Question 1

Legacy PC ports: COM1 is typically presented on which connector type on desktop PCs?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Serial COM ports on legacy PCs commonly use DE-9 (often called DB-9) connectors. Identifying the correct gender and pin count helps when selecting console cables, null modems, or adapters for serial devices. Given Data / Assumptions: Standard RS-232 implementations on desktop motherboards. COM1 and COM2 provided on rear I/O or via bracket headers. Gender convention typically male on the system side for DE-9. Concept / Approach: Most AT/ATX-era PCs expose COM1 as a 9-pin male D-sub (DE-9M). Older systems sometimes used 25-pin male (DB-25M) for serial, but DE-9M became the norm. Parallel LPT ports generally used 25-pin female (DB-25F), helping distinguish the two. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify port by icon or labeling (COM1, serial symbol).Count pins and confirm male connector: 9 pins, trapezoidal shell.Match to DE-9 serial cable for RS-232 devices. Verification / Alternative check: Motherboard manuals and I/O shield legends show COM ports as 9-pin male; serial loopback plugs and console cables fit the male jack with female cable ends. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 15 pin port: Typically VGA (HD-15) or game/MIDI (DA-15), not RS-232 COM1. 9 pin female port: The system side is usually male; female ends are on cables. 25 pin male port: Was used historically for some serial ports but is not typical for COM1 on most later PCs. None of the above: Incorrect because DE-9 male is standard. Common Pitfalls: Confusing DB-25 parallel (female) with DB-25 serial (male); using a straight-through cable when a null modem is required for device-to-device connections. Final Answer: 9 pin male port

Question 2

Core PC concepts: Which description best characterizes the role of the CPU (Central Processing Unit) within a personal computer?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The CPU is often called the “brain” of the computer. It executes instructions, performs arithmetic and logic, and orchestrates data movement. A clear definition distinguishes the CPU from components such as the GPU, PSU, and firmware storage. Given Data / Assumptions: The question refers to a general-purpose CPU in a desktop or laptop. Other subsystems (GPU, chipset, RAM, storage) support or accelerate specific tasks. Firmware (BIOS/UEFI) and power regulation are separate functions. Concept / Approach: The CPU fetches instructions, decodes them, and executes micro-operations. It manipulates registers and memory via the system bus, coordinating with cache hierarchies for speed. While modern systems offload graphics and specialized tasks, the CPU remains the central execution engine for the operating system and most applications. Step-by-Step Solution: Fetch instructions from memory (guided by the program counter).Decode and execute operations in arithmetic logic units and control units.Read/write operands to registers and RAM; interact with I/O through the OS.Repeat at clock speed, scheduling with caches and branch predictors. Verification / Alternative check: Task managers show CPU utilization reflecting work being executed. Benchmarks stress CPU integer/floating-point cores to verify processing performance. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Sends the monitor signals: That is the role of the GPU or integrated graphics. Regulates system power: Handled by the power supply unit (PSU) and VRMs on the motherboard. Stores BIOS routines: Firmware resides in non-volatile flash/ROM, not in the CPU. None of the above: Incorrect because the CPU indeed performs the processing. Common Pitfalls: Confusing CPU with GPU; assuming BIOS code lives in the CPU; overlooking that multi-core CPUs parallelize workloads but still act as the main execution unit. Final Answer: The area where all of the processing takes place

