Question 1

Which organ acts as the major centre in the human body for receiving, analysing, and integrating information from all the sense organs?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The human nervous system is responsible for detecting changes in the internal and external environment and coordinating appropriate responses. Sensory organs such as eyes, ears, nose, skin, and tongue send signals through nerves to a central processing centre. This centre interprets these signals, makes decisions, and sends out commands to muscles and glands. This question asks you to identify which organ serves as this major integrative centre. Given Data / Assumptions: Sensory information from all sense organs must be received and analysed. The organ must integrate information and coordinate responses. Options list heart, kidneys, pituitary gland, brain, and spinal cord. We assume normal human neuroanatomy and physiology. Concept / Approach: The brain is the central organ of the nervous system in humans. It receives impulses from all sensory receptors via sensory nerves and the spinal cord. It then integrates this information, makes sense of it based on memory and patterns, and generates motor commands. The heart pumps blood, kidneys filter waste, the pituitary gland secretes hormones, and the spinal cord transmits information between the brain and body and handles some reflexes. While the spinal cord plays an important role, especially in reflex actions, the main centre for higher analysis and integration is the brain. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify the organ that receives signals from eyes, ears, nose, tongue, and skin. Step 2: Recall that sensory nerves carry impulses to the spinal cord and then up to various areas of the brain such as the sensory cortex. Step 3: The brain interprets these impulses as images, sounds, smells, tastes, and sensations. Step 4: The brain then decides on appropriate voluntary or involuntary responses and sends commands through motor nerves. Step 5: Recognise that the heart, kidneys, and pituitary gland do not have this integrative sensory role. Step 6: The spinal cord participates in information transmission and simple reflexes, but complex analysis and integration occur primarily in the brain. Step 7: Therefore, the brain is the major centre for receiving, analysing, and integrating information. Verification / Alternative check: Neuroscience and physiology textbooks describe the brain as the central processing unit of the nervous system. They detail sensory areas for vision, hearing, and other modalities located in specific lobes of the cerebral cortex. They also explain that the spinal cord acts as a relay and a reflex centre but does not perform higher functions such as thinking, memory, or conscious perception. This supports the conclusion that the brain is the key integrative centre. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Heart: Pumps blood and maintains circulation; it does not analyse sensory information. Kidneys: Filter blood and regulate fluid and electrolyte balance; they are not involved in sensory integration. Pituitary gland: An endocrine gland that secretes hormones under brain control; it does not receive sensory input directly. Spinal cord: Transmits signals and performs simple reflexes, but complex interpretation and decision making occur in the brain. Common Pitfalls: Some learners may overemphasise the spinal cord because of reflex actions and confuse it with the brain. Others may mistakenly believe the heart has a decision making role due to expressions like “follow your heart.” For exam purposes, always associate sensory integration and higher functions like thinking and memory with the brain. Final Answer: The correct answer is Brain.

Question 2

In green plants, the main green pigment responsible for capturing light energy for photosynthesis is called what?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants, algae, and some bacteria convert light energy into chemical energy stored in sugars. To do this, they need pigments that can absorb light efficiently. The most important of these pigments in higher plants is a green coloured compound found in chloroplasts. This question asks you to identify the name of this primary green pigment. Given Data / Assumptions: The focus is on the main green pigment of higher plants. Options list chlorophyll, xanthophyll, carotene, phycobilin, and anthocyanin. We assume typical leaf pigments found in chloroplasts. We are concerned with the pigment directly involved in light capture for photosynthesis. Concept / Approach: Chlorophyll is the key photosynthetic pigment in green plants, giving leaves their characteristic colour. There are different forms, such as chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b, but together they absorb light mainly in the blue and red regions of the spectrum and reflect green light, which is why plants appear green. Xanthophylls and carotenes are accessory pigments that absorb light in other wavelengths and pass the energy to chlorophyll. Phycobilins are pigments found in some algae and cyanobacteria, and anthocyanins are water soluble pigments responsible for red, purple, and blue colours in some flowers and leaves. Thus, the main green pigment that drives photosynthesis in higher plants is chlorophyll. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that leaves appear green due to a specific pigment present in chloroplasts. Step 2: Identify chlorophyll as the primary green pigment involved in the light reactions of photosynthesis. Step 3: Recognise that chlorophyll absorbs light and initiates the conversion of light energy into chemical energy. Step 4: Note that xanthophylls and carotenes are yellow and orange accessory pigments that protect chlorophyll and broaden the absorption spectrum. Step 5: Understand that phycobilins are mainly found in red algae and cyanobacteria, not in higher plant chloroplasts. Step 6: Anthocyanins create red and purple colours and are not the primary photosynthetic pigments. Step 7: Therefore, chlorophyll is the main green pigment responsible for trapping light energy. Verification / Alternative check: Plant physiology texts describe chlorophyll a as the primary pigment in photosystems, with chlorophyll b and accessory pigments assisting. Diagrams of chloroplast structure highlight chlorophyll molecules embedded in thylakoid membranes. Experiments where pigments are separated by chromatography show the dominant green band corresponding to chlorophyll. All of this confirms chlorophyll as the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Xanthophyll: A yellow accessory pigment that participates in photoprotection and light harvesting but is not the main green pigment. Carotene: An orange pigment that also helps in light absorption and protection but is not the primary green photosynthetic pigment. Phycobilin: Pigment groups found mainly in cyanobacteria and red algae, not the central pigment in higher plants. Anthocyanin: Pigments responsible for red and purple colours, more related to flower and fruit coloration than to core photosynthesis. Common Pitfalls: Some learners may see multiple pigment names and get confused, or think that accessory pigments are more important because they are less familiar. A simple way to remember is that “chloro” means green and chlorophyll is the green leaf pigment that directly drives photosynthesis in plants. Final Answer: The correct answer is Chlorophyll.

Question 3

On average, an adult human body contains approximately how many pints of blood?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Knowing the approximate volume of blood in the human body is important for understanding blood loss, transfusions, and circulation. While the exact amount depends on body size, sex, and health, typical textbook questions use a rounded range. This question asks you to select the approximate number of pints of blood in an average adult human. Given Data / Assumptions: The person is an average sized healthy adult. We are asked for an approximate volume expressed in pints. Common medical estimates suggest 5 to 6 litres of blood in an adult. One pint is a little more than half a litre, so 5 to 6 litres can be expressed as a certain range of pints. Concept / Approach: Medical references often state that an adult human has about 5 to 6 litres of blood. If we convert this to pints, using a rough conversion of about 0.5 to 0.6 litre per pint, we find that 5 to 6 litres corresponds to approximately 8 to 10 pints of blood. This is why many general knowledge sources and first aid manuals mention that the average adult has about 8 to 10 pints of blood. Therefore, among the ranges given, 8 - 10 pints best matches standard estimates. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the typical blood volume of an adult: around 5 to 6 litres. Step 2: Use the rough conversion that 1 pint is slightly over 0.5 litre. Step 3: Estimate the number of pints by dividing 5 to 6 litres by about 0.5 to 0.6 litre per pint. Step 4: This gives a value close to 8 to 10 pints in total. Step 5: Compare this with the option ranges provided and see that 8 - 10 is the best fit. Step 6: Therefore, the approximate number of pints of blood in an average adult is 8 - 10. Verification / Alternative check: First aid and physiology guides commonly state that an average adult has about 5 litres of blood and that losing more than 40 percent can be life threatening. They often give equivalent quantities in pints for practical use in transfusion and donation contexts. Blood donation services sometimes mention that an adult has about 8 to 10 pints of blood, which matches the calculation above. This cross checking supports 8 - 10 pints as the appropriate range. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 6 - 8: This range corresponds to a lower total blood volume than 5 to 6 litres and underestimates typical adult blood volume. 10 - 12: This range is slightly higher than expected and would correspond to a much larger total blood volume than average. 5 - 7 and 3 - 5: These ranges are also too low in pints compared with the known litre volume. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes mix up litres and pints or memorise only one of these units. Another common error is to underestimate blood volume by thinking of just the visual amount seen in injuries. Remember that the circulatory system fills all blood vessels and organs, so the total blood volume is significantly larger than what is usually imagined from a small spill. Final Answer: The correct answer is 8 - 10.

