger was indeed launched in the early 1970s, specifically in 1973, and its objectives include preserving not just the tiger as a species but also its natural habitats, ensuring ecological integrity and maintaining a viable population of tigers in their natural environment. However, the claim that there are no Tiger Reserves in north eastern India is clearly wrong, because reserves like Manas and Nameri in Assam and Namdapha in Arunachal Pradesh exist in that region. Therefore, the approach is to accept the first three statements as correct and identify the fourth as the incorrect one. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Confirm that Project Tiger was launched in 1973 under the leadership of then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. This supports Statement 1 as correct. Step 2: Recall that one of the project's main goals is to preserve tiger habitats along with their flora and fauna as part of India's natural heritage, which matches Statement 2. Step 3: Note that ensuring a viable and sustainable population of tigers in the wild is a core objective, so Statement 3 is also correct. Step 4: Examine Statement 4, which claims there are no Tiger Reserves in north eastern India. Step 5: Remember examples such as Manas, Nameri and Namdapha Tiger Reserves in the north east, proving that Statement 4 is false. Step 6: Therefore, the not correct statement is the one claiming there are no Tiger Reserves in the north eastern part of India. Verification / Alternative check: Project Tiger information in official documents and widely used exam guides lists multiple reserves across different landscapes, including the Himalayan foothills and north eastern forests. Maps of tiger reserves clearly show several sites in Assam and Arunachal Pradesh. Checking such a map or recalling famous north eastern reserves like Manas, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, makes it obvious that the statement about the absence of Tiger Reserves in the region cannot be true. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The statement that Project Tiger was launched in 1973 is correct and matches historical records. The statement about preserving tiger habitats and tigers as natural heritage accurately reflects one of the core aims of Project Tiger. The statement focusing on ensuring a viable population of tigers is correct and reflects the population stabilisation and recovery objective of the scheme. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may not be aware of specific Tiger Reserves in the north east and could be misled by the absence of big cat news from that region compared to central India. Others might confuse the number of reserves with their geographic spread and underestimate the coverage in the north eastern hill states. To avoid these traps, revise the list and map of Tiger Reserves, paying attention not only to famous ones like Jim Corbett and Ranthambore but also to those in the north east and south India. Final Answer: The statement that is not correct about Project Tiger is "There are no Tiger Reserves in the north eastern part of India."

