Question 1

Fixing Corrupted Printer Driver Entries  When the Windows registry description for a printer driver becomes corrupted, what is the recommended corrective action?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Printer issues in Windows often stem from driver corruption or inconsistent registry entries. Safe remediation avoids unnecessary risk to system stability while restoring correct configuration for print subsystems and queues. Given Data / Assumptions: Printer entries appear corrupted or malfunctioning. User has administrative rights and access to proper drivers. Standard Windows tools (Devices and Printers, Print Server Properties) are available. Concept / Approach: The best practice is to remove the printer and its driver package via the OS interface, then reinstall the correct, up-to-date driver. This approach lets Windows clean up dependent registry keys and files automatically, instead of risky manual edits. Step-by-Step Solution: Open Print Server Properties → Drivers, remove the faulty driver package.Delete the affected printer queue if present.Reboot if prompted to release locked files.Reinstall the vendor-supplied driver and add the printer again. Verification / Alternative check: Print a test page successfully; Event Viewer should show no spooler errors. The registry will contain fresh, consistent entries created by the installer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Deleting spool files is temporary and does not fix corrupted driver entries. Manual registry edits (regedit or sysedit) are risky and unnecessary; they can leave orphaned components and break the spooler. Common Pitfalls: Leaving remnants of previous driver versions installed or skipping a reboot when required. Final Answer: Remove the printer driver and reinstall it

Question 2

Testing a Fuse with a Volt-Ohm Meter (VOM)  When checking whether a fuse is good or open with a handheld meter, which measurement function should you select?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: A fuse is a protective device that should present near-zero resistance when intact and an open circuit when blown. The simplest bench test confirms continuity without applying power to the circuit under test. Given Data / Assumptions: Meter has selectable functions: AC volts, DC volts, current, and resistance (ohms)/continuity. Fuse is removed from the circuit to avoid parallel paths. We only need to know if the fuse conducts. Concept / Approach: The resistance (ohms) or continuity function sources a small current and measures resulting voltage to determine resistance. A good fuse reads near 0 Ω or triggers a continuity beep; an open fuse reads OL or infinite resistance. Voltage or current modes are neither required nor safe for simple continuity checks. Step-by-Step Solution: Set the meter to ohms (or continuity mode).Touch probes together to verify near-zero reading/beep.Place probes on the fuse terminals; confirm near-zero reading for a good fuse.If the reading is OL/infinite, the fuse is blown. Verification / Alternative check: Install a known-good fuse and observe circuit operation to double-check the diagnosis. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Voltage ranges do not measure continuity, and current mode risks shorting the meter across a source. “None of the above” is incorrect because ohms is the standard choice. Common Pitfalls: Testing in-circuit (parallel paths), failing to isolate power, or using the current range by mistake can damage the meter or circuit. Final Answer: Ohms

Question 3

No-Video Diagnostics  A monitor’s power LED is on, but the screen remains completely dark. Which of the following is the least likely root cause?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: When a display stays dark despite the monitor powering on, the fault could lie with the display, cabling, or the computer’s graphics output. Prioritizing likely causes saves time and avoids unnecessary part swaps. Given Data / Assumptions: Monitor LED indicates power is present. No image appears on the screen. We are comparing probabilities among common failure points. Concept / Approach: The most frequent culprits are simple: loose or disconnected video cables, wrong input selection, or a defective monitor/backlight. A failed GPU or motherboard video output is also plausible. While bad RAM can prevent boot (causing no video signal), it is generally less likely than the direct display path faults when the symptom is specifically “monitor on, screen dark.” Step-by-Step Solution: Check cable connections and input selection on the monitor.Test the monitor on a known-good system or test the system with a known-good monitor.Inspect/add a discrete GPU or try onboard graphics outputs.Only after basic checks suspect less common causes like RAM preventing POST video initialization. Verification / Alternative check: Swap components systematically: if the monitor works elsewhere, focus on the PC; if a second monitor also stays dark, focus on the GPU/cable. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Video cable disconnects and defective monitors are frequent and directly produce a dark screen. Faulty video circuitry in the PC is also common. RAM issues do cause no-POST scenarios, but relative to display-specific faults, they are less likely for this symptom. Common Pitfalls: Skipping simple checks (cable, input source), or ignoring monitor OSD messages like “No Signal.” Final Answer: System RAM problem