Question 4

In agriculture and pest management, biological control specifically refers to checking the growth or population of what, using another living organism?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Biological control is an important strategy in modern agriculture and integrated pest management. Instead of relying solely on chemical pesticides, farmers and environmental managers can use natural enemies of pests to reduce their numbers. This method is more environmentally friendly and can help maintain ecological balance. This question asks what exactly is being controlled in biological control and how. Given Data / Assumptions: The term used is biological control. We are dealing with agriculture and pest management situations. Options include plants, animals, weeds, one pest by another, and beneficial insects. We assume standard definitions used in ecology and crop protection. Concept / Approach: Biological control refers to the use of natural predators, parasites, or pathogens to control harmful organisms, especially insect pests, weeds, or plant pathogens. The key idea is that one living organism is used to limit the population of another problematic organism. Classic examples include using ladybird beetles to control aphids and introducing specific parasitoid wasps to manage caterpillar pests. The focus of the definition is on reducing populations of pests by their natural enemies. It is not primarily about controlling general plant growth, beneficial animals, or beneficial insects. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that in agricultural science, pests are organisms that damage crops, stored products, or livestock. Step 2: Understand that biological control aims to reduce these pest populations without heavy use of synthetic chemicals. Step 3: In biological control, farmers introduce or encourage natural enemies such as predators, parasites, or disease causing organisms that specifically attack the pests. Step 4: Therefore, biological control is essentially controlling one pest species by another living organism, usually its natural enemy. Step 5: The concept does not focus on directly controlling plants or beneficial animals, although weeds and plant diseases are sometimes addressed by similar methods. Step 6: Thus, among the options given, the most accurate description is checking the growth of one pest species by another living organism. Verification / Alternative check: Ecology and agricultural textbooks define biological control as the use of one organism to control another, typically pests such as insects, mites, weeds, and plant pathogens. They cite examples like the introduction of the Cactoblastis moth to control prickly pear cactus in Australia and use of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) bacteria to control caterpillar pests. These descriptions emphasise that biological control is about using living agents against pests. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Plants: Biological control does not mainly aim at controlling plant growth; it aims at controlling pest organisms that damage plants. Animals: While pests may be animals, the option is too broad and does not capture the idea of one pest being controlled by another organism. Weeds: Weeds can be targets of biological control, but the definition is not limited to plants; it is about pests in general. Beneficial insects: These are often the agents used in biological control, not the targets whose growth is checked. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes think biological control only refers to controlling weeds or only to using insects. The concept is broader and includes pests of many kinds and various natural enemies. To answer correctly, focus on the idea that one living organism is used to control another harmful one, which is best captured by the option describing one pest species being controlled by another living organism. Final Answer: The correct answer is One pest species by another living organism.

Question 5

AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome) is caused by infectious agents that belong to which biological group of organisms?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: AIDS, or Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome, is a serious global health problem that weakens the immune system and makes individuals vulnerable to many infections and cancers. It is important to know the type of pathogen that causes AIDS, both for understanding transmission and for designing prevention strategies. This question asks you to identify the biological group to which the causative agents of AIDS belong. Given Data / Assumptions: AIDS is the disease under discussion. Options list bacteria, fungi, viruses, protozoa, and rickettsiae. We assume knowledge of the specific virus names HIV and older term HTLV III. We focus on the general biological category rather than a specific species name. Concept / Approach: AIDS is caused by infection with the Human Immunodeficiency Virus, commonly called HIV. Early research sometimes referred to a similar virus as HTLV III, but HIV is now the accepted name. HIV is a retrovirus, which is a type of virus that uses RNA as its genetic material and reverse transcriptase to integrate into host DNA. Therefore, the causative agent clearly belongs to the virus group. Bacteria and fungi are very different organisms and do not cause AIDS, although they can cause opportunistic infections in AIDS patients. Protozoa and rickettsiae can cause other diseases but are not responsible for AIDS. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the full name of the causative agent of AIDS is Human Immunodeficiency Virus. Step 2: Identify that the word “virus” in the name indicates the biological group. Step 3: Understand that HIV attacks CD4 positive T helper lymphocytes and weakens the immune system over time. Step 4: Recognise that bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and rickettsiae cause other infectious diseases but not AIDS itself. Step 5: Older literature mentioning HTLV III still refers to a retrovirus, reinforcing that the group is viruses. Step 6: Therefore, the infectious agents causing AIDS belong to the group of viruses. Verification / Alternative check: Medical and microbiology references describe HIV as an RNA containing retrovirus in the lentivirus subgroup. They explain its structure, replication cycle, and integration into host genomes. Epidemiological studies, diagnostic tests, and antiretroviral therapies are all based on the viral nature of HIV. No reputable source identifies bacteria, fungi, protozoa, or rickettsiae as the cause of AIDS, though these organisms may cause secondary infections in AIDS patients. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Bacteria: Cause diseases such as tuberculosis, pneumonia, and cholera, but not AIDS. Fungi: Responsible for fungal infections; some are opportunistic in AIDS patients, but they do not cause AIDS. Protozoa: Single celled eukaryotes that cause malaria and amoebiasis, not AIDS. Rickettsiae: Obligately intracellular bacteria causing diseases like typhus, not AIDS. Common Pitfalls: Some learners may confuse the secondary infections that occur in AIDS patients with the primary cause of AIDS itself. For example, tuberculosis or fungal infections are common in people with AIDS due to immune weakness, but they are not the underlying cause of immune deficiency. Always distinguish between the primary pathogen, which is HIV, and opportunistic infections that appear later. Final Answer: The correct answer is Viruses (HIV / HTLV III).