Question 14

Which of the following statements correctly describe Mediterranean agriculture?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Mediterranean agriculture is a distinctive type of commercial farming practised in regions with a Mediterranean climate, characterised by dry summers and mild, wet winters. Understanding its key features is important in world geography, particularly in relation to specialised crops like grapes and olives. This question presents four statements about Mediterranean agriculture and asks which combination is correct, testing your ability to distinguish this system from subsistence agriculture and to recall its hallmark crops and commercial orientation. Given Data / Assumptions: - Statement 1: Mediterranean agriculture is highly specialised commercial agriculture. - Statement 2: It is intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by wet paddy cultivation. - Statement 3: It is a primitive subsistence agriculture. - Statement 4: Viticulture (grape cultivation) is a speciality of the Mediterranean region. - We must identify which statements correctly describe Mediterranean agriculture. Concept / Approach: Mediterranean agriculture is not primitive or subsistence based; it is typically market oriented and involves high value, specialised crops such as olives, grapes, citrus fruits and some vegetables. Statement 1 correctly captures its highly specialised commercial nature. Wet paddy cultivation (rice agriculture) is more associated with monsoon Asia and intensive subsistence farming, not with the Mediterranean climate, so Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 3 describing it as primitive subsistence agriculture is also incorrect. Viticulture is a classic hallmark of Mediterranean agriculture, making Statement 4 correct. Therefore, the right combination is Statements 1 and 4 only. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Evaluate Statement 1. Mediterranean agriculture indeed focuses on high value, specialised crops for export, like olives and grapes, and is commercial in nature. Statement 1 is correct. Step 2: Evaluate Statement 2. Intensive subsistence wet paddy cultivation is found mainly in monsoon Asia (India, China, Southeast Asia), not in Mediterranean climatic regions. Statement 2 is false. Step 3: Evaluate Statement 3. Primitive subsistence agriculture is characterised by simple tools and shifting cultivation, which does not match the relatively advanced commercial farming of Mediterranean regions. Statement 3 is false. Step 4: Evaluate Statement 4. Viticulture, or grape cultivation for fresh consumption and wine production, is indeed a speciality of Mediterranean regions such as southern Europe and parts of California and Chile. Statement 4 is correct. Step 5: Combine the true statements: 1 and 4 only, matching option "1 and 4 only". Verification / Alternative check: Consider examples of Mediterranean agriculture around the world: southern Spain, Italy, Greece, coastal California, central Chile and parts of Australia. All these regions are known for vineyards, olive groves and citrus orchards linked to export markets. None of them are famous for large scale wet paddy fields typical of monsoon Asia. This real world picture confirms that Mediterranean agriculture is specialised and commercial, supports Statement 1, and clearly highlights viticulture as a key speciality, supporting Statement 4. Why Other Options Are Wrong: "1 only" is wrong because it ignores the equally correct Statement 4 about viticulture. "2 and 3" is wrong since both statements misrepresent Mediterranean agriculture as subsistence based; neither applies to this system. "1, 3 and 4" is wrong because it includes Statement 3, which wrongly labels Mediterranean agriculture as primitive subsistence agriculture. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse Mediterranean agriculture with generic mixed farming or assume that all intensive agriculture in developing regions is subsistence based. Others may focus only on a single crop and forget the broader commercial and export oriented nature of this system. To avoid these mistakes, remember the signature combination: Mediterranean climate, high value perennial crops (especially grapes and olives), and a strong linkage to export markets. This triad immediately invalidates descriptions that call it primitive or wet paddy based subsistence farming. Final Answer: The statements that correctly describe Mediterranean agriculture are 1 and 4 only.

Question 15

Tropical evergreen rain forest biome provides optimum conditions for plant and animal growth. Which one of the following statements about this biome is not correct?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Tropical evergreen rain forests are among the most important and biodiverse biomes on Earth. They occur mainly near the equator and are characterised by year round warmth and high rainfall. Questions about this biome often ask you to recognise its climatic features and typical locations. Here, you are asked to identify which statement about the biome is not correct, which means you must differentiate genuine equatorial rain forest regions from places that have a different climate type altogether. Given Data / Assumptions: - One statement notes heavy rainfall and high temperature throughout the year. - Another calls it a mega thermal biome. - A third mentions extension mainly between 10 deg N and 10 deg S latitudes. - The fourth claims the maximum development of this biome is in central and southern California and north western coastal Africa. - We must find the statement that is factually incorrect. Concept / Approach: Tropical evergreen rain forests are indeed associated with consistently high temperatures and heavy rainfall, making Statement 1 correct. They are often described as mega thermal biomes because they occur in regions of high heat and moisture, supporting Statement 2. Geographically, they are concentrated around the equator, roughly between 10 degrees north and 10 degrees south, validating Statement 3 as a general description. However, central and southern California have a Mediterranean type climate, and north western coastal Africa is relatively dry in many parts. These are not regions of maximum tropical evergreen rain forest development. Instead, such forests are best developed in the Amazon Basin, Congo Basin and parts of South East Asia. Thus, Statement 4 is incorrect. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Evaluate the climatic description in Statement 1. Tropical rain forests indeed experience high temperatures and heavy rainfall throughout the year, so Statement 1 is correct. Step 2: Check Statement 2. "Mega thermal biome" is an appropriate term for hot, wet tropical environments with high biological productivity, so this description is acceptable and correct. Step 3: Examine Statement 3. The equatorial rain forest belt mainly spans roughly 10 deg N to 10 deg S, though local variations exist, so the statement is broadly correct. Step 4: Consider Statement 4. Central and southern California experience Mediterranean climate with dry summers, and north western coastal Africa has significant arid and semi arid zones; these are not major equatorial rain forest regions. Step 5: Recognise that maximum development of tropical evergreen rain forests is instead found in equatorial areas like the Amazon Basin, the Congo Basin and parts of Indonesia. Step 6: Therefore, Statement 4 is the one that is not correct. Verification / Alternative check: Looking at a world climate and vegetation map confirms that tropical evergreen rain forests are concentrated in equatorial South America, central Africa and South East Asia. Central and southern California are mapped under Mediterranean and steppe climates, and north western Africa has Sahara adjacent arid conditions with only small pockets of other vegetation. No atlas shows these areas as cores of evergreen rain forest development, confirming that the statement naming them as such is incorrect. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The statement about heavy rainfall and high temperatures throughout the year is a textbook definition of the tropical evergreen rain forest climate. Calling this biome a mega thermal biome is consistent with ecological classifications that highlight very warm, moist environments. The latitudinal description between 10 deg N and 10 deg S is a standard approximation for equatorial climates and is not misleading in exam context. Common Pitfalls: Some students misinterpret the term "tropical" and assume it can extend well into subtropical or mid latitude regions such as California, which leads them to accept Statement 4. Another pitfall is not paying attention to the word "maximum" and assuming any coastal area must have dense forests. To avoid these errors, always cross check climatic labels: Mediterranean, desert and steppe regions are fundamentally different from equatorial rain forests and cannot be centres of maximum evergreen biome development. Final Answer: The statement that is not correct about the tropical evergreen rain forest biome is "The maximum development of this biome has taken place in central and southern California and north western coastal lands of Africa."