Question 4

Devices and DMA Usage on Legacy PCs  Among the following peripherals, which one is well known for using a DMA (Direct Memory Access) channel in ISA-era PCs?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Direct Memory Access (DMA) allows devices to transfer data to or from system memory with minimal CPU intervention. Understanding which legacy peripherals commonly used DMA helps troubleshoot resource conflicts and configuration issues on older systems. Given Data / Assumptions: Classic ISA sound cards (e.g., Sound Blaster family) needed DMA for digitized audio capture/playback. Many modems and NICs relied on programmed I/O or bus mastering rather than fixed ISA DMA channels. We are considering typical, exam-oriented defaults for legacy hardware. Concept / Approach: ISA sound cards commonly used DMA channels (e.g., DMA 1 and 5) to stream audio with low CPU overhead. While some advanced NICs used bus mastering (a form of DMA), they did not typically reserve ISA DMA channels in the same way. Modems generally operated via the UART/serial interface without needing an ISA DMA assignment. Step-by-Step Solution: Recall: Sound cards → DMA channels for audio buffers.Modems → serial I/O (UART) and interrupts, not ISA DMA.NICs → often programmed I/O or bus mastering, not fixed ISA DMA channels.Therefore, the most correct single choice is the sound card. Verification / Alternative check: Driver setup for ISA sound cards typically asks for IRQ and DMA channel selections; NICs and modems rarely do for ISA DMA channels. Why Other Options Are Wrong: “All of the above” overgeneralizes; modems and many NICs do not require ISA DMA channels. “None of the above” ignores the well-known DMA use by sound cards. Common Pitfalls: Confusing bus mastering with ISA DMA channel assignments, or assuming any high-throughput device must use DMA in the ISA sense. Final Answer: Sound Card

Question 5

Leased-line modem troubleshooting: On a leased line installation, a known-good external modem shows no Carrier Detect (CD) light. Where is the problem most likely located?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Carrier Detect (often labeled CD) on an external modem indicates that the modem is receiving a valid carrier from the far end over the leased circuit. When the CD light stays off on a known-good modem, the fault is usually not in the local terminal or the modem itself, but in the telecommunications path. This question checks practical leased-line troubleshooting skills and understanding of modem status indicators. Given Data / Assumptions: A leased line (not a dial-up line) is in use between two sites. A known-good external modem is correctly powered and cabled to the computer/terminal. The Carrier Detect (CD) indicator is off continuously. No other alarms on the modem suggest local hardware failure. Concept / Approach: On a leased line, CD depends on the presence of a valid carrier from the remote end through the telco circuit. If CD is dark, the local modem is not receiving that carrier. The most probable cause is a fault in the line (open, miswired pair, excessive attenuation, CSU/DSU issues, or far-end modem down). Local DTE cabling or computer issues do not affect the CD light, since CD is a DCE-to-DTE signal derived from the received carrier. Step-by-Step Solution: Confirm the modem powers up and self-tests pass (local indicators normal).Observe CD: it is off, meaning no carrier is received from the line/far end.Swap the modem with a known-good unit (already done) to rule out local modem fault.Conclude the likely fault lies in the telco leased circuit or the remote modem path. Verification / Alternative check: Loopback tests (local analog/digital loop) and contacting the carrier to run metallic/path tests typically confirm a line issue. If the far-end modem is off or disconnected, CD will remain off at the near end as well. Why Other Options Are Wrong: In the modem: Already proven good; CD depends on receive path, not just the unit. In the computer: DTE problems do not extinguish CD; CD originates in the modem from the line signal. In the DTC/terminal equipment: Same reasoning as the computer; CD is independent of the terminal's state. None of the above: Incorrect because the phone/leased line is the prime suspect. Common Pitfalls: Confusing DTR/RTS control signals (from the computer) with CD (from the line), and replacing serial cables or PCs unnecessarily when the telco path is down. Final Answer: In the phone line