Question 6

Oparin is best known in biology for proposing a hypothesis about which fundamental question regarding the early Earth?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Alexander Oparin is a very important figure in the history of ideas about how life might have appeared on the early Earth. Long before modern molecular biology, he suggested that living cells could have arisen gradually from simple inorganic and organic molecules through a series of natural chemical changes. This exam question asks you to connect Oparin's name with the correct topic he worked on, and to distinguish it from other famous biological ideas such as the origin of species, one germ one disease and one gene one enzyme. Given Data / Assumptions: We are told that Oparin proposed a well known hypothesis. The options include different famous concepts: origin of species, origin of life, one germ one disease and one gene one enzyme. We assume standard textbook attributions for each scientific idea. The task is to identify which topic is most strongly and uniquely associated with Oparin. Concept / Approach: Oparin, along with J. B. S. Haldane independently, is credited with the chemical evolution or primordial soup hypothesis for the origin of life. He suggested that, on the early Earth, the atmosphere and oceans contained simple gases and molecules that, under the influence of energy sources such as lightning and ultraviolet radiation, gradually formed more complex organic compounds. These compounds could have concentrated in the oceans, forming a sort of primordial soup from which the first primitive cells eventually emerged. This focus on how life itself began clearly distinguishes his work from Darwin's origin of species and from later microbiology and genetics concepts. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that Darwin wrote On the Origin of Species and explained how new species arise by natural selection, not how life first appeared. Step 2: Remember that the phrase one germ one disease is associated with early germ theory and scientists such as Koch and Pasteur, not Oparin. Step 3: Recognise that the one gene one enzyme hypothesis is linked with Beadle and Tatum in biochemical genetics. Step 4: Link Oparin with the idea of chemical evolution and the primordial soup, which directly addresses the origin of life on Earth. Step 5: Therefore, the correct option must be the one that talks about the origin of life rather than origin of species or any other concept. Verification / Alternative check: When you read about the origin of life in standard biology books, you usually see the names Oparin and Haldane together with a description of early Earth conditions, reducing atmosphere and formation of organic molecules. The Miller Urey experiment is then introduced as a later test of this chemical evolution idea. In contrast, when you read about the origin of species, Darwin and Wallace are discussed. Germ theory centres on Pasteur and Koch, and the one gene one enzyme principle is linked to Beadle and Tatum. Because these associations are very consistent across textbooks, matching Oparin specifically with origin of life is a reliable choice. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Origin of species through natural selection is a concept developed by Charles Darwin, not Oparin. The one germ one disease principle belongs to the development of germ theory by Koch and others. The one gene one enzyme hypothesis is a result from Beadle and Tatum's work on Neurospora, not from Oparin's investigations. The option about blood circulation is unrelated to Oparin and refers instead to classical physiology discoveries. None of these alternatives capture Oparin's contribution to ideas about how life might have begun. Common Pitfalls: A frequent mistake is to loosely connect any origin type phrase with Darwin, because his book title contains the word origin. Another pitfall is to confuse origin of species with origin of life, even though they are very different questions. Students may also mix up historical scientists if they memorise names without linking them to specific ideas. To avoid these errors, remember a simple pairing: Darwin equals origin of species and natural selection, Oparin equals origin of life and chemical evolution of the primordial soup. Keeping this association clear will help you answer similar questions confidently. Final Answer: Oparin is best known for his hypothesis on the origin of life through chemical evolution on the early Earth.

Question 7

The disease goitre, which involves enlargement of the thyroid gland, commonly occurs in people whose regular diet does not contain a sufficient amount of which essential mineral?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Goitre is a visible swelling in the front of the neck caused by enlargement of the thyroid gland. It is a common endocrine disorder in regions where certain nutrients are deficient in the local diet. Understanding the nutritional cause of goitre is important both for personal health and for public health measures such as iodised salt programmes. This question checks whether you can correctly identify the key dietary mineral whose deficiency is classically associated with goitre. Given Data / Assumptions: The disease mentioned is goitre, involving the thyroid gland. The cause is linked to insufficient intake of a specific mineral in the diet. Options list calcium, sodium, iodine, iron and zinc. We assume standard medical and nutritional knowledge about thyroid health. Concept / Approach: The thyroid gland requires iodine to synthesise thyroid hormones, mainly thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3). When dietary iodine intake is low for a long time, the thyroid cannot make adequate hormone. In response, the pituitary gland secretes more thyroid stimulating hormone, which causes the thyroid to grow larger in an attempt to capture more iodine. This enlargement leads to goitre. Therefore, iodine deficiency is the classical nutritional cause of endemic goitre, especially in inland or mountainous regions where natural iodine content of soil and water is low. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the thyroid gland uses iodine as an essential raw material to produce thyroid hormones. Step 2: Understand that low dietary iodine over time results in reduced hormone production and stimulates thyroid enlargement. Step 3: Look at the options and identify iodine as the only mineral directly linked to thyroid hormone synthesis. Step 4: Note that calcium is mainly involved in bones and nerve function, sodium in fluid balance and nerve impulses, iron in haemoglobin, and zinc in various enzymes and immune functions. Step 5: Conclude that goitre due to diet is primarily associated with a deficiency of iodine, making option c correct. Verification / Alternative check: Another way to verify is to think about common preventive measures recommended by health authorities. One widely promoted step is the use of iodised salt to prevent goitre and other iodine deficiency disorders. Public health campaigns often emphasise that iodised salt protects the thyroid gland. This specific focus on iodine, and not on calcium, sodium, iron or zinc, confirms that iodine deficiency is the correct nutritional cause linked with goitre in the exam context. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Calcium deficiency leads mainly to problems with bones and teeth, such as rickets in children or osteoporosis in adults, not typically to goitre. Sodium deficiency can disturb fluid balance and nerve function, but it does not cause thyroid enlargement. Iron deficiency results in anaemia due to reduced haemoglobin, showing as fatigue and pallor rather than neck swelling. Zinc deficiency may lead to poor wound healing and impaired immunity. None of these deficiencies classically cause goitre, so they are incorrect choices in this question. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse iron deficiency disorders, such as anaemia, with thyroid problems, especially if they memorise a long list of nutrient deficiencies without linking them firmly to specific diseases. Another pitfall is to overthink sodium because of its presence in common salt, but the goitre prevention aspect of table salt is due to added iodine, not its sodium content. To avoid these mistakes, remember a simple key: thyroid gland equals iodine, and goitre in nutritional context equals iodine deficiency. This direct association will help you answer similar questions quickly. Final Answer: Goitre commonly occurs in people whose diet lacks enough iodine, the essential mineral required for thyroid hormone production.

Question 8

In multicellular plants, the overall increase in size of the plant body over time is mainly due to which basic process at the cellular level?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Plant growth is a fundamental topic in botany. When we say that a plant is growing, we usually mean that its overall size is increasing, its stems and roots are lengthening and it is producing new leaves, flowers and fruits. This visible increase in size must be explained in terms of what happens at the cellular level. The question asks which basic cellular process is mainly responsible for the increase in size of a multicellular plant body. Given Data / Assumptions: We are dealing with multicellular plants, not single celled organisms. The question is about overall growth in size over time. Options mention addition of cells, increase in cell size, enlargement and elongation. We assume normal plant growth with functioning meristematic tissues. Concept / Approach: In plants, growth involves both cell division and cell enlargement, but the fundamental requirement for an increase in the total number of cells is mitotic cell division. Meristematic tissues at the tips of roots and shoots continuously divide, producing new cells that differentiate and enlarge. Without addition of new cells, a plant could only slightly change in size by stretching or swelling of existing cells, which would soon reach their limits. Therefore, from a developmental and exam perspective, the main driver of long term increase in plant size is the repeated addition of new cells by cell division, particularly in meristems. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that multicellular organisms grow by increasing both cell number and cell size, but sustained growth in body size requires new cells. Step 2: Identify meristematic tissue (for example, apical meristems) as regions where cells actively divide to form new cells. Step 3: Understand that these new cells later enlarge and differentiate into various tissues, helping roots and shoots increase in length and girth. Step 4: Compare the options: addition of new cells through division is a fundamental, continuous process, while mere temporary enlargement or elongation without division cannot explain long term growth. Step 5: Conclude that the best answer, emphasising the basic mechanism behind sustained plant growth, is the addition of new cells through repeated cell division. Verification / Alternative check: A useful way to check your reasoning is to think about what happens in a root tip. Under a microscope, you can see a zone of cell division where cells are small and actively dividing, followed by a zone of elongation where newly formed cells increase in length, and then a zone of maturation where cells differentiate. If there were no cell division, there would be no new cells to elongate or mature, and the root could not continue to grow. This observation supports the idea that division and addition of new cells is the primary driver of growth. Why Other Options Are Wrong: An increase in the size of individual cells without any new cells (option b) could cause only limited and short term swelling, not ongoing growth of the whole plant. Temporary enlargement of cells due to water uptake (option c) mainly reflects changes in turgor pressure and may even reverse when water is lost. Elongation of a few existing cells (option d) is part of growth but depends on prior cell division and cannot explain the continuous formation of new tissues and organs. Random stretching of tissues without cellular changes (option e) is biologically unrealistic and does not occur as a true growth mechanism. Therefore, these alternatives do not describe the main cellular basis of plant growth. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes overemphasise cell enlargement because they know that plant cells take in water and become turgid, making organs appear bigger. This may lead them to choose options that mention enlargement or elongation alone. Another pitfall is to forget that large trees consist of billions of cells, which could not exist without continuous cell division in meristems. To avoid these errors, always connect macroscopic growth with both cell division and enlargement, but remember that addition of new cells through division is the core process underlying long term increase in size. Final Answer: In multicellular plants, the overall increase in body size is mainly due to the addition of new cells through repeated cell division.