Question 16

India signed an agreement in 2016 to develop a strategic seaport in one of its neighbouring countries. What is the name of this port?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Strategic ports and connectivity projects are key elements of India's foreign policy and regional cooperation. In 2016, India signed a high profile agreement to develop a strategic port in a neighbouring country, aimed at improving trade routes and providing an alternative access to Afghanistan and Central Asia. This question asks you to recall the name of that port, which has frequently appeared in news and exam questions related to international relations and geography. Given Data / Assumptions: - Four port names are given: Chabahar, Gwadar, Hambantota and Mongla. - The agreement was signed in 2016. - The port is in a neighbouring country and is considered strategic. - We assume the commonly discussed agreement involving India's investment and development role. Concept / Approach: Chabahar is a port in Iran that India agreed to develop, providing India with a route to Afghanistan and Central Asia that bypasses Pakistan. The trilateral agreement involving India, Iran and Afghanistan was widely reported in 2016. Gwadar is a port in Pakistan developed primarily with Chinese assistance under the Belt and Road Initiative. Hambantota is a Sri Lankan port built with Chinese investment. Mongla is a port in Bangladesh. While India has cooperative relationships with some of these locations, the 2016 strategic development agreement that attracted major attention was specifically about the Chabahar Port in Iran. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Remember that India's 2016 strategic port agreement was signed with Iran. Step 2: Recall that the port in question is Chabahar, located on Iran's south eastern coast along the Gulf of Oman. Step 3: Recognise that Gwadar is in Pakistan and associated mainly with China's China–Pakistan Economic Corridor, not with India's development plans. Step 4: Note that Hambantota is in Sri Lanka and was largely financed and leased by China, not India. Step 5: Mongla is a port in Bangladesh where India may engage in trading activities but is not the focus of the 2016 strategic port development agreement. Step 6: Therefore, the correct answer is Chabahar. Verification / Alternative check: All major news reports in 2016 highlighted the signing of the Chabahar agreement as a counter balance to China's involvement in Gwadar. The strategic narrative emphasised that Chabahar would give India landlocked Afghanistan an alternative sea access and enhance India–Iran ties. None of the other ports had such a 2016 landmark agreement with India as the principal developer. Remembering this geopolitical storyline helps verify that Chabahar is the port referred to in the question. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Gwadar is wrong because it is primarily a China backed port in Pakistan, part of the China–Pakistan Economic Corridor, and not developed by India. Hambantota is wrong as it is a Sri Lankan port that became known for Chinese investment and lease arrangements, not an Indian led strategic development project in 2016. Mongla is wrong because, while India may have cooperative ties with Bangladesh, the high profile 2016 strategic development agreement was not centred on this port. Common Pitfalls: Candidates often confuse Chabahar and Gwadar because both are deep sea ports in the same broader region and frequently appear in discussions about India–China strategic competition. Another pitfall is to assume that any port in a neighbouring country where India has trade ties must be the one mentioned, without paying attention to the specific year and nature of the agreement. To avoid confusion, remember the pairing "Chabahar – India and Iran" and "Gwadar – Pakistan and China" as separate strategic narratives. Final Answer: The strategic port that India agreed to develop under a 2016 agreement is Chabahar.