Question 3

Classic Mac OS troubleshooting: A dialog box with a “bomb” icon appears on a Macintosh screen. This indicates what type of problem?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Classic Macintosh systems (pre-OS X) used a “bomb” dialog to indicate system errors. Recognizing that icon helps distinguish between software-level crashes and hardware failures when diagnosing issues on vintage Macs. Given Data / Assumptions: The system is running classic Mac OS (System 6 through Mac OS 9 era). The “bomb” dialog appears with an error code or message. No recent hardware changes are implied by the symptom alone. Concept / Approach: The bomb icon traditionally signals a system error caused by software: application crashes, system extensions conflicts, or OS exceptions. While faulty hardware can indirectly cause crashes, the bomb itself is the UI for software exceptions, not a hardware-diagnostics glyph. Step-by-Step Solution: Note the error code displayed with the bomb dialog.Restart and test with extensions disabled (hold Shift) to isolate conflicts.Update or remove problematic extensions/applications.Run disk utilities to check file system integrity. Verification / Alternative check: If the bomb disappears when booting with extensions off, an extension conflict is likely. Persistent issues across clean installs could implicate hardware, but the icon itself remains a software crash indicator. Why Other Options Are Wrong: RAM/ROM/ADB problems: These can cause instability, but the bomb icon specifically denotes a software exception rather than pointing to a particular hardware component. None of the above: Incorrect because “software problem” matches the meaning of the bomb dialog. Common Pitfalls: Assuming any bomb equals bad hardware; overlooking extension conflicts; ignoring disk corruption as a root cause of repeated application crashes. Final Answer: A software problem

Question 4

SCSI device IDs and jumpers: On a 3-bit SCSI ID jumper block where 1 = shorted and 0 = open, how is logical ID 3 represented?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Legacy SCSI devices use jumper blocks or DIP switches to set the device ID. Understanding binary representation of IDs ensures unique addressing on the bus and prevents conflicts during configuration. Given Data / Assumptions: Three jumpers encode the SCSI ID in binary. Convention: jumper installed = 1, jumper removed = 0. Logical ID requested is 3. Concept / Approach: Binary representation maps directly to jumper states. With three bits (usually representing 1, 2, 4), the value 3 equals 1 + 2, so the least significant two bits are set to 1 and the highest bit is 0. Therefore the pattern is 011. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify bit weights: bit0 = 1, bit1 = 2, bit2 = 4.Compute 3 = 2 + 1.Set bit1 = 1 (jumper on), bit0 = 1 (jumper on), bit2 = 0 (jumper off).Final pattern: 0 1 1. Verification / Alternative check: Device documentation or silk-screening often labels the pins with their weights (1, 2, 4). Installing jumpers on 1 and 2 yields ID 3. The host adapter utility lists the device at ID 3 during bus scan. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 100: Equals decimal 4, not 3. 010: Equals decimal 2, not 3. . 101: Equals decimal 5, punctuation is also erroneous. None of the above: Incorrect since 011 is correct. Common Pitfalls: Reading bit order backwards; forgetting termination rules at bus ends; duplicate IDs causing devices to vanish or the bus to hang. Final Answer: 011

Question 5

Dot-matrix printer maintenance: During preventive maintenance, which component should you NOT lubricate in a dot-matrix (impact) printer?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Dot-matrix printers use a print head with fine pins that strike an inked ribbon to form characters and graphics. Proper maintenance increases lifespan and print quality, but incorrect lubrication can cause severe damage or print defects. Given Data / Assumptions: The printer is an impact (pin) printer. Preventive maintenance may include cleaning rails, belts, and light lubrication of approved moving parts. Manufacturer guidelines caution against lubricating sensitive mechanisms. Concept / Approach: Lubrication reduces friction in certain assemblies (carriage rails, gears) when the correct lubricant is used. However, the print head pins and their guide mechanism operate at high frequency and require precise, clean movement. Lubricants can attract dust and ink particles, gum up the guide tubes, and cause pin sticking or misfires, leading to poor print quality or head failure. Step-by-Step Solution: Consult the service manual for approved lubrication points and lubricant types.Apply lubricant sparingly to carriage rails and specified gear bushings if recommended.Avoid any lubrication on the print head pins or inside the pin guide assembly.Clean ribbon path and platen with appropriate solvents (non-residue) as specified. Verification / Alternative check: After maintenance, the carriage should move smoothly and the print quality should be uniform. If pins stick or characters appear faint/misaligned, contamination or improper lubrication of the head may be the cause. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Platen assembly: Some models permit minimal lubrication of the platen bearings, not the rubber surface, per guidelines. Print head pulley and paper advance gear bushings: Certain mechanisms may accept light lubrication per service docs. None of the above: Incorrect because there is at least one component (print head pins) that must not be lubricated. Common Pitfalls: Over-lubricating, using the wrong lubricant, contaminating the ribbon path, and touching the rubber platen with solvents that degrade it. Final Answer: Print head pins