Question 9

In humans, infection of the salivary glands by a specific virus typically leads to which of the following diseases characterised by painful swelling near the ears?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Several common childhood and adolescent illnesses are caused by viruses that target particular tissues. One such disease involves painful swelling of the salivary glands, especially the parotid glands located near the ears. Recognising which disease is associated with viral infection of salivary glands helps in understanding human infectious diseases and in interpreting clinical symptoms. Given Data / Assumptions: The question specifies an infection of the salivary glands caused by a virus. It asks which disease results from this type of infection. Options include tetanus, mumps, pyorrhoea, ulcers and dengue fever. We assume standard clinical descriptions of these diseases. Concept / Approach: Mumps is a viral illness caused by the mumps virus, a paramyxovirus. It frequently affects children and young adults and is characterised by inflammation and swelling of the parotid salivary glands, often on both sides. This leads to the classic chipmunk like facial appearance, pain when chewing and fever. Tetanus is caused by a bacterial toxin from Clostridium tetani and affects the nervous system, not specifically the salivary glands. Pyorrhoea (periodontal disease) involves bacterial infection of gums and supporting structures of teeth. Common ulcers in the stomach or duodenum are linked to factors such as Helicobacter pylori infection, acid and lifestyle, and dengue fever is a mosquito borne viral infection affecting blood vessels and platelets, not salivary glands. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that mumps is known for painful swelling of the parotid salivary glands just below and in front of the ears. Step 2: Recognise that mumps is caused by a virus and spread through respiratory droplets and saliva. Step 3: Examine tetanus, which is caused by a bacterial neurotoxin and produces muscle spasms, not salivary gland infection. Step 4: Note that pyorrhoea affects gums and supporting tissues of teeth, rather than the salivary glands themselves. Step 5: Understand that peptic ulcers and dengue fever also do not primarily involve salivary glands, confirming that mumps is the correct disease. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, you can think of the characteristic symptoms often mentioned in textbooks: mumps presents with swelling of one or both parotid glands, pain when eating sour foods, fever and malaise. Health campaigns for mumps vaccination highlight protection against this glandular swelling. In contrast, tetanus is associated with lockjaw, dengue with high fever and bleeding risk, and pyorrhoea with gum bleeding and tooth loosening. These clinical pictures confirm that only mumps matches the description of viral infection of the salivary glands. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Tetanus is not a viral disease and affects the nervous system, not salivary glands. Pyorrhoea is a periodontal disease mainly due to bacterial plaque and affects gums and tooth sockets rather than major salivary glands. Peptic ulcers involve the lining of the stomach or duodenum, producing abdominal pain and acidity, not facial gland swelling. Dengue fever is a viral infection but it targets blood and immune systems, causing high fever and low platelets rather than salivary gland enlargement. Thus, none of these alternative options fit the description given in the question. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse different oral and facial infections, especially if they only remember that some of them involve pain in the mouth region. Another pitfall is concentrating only on the word infection and not on which organ is infected. To avoid these errors, link keywords to specific organs: mumps with parotid salivary glands, pyorrhoea with gums, tetanus with nervous system and dengue with blood vessels and platelets. Keeping these associations clear in your mind will help you rapidly identify mumps whenever salivary gland infection is mentioned. Final Answer: Viral infection of the salivary glands, especially the parotid glands, typically leads to the disease called mumps.

Question 10

Phycology is a specialised branch of botany in which scientists study which particular group of simple, typically aquatic photosynthetic organisms?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Botany, the study of plants, includes several specialised branches that focus on particular groups of organisms or specific aspects of plant life. One such branch is phycology. Many competitive exam questions test whether you can match the correct scientific term with the group of organisms it deals with. This question asks you to recall what exactly phycology studies. Given Data / Assumptions: The term given is phycology, stated to be a branch of botany. Options include algae, fungi, ecology, viruses and flowering plants. We assume standard definitions of botanical subdisciplines. The task is to connect the term phycology with the correct organism group. Concept / Approach: Phycology (also called algology) is the scientific study of algae. Algae are a diverse group of primarily aquatic, photosynthetic organisms that include microscopic phytoplankton as well as large seaweeds. They play major roles in aquatic ecosystems, global oxygen production and algal blooms. Because phycology is defined as the study of algae, the correct option is algae. Other branches of botany have their own names: mycology is the study of fungi, plant ecology deals with relationships between plants and their environment, and plant pathology covers diseases and pathogens, including some viruses that infect plants. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the meaning of the prefix phyco, which is derived from a Greek word related to seaweed or algae. Step 2: Connect phycology with algology, another term used for the study of algae. Step 3: Compare this with mycology, which is clearly linked with fungi and is a different branch of biology. Step 4: Recognise that ecology is a broader field studying interactions among organisms and their environments, not a specific group like algae. Step 5: Conclude that among the given options, algae is the correct match for phycology. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this association by thinking of typical textbook chapters. When algae are discussed, especially their classification and life cycles, the heading or introductory text often mentions phycology or algology. Similarly, in university degree programmes, a course on algae may be labelled phycology. In contrast, a course on fungi would be labelled mycology, and one on plant and environment relationships would be labelled plant ecology. This consistent usage confirms that phycology is indeed the study of algae. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Fungi are studied under mycology, not phycology, so option b is incorrect. Ecology is a broader term referring to relationships between organisms and their environment and is not restricted to algae, so option c is wrong. Viruses that infect plants are usually studied within plant pathology and virology rather than a branch named phycology, so option d is incorrect. Flowering plants are studied in many parts of botany, including taxonomy and morphology, but there is no special branch named phycology reserved only for them, making option e wrong as well. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to confuse the various specialised branches because they all sound similar. Students may mix phycology with psychology due to similar spelling, even though they are entirely different fields. Another pitfall is to think that any branch ending in logy could be matched with any organism group at random. To avoid this, learn a few key word roots: phyco for algae, myco for fungi, zoo for animals and phyto or botany for plants in general. Remembering these roots helps you quickly decode terms in multiple choice questions. Final Answer: Phycology is the branch of botany that deals specifically with the study of algae.

