Question 1

Foodborne disease – staphylococcal enterotoxin incubation Staphylococcal food poisoning (due to preformed enterotoxin in contaminated food) most commonly manifests after approximately how many hours post ingestion?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Classical staphylococcal food poisoning results from ingesting heat-stable enterotoxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus in food. Because toxin is preformed, symptoms appear rapidly compared with infections that require bacterial growth in the gut. Given Data / Assumptions: Causative agent: S. aureus enterotoxins (A–E and others). Clinical picture: acute nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps; sometimes diarrhea. Preformed toxin shortens incubation. Concept / Approach: Preformed, heat-stable toxins cause emesis via vagal stimulation and cytokine release. Typical onset is quick—within a few hours—and recovery is usually complete within 24–48 hours. This distinguishes it from toxin-mediated infections such as Clostridium perfringens (longer incubation) or invasive pathogens (even longer). Step-by-Step Solution: Recognize preformed toxin etiology.Recall hallmark rapid onset window: about 2–6 hours.Select “2–6 hours.” Verification / Alternative check: Outbreak investigations often link staphylococcal illness to foods held at room temperature (e.g., cream pastries, mayonnaise-containing salads), with symptom onset a few hours after meals. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 8–12, 12–18, 18–36, 36–72 hours: more typical of other etiologies (e.g., C. perfringens, norovirus, salmonellosis) rather than classic preformed staphylococcal toxin. Common Pitfalls: Assuming all foodborne illness has similar incubation periods; timing is a powerful diagnostic clue. Final Answer: 2–6 hours.

Question 2

Diagnostic microbiology – coagulase production Which staphylococcal species is characteristically coagulase-positive and therefore a key pathogen in human disease?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The coagulase test differentiates pathogenic Staphylococcus aureus from coagulase-negative staphylococci (CoNS). Coagulase converts fibrinogen to fibrin, aiding immune evasion and abscess formation, and remains a cornerstone of bench-top identification. Given Data / Assumptions: Tube or slide coagulase assays detect enzyme activity. S. aureus is typically coagulase-positive. Common CoNS include S. epidermidis, S. saprophyticus, and others. Concept / Approach: Coagulase positivity correlates with virulence traits of S. aureus, including Protein A expression, cytotoxins, and surface adhesins. In contrast, CoNS are frequent skin commensals and opportunists (notably in device-associated infections) but lack coagulase. Step-by-Step Solution: Recall the canonical rule: coagulase-positive = S. aureus.Eliminate CoNS and micrococci.Select “Staphylococcus aureus.” Verification / Alternative check: Clinical labs routinely confirm S. aureus by coagulase and agglutination tests (e.g., detecting clumping factor, Protein A). Why Other Options Are Wrong: S. epidermidis, S. saprophyticus, S. hominis: coagulase-negative species. Micrococcus spp.: distinct genus, coagulase-negative. Common Pitfalls: Confusing slide coagulase (clumping factor) with tube coagulase (free coagulase); both are associated with S. aureus identification. Final Answer: Staphylococcus aureus.

Question 3

Urinary tract infections – second most common cause of cystitis in healthy sexually active women (after Escherichia coli) Which pathogen most commonly causes cystitis after Escherichia coli in otherwise healthy, sexually active young women?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Acute uncomplicated cystitis is most frequently caused by uropathogenic E. coli, but epidemiology also emphasizes a consistent second-place culprit in sexually active young women: Staphylococcus saprophyticus. Given Data / Assumptions: Population: healthy, sexually active females. Clinical syndrome: acute cystitis (dysuria, frequency, urgency). Common uropathogens vary by host factors and setting. Concept / Approach: S. saprophyticus is a coagulase-negative, novobiocin-resistant staphylococcus with tropism for the urinary tract. It adheres to uroepithelium and is prevalent in community-acquired cystitis in young women. Other organisms (Proteus, Klebsiella, Enterococcus) are important but less common in this demographic absent complicating factors. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify the demographic and syndrome.Recall hallmark association: S. saprophyticus second to E. coli.Select “Staphylococcus saprophyticus.” Verification / Alternative check: Outpatient UTI studies consistently list S. saprophyticus after E. coli among sexually active young women. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Proteus mirabilis: common in complicated UTIs and catheterized patients; urease-positive stones. Pseudomonas aeruginosa: nosocomial, associated with devices/antibiotics. Klebsiella pneumoniae: notable cause but less frequent than S. saprophyticus in this group. Enterococcus faecalis: seen in certain settings but not the typical second most common in healthy young women. Common Pitfalls: Assuming hospital pathogen rankings apply to community-acquired UTIs in otherwise healthy hosts. Final Answer: Staphylococcus saprophyticus.