Question 17

Between which latitudes does the Doldrums low pressure belt, characterised by calm winds and rising air, mainly lie?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The Doldrums is a traditional maritime term for the equatorial zone of low pressure and calm or variable winds, associated with rising warm air and frequent thunderstorms. It plays an important role in global atmospheric circulation and is a favourite topic in physical geography. This question asks you to recall the approximate latitudinal extent of the Doldrums low pressure belt, testing your understanding of global wind belts and pressure zones near the equator. Given Data / Assumptions: - Four latitude ranges are provided as options. - The Doldrums refers to the equatorial low pressure belt. - We must identify the latitude band that best represents this belt. - The ranges are given in degrees north and south of the equator. Concept / Approach: The equatorial low pressure belt, or Inter Tropical Convergence Zone, is centred around the equator where trade winds from both hemispheres converge and air rises due to intense heating. This zone is typically described as extending about 5 degrees north and south of the equator, though it can shift seasonally. The other options, such as 25 deg to 35 deg or 35 deg to 60 deg, correspond more to subtropical high pressure or mid latitude westerly zones, not to the equatorial calm belt. Therefore, the correct latitude range for the Doldrums is approximately 5 deg N to 5 deg S. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the Doldrums is another name for the equatorial low pressure belt. Step 2: Recognise that this belt lies very close to the equator, not in mid or subtropical latitudes. Step 3: Among the options, only 5 deg N to 5 deg S straddles the equator symmetrically and remains close to it. Step 4: The ranges 25 deg N to 35 deg S and 35 deg N to 45 deg S are too far from the equator and are associated with other pressure belts and wind systems. Step 5: Therefore, the Doldrums pressure belt is best represented by the latitude range 5 deg N to 5 deg S. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify by recalling standard diagrams of global circulation cells (Hadley cells) and the Inter Tropical Convergence Zone. In these diagrams, the equatorial low pressure zone is drawn as a narrow band on either side of the equator, typically marked around 0 to 5 degrees north and south. Meanwhile, the subtropical high pressure belts appear around 25 to 35 degrees latitude, clearly separate from the Doldrums. This visual memory confirms the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 35 deg N to 60 deg S is wrong because it covers a very wide range across subtropical and mid latitude regions, not the narrow equatorial calm belt. 25 deg N to 35 deg S is wrong because it mainly includes part of the subtropical high pressure zone and not the equatorial Doldrums. 35 deg N to 45 deg S is also wrong as it lies completely outside the equatorial region, again covering only mid latitude areas. Common Pitfalls: Some students misremember the latitude ranges associated with different global circulation features and may confuse the Doldrums with the Horse Latitudes, which lie in the subtropical high pressure belt around 30 degrees latitude. Others misinterpret the diagrammatic representation and think the Doldrums cover a wider range than they actually do. To avoid such mistakes, memorise the standard association: Doldrums around 0 to 5 degrees, Horse Latitudes around 30 degrees, and westerlies in mid latitudes beyond that. Final Answer: The Doldrums low pressure belt mainly lies between 5 deg N to 5 deg S latitudes.