Question 6

PC hardware fundamentals — Standard I/O base address for COM2 (serial port 2) In classic IBM-PC compatible systems, what hexadecimal base I/O address is assigned to COM2 by default?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Legacy PC hardware maps serial ports (COM ports) to fixed I/O base addresses and interrupts. Knowing these defaults is crucial when troubleshooting device conflicts, configuring BIOS/UEFI options, or working with low-level drivers and embedded systems that still expose UARTs. Given Data / Assumptions: IBM-PC compatible environment using the classic 16550-class UARTs. Default factory mappings are assumed (no custom remapping). Question asks specifically for the base I/O address of COM2. Concept / Approach: Historically, DOS/Windows and BIOS conventions standardized serial port resources to avoid conflicts. Each COM port is assigned a base I/O address plus an IRQ. Software and drivers expect these defaults unless changed in firmware or by jumpers on older multi-I/O cards. Step-by-Step Solution: Recall the canonical assignments: COM1 → 3F8h, COM2 → 2F8h, COM3 → 3E8h, COM4 → 2E8h.Identify the requested port: COM2.Map it to the correct base address: COM2 → 2F8h.Therefore, the correct choice is 2F8h. Verification / Alternative check: Checking any PC hardware reference, BIOS setup screens from the era, or serial card silkscreens confirms these standard addresses. Device Manager on older Windows systems also shows these defaults when resources are set to “Auto.” Why Other Options Are Wrong: 3F8h is COM1, 3E8h is COM3, 2E8h is COM4, and 330h is not a COM base (often used by certain legacy peripherals like SCSI host adapters or game/MIDI ports, not standard serial). Common Pitfalls: Confusing COM1 and COM2 addresses; assuming PCI Plug-and-Play always keeps legacy defaults; forgetting that USB-serial adapters do not use I/O port addresses in the same way. Final Answer: 2F8h.

Question 7

Laser printer process — What occurs during the transfer stage? Choose the step that correctly describes the transfer phase in the electrophotographic (laser) printing cycle.

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Laser printers use an electrophotographic process with several distinct stages: charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, and cleaning. Understanding each stage helps technicians diagnose print defects and replace the correct subassemblies. Given Data / Assumptions: We are focusing on the “transfer” stage only. Standard laser printer with a photoconductor drum or belt. No vendor-specific deviations assumed. Concept / Approach: In the transfer stage, paper (or other media) passes between the drum/belt and a transfer element (roller or corona). The transfer element injects charge that attracts toner from the drum onto the paper, forming the visible image prior to fusing. Step-by-Step Solution: Primary charging gives the drum a uniform charge.Exposure (laser/LED) writes a latent image on the drum by locally discharging areas.Development applies toner to the discharged areas, creating a toner image.Transfer moves this toner image from the drum to the paper via a transfer roller/corona.Fusing then melts and bonds toner to media; finally, cleaning removes residual toner. Verification / Alternative check: Service manuals and training diagrams label this explicitly: “transfer” concerns toner movement to paper, not exposure or primary charging steps. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A describes cleaning/waste handling, not transfer. Option B is incorrect because the laser forms the latent image on the drum (exposure), it does not move toner to paper. Option D describes primary charging, a step before exposure. “None of the above” is invalid because option C is correct. Common Pitfalls: Mixing up exposure and transfer; assuming transfer and fusing are the same (fusing is heat/pressure bonding after transfer). Final Answer: The toner image on the drum is transferred onto the paper using a transfer roller or corona.