Question 6

Legacy PC hardware: What is the standard hexadecimal I/O base address for COM3 (serial port 3)?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Classic IBM PC-compatible systems map serial ports to fixed I/O addresses and IRQs. Knowing these mappings is crucial for low-level troubleshooting, legacy OS configuration, and resolving resource conflicts with add-in cards or embedded devices. Given Data / Assumptions: Standard legacy assignments: COM1 and COM2 occupy well-known base addresses. COM3 and COM4 extend the scheme using alternate base addresses and the same IRQs as COM1/COM2. Question asks specifically for COM3 I/O base address (hexadecimal). Concept / Approach: The canonical PC serial-port base addresses are: COM1 = 3F8h (IRQ 4), COM2 = 2F8h (IRQ 3), COM3 = 3E8h (typically IRQ 4), and COM4 = 2E8h (typically IRQ 3). These addresses are widely used in BIOS and operating systems of the DOS/Windows 9x era and remain a knowledge staple for technicians working with legacy hardware. Step-by-Step Solution: Recall standard mapping: COM1 3F8h, COM2 2F8h, COM3 3E8h, COM4 2E8h.Identify the entry for COM3: 3E8h.Choose the option that matches: 3e8.Confirm none of the distractors correspond to valid standard base addresses for COM ports. Verification / Alternative check: Motherboard or expansion-card manuals list these addresses. System utilities (MSD, debug, or device-manager resources in older Windows) also report configured port addresses consistent with these defaults. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 345, ff8, 5e8, be8: Do not match the standard serial base-address set for COM ports. Common Pitfalls: Confusing IRQ assignments with I/O addresses, or mixing COM3 (3E8h) with COM1 (3F8h) due to the similar high nibble. Final Answer: 3e8

Question 7

PC boot diagnostics: Which process determines installed memory, date/time, and detected ports/adapters during startup?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: When a microcomputer starts, it runs firmware checks before loading the operating system. This phase validates hardware such as memory, video adapters, and I/O ports to ensure a known-good baseline. Recognizing the correct name and role of this process is foundational PC support knowledge. Given Data / Assumptions: The machine is an IBM-compatible PC with BIOS/UEFI firmware. On power-up, the firmware enumerates core hardware. The prompt refers to the process that counts RAM and reads the RTC (date/time). Concept / Approach: The Power On Self Test (POST) is the firmware-driven diagnostic sequence that initializes and checks hardware, including RAM, CPU, chipset, video adapter, storage controllers, and ports. It also reads configuration from CMOS/UEFI NVRAM. Only after POST completes does control pass to the bootloader. Vague phrases like “startup process” are not the accepted technical term for this diagnostic phase. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify the function described: memory sizing, RTC date/time check, port detection.Map that to the canonical term: Power On Self Test.Select the exact match option.Confirm other choices are generic or incorrect labels. Verification / Alternative check: BIOS update notes reference POST behavior; service manuals list POST codes and beeps linked to this phase. Why Other Options Are Wrong: They are non-standard or generic names that do not specifically denote the firmware diagnostic sequence. Common Pitfalls: Confusing POST (firmware) with OS boot diagnostics or the CMOS setup utility (a program in firmware distinct from POST itself). Final Answer: Power On Self Test

Question 8

Adding a second IDE/ATA hard disk with a single IDE channel: If the first drive remains the boot device (master), how should the second drive be configured?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: On legacy PCs with a single IDE/ATA channel (one ribbon cable with two connectors), two devices can coexist as master and slave. Proper jumper configuration avoids bus contention and ensures the system boots from the intended drive. Given Data / Assumptions: Only one IDE channel is available (Primary IDE). The existing hard drive will remain the boot (master) device. A second hard drive is being added on the same cable. Concept / Approach: IDE requires one device be designated master and the other slave when sharing a channel. The boot order is governed by BIOS settings and device roles. Therefore, the new drive should be jumpered as slave (or set to Cable Select if both devices and cable support CS, but the canonical answer for exams is to select “slave”). Step-by-Step Solution: Check the first drive's jumper: ensure it is set to master.Set the second drive's jumper to slave per its label.Attach both to the same 40-pin ribbon (positioned master at end, slave at middle, unless CS is used).Enter BIOS to verify detection and boot order with the master first. Verification / Alternative check: BIOS autodetect should show two devices on Primary IDE. The OS should present the second drive as an additional disk once partitioned and formatted. Why Other Options Are Wrong: as a master: Conflicts with the existing master on the same channel. as a secondary/as a primary: Not valid jumper roles; those terms refer to channels, not device roles. as auto-select: Not a standard jumper role; Cable Select is different and requires CS-capable hardware/cable. Common Pitfalls: Leaving both drives as master, mixing Cable Select with fixed master/slave jumpers, or connecting the master to the middle connector while using non-CS mode. Final Answer: as a slave