Question 11

Which one of the following crops is most suitable for sowing if a farmer wants to naturally enrich the soil with nitrogen through biological fixation?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Soil fertility is a key factor in successful agriculture. Nitrogen is an essential nutrient for plant growth, and farmers often seek ways to increase nitrogen content in their fields. One eco friendly method involves growing certain crops that can fix atmospheric nitrogen in association with bacteria. This question asks you to identify which crop, when sown, helps enrich soil with nitrogen naturally. Given Data / Assumptions: We are choosing a crop to enrich soil with nitrogen, not simply to harvest grain or oil. Options include wheat, mustard, sunflower, gram and rice. We assume knowledge of leguminous plants and their symbiotic relationship with nitrogen fixing bacteria. The focus is on biological nitrogen fixation rather than chemical fertilisers. Concept / Approach: Leguminous plants, such as peas, beans, lentils and gram, form root nodules that house symbiotic bacteria (for example, Rhizobium). These bacteria can convert atmospheric nitrogen into forms that plants can use, such as ammonia. This process is called biological nitrogen fixation. When leguminous crops like gram are grown and their residues are left in the field or ploughed back, the soil becomes richer in nitrogen. Non leguminous crops such as wheat, mustard, sunflower and rice do not form these nitrogen fixing nodules and therefore do not significantly enrich the soil with nitrogen in this way. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify which crops in the list are legumes. Gram is a leguminous pulse crop, while wheat, mustard, sunflower and rice are not legumes. Step 2: Recall that legumes host nitrogen fixing bacteria in root nodules that add nitrogen compounds to the soil. Step 3: Recognise that farmers often use legume crops in crop rotation to improve soil fertility without heavy fertiliser use. Step 4: Confirm that gram, like peas and beans, is known for improving soil nitrogen levels when used in rotations or as green manure. Step 5: Conclude that gram is the best choice among the options for enriching soil with nitrogen. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by thinking of typical crop rotation patterns taught in agriculture and biology. A common rotation might alternate cereal crops such as wheat or rice with legumes such as gram or peas. The legume phase helps restore nitrogen depleted by the cereal phase. Mustard and sunflower are oilseed crops and are not used primarily to fix nitrogen. The emphasis in textbooks and extension programmes on legumes as nitrogen enrichers confirms that gram, the only legume in the list, is the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Wheat and rice are cereal crops that mainly take up nitrogen from the soil but do not add it through nitrogen fixation. Mustard and sunflower are non leguminous oilseed crops and also depend on soil nitrogen rather than enriching it. None of these non legume crops form nitrogen fixing root nodules. Therefore, they are not preferred if the primary goal is to improve soil nitrogen content through biological means. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to choose a widely grown staple like wheat or rice simply because it is familiar, without considering its biological properties. Another pitfall is to focus on high yielding or profitable crops rather than on their effect on soil fertility. To avoid such errors, remember that when the exam question mentions enriching the soil with nitrogen, you should immediately think of leguminous crops such as gram, peas, beans and clover. Recognising this association makes these agricultural biology questions much easier. Final Answer: To naturally enrich the soil with nitrogen, a farmer should sow a leguminous crop such as gram (a leguminous pulse crop).

Question 12

Which of the following hormones is popularly known as the “emergency hormone” or “fight or flight hormone” because it is released rapidly in stressful or frightening situations?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The human endocrine system secretes many hormones, each with specialised roles. Some hormones help us respond very quickly to sudden stress, danger or excitement. One such hormone prepares the body for immediate action by increasing heart rate, redirecting blood flow and mobilising energy sources. This hormone is often referred to as the emergency hormone or fight or flight hormone. The question asks you to identify which hormone has earned this nickname. Given Data / Assumptions: The hormone in question is released rapidly in emergency situations such as fear or stress. It prepares the body for fight or flight responses. Options include insulin, adrenaline, oestrogen, oxytocin and thyroxine. We assume standard human physiology definitions. Concept / Approach: Adrenaline (epinephrine) is secreted by the adrenal medulla in response to signals from the sympathetic nervous system during stress or danger. It increases heart rate, raises blood pressure, dilates airways, and stimulates the breakdown of glycogen to glucose, providing quick energy to muscles. Because it helps the body react instantly in emergencies, it is called the emergency hormone or fight or flight hormone. Insulin regulates blood glucose levels, oestrogen is a female sex hormone, oxytocin is involved in childbirth and bonding, and thyroxine regulates basal metabolism. None of these other hormones is primarily associated with sudden emergency responses. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Link the phrase fight or flight to the sympathetic nervous system and adrenal medulla activity. Step 2: Recall that adrenaline is secreted in situations of fear, anger or stress, leading to rapid physiological changes. Step 3: Compare adrenaline with insulin, which reduces blood glucose, and thus does not fit the emergency response profile. Step 4: Note that oestrogen and oxytocin have major roles in reproduction and childbirth, not in emergency reactions. Step 5: Recognise that thyroxine regulates long term metabolic rate, rather than causing immediate fight or flight changes, so adrenaline is the only fitting choice. Verification / Alternative check: In textbooks, when the stress response is discussed, tables and diagrams clearly label adrenaline as the emergency hormone. They often list its effects: increased pulse, faster breathing, widened pupils and increased blood flow to muscles. Health education materials describing sudden fright or danger also refer to adrenaline rushes. You will not see similar descriptions tied to insulin, oestrogen, oxytocin or thyroxine. This clear association of adrenaline with rapid emergency responses confirms that it is the hormone the question is asking about. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Insulin lowers blood sugar after meals and acts relatively slowly compared with emergency responses; it is not released specifically in fight or flight situations. Oestrogen primarily regulates female secondary sexual characteristics and reproductive cycles. Oxytocin is important for uterine contractions during labour and for milk ejection during breastfeeding, and also plays a role in social bonding. Thyroxine affects basal metabolic rate and long term energy balance, not acute stress responses. Therefore, none of these can correctly be called the emergency hormone. Common Pitfalls: Some students may wrongly select thyroxine because they remember that thyroid hormones increase metabolism and energy, but this effect is gradual, not the immediate fight or flight response described in the question. Others may confuse adrenaline with noradrenaline or with general stress hormones like cortisol, but the famous nickname emergency hormone is most strongly attached to adrenaline. To avoid confusion, remember that adrenaline is secreted from the adrenal medulla during sudden stress, while cortisol comes from the adrenal cortex and works more slowly over longer periods. Final Answer: The hormone popularly known as the emergency or fight or flight hormone is adrenaline (epinephrine).

Question 13

The study of the interrelationship between living organisms and their physical and biological environment is called by which of the following terms?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Understanding how living organisms interact with each other and with their surroundings is one of the central goals of biology. There is a specific branch of science that focuses on these interactions at many levels, from individuals and populations to communities and ecosystems. This question asks you to recall the term used for the study of relationships between organisms and their environment. Given Data / Assumptions: The focus is on interrelationships between living organisms and their environment. Options include plant geography, plant social science, ecology, ecosystem and biostatistics. We assume standard definitions used in environmental biology. Concept / Approach: Ecology is defined as the scientific study of interactions among organisms and between organisms and their environment. It examines how abiotic factors such as light, temperature, water and soil, and biotic factors such as other organisms, influence distribution, abundance and behaviour. Plant geography deals more specifically with the geographic distribution of plant species. The term ecosystem refers to a functional unit that includes a community of organisms and its physical environment, not the science itself. Biostatistics is the application of statistics to biological data. Therefore, the correct term for the branch of science that studies interrelationships between organisms and environment is ecology. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Focus on the key phrase in the question: interrelationship between living organisms and their environment. Step 2: Recall the definition of ecology as the study of relationships between organisms and their environment. Step 3: Distinguish this from plant geography, which focuses mainly on where plant species occur spatially. Step 4: Recognise that ecosystem is the name of a structural and functional unit (for example, pond ecosystem), not the discipline that studies such units. Step 5: Conclude that ecology is the only option that exactly matches the wording and meaning of the question. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify your choice by recalling typical textbook chapter titles. Chapters that talk about food chains, food webs, energy flow, populations and communities are grouped under ecology. These chapters consistently define ecology as the study of interactions between organisms and their environment. Diagrams of ecosystems, biomes and trophic levels are usually labelled as part of ecology. None of the other listed terms is used in this broad and foundational way, confirming ecology as the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Plant geography is a subfield that maps and explains the distribution of plant species across regions, but it does not necessarily cover all aspects of organism environment interactions. Plant social science is not a standard biological term and may be a distractor in this context. Ecosystem describes a system of living organisms and their physical environment functioning together, but it refers to the unit being studied, not the study itself. Biostatistics is a quantitative tool for analysing biological data, not a branch that focuses primarily on ecological relationships. These options therefore do not correctly name the field described in the question. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to choose ecosystem because the word itself suggests both organisms and environment, but it actually names the structure (for example, forest ecosystem) rather than the science of studying relationships. Another pitfall is confusion between ecology and environmental science; while they are closely related, the classical biologist term for the study of organism environment interactions is ecology. To avoid such errors, remember that ecology is the broad biological discipline, while ecosystem is a specific unit within ecology and environmental science. Final Answer: The study of the interrelationship between living organisms and their environment is called ecology.