Question 8

Typical logic supply on PC circuit boards — What DC voltage rail powers most TTL/CMOS logic on older motherboards and add-in cards?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Classic desktop PCs used multiple rails from the PSU: +12 V, +5 V, −12 V, and later +3.3 V. Most legacy digital logic on motherboards, ISA cards, and many peripherals historically ran from +5 V. Recognizing this helps with diagnostics and interpreting schematics or power issues. Given Data / Assumptions: Legacy platforms and add-in cards before widespread 3.3 V logic dominance. Standard TTL/CMOS logic families (LS/HC/HCT). Question asks the most common logic rail. Concept / Approach: While motors, drives, and fans commonly use +12 V, and some serial interfaces used ±12 V signaling (via regulators), the heart of earlier digital logic operated at +5 V. Many ICs and memory devices expected regulated +5 V. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify logic families: TTL/CMOS parts widely used +5 V.Separate other rails: +12 V for motors/fans, −12 V for RS-232 levels, 0 V is reference only.Therefore, the typical logic supply is +5 V. Verification / Alternative check: Motherboard silkscreens and PSU labels show +5 V as a primary rail. Bench measurements confirm logic IC Vcc pins near +5 V in legacy systems. Why Other Options Are Wrong: −12 V is for serial interfaces; 0 V is ground, not a supply; +12 V powers motors and some analog stages; “None” is incorrect because +5 V is the standard answer for the era. Common Pitfalls: Confusing modern +3.3 V and +1.x V core rails in newer systems with older PC generations; assuming the presence of −5 V (obsolete) is still required. Final Answer: +5 V.

Question 9

PC interrupts — Which IRQ is traditionally assigned to COM2 (serial port 2) on IBM-PC compatibles?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Legacy serial ports require both an I/O base address and an IRQ line for interrupt-driven communication. Understanding default mappings is essential when diagnosing resource conflicts or configuring legacy hardware. Given Data / Assumptions: Default, historical PC assignments. No BIOS remapping or Plug-and-Play overrides. COM2 is the target port. Concept / Approach: Standard mappings pair COM1 with IRQ4 and COM2 with IRQ3 to avoid conflicts when both ports are present. COM3/COM4 often share or remap IRQs depending on the multi-I/O card or BIOS settings. Step-by-Step Solution: Recall: COM1 → IRQ4, COM2 → IRQ3.Question asks for COM2 → therefore IRQ3.Conclude the correct option is IRQ3. Verification / Alternative check: Old technical references, BIOS setup pages, and OS device settings confirm these defaults. RS-232 troubleshooting guides also cite IRQ3 for COM2. Why Other Options Are Wrong: IRQ4 is for COM1, IRQ1 is for the keyboard controller, IRQ2 was historically a cascade to the second PIC and not used for COM2 by default. “None of the above” is not valid here. Common Pitfalls: Assuming PCI/USB serial devices use the same legacy IRQs; confusing COM numbers with physical back-panel labels. Final Answer: IRQ3.

Question 10

Laser printer preventive maintenance — Which component is typically replaced or vacuumed to control ozone and toner accumulation?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Laser printers produce ozone due to high-voltage coronas/rollers and can accumulate fine toner dust. Preventive maintenance schedules include replacing consumables and filters to maintain print quality and safety. Given Data / Assumptions: Standard office laser printer with a serviceable ozone filter. Technician performing routine PM with proper ESD/toner safety procedures. Goal: identify the component routinely replaced or vacuumed for ozone/toner management. Concept / Approach: Many service manuals specify periodic replacement or cleaning of the ozone filter, which traps ozone and fine particulates. While toner cartridges are replaced when empty or per yield spec, the ozone filter is specifically tied to PM intervals to mitigate ozone emission and protect internal components. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify PM items: toner cartridge (consumable), ozone filter (service filter), rollers, and some cleaning tasks.Select the one expressly associated with ozone control: the ozone filter.Confirm that scanning mirrors are delicate optics—never vacuum with a standard vacuum; they are cleaned carefully per vendor guidance.Thus, the correct answer is “Ozone filter.” Verification / Alternative check: Vendor PM kits often include ozone filters and specify replacement intervals based on page counts or time. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Scanning mirrors should not be vacuumed (risk of damage and coating scratches). Toner cartridges are replaced for yield, not to control ozone specifically. “All of the above” is incorrect because not all items are vacuumed/replaced for ozone and it can be unsafe for optics. Common Pitfalls: Using a household vacuum (toner is too fine and can pass through filters or damage the vacuum); failing to wear a mask when handling heavy toner contamination; touching the mirror or drum with bare hands. Final Answer: Ozone filter.