Question 18

Which of the following types of imaginary lines on a map join places that receive the same amount of rainfall?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Meteorology and cartography use several types of imaginary lines to represent equal values of different variables on maps. Knowing the terminology for these lines helps in interpreting weather charts and thematic maps. This question specifically asks which type of line joins places that receive the same rainfall, so you must distinguish between terms used for equal elevation, equal pressure, equal depth and equal rainfall. Given Data / Assumptions: - The options list contour lines, isobaths lines, isohyets lines and isobar lines. - We must identify the term used for lines joining places with equal rainfall. - We assume standard geographical and meteorological terminology. Concept / Approach: Each prefix and suffix in these terms has a specific meaning. "Iso" means equal. "Hyet" comes from a Greek root relating to rain, so "isohyets" are lines joining points of equal rainfall. "Bar" refers to pressure, making isobars lines of equal atmospheric pressure. "Bath" relates to depth, so isobaths connect points of equal depth in oceans or lakes. Contour lines, commonly used on topographic maps, join points of equal elevation. Since the question focuses on equal rainfall, the correct term is isohyets. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that "iso" means equal in all these compound terms. Step 2: Recognise that "hyet" is associated with rain and rainfall, pointing to the term isohyets. Step 3: Recall that isohyets are specifically defined as lines on a map joining areas that receive the same amount of precipitation during a given period. Step 4: Identify that contour lines are unrelated to rainfall because they represent equal height or elevation. Step 5: Note that isobaths represent equal depth in water bodies, and isobars represent equal atmospheric pressure, neither of which concern rainfall. Step 6: Therefore, the correct answer is isohyets lines. Verification / Alternative check: If you have ever seen a rainfall distribution map, you may remember curved lines labelled with rainfall amounts, such as 500 mm or 1000 mm, connecting different regions. These are isohyets. Weather maps, on the other hand, often show isobars representing equal pressure, and topographic maps show contours for elevation. Distinguishing these typical usage patterns further confirms that isohyets correspond to equal rainfall. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Contour lines are wrong because they are used to show equal elevation above sea level, not rainfall. Isobaths lines are wrong because they join points of equal depth in oceans, seas or lakes, not equal precipitation. Isobar lines are wrong because they depict equal atmospheric pressure, commonly used in surface weather charts, rather than rainfall amounts. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse isohyets with isobars because both appear on meteorological maps. Others may not pay attention to the suffix and pick the term that sounds most familiar. To avoid these errors, break down each composite word into "iso" (equal) and the specific physical quantity: "bar" for pressure, "hyet" for rainfall, "bath" for depth and so on. This simple word analysis is often enough to arrive at the correct choice even if you have forgotten the exact definition. Final Answer: Imaginary lines that join places with the same amount of rainfall are called Isohyets lines.

Question 19

Which of the following is a cold desert region lying in the Great Himalayas?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: In physical geography, deserts are not always hot and sandy. Some high altitude regions with very low temperatures and sparse precipitation are classified as cold deserts. The Great Himalayas and adjoining high plateaus contain such cold desert landscapes. This question asks you to identify which of the listed regions is a cold desert lying in or near the Great Himalayan range, testing your knowledge of India's high altitude environments. Given Data / Assumptions: - Four options are given: Ladakh, Satpura, Aravalli and Vindhya. - The question specifies a cold desert region within the Great Himalayas. - We assume standard Indian physical geography classifications. - Only one of these regions satisfies both the "cold desert" and "Great Himalayas" criteria. Concept / Approach: Ladakh is a high altitude region located in the northernmost part of India, within the greater Himalayan and trans Himalayan zone. It exhibits very low temperatures, scanty rainfall and barren, rocky terrain, making it a classic example of a cold desert. In contrast, Satpura, Aravalli and Vindhya are ranges located in central and western India, far from the Great Himalayas and not classified as cold deserts. Therefore, the correct approach is to recognise Ladakh as the only option that fits the described characteristics. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify Ladakh as a region in the northern Himalayas and Karakoram area, known for high altitude valleys and rugged mountains. Step 2: Recall that Ladakh receives very little rainfall due to its position in the rain shadow of the Himalayas and experiences severe cold, qualifying it as a cold desert. Step 3: Consider Satpura, which is a range of hills in central India across Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra; it has a tropical to subtropical climate, not a cold desert environment. Step 4: Recognise that the Aravalli range runs across Rajasthan and Haryana; parts of it are semi arid but not a high altitude cold desert in the Great Himalayas. Step 5: Note that the Vindhya range is also in central India and does not have cold desert conditions. Step 6: Conclude that Ladakh is the cold desert region lying in the Great Himalayas. Verification / Alternative check: Atlas maps and geography textbooks commonly label Ladakh as a cold desert because of its sparse vegetation, extreme diurnal temperature range and low precipitation. Photographs and climatic data further support this classification. None of the other three ranges are ever described as cold deserts; instead, they are associated with plateau or hill regions in central and western India. Comparing altitude, latitude and climate across the options confirms that only Ladakh fits the question's description. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Satpura is wrong because, although it is a hilly region, it lies in central India with a more moderate climate and does not qualify as a cold desert. Aravalli is wrong since it is an ancient fold mountain range in north western India; parts of it pass through semi arid areas but it is not a high altitude Himalayan cold desert. Vindhya is wrong because it is a range of hills in central India and lacks the high altitude and extreme cold conditions characteristic of Ladakh. Common Pitfalls: Some candidates may focus on the word "desert" and think only of Rajasthan and the Thar Desert, overlooking that the question specifies a cold desert in the Great Himalayas. Others may not clearly differentiate between Himalayan ranges and peninsular hill systems, leading to confusion between Ladakh and other ranges. To avoid such errors, remember that Ladakh, parts of Lahaul and Spiti and some Tibetan plateau areas are classic examples of cold deserts associated with the Himalayas. Final Answer: The cold desert region lying in the Great Himalayas is Ladakh.