Question 14

In the human circulatory system, which type of blood vessel is responsible for carrying blood away from the heart to various parts of the body?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The human circulatory system contains three main types of blood vessels: arteries, veins and capillaries. Each type has a specific direction of blood flow relative to the heart. Knowing which vessels carry blood away from the heart and which return blood toward it is fundamental to understanding circulation, blood pressure and oxygen transport. This question asks you to identify the type of vessel that carries blood away from the heart. Given Data / Assumptions: We are asked about the direction of blood flow in relation to the heart. The options mention arteries, veins, both, none and capillaries. We assume a normal human heart with two atria, two ventricles and a closed circulatory system. Concept / Approach: By definition, arteries are blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart, regardless of whether the blood is oxygenated or deoxygenated. For example, the aorta carries oxygen rich blood from the left ventricle to the body, and the pulmonary arteries carry oxygen poor blood from the right ventricle to the lungs. Veins always carry blood toward the heart, such as the venae cavae returning blood to the right atrium and the pulmonary veins bringing oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium. Capillaries connect the arterial and venous systems at the tissue level and are sites of exchange, not the primary carriers away from the heart. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the basic definitions: arteries carry blood away from the heart and veins carry blood back toward the heart. Step 2: Apply this to examples: the aorta and pulmonary artery both originate from ventricles and carry blood away from the heart. Step 3: Note that veins such as the superior and inferior vena cava end at the heart, returning blood to it, not taking it away. Step 4: Understand that while capillaries are important for exchange of gases and nutrients, they form networks within tissues rather than serving as main outgoing conduits. Step 5: Conclude that arteries are the only vessels whose defining role is to carry blood away from the heart. Verification / Alternative check: You can verify this by visualising the standard diagram of the circulatory system. From the left ventricle, blood enters the aorta, an artery, and from the right ventricle, it enters the pulmonary trunk and pulmonary arteries. All these vessels lead away from the heart. On the return side, major veins such as the venae cavae and pulmonary veins lead back to the atria. Capillaries branch from arterioles and then merge into venules, forming a bridge between arteries and veins. This consistent pattern confirms that arteries are the vessels that carry blood away from the heart. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Veins carry blood toward the heart and therefore cannot be described as carrying it away from the heart. Saying that both arteries and veins equally carry blood away from the heart is incorrect because their roles are opposite in direction. The option none of these is wrong because arteries clearly fulfill the described function. Capillaries only form fine networks between arteries and veins within tissues and are not the primary conduits from the heart itself. Thus, these alternatives do not match the definition given in the question. Common Pitfalls: A frequent misconception is that arteries always carry oxygenated blood and veins always carry deoxygenated blood. This is mostly true in systemic circulation but not in pulmonary circulation, where pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood and pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood. To avoid confusion, remember the directional definition instead: arteries go away from the heart, veins go toward the heart. This simple rule will guide you to the correct answer even in questions involving the lungs or fetal circulation. Final Answer: In the human body, arteries are the blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart.

Question 15

Which of the following statements best describes where enzymes are naturally found and function in everyday life?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up chemical reactions in living organisms. They play crucial roles in digestion, metabolism, DNA replication and many other processes. People also encounter enzymes in everyday life through certain foods and commercial products. This question asks you to select the most accurate and complete statement about where enzymes are naturally found and function. Given Data / Assumptions: We are considering the natural occurrence of enzymes in real life. Options mention food, the human body, medicines and laboratory chemicals in different combinations. We assume basic knowledge that enzymes are proteins produced by living cells. The question is looking for the broadest correct description, not a narrow or incorrect one. Concept / Approach: Enzymes are produced by virtually all living cells, including those of humans, animals, plants and microorganisms. In the human body, they are essential for digestion, energy production and many biochemical pathways. Because enzymes are present in plant and animal tissues, they are naturally found in many foods. For example, raw fruits such as papaya and pineapple contain proteolytic enzymes, and grains contain enzymes involved in germination. Enzymes can be purified and used in medicines or industrial products, but their origin is biological. Therefore, the most accurate statement will acknowledge their presence in living cells and in many natural foods, rather than limiting them to a single location. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Eliminate statements that say enzymes are found only in one place, such as only in food or only in the human body. Step 2: Recognise that enzymes are made by cells in all kinds of organisms, including bacteria, plants and animals. Step 3: Remember that some foods naturally contain active enzymes because they include living or recently living tissues. Step 4: Notice that option c explicitly mentions enzymes in living cells of the human body and other organisms, and also in many natural foods. Step 5: Conclude that option c is the most complete and scientifically accurate description of where enzymes occur. Verification / Alternative check: To verify, think about examples: digestive enzymes such as amylase and pepsin are produced in the human body. Yeast cells produce enzymes that ferment sugar into alcohol and carbon dioxide, which we use in baking and brewing. Raw plant foods contain enzymes that may soften or change when heated. Enzymes are also extracted from microorganisms and used in detergents, but their origin is still living cells. None of these real world examples fits the idea that enzymes are only in food, only in medicines or only in laboratory chemicals. Instead, they support the broad statement given in option c. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option a claims enzymes are found only in food, ignoring their production and function inside living organisms including humans. Option b restricts enzymes to the human body, incorrectly excluding plants, animals and microbes. Option d suggests enzymes occur only in medicines, which misunderstands that medicines may contain enzymes but are not their primary or exclusive location. Option e implies enzymes exist only in laboratory chemicals, which is the opposite of reality because enzymes originate from living systems and are often destroyed by harsh chemical treatments. These options all present incomplete or incorrect views. Common Pitfalls: A common misconception is to associate enzymes only with digestion, leading students to think about stomach or intestinal enzymes and forget about enzymes in plants, microbes and everyday foods. Another pitfall is to assume that anything with a specialised name must be a synthetic chemical, when in fact enzymes are natural proteins. To avoid these errors, remember that enzymes are universal catalysts in living systems and appear wherever life exists, including in many foods that come directly from plants and animals. Final Answer: The best description is that enzymes are present in living cells of the human body and other organisms, and are also found in many natural foods.

Question 16

Select the correct anatomical statement about the human pharynx and its associated structures.