Question 11

CPU clocking — A 486DX2 CPU runs internally at 50 MHz. What is the external bus (front-side bus) speed?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Many x86 processors use multipliers to derive an internal core frequency from a lower external bus clock. The 486DX2 family doubled the bus clock to achieve higher internal speeds while retaining compatible motherboard bus timings. Given Data / Assumptions: Processor is an Intel 486DX2 running at 50 MHz internally. “DX2” denotes 2× internal clock multiplier. We want the external (FSB) frequency. Concept / Approach: For a DX2, internal core frequency = 2 * external bus frequency. Therefore, knowing the internal clock allows us to compute the FSB by dividing by 2. Step-by-Step Solution: Given: f_internal = 50 MHz.DX2 multiplier: 2×.Compute bus: f_bus = f_internal / 2 = 25 MHz.Hence, the external logic/bus runs at 25 MHz. Verification / Alternative check: Historic system specs list common 486DX2 models like 486DX2-50 (25 MHz bus, 50 MHz core) and 486DX2-66 (33 MHz bus, 66 MHz core). Why Other Options Are Wrong: 10 MHz is not a standard 486 bus for a DX2-50; 50 MHz is the core, not the bus; 100 MHz would imply 4×, which is a later architecture; “None” is wrong because 25 MHz is exact. Common Pitfalls: Confusing core clock with bus clock; mixing DX2 vs DX4 multipliers; overlooking that memory and I/O timings correlate with the bus clock, not the multiplied core frequency. Final Answer: 25 MHz.

Question 12

Electrostatic discharge (ESD) risk — Under which environmental conditions is ESD most likely to occur?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: ESD events can damage sensitive semiconductor devices during handling and service. Humidity and temperature strongly influence the buildup and discharge of static electricity. Technicians must recognize environments with elevated ESD risk and use protective measures accordingly. Given Data / Assumptions: Indoor workspaces without specialized humidity control. Focus on general trend of ESD risk versus environment. Standard materials like carpet and synthetic clothing may be present. Concept / Approach: Low humidity increases surface resistivity and reduces natural charge dissipation, making large static charge buildup more likely. In many climates, cold weather correlates with low indoor humidity (heated indoor air is dry), so “cold and dry” is classically the worst case. “Hot and dry” can also be risky, but less typical than winter indoor conditions for electronics labs. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify main variable: relative humidity—lower humidity → higher ESD risk.Associate climate patterns: heated environments in winter are dry.Therefore, “cold and dry” is the most likely scenario for strong ESD events.Mitigation: use wrist straps, ESD mats, ionizers, and maintain proper humidity. Verification / Alternative check: ESD training materials consistently cite low humidity as the main factor. Grounding practices and environmental controls are standard recommendations. Why Other Options Are Wrong: “Hot and wet” and “cold and wet” imply higher humidity, which dissipates charge. “Hot and dry” can be risky, but “cold and dry” is the classic worst case in typical work settings. “None of the above” is incorrect. Common Pitfalls: Relying only on wrist straps without checking ground; ignoring synthetic clothing; assuming ESD is unlikely because devices “seem fine” (latent damage may appear later). Final Answer: Cold and dry.

