Raja, Karan, and Ashwini each fire one shot at a target. Their hit probabilities are: Raja = 3/6, Karan = 2/6, Ashwini = 4/4. What is the probability that at least two shots hit the target?

Difficulty: Medium

Correct Answer: 2/3

Explanation:


Introduction / Context:
We have three independent Bernoulli trials with different success probabilities: p_R = 1/2, p_K = 1/3, p_A = 1. We want P(at least two hits). Because Ashwini always hits, the total hits are 1 (from Ashwini) plus the number of hits from Raja and Karan. Hence, “at least two” reduces to “Raja or Karan (or both) hits”.


Given Data / Assumptions:

  • p_R = 3/6 = 1/2.
  • p_K = 2/6 = 1/3.
  • p_A = 1.
  • Independence of shooters.


Concept / Approach:
Compute P(exactly 2 hits) and P(exactly 3 hits) and sum them. Exactly 2 occurs when Ashwini hits and exactly one of {Raja, Karan} hits. Exactly 3 occurs when all three hit.


Step-by-Step Solution:

P(exactly 2) = p_A * [p_R(1 − p_K) + (1 − p_R)p_K] = 1 * [(1/2)(2/3) + (1/2)(1/3)] = 1/3 + 1/6 = 1/2.P(exactly 3) = p_R * p_K * p_A = (1/2)(1/3)(1) = 1/6.Therefore P(≥ 2) = 1/2 + 1/6 = 2/3.


Verification / Alternative check:
Shortcut: Because p_A = 1, at least two hits ⇔ (R or K hits). P(R ∪ K) = 1/2 + 1/3 − (1/2)(1/3) = 5/6 − 1/6 = 2/3.


Why Other Options Are Wrong:
1/2 ignores triple-hit scenarios; 5/6 overcounts; 1/3 is too small.


Common Pitfalls:
Forgetting independence or misinterpreting “at least two” as “exactly two”.


Final Answer:
2/3

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