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The pharynx is a muscular tube that serves as a shared passageway for food and air, connecting the nasal cavity and oral cavity to the larynx and oesophagus. It is divided into three regions: nasopharynx, oropharynx and laryngopharynx, each with characteristic structures. Understanding which structures open into which part of the pharynx is important in anatomy, physiology and clinical medicine. This question asks you to identify the correct statement about the pharynx and its associated structures. Given Data / Assumptions: The pharynx is divided into nasopharynx, oropharynx and laryngopharynx. Options refer to the auditory tube, palatine tonsils, pharyngeal tonsil and connections between regions. We assume standard human anatomy of the upper respiratory tract. Concept / Approach: The nasopharynx is the uppermost part of the pharynx located behind the nasal cavity. The auditory (Eustachian) tubes connect the middle ear cavities to the nasopharynx and open into its lateral walls, helping equalise air pressure on both sides of the eardrum. The palatine tonsils are masses of lymphoid tissue situated in the oropharynx, between the palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal arches. The pharyngeal tonsil (adenoid) is located in the roof of the nasopharynx, not in the laryngopharynx. The laryngopharynx lies behind the larynx and continues inferiorly as the oesophagus; it does not blend into the nasopharynx. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Evaluate option a, which states that the auditory (Eustachian) tube drains into the nasopharynx. This is anatomically correct, as the opening of the auditory tube is in the lateral wall of the nasopharynx. Step 2: Consider option b, which claims that the laryngopharynx blends posteriorly into the nasopharynx. This is incorrect; the laryngopharynx is below the oropharynx and continues into the oesophagus, not back into the nasopharynx. Step 3: Check option c, which places the palatine tonsils in the nasopharynx. They are actually located in the oropharynx, so this statement is wrong. Step 4: Examine option d, which puts the pharyngeal tonsil in the laryngopharynx. In reality, the pharyngeal tonsil is in the roof of the nasopharynx, so this is incorrect. Step 5: Reject option e because the nasopharynx by definition lies behind the nasal cavity and communicates with it, so the pharynx clearly does connect with the nasal cavity. Verification / Alternative check: If you visualise or sketch a sagittal section of the head and neck, you will see the nasal cavity opening into the nasopharynx, which in turn houses the opening of the auditory tube and the pharyngeal tonsil. Below it lies the oropharynx with the palatine tonsils, and further down lies the laryngopharynx that leads to the oesophagus. ENT diagrams and textbooks consistently show the auditory tube opening into the nasopharynx, confirming that option a accurately states the anatomical relationship. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option b incorrectly suggests that the lower part of the pharynx connects back to its upper part, which does not match anatomical reality. Option c misplaces the palatine tonsils, which sit in the oropharynx, not in the nasopharynx. Option d mislocates the pharyngeal tonsil, which is situated in the nasopharynx, not in the laryngopharynx. Option e denies any connection between the pharynx and nasal cavity, which contradicts the basic definition of the nasopharynx. Each of these errors shows a misunderstanding of pharyngeal anatomy. Common Pitfalls: A common difficulty for students is remembering the exact positions of the different tonsils and the openings of the auditory tubes. Names like nasopharynx and oropharynx can be mixed up if one does not systematically relate them to nasal and oral cavities. To avoid these mistakes, remember simple associations: nasopharynx is behind the nasal cavity and contains the pharyngeal tonsil and auditory tube openings; oropharynx is behind the oral cavity and contains the palatine tonsils; laryngopharynx leads down to the larynx and oesophagus. This mental map helps you quickly evaluate statements like those in this question. Final Answer: The correct anatomical statement is that the auditory (Eustachian) tube opens into and drains into the nasopharynx.

Question 17

Which of the following cellular structures is found in both typical plant cells and typical animal cells?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Plant and animal cells share many fundamental features because they are both eukaryotic cells with membrane bound organelles. However, they also have important differences that reflect their different lifestyles. Exam questions often ask you to distinguish structures unique to plant cells or animal cells from structures shared by both. This question asks you to identify a cell structure that is present in both typical plant and typical animal cells. Given Data / Assumptions: We are comparing common structures in plant and animal cells. Options include centriole, chloroplast, large central vacuole, mitochondria and cellulose cell wall. We assume typical textbook examples of plant and animal cells. Concept / Approach: Mitochondria are the powerhouses of the cell and are found in almost all eukaryotic cells, including both plants and animals. They are responsible for aerobic respiration and ATP production. In contrast, chloroplasts are usually present only in plant cells and algae, where they carry out photosynthesis. A large central vacuole and a cell wall made of cellulose are characteristic of mature plant cells, not animal cells. Centrioles are typically associated with animal cells and are absent in most higher plant cells, although some lower plants and algae may have centriole like structures. Therefore, the only structure that is clearly common to both plant and animal cells among the options is mitochondria. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: List structures known to be present in both plant and animal cells: cell membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus, mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus and ribosomes. Step 2: Compare this list with the options: centriole, chloroplast, large central vacuole, mitochondria and cellulose cell wall. Step 3: Recognise that chloroplasts and cellulose cell walls are typical of plant cells, not animal cells, so options b and e are plant specific. Step 4: Note that a single large central vacuole is a special feature of mature plant cells, while animal cells usually have many small vacuoles or none, making option c plant biased. Step 5: Remember that centrioles are mainly found in animal cells and are commonly absent from higher plant cells, whereas mitochondria are present in both, making mitochondria the correct choice. Verification / Alternative check: In diagrams of plant and animal cells in school textbooks, mitochondria appear in both types of cells. They are often drawn as small, bean shaped organelles with folded inner membranes. Chloroplasts, large central vacuoles and thick cellulose cell walls are drawn only in plant cell diagrams, and centrioles are typically labelled only in animal cell diagrams near the nucleus. This consistent visual representation in teaching materials confirms that mitochondria are shared between the two cell types. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Centriole structures are associated mainly with animal cells and certain lower plants, not with the majority of higher plant cells, so they are not universally common to both. Chloroplasts carry out photosynthesis and are absent from animal cells. The large central vacuole is characteristic of mature plant cells and not a general feature of animal cells. A cell wall made of cellulose encloses plant cells but is absent in animal cells, which only have a plasma membrane. Therefore, these options do not represent structures found in both typical plant and animal cells. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse mitochondria and chloroplasts because both have double membranes and their own DNA. Another pitfall is to assume that any organelle related to energy production must be unique to plants because of photosynthesis, forgetting that animals also need ATP and thus have mitochondria. To avoid these mistakes, remember that mitochondria are universal in eukaryotes, while chloroplasts are special to photosynthetic eukaryotes such as plants and algae. This distinction will guide you to correct answers in many cell biology questions. Final Answer: The structure that is present in both typical plant and animal cells is the mitochondria.

Question 18

In the DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) molecule, which specific sugar is found in the sugar–phosphate backbone?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: DNA and RNA are nucleic acids that store and transmit genetic information. They are both polymers made up of nucleotides, and each nucleotide contains a sugar component. The type of sugar present in the nucleotide helps distinguish DNA from RNA and influences the molecule's stability and function. This question asks you to identify the specific sugar present in the sugar–phosphate backbone of DNA. Given Data / Assumptions: The molecule in question is DNA, short for deoxyribonucleic acid. We are focusing on the sugar component of its backbone. Options include ribose, deoxyribose, pentose in general, sucrose and glucose. We assume basic knowledge of the structural differences between DNA and RNA. Concept / Approach: The sugar in DNA is deoxyribose, a five carbon (pentose) sugar that lacks one oxygen atom at the 2' carbon compared to ribose. In RNA, the corresponding sugar is ribose, which has a hydroxyl group at the 2' position. The absence of this hydroxyl group in deoxyribose makes DNA more chemically stable, which is one reason DNA is used as long term genetic storage in most organisms. Sucrose and glucose are not components of nucleic acid backbones; they are common dietary sugars and energy sources rather than structural sugars in DNA. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the full name of DNA: deoxyribonucleic acid, which already hints at deoxyribose as the sugar. Step 2: Remember that RNA stands for ribonucleic acid and contains ribose instead. Step 3: Recognise that both DNA and RNA sugars are pentose sugars, but the question asks for the specific sugar, not just the type. Step 4: Eliminate sucrose and glucose because they are not used as the sugar in the nucleic acid backbone. Step 5: Identify deoxyribose as the sugar found in DNA's sugar–phosphate backbone. Verification / Alternative check: Textbook diagrams of DNA nucleotides clearly label the sugar as deoxyribose, often showing the missing oxygen atom at the 2' position compared with ribose. Similarly, when tables compare DNA and RNA, one of the first differences listed is that DNA contains deoxyribose while RNA contains ribose. Matching these diagrams and descriptions to the options confirms deoxyribose as the correct answer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Ribose is the sugar found in RNA, not DNA. Saying any pentose sugar at random ignores the specific structural requirement of DNA and is scientifically incorrect. Sucrose is a disaccharide composed of glucose and fructose and is a common table sugar, not a nucleic acid component. Glucose is a hexose sugar used in energy metabolism and polymerised into starch and glycogen, not used in the DNA backbone. These options do not accurately describe the sugar in DNA. Common Pitfalls: A common trap is to confuse the sugars of DNA and RNA because their names appear similar. Another pitfall is to overlook the word deoxy and think only about ribose as a general sugar. To avoid these errors, use the simple association: DNA equals deoxyribose, RNA equals ribose. Remembering this pairing makes it easy to answer questions about nucleic acid sugars, even under exam pressure. Final Answer: The sugar found in the sugar–phosphate backbone of DNA is deoxyribose.