Question 13

Environmental compliance — Which PC component must be disposed of in accordance with EPA/regulated hazardous waste guidelines?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Electronics disposal involves safety and environmental regulations. Some parts contain hazardous substances that require special handling. Correctly identifying these components prevents fines, fires, and environmental harm. Given Data / Assumptions: Typical desktop/laptop parts under U.S. EPA-like rules. Focus on the component with explicit hazardous classification. General office IT disposal context. Concept / Approach: Batteries (Li-ion, NiMH, or lead-acid) are regulated due to chemical and fire risks. They must be collected and recycled via approved programs. While motherboards and PSUs should be recycled as e-waste, the item clearly requiring EPA-compliant special handling is the battery. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify hazardous components: batteries contain reactive/metal compounds.Check disposal rules: often banned from regular trash; use certified recyclers.Compare to other options: keyboards and PSUs are general e-waste; motherboards contain small amounts of metals but are processed differently.Therefore, select “Battery.” Verification / Alternative check: Municipal and federal guidelines list batteries separately for collection and transport. Many organizations maintain battery recycling bins. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Keyboards and PSUs are not individually hazardous though they should be recycled; motherboards are e-waste but the question asks which item specifically requires EPA hazardous handling—battery. Common Pitfalls: Throwing coin cells into trash; transporting swollen Li-ion without proper containment; mixing battery chemistries during disposal. Final Answer: Battery.

Question 14

Static electricity conditions — In which environment does static electricity most readily build up?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: ESD control is a cornerstone of electronics handling. Environmental factors such as temperature and humidity strongly affect charge buildup on people and objects. Recognizing risky conditions reduces device damage during service. Given Data / Assumptions: General indoor service environment. No humidification systems in place. Standard clothing and flooring materials. Concept / Approach: Dry air allows static charges to accumulate rather than leak away. Cold weather correlates with low indoor humidity (heated air), so cold and dry conditions are notorious for strong static discharges—crackling sweaters, shocks from doorknobs, and ESD damage in labs. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify the main driver: low humidity increases ESD risk.Map to environment: cold seasons produce dry indoor air.Therefore, cold and dry is the most ESD-prone environment among the choices.Mitigate with wrist straps, ESD mats, ionizers, and humidity control. Verification / Alternative check: ESD program handbooks consistently show a drop in ESD incidents when RH is maintained above ~40%. Winter months typically show spikes in incidents when RH falls. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Humid conditions (warm/cold and humid) reduce static buildup. “Warm and dry” can be risky, but cold and dry is a more typical and severe scenario in electronics workspaces. “Cold and warm” is not a meaningful humidity descriptor. Common Pitfalls: Ignoring ESD precautions because a device “seems robust”; relying only on carpet sprays; not grounding the workbench or the technician properly. Final Answer: Cold and dry.

Question 15

Inkjet Printing Mechanism  In common consumer and office inkjet printers, how is ink physically transferred to the paper during the printing process?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Inkjet printers dominate home and small-office printing because they can place microscopic droplets of ink accurately onto paper. Understanding how the ink moves from cartridge to page helps with troubleshooting streaks, banding, and clogged nozzles. Given Data / Assumptions: We are discussing mainstream inkjet technologies (thermal/bubble-jet and piezoelectric) used in consumer printers. Paper is moved under a printhead that contains many tiny nozzles (orifices). Ink arrives from a reservoir or cartridge to the printhead. Concept / Approach: Inkjets create and eject tiny droplets through nozzles. Thermal (bubble-jet) designs momentarily heat a resistor to form a vapor bubble that forces a droplet out; piezoelectric designs flex a crystal to pressurize a chamber and eject ink. In both cases, the operative mechanism is spraying controlled droplets, not smearing or pumping bulk flow onto the page. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify common inkjet types: thermal (bubble-jet) and piezoelectric.Both rely on micro-nozzles to eject controlled droplets.Thermal uses rapid heating to form a bubble; piezo uses crystal flexing to pressurize ink.Therefore, ink is sprayed onto paper via precisely controlled nozzles. Verification / Alternative check: User manuals and service guides describe nozzle cleaning cycles and test patterns, confirming nozzle-based droplet ejection as the transfer method. Why Other Options Are Wrong: “Boiling ink” is an oversimplification; only thermal jets create brief vapor bubbles, not continuous boiling. “Crystal” alone is incomplete; piezo crystals actuate, but the method is still nozzle ejection. “Motorized pump” is not how dots are formed at micrometer precision. “Screens deflect ink” describes older electrostatic systems, not modern inkjets. Common Pitfalls: Confusing the bubble formation in thermal heads with boiling, or assuming a mechanical pump paints the page. The key is droplet ejection through nozzles. Final Answer: Ink is sprayed onto the paper and metered by nozzles