Question 9

Inkjet printers: What is the most common paper-tray–related cause of feed problems and jams?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Paper feed issues are among the most frequent inkjet printer service calls. The tray and feed path contain rubberized rollers and separation pads that wear and glaze over time, leading to misfeeds, multiple-sheet pulls, or no pick at all. Understanding the most common culprit streamlines maintenance and repairs. Given Data / Assumptions: An inkjet printer shows irregular feeding or fails to pick paper from the tray. There is no evidence of severe mechanical damage. Media is standard office paper within weight specifications. Concept / Approach: Pick-up rollers provide the initial traction to pull a sheet from the tray. Over time, their surface hardens or becomes contaminated with dust and paper fibers, reducing friction. This is the leading cause of feed failures. While misalignment can contribute, the first-line fix is to inspect, clean, or replace the pick roller and, when present, the separation pad. Step-by-Step Solution: Open the tray; inspect pick-up rollers for glazing or visible wear.Clean with approved rubber rejuvenator or replace per service manual.Check the separation pad and retainer; replace if worn.Test with fresh paper; verify single-sheet feed and proper registration. Verification / Alternative check: After roller replacement, the printer should reliably pick single sheets. Persistent issues may indicate tray alignment, sensor flags, or foreign objects deeper in the paper path. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Inconsistent printing: Refers to image quality, not feed mechanics. Misalignment of the sheet feeder: Possible but less common than roller wear. Paper jamming on the ink cartridge: Uncommon failure mode for tray pickup issues. None of the above: Incorrect because worn pick-up rollers are a well-known cause. Common Pitfalls: Using alcohol (which can dry and crack rollers), ignoring humidity/stock issues, or forgetting to reset the feed counter where applicable. Final Answer: malfunctioning pick-up rollers

Question 10

Safe transport of PC parts: Which item specifically requires an anti-static (ESD) bag during handling and transport?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Electrostatic discharge can silently damage semiconductor junctions in printed circuit boards (PCBs). ESD-safe handling and packaging (anti-static bags, foam, and shielding) are mandatory for boards and modules. Identifying which items demand ESD precautions is core to field service practice. Given Data / Assumptions: I/O controller is a PCB with sensitive ICs and traces. Monitors and power supplies are largely metal-chassis assemblies with fewer exposed logic components. Floppy disks require magnetic protection, not ESD shielding. Concept / Approach: Any bare PCB or electronics module (e.g., I/O controller, NIC, sound card, storage controller) should be stored and transported in an anti-static bag. This prevents charge accumulation and discharge into components. Mechanical assemblies (monitor, PSU) are less vulnerable during transport, and magnetic media like floppy disks call for anti-magnetic sleeves rather than ESD bags. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify which items are exposed PCBs with ICs: I/O controller.Apply ESD handling: use anti-static bag and grounded handling procedures.Keep non-ESD-sensitive items (monitor/PSU) protected mechanically, but ESD bags are not typically required.Use proper media sleeves for magnetic storage (floppies). Verification / Alternative check: Manufacturer packaging for controllers and add-in cards ships in ESD shielding bags. Service manuals specify ESD precautions for logic boards. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Monitor: Primary risks are mechanical and high-voltage safety, not ESD. Floppy disks: Sensitive to magnets and dust; ESD bag not standard protection. Power supply: Contains electronics but is enclosed; ESD handling is less critical during transport compared to exposed PCBs. None of the above: Incorrect because the I/O controller absolutely requires ESD packaging. Common Pitfalls: Handling boards outside their ESD bags on carpeted floors, or using pink anti-static bags (dissipative) when a shielding (metalized) bag is required. Final Answer: I/O controller