Question 20

In Indian geography, the UNESCO World Heritage “Group of Monuments at Hampi” is located in which Indian state?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Hampi is one of the most important archaeological and cultural sites in India. It represents the remains of the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire and has been recognised as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Many competitive exams in India test whether candidates know in which state this monumental complex is situated, because it connects history, tourism and basic map work in Indian geography. Given Data / Assumptions: The question mentions the “Group of Monuments at Hampi”. It asks for the Indian state in which these monuments are located. Four possible states are given: West Bengal, Gujarat, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. We assume the usual Indian political map, with current state boundaries, is being used for this general knowledge question. Concept / Approach: The concept here is simple location based geography. Many heritage sites are associated with particular states, and remembering them helps in map based questions. The Group of Monuments at Hampi is historically linked to the Vijayanagara Empire, whose core region lay in the southern Deccan. Specifically, Hampi lies on the banks of the Tungabhadra River in the present day state of Karnataka. So the approach is to recall this association and then eliminate the other options that do not match that known fact. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Hampi was the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire in south India.Step 2: Remember that Hampi is situated on the banks of the Tungabhadra River in the state of Karnataka.Step 3: Compare this information with the options West Bengal, Gujarat, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.Step 4: Conclude that Karnataka is the only option that correctly matches the known location of Hampi. Verification / Alternative check: Another way to verify is to remember that Hampi is close to the city of Hospet and the town of Ballari (Bellary), both of which are well known locations in Karnataka. Many tourism brochures and school atlases label Hampi clearly within Karnataka s boundaries. No standard source places Hampi in West Bengal, Gujarat or Tamil Nadu, so cross checking with even a simple map confirms that Karnataka is correct. Why Other Options Are Wrong: West Bengal is located in eastern India and is famous for sites like the Sunderbans and Victoria Memorial, not Hampi. Gujarat is in western India and has heritage sites such as Champaner Pavagadh and Rani ki Vav, but Hampi is not there. Tamil Nadu is in the far south and has monuments like the Brihadeeswara Temple at Thanjavur and the Group of Monuments at Mahabalipuram, but not Hampi. Therefore, these three states do not match the known location of the Group of Monuments at Hampi. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to confuse different UNESCO sites such as Mahabalipuram in Tamil Nadu or Champaner Pavagadh in Gujarat with Hampi in Karnataka, because all of them are ancient temple or fort complexes. Another error is to assume that any famous temple site in the south might be in Tamil Nadu, since Tamil Nadu has many temples, but in this case that assumption is incorrect. Carefully linking each site to its correct state is essential for avoiding such confusion in examinations. Final Answer: The Group of Monuments at Hampi is located in the state of Karnataka.

Indian Geography Questions