Question 16

Checking a Fuse with a Digital Multimeter (DMM)  A DMM is set to measure resistance on the 20 kΩ range. What reading do you expect when measuring a good 2 A fuse (removed from the circuit)?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: A quick continuity test with a DMM verifies whether a fuse is intact. Technicians often use the resistance (ohms) function or the continuity beeper. Knowing the expected reading avoids misdiagnosis when the meter range is high relative to the very low resistance of a good fuse. Given Data / Assumptions: DMM on resistance function, 20 kΩ range selected. The fuse is rated 2 A and is tested out of circuit. A good fuse behaves as a near-short (very low resistance). Concept / Approach: The element inside a healthy fuse is a low-resistance conductor. On a typical DMM, a “good” fuse will read close to 0 Ω (often displayed as 0.0 or a few hundred milliohms, which rounds to 0.00 on a coarse range). An open fuse reads OL or a very large resistance beyond the selected range. Step-by-Step Solution: Set DMM to resistance (ohms), 20 kΩ range.Place probes across the fuse terminals.A good fuse exhibits near-zero resistance; meter displays approximately 0.00 on this high range.An open fuse would display OL or a very large value, indicating no continuity. Verification / Alternative check: Using the continuity mode should produce an audible beep, reinforcing the near-zero reading for a good fuse. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 0.02 or 0.20 suggest measurable resistance inconsistent with a simple intact fuse on a 20 kΩ range; 2.00 Ω is too high for most small fuses. “None of the above” is unnecessary because 0.00 is expected. Common Pitfalls: Testing in-circuit (parallel paths can mislead), touching probe tips together and forgetting to zero out lead resistance, or misreading OL as zero. Always isolate the fuse and use the proper range. Final Answer: 0.00

Question 17

Installing an EIDE Drive on Older PCs  To add an Enhanced IDE (EIDE) hard drive to a legacy system that lacks built-in support, which component would typically need to be upgraded or added?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Enhanced IDE (EIDE) introduced larger capacity support and improved transfer modes. Early systems without native EIDE often rely on add-in hardware to provide the necessary interface and onboard BIOS for drive recognition. Given Data / Assumptions: Legacy PC without integrated EIDE controller or with limited BIOS drive tables. An add-in controller can include its own BIOS extension to support larger drives. CPU upgrades are not a requirement simply to attach an EIDE drive. Concept / Approach: When the motherboard lacks EIDE capability, adding an IDE/EIDE controller card solves both the physical interface and the BIOS recognition issue. These cards typically include an option ROM that initializes the drive during POST, bypassing older system BIOS limitations. Step-by-Step Solution: Assess motherboard: if no EIDE channels or limited drive support, plan for an add-in controller.Install an ISA or PCI EIDE controller with onboard BIOS.Connect the EIDE drive with the proper ribbon cable and configure jumpers (Master/Slave or Cable Select).Verify detection during POST and partition/format within the OS. Verification / Alternative check: Controller BIOS banner during boot and OS-level detection confirm the solution. Drive overlay software was another workaround but less reliable than hardware controllers. Why Other Options Are Wrong: “RAM BIOS” is not a standard upgrade path. A 286 CPU is unrelated to the interface itself. Replacing the ISA motherboard is unnecessary if an add-in controller is available. “None of the above” is incorrect because a controller board is the right fix. Common Pitfalls: Forgetting to set PIO/DMA modes, mismatched jumpers, or mixing 40-wire and 80-wire cables improperly. Final Answer: Controller board