Question 11

Dot-matrix printer maintenance: Which component should never be lubricated during routine service?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Impact (dot-matrix) printers require periodic lubrication of certain mechanical parts to maintain smooth motion. However, the printhead contains precision pins and guides that must remain clean and dry. Lubricants can gum up the mechanism and cause failures. This question distinguishes serviceable parts from those that must not be oiled. Given Data / Assumptions: The printer uses a pin-based impact head striking an inked ribbon. Some moving parts like carriage rails may need approved lubricants. The printhead assembly relies on precise, clean tolerances for pin movement. Concept / Approach: The printhead's pins move at high frequency through narrow jeweled or metal guides. Lubricants attract dust and ribbon debris, causing sticking, misfires, or bent pins. Manufacturers warn against lubricating the printhead; instead, it should be kept clean and replaced when worn. Carriage rails and selected bearings, by contrast, may be lubricated with approved light oils or greases per the service manual. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify the parts that are intended to be lubricated (rails/bearings as specified).Recognize the printhead requires no lubricant and must remain clean.Follow the service manual for lubricant type and intervals on approved parts.Avoid any oil on the printhead to prevent contamination and pin failure. Verification / Alternative check: Service guides and field bulletins specify “Do not lubricate printhead.” Units with oiled heads often show poor print quality and head failures. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Some printers do permit limited lubrication of carriage rails and specific bearings; the exact regimen varies by model, but the printhead is universally non-lube. Common Pitfalls: Using household oils that migrate, over-lubricating rails, or contaminating the ribbon path, all of which cause smears and jams. Final Answer: Printhead

Question 12

SCSI host adapters and firmware mapping: Beyond I/O port addresses, do SCSI adapters also occupy a ROM (BIOS) address range for their onboard firmware?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Expansion cards can include option ROMs that extend BIOS functionality. Classic SCSI host adapters frequently ship with onboard BIOS to support booting from SCSI disks and provide low-level services before the operating system loads. Understanding address space usage helps diagnose resource conflicts and boot issues on legacy systems. Given Data / Assumptions: PC architecture allows plug-in cards to map option ROMs into the system's address space. SCSI adapters often include firmware to enumerate and boot from attached devices. The question asks whether ROM address ranges are also used, besides I/O ports. Concept / Approach: SCSI adapters typically decode I/O ports for command/status and map an option ROM into the C0000h–E0000h shadow region (exact segment varies). The firmware initializes the SCSI bus during POST, exposes INT 13h extensions for disk services, and enables booting from SCSI targets. Therefore, they do use a ROM address range, not just I/O ports and IRQ/DMA resources. Step-by-Step Solution: Recognize that “SCSI BIOS” resides in an option ROM on the adapter.That ROM must be addressable in the system's memory map.Hence, the adapter occupies both I/O and ROM address resources.Select “True.” Verification / Alternative check: During POST, the adapter usually displays its BIOS banner and version. Device Manager on legacy systems shows the option ROM region; motherboard setup may provide “shadow” options for those ranges. Why Other Options Are Wrong: False and conditional choices contradict standard behavior across ISA/PCI SCSI adapters; the presence of an option ROM is common whenever boot or BIOS-level services are provided. Common Pitfalls: Disabling option ROMs while intending to boot from SCSI, or ROM address conflicts with video BIOS or other adapters. Final Answer: True

Question 13

ESD wrist strap construction: Which component is built into a standard anti-static wrist strap lead for safety and charge control?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: A proper ESD wrist strap safely bleeds off static charge from a technician's body while preventing hazardous currents. The strap and cord incorporate a component that limits current and controls the discharge rate, protecting both the wearer and sensitive electronics. Given Data / Assumptions: Standard ESD straps connect to ground via a coiled cord. They must prevent sudden discharges and limit current if inadvertent contact with energized parts occurs. Question asks which component is inside the strap/cord assembly. Concept / Approach: The key element is a high-value series resistor, typically around 1 megaohm. This resistor limits current flow to microamp levels while allowing slow, controlled equalization of potential between the technician and ground. No surge protector, capacitor, or voltmeter is installed in a standard strap; some facilities use strap testers separately to verify continuity and resistance before work. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify the safety requirement: limit current while bleeding static charge.Recognize that a high-value resistor meets this requirement.Recall typical value: ~1 MΩ in series with the cord.Select “Resistor” as the correct internal strap component. Verification / Alternative check: Use an ESD strap tester or ohmmeter to measure strap resistance end-to-end; readings near 1 MΩ confirm the built-in resistor. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Surge protectors and capacitors are not used in cords; voltmeters are separate test devices; “None of the above” contradicts standard ESD strap design. Common Pitfalls: Bypassing the resistor (unsafe), attaching to ungrounded metal, or using damaged cords which defeat ESD protection. Final Answer: Resistor

