Let E be the set of integers whose unit digit is 1. If a number is chosen uniformly from {2, 3, 4, …, 50}, what is the probability that it belongs to E?

Difficulty: Easy

Correct Answer: 4/49

Explanation:


Introduction / Context:
We count how many integers between 2 and 50 inclusive end with digit 1. Divide by the total count to obtain the probability.


Given Data / Assumptions:

  • Range: {2,3,…,50} has 49 numbers.
  • Numbers with unit digit 1 in this range: 11, 21, 31, 41.


Concept / Approach:
Simple counting; all outcomes equally likely.


Step-by-Step Solution:

Favorable = 4 (11, 21, 31, 41).Total = 49.Probability = 4/49.


Verification / Alternative check:
Note that 1 and 51 lie just outside the range; hence there are exactly four valid entries spaced by 10.


Why Other Options Are Wrong:
5/49, 3/49, 2/49 are inconsistent with the explicit list.


Common Pitfalls:
Accidentally including 1 or 51, which are not in the specified set.


Final Answer:
4/49

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