Question 19

In nutrition, which class of food is described as “nitrogenous food” because it is rich in nitrogen containing compounds needed for growth and tissue repair?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Different classes of nutrients play different roles in the human body. Some primarily provide energy, while others are essential for building and repairing tissues. Nutritional science often uses the term nitrogenous food for foods that contain a high proportion of nitrogen, mainly in the form of amino groups. This question asks which class of food is commonly referred to as nitrogenous food. Given Data / Assumptions: We are looking for the class of food rich in nitrogen containing substances. Options include proteins, carbohydrates, mineral salts, lipids and simple sugars. We assume standard definitions of macronutrients and their chemical composition. Concept / Approach: Proteins are large biological molecules composed of amino acids. Amino acids contain amino groups that include nitrogen, making proteins the primary nitrogen containing macronutrients in the diet. They are essential for growth, tissue repair, enzyme formation and many structural functions. In contrast, carbohydrates and lipids consist mainly of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen and contain very little or no nitrogen. Mineral salts include many inorganic ions but are not considered nitrogenous foods in the traditional nutritional sense. Therefore, proteins are the class of food described as nitrogenous food. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that amino acids, the building blocks of proteins, have an amino group containing nitrogen. Step 2: Recognise that proteins are the main dietary source of nitrogen for the body. Step 3: Compare this with carbohydrates (such as starch and sugars) and lipids, which primarily contain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Step 4: Note that mineral salts provide various ions like sodium, potassium, calcium and iron, but they are not classified as nitrogenous foods. Step 5: Conclude that proteins are correctly described as nitrogenous foods in basic nutrition terminology. Verification / Alternative check: Textbook discussions of nutrients often divide them into energy giving foods (mainly carbohydrates and fats), body building foods (primarily proteins) and protective foods (vitamins and minerals). In the body building category, proteins are specifically called nitrogenous foods because of the presence of nitrogen in their amino acid structure. Labels on high protein foods like pulses, meat, eggs and milk sometimes highlight their protein content as important for growth and repair. These references confirm that proteins are the nitrogen rich class of food. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Carbohydrates such as starch, sucrose and glucose are composed mainly of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen and serve primarily as energy sources, not as nitrogen rich building blocks. Lipids are also composed of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen and provide energy and insulation, but are not rich in nitrogen. Mineral salts include inorganic ions that are essential in small amounts but do not make a food nitrogenous in the usual sense. Simple sugars are a subset of carbohydrates and also lack significant nitrogen. Therefore, these options do not correctly describe nitrogenous food. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse energy rich foods with body building foods, assuming that all energy sources are equally important for growth. Another pitfall is to overlook the chemical composition of nutrients and think only in terms of calories. To avoid these errors, remember that proteins are unique among the major macronutrients because they contain a significant amount of nitrogen in amino acid structures. This is why they are emphasised in diets for children, athletes and patients recovering from illness. Final Answer: Nitrogenous food refers primarily to proteins, which are rich in nitrogen containing amino acids.

Question 20

In a typical eukaryotic cell, which combination correctly lists the three main structural parts that can be seen at the highest level of organisation?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: When studying cell biology, it is useful to start with the largest, most general components of a eukaryotic cell before moving to smaller organelles and molecular details. At this highest structural level, a typical eukaryotic cell can be divided into three main parts that are common to most plant and animal cells. This question asks you to select the combination that correctly names these three main parts. Given Data / Assumptions: We are dealing with a typical eukaryotic cell, such as a plant or animal cell. The question refers to the three main structural parts seen at the highest organisational level. Options list various combinations of cellular components. We assume standard textbook descriptions of eukaryotic cell structure. Concept / Approach: Most basic descriptions of a eukaryotic cell divide it into three main parts: the plasma (cell) membrane, the cytoplasm and the nucleus. The plasma membrane forms the outer boundary and controls movement of substances in and out. The cytoplasm includes the cytosol and all organelles except the nucleus. The nucleus houses the cell's genetic material and acts as the control centre. Other structures such as ribosomes, mitochondria, Golgi apparatus and endoplasmic reticulum are important organelles within the cytoplasm, but they are not usually counted as the three main highest level parts in introductory descriptions. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the simplest schematic diagram of a eukaryotic cell in school textbooks, usually labelled with three main regions: outer membrane, cytoplasm and nucleus. Step 2: Identify the outer boundary as the plasma (cell) membrane, which encloses the cell contents. Step 3: Recognise that the interior is divided into cytoplasm (containing organelles) and the nucleus (containing chromosomes). Step 4: Compare the options and find the one that exactly lists plasma membrane, cytoplasm and nucleus together. Step 5: Confirm that option a matches this basic three part division and is therefore correct. Verification / Alternative check: Another way to check is to think about how teachers commonly introduce the cell. They often start by saying that a eukaryotic cell can be divided into the cell membrane, which surrounds it, the cytoplasm, where most metabolic activities occur, and the nucleus, which contains genetic material. Only later do they discuss specialised organelles like mitochondria, Golgi apparatus, lysosomes and so on. This teaching pattern supports the idea that the three main parts are membrane, cytoplasm and nucleus. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option b lists the cell wall, ribosomes and mitochondria. The cell wall is present in plants and fungi but not in all eukaryotic cells (such as animal cells), and ribosomes and mitochondria are organelles within the cytoplasm, not the three highest level divisions. Option c (Golgi apparatus, endoplasmic reticulum and lysosomes) also lists internal organelles rather than the overall cell parts. Option d (cytoskeleton, ribosomes and vesicles) again focuses on internal components rather than the basic three part structure. Option e (chromosomes, nucleolus and centrioles) describes structures mostly within the nucleus or specific to dividing cells, not the top level parts common to almost all eukaryotic cells. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse organelles within the cytoplasm with the main divisions of the cell, especially if they have memorised many names without thinking about their hierarchical organisation. Another pitfall is to assume that plant cell specific structures like cell walls are universal to all eukaryotic cells, which is incorrect because animal cells lack cell walls. To avoid these issues, always start from the broadest view: think first of the cell membrane, the cytoplasm inside it and the nucleus, and only then consider smaller organelles within the cytoplasm. Final Answer: The three main structural parts of a typical eukaryotic cell are the plasma (cell) membrane, cytoplasm and nucleus.

Biology Questions