Question 14

No video on boot (lights and fans present): A customer reports the PC powers (noise and lights) but nothing appears on the screen. Which replacement part is the most logical to bring first?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: When a system powers up (fans spin, LEDs light) but there is no display output, the likely culprits are the graphics subsystem, display cabling/monitor, or motherboard/CPU faults. For field service triage, choosing the most probable swappable part streamlines resolution. Given Data / Assumptions: Customer hears normal spin-up noises and sees chassis lights. No image appears on the monitor; assume the monitor and cable have already been checked or are less likely than the internal GPU. The system uses a discrete video card (common in desktop PCs of the exam context). Concept / Approach: No video with power present often indicates a failed or poorly seated graphics card, bad video memory on the GPU, or a dead output stage. While motherboard issues can also cause no video, statistically and logistically, a spare video card is the most efficient part to bring and test first. Storage devices do not affect POST video; the system should still show BIOS screens even without a hard drive. Step-by-Step Solution: Verify monitor power and cable seating; try a known-good cable if available.Power down, reseat the video card and memory; clear dust from PCIe/AGP contacts.If still no output, swap in a known-good video card.If video returns, replace the original card; otherwise, proceed to motherboard/CPU diagnostics. Verification / Alternative check: POST beeps or diagnostic LEDs often indicate a video error code. Testing with onboard graphics (if available) can also isolate a discrete card failure quickly. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Hard drive: Irrelevant to initial video; POST screen should appear without a disk. Power cable: Power is already present; not the root cause. Power supply: Could be bad under load, but fans/lights suggest basic function; a GPU swap is a more targeted first step. None of the above: Incorrect because a video card swap is a standard diagnostic step. Common Pitfalls: Overlooking onboard graphics settings, leaving monitor input on the wrong source, or ignoring beep codes that point directly to the graphics subsystem. Final Answer: video card

Question 15

DOS memory model clarification:  In classic MS-DOS systems, the High Memory Area (HMA) refers to which specific portion of memory relative to conventional and extended memory?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The DOS memory model divides early PC memory into conventional memory (first 640 KB), the Upper Memory Area (UMA, 640–1024 KB), and memory beyond 1 MB known as extended memory. The High Memory Area (HMA) is a special 64 KB window just above the 1 MB boundary that DOS can access in real mode with the help of the A20 line. Understanding where HMA sits is fundamental to legacy OS optimization and memory managers. Given Data / Assumptions: DOS operates primarily in real mode with a 20-bit address space by default. HMA is described as a 64 KB region related to the 1 MB boundary. We assume classic DOS memory terminology: conventional, upper, extended, and expanded (EMS) memory. Concept / Approach: By default, real mode addressing wraps at 1 MB because of the 20 address lines. Enabling the A20 line allows access to addresses just above 1 MB. This creates the HMA, the first 64 KB (minus 16 bytes due to segment offset nuances) above the 1 MB mark. DOS 5.0 and later can load parts of DOS into HMA via the DOS=HIGH directive to free conventional memory for applications. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify the 1 MB boundary: conventional + UMA total 1 MB.Enable A20: permits addressing beyond 1 MB.Define HMA: the first 64 KB region immediately above 1 MB boundary.Relate to options: this matches “First 64k above conventional.” Verification / Alternative check: Technical references and DOS manuals describe HMA as a 64 KB region beginning at physical address 1,048,576 bytes, used by DOS=HIGH and HIMEM.SYS. It is neither the last 64 KB of conventional nor the last 64 KB of extended in general; it is a distinct gateway region immediately above 1 MB. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Last 64k of conventional: conventional memory ends at 640 KB, far below 1 MB. First 64k of extended: extended memory starts above 1 MB, but HMA specifically refers to the first 64 KB window above 1 MB accessed in real mode, not the generic first block of all extended memory pools. Last 64k of extended: unrelated to HMA’s definition. None of the above: incorrect because one option precisely matches the definition. Common Pitfalls: Confusing HMA with UMA or EMS; assuming HMA equals “any” part of extended memory. HMA is special because it remains accessible in real mode with A20 enabled, unlike general extended memory which typically needs protected mode or special managers. Final Answer: First 64k above conventional