Question 18

Dot-Matrix Print Density Problems  On an impact (dot-matrix) printer, alternating light and dark print is most commonly caused by which condition?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Dot-matrix printers use a moving ribbon and pin head to strike dots onto paper. Print quality issues often trace back to consumables (ribbon) or mechanics (tractor feed). Recognizing the signature of specific faults speeds repair and reduces downtime. Given Data / Assumptions: Printer uses a ribbon cartridge with driven and take-up mechanisms. Symptoms: alternating bands of light and dark text or graphics across the page. Paper feed works otherwise normally. Concept / Approach: If the ribbon does not advance smoothly, some segments become ink-depleted while others are fresh. As the head prints, density alternates between light (overused ribbon area) and dark (fresh ribbon segment). This yields periodic banding consistent with ribbon slip or jam. Step-by-Step Solution: Observe density variation pattern across multiple lines/pages.Inspect ribbon cartridge and drive gears for wear or jamming.Replace or reseat the ribbon; ensure proper tension and engagement.Test print again to verify uniform density. Verification / Alternative check: A test page after installing a new ribbon should eliminate alternating light/dark bands, confirming ribbon advancement was the cause. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Erratic paper feed causes vertical misregistration or skew, not regular density cycles. Misalignment affects dot placement rather than density bands. Overheating is rare and typically causes shutdown/errors, not patterned density fluctuations. Common Pitfalls: Confusing dirty platen or head with ribbon problems; always check consumables first. Final Answer: Erratic ribbon advancement

Question 19

Minimum Required Components on a Video Adapter  Every discrete video (graphics) card must include which of the following components to function?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Graphics adapters render frames and store them in a frame buffer before scanning them out to a display. Identifying essential components helps when diagnosing failures or comparing specifications across cards and integrated solutions. Given Data / Assumptions: A discrete video card outputs images to a monitor. It must at least store the pixel data that composes a frame. Terminology: “CPU” generally refers to the system processor, not the GPU. Concept / Approach: Every traditional video card requires memory (VRAM) to hold the frame buffer and textures (even integrated GPUs borrow system RAM). While modern cards also include a GPU, older very simple adapters still needed some memory for the frame buffer. CMOS is not a standalone requirement on a graphics card. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify the non-negotiable: a frame buffer must reside somewhere.Discrete cards provide on-board RAM (VRAM, GDDR).Therefore, RAM is the universal requirement across designs. Verification / Alternative check: Spec sheets for any discrete VGA/SVGA/modern GPU list memory capacity; without it, no frame buffer exists to drive a display. Why Other Options Are Wrong: CMOS is a technology type, not a required separate component. “CPU” is not present on all video cards; they have GPUs or simple controllers. “All of the above” is too broad; “None” is incorrect because RAM is necessary. Common Pitfalls: Equating “CPU” with “GPU,” or assuming integrated graphics rules apply to discrete cards without VRAM. Final Answer: RAM

Question 20

Legacy COM Port I/O Base Addresses  What is the standard I/O base address for COM1 on IBM PC–compatible systems?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Identifying default I/O base addresses and IRQs for serial ports is essential when configuring or troubleshooting legacy hardware and embedded systems. COM1/COM2 assignments remain common knowledge in certification exams and service work on older equipment. Given Data / Assumptions: IBM PC–compatible hardware conventions. COM1 and COM2 are the first two serial ports. We are interested in the hexadecimal I/O base for COM1. Concept / Approach: By convention, COM1 uses base address 3F8h (IRQ4), and COM2 uses 2F8h (IRQ3). Other addresses like 3E8h and 5F8h are sometimes used for additional ports (COM3, COM4) but not the primary COM1. 3BCh corresponds to a legacy parallel port (LPT1 on some early systems). Step-by-Step Solution: Recall standard mapping: COM1 → 3F8h; COM2 → 2F8h.Scan options for 3F8.Select 3F8 as the correct I/O base. Verification / Alternative check: BIOS setup screens and OS device managers on legacy systems display COM1 at 3F8h. Technical references (datasheets for 16550 UART) confirm this mapping. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 3E8 and 5F8 are often assigned to COM3/COM4. 3BC belongs to a parallel port. “008” is not a valid serial base address. Common Pitfalls: Confusing COM and LPT addresses or mixing decimal and hexadecimal representations. Final Answer: 3F8

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