Difficulty: Medium
Correct Answer: 2/3
Explanation:
Introduction / Context:We have three independent Bernoulli trials with different success probabilities: p_R = 1/2, p_K = 1/3, p_A = 1. We want P(at least two hits). Because Ashwini always hits, the total hits are 1 (from Ashwini) plus the number of hits from Raja and Karan. Hence, “at least two” reduces to “Raja or Karan (or both) hits”.
Given Data / Assumptions:
Concept / Approach:Compute P(exactly 2 hits) and P(exactly 3 hits) and sum them. Exactly 2 occurs when Ashwini hits and exactly one of {Raja, Karan} hits. Exactly 3 occurs when all three hit.
Step-by-Step Solution:
P(exactly 2) = p_A * [p_R(1 − p_K) + (1 − p_R)p_K] = 1 * [(1/2)(2/3) + (1/2)(1/3)] = 1/3 + 1/6 = 1/2.P(exactly 3) = p_R * p_K * p_A = (1/2)(1/3)(1) = 1/6.Therefore P(≥ 2) = 1/2 + 1/6 = 2/3.Verification / Alternative check:Shortcut: Because p_A = 1, at least two hits ⇔ (R or K hits). P(R ∪ K) = 1/2 + 1/3 − (1/2)(1/3) = 5/6 − 1/6 = 2/3.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:1/2 ignores triple-hit scenarios; 5/6 overcounts; 1/3 is too small.
Common Pitfalls:Forgetting independence or misinterpreting “at least two” as “exactly two”.
Final Answer:2/3
Discussion & Comments