Question 16

External CD-ROM support interfaces:  Which host controller technology historically supported connecting an external CD-ROM drive to a PC?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Before USB became ubiquitous, external storage and optical devices often relied on interface standards that supported external cabling and device addressing. Identifying which bus allowed reliable external CD-ROM connections is essential for maintaining legacy systems and understanding hardware evolution. Given Data / Assumptions: We are comparing historic disk interfaces: SCSI, ESDI, MFM, and vendor-specific schemes like ARLL. The focus is on external (out-of-chassis) device support with standardized cables and termination. CD-ROMs were common peripherals during the SCSI era. Concept / Approach: SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) supported multiple devices on a shared bus, device IDs, termination, and standardized external connectors. ESDI and MFM were primarily internal drive interfaces without mainstream external device ecosystems. Therefore, external CD-ROMs commonly used SCSI, particularly in workstations and high-end PCs. Step-by-Step Solution: List interfaces and their typical usage: SCSI (internal/external), ESDI/MFM (internal HDDs), ARLL (non-standard).Check for multi-device, external cabling, and termination: only SCSI fits robustly.Map to optical drives: many external CD-ROMs shipped with SCSI interfaces and ID selectors.Select SCSI as the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Period documentation confirms SCSI as the de facto external peripheral bus pre-USB, with terminators, IDs 0–7 (narrow) or 0–15 (wide), and external Centronics/DB-style connectors. Why Other Options Are Wrong: ESDI/MFM: mainly internal HDD technologies; no standard external device ecosystem. ARLL: not a mainstream standardized external interface. None of the above: incorrect because SCSI explicitly supports external devices. Common Pitfalls: Confusing parallel-port external CD-ROMs (later options) with true bus-level external support; those were slower and not typical for performance use compared to SCSI solutions. Final Answer: SCSI

Question 17

USB architecture basics:  A chain (tree) of USB devices attached to a host requires how many IRQ lines to service it on the host system?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Universal Serial Bus (USB) was designed to simplify PC expansion by consolidating many peripherals onto a single, host-controlled bus. Understanding how USB maps to system interrupts clarifies why devices can be hot-plugged without consuming multiple IRQs like legacy ISA peripherals did. Given Data / Assumptions: Devices are attached via hubs to a single USB host controller. We are considering classic PC architectures where host controllers present an IRQ to the CPU. Multiple peripherals may be active simultaneously. Concept / Approach: USB is host-centric: the host controller polls devices and schedules transfers. The host controller (UHCI/OHCI/EHCI/xHCI) is the entity that generates interrupts to the CPU. Regardless of how many devices are on that controller’s bus, the controller typically uses one IRQ line to request service; the controller’s driver then handles individual device events. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify the interrupting component: the host controller, not each device.Note that many devices share the controller’s resources via hubs.Map to IRQ lines: one per controller (or shared MSI/MSI-X in modern systems), not per device chain.Conclude a chain needs 1 IRQ from the host controller. Verification / Alternative check: Device Manager (Windows) or lspci (Linux) shows the USB Host Controller using a single IRQ or MSI vector, even with many devices connected. Older systems might share interrupts across multiple controllers, but a single controller still represents one interrupt source. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 2, 3, or 4 IRQs: contradict the host-centric design; multiple controllers may exist, but one chain on one controller uses one IRQ. None of the above: incorrect because the correct count is one. Common Pitfalls: Assuming every device needs an IRQ (ISA-era thinking). USB abstracts device events behind the controller and software stack, minimizing hardware interrupt consumption. Final Answer: 1

Question 18

DOS configuration files:  In classic MS-DOS, the BUFFERS statement (used to set disk buffer count) belongs in which startup configuration file?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Legacy DOS systems relied on two primary boot-time files for configuration: CONFIG.SYS and AUTOEXEC.BAT. Distinguishing which directives go where is a common certification and troubleshooting topic for retrocomputing and embedded DOS deployments. Given Data / Assumptions: BUFFERS controls the number of disk buffers for DOS file I/O. We are dealing with standard MS-DOS, not third-party shells or NetWare configuration files. The question targets the correct file placement. Concept / Approach: CONFIG.SYS contains directives processed by the DOS kernel during initialization (e.g., DEVICE, FILES, BUFFERS, DOS=HIGH, LASTDRIVE). AUTOEXEC.BAT runs after DOS loads, executing commands like PATH, SET, and TSR loading. Since BUFFERS tunes a kernel file I/O parameter, it belongs in CONFIG.SYS. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify BUFFERS as a kernel-level parameter.Recall which file configures kernel parameters: CONFIG.SYS.Differentiate from batch commands in AUTOEXEC.BAT.Select CONFIG.SYS as correct. Verification / Alternative check: DOS manuals list BUFFERS=n under CONFIG.SYS examples alongside FILES=n and DEVICE=HIMEM.SYS lines. AUTOEXEC.BAT contains command-line executables, not kernel configuration keywords. Why Other Options Are Wrong: AUTOEXEC.BAT: post-boot batch commands, not kernel directives. AUTOEXEC.NCF and NEB.CFG: not standard DOS configuration files. None of the above: incorrect because CONFIG.SYS is correct. Common Pitfalls: Placing BUFFERS in AUTOEXEC.BAT (ignored) or assuming modern OS concepts apply to DOS initialization. Always separate kernel config (CONFIG.SYS) from runtime commands (AUTOEXEC.BAT). Final Answer: CONFIG.SYS

Question 19

Relative access speeds:  Among the following storage and memory technologies, which provides the fastest data access time for a running PC?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: System performance relies heavily on the latency and bandwidth of the memory/storage hierarchy: CPU caches, RAM, and then secondary storage. Identifying which component provides the quickest data access clarifies why systems keep active data in memory and only fetch from disks when necessary. Given Data / Assumptions: Technologies compared: RAM, ROM, hard disk, CD-ROM, floppy. “Fastest access” refers primarily to latency and throughput in typical PC operation. Ignore specialized ROM implementations or RAM disks; consider typical consumer hardware. Concept / Approach: Dynamic RAM (DRAM) offers nanosecond-scale access and high bandwidth via wide memory buses and controllers. Magnetic/optical storage has millisecond-scale seek latencies and substantially lower throughput. ROM access may be fast but is usually slower than main RAM and not used as primary working memory. Hence, RAM is the fastest among the listed options. Step-by-Step Solution: Contrast access times: RAM (tens of ns) vs. HDD (ms) vs. optical/floppy (higher ms).Consider bandwidth: RAM in GB/s vs. disks in MB/s (or less for optical/floppy).Operational role: active programs and data are loaded into RAM for speed.Conclude RAM is fastest of the listed devices. Verification / Alternative check: Benchmark tools consistently show RAM access orders of magnitude faster than storage devices. Even SSDs, far quicker than HDDs, remain slower than RAM. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Hard disk/CD-ROM/Floppy: mechanical or optical media with high latency. ROM: not optimized for high-throughput random access like system RAM, and often clocked more slowly. Common Pitfalls: Confusing “ROM chip access time” with system RAM usage; in practice, the CPU executes from RAM and uses caches to minimize latency further. Final Answer: RAM

Question 20

SCSI bus fundamentals:  On a SCSI chain, what is the rule regarding device IDs for all attached devices?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) supports multiple devices on a single bus. Proper identification and termination are essential to avoid bus conflicts and ensure reliable operation. Knowing how SCSI IDs work is critical for legacy servers, workstations, and storage arrays. Given Data / Assumptions: SCSI bus may be narrow (IDs 0–7) or wide (IDs 0–15). Each device, including the host adapter, occupies one ID. We assume single SCSI bus segment with correct termination at ends. Concept / Approach: Device arbitration and addressing depend on unique IDs. If two devices share an ID, neither can be reliably addressed, causing bus errors. The host adapter often defaults to a preferred ID (e.g., 7 on narrow SCSI). Thus, each device must have a distinct ID on the chain. Step-by-Step Solution: Determine bus width and available ID range.Assign a unique ID to each device and the host adapter.Verify termination at both physical ends of the bus.Power-cycle or rescan bus to confirm device discovery. Verification / Alternative check: SCSI BIOS utilities and OS-level tools list devices by unique ID. Conflicts result in missing or unstable devices. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Shared IDs: cause addressing conflicts. Common ID for all: would prevent unique selection. IDs irrelevant: false; SCSI depends on unique IDs. Common Pitfalls: Forgetting that external enclosures may have their own termination; mixing wide/narrow devices without proper converters and ID planning. Final Answer: Each SCSI device must have its own unique ID

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