Question 4

Antibiotic susceptibility – novobiocin resistance among staphylococci Which of the following staphylococcal species is classically resistant to novobiocin on diagnostic testing?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Novobiocin susceptibility helps differentiate coagulase-negative staphylococci in urinary isolates. A classic mnemonic—“Novobiocin: Sapro-resistant, Epidermidis-sensitive”—guides quick bench decisions. Given Data / Assumptions: All listed organisms are staphylococci relevant to human disease. Phenotypic susceptibility patterns are used alongside coagulase testing. Clinical context often involves urinary isolates from young women. Concept / Approach: S. saprophyticus is characteristically resistant to novobiocin, whereas S. epidermidis and most other coagulase-negative staphylococci are sensitive. This pattern supports rapid identification and appropriate reporting from the microbiology lab. Step-by-Step Solution: Recall mnemonic: “NO StRESS” (Novobiocin: Saprophyticus Resistant, Epidermidis Sensitive).Match to options and select the resistant species. Verification / Alternative check: Standard lab manuals document S. saprophyticus as novobiocin-resistant; QC organisms confirm disk results. Why Other Options Are Wrong: S. aureus, S. epidermidis, S. lugdunensis: generally novobiocin-sensitive. “None”: incorrect because a resistant species is present. Common Pitfalls: Misreading disk diffusion zones or conflating methicillin resistance with novobiocin resistance; they are unrelated traits. Final Answer: Staphylococcus saprophyticus.

Question 5

Staphylococcal haemolysins – action on human red blood cells Which staphylococcal haemolysin is noted for not causing lysis of human red blood cells (RBCs) under standard conditions?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Staphylococcus aureus produces several cytolysins (α, β, γ, δ) with differing target specificities. Understanding their activity aids interpretation of hemolysis patterns and correlates with pathogenic potential. Given Data / Assumptions: Different haemolysins act via distinct mechanisms (pore formation vs. enzymatic sphingomyelinase). Hemolysis is often studied using animal RBCs; species susceptibility varies. Human RBCs show differential sensitivity to these toxins. Concept / Approach: α haemolysin (alpha-toxin) forms pores and readily lyses human and rabbit RBCs. γ haemolysin is a bicomponent toxin targeting leukocytes but can lyse RBCs of various species under some conditions. δ haemolysin is a small peptide with broad but relatively weak cytolytic activity. β haemolysin (sphingomyelinase C) shows pronounced “hot–cold” hemolysis, especially of sheep RBCs, but it is notably ineffective against human RBCs due to low sphingomyelin content and membrane composition differences. Step-by-Step Solution: Review each haemolysin’s mechanism and species tropism.Note β haemolysin’s poor lysis of human RBCs versus strong effect on sheep RBCs.Select “β haemolysin.” Verification / Alternative check: Laboratory demonstrations classically use sheep blood agar to visualize β haemolysin hot–cold hemolysis; comparable lysis is not seen with human RBCs. Why Other Options Are Wrong: α haemolysin: efficiently lyses human RBCs by pore formation. γ haemolysin: can lyse RBCs and leukocytes, depending on conditions. δ haemolysin: exhibits broad cytolysis; not specifically non-hemolytic for human RBCs. PVL: leukocidin targeting neutrophils rather than RBCs; the question focuses on classic haemolysins. Common Pitfalls: Assuming all hemolysins behave similarly across species; membrane lipid composition drives susceptibility. Final Answer: β haemolysin.

Question 6

Staphylococcal virulence factors – Protein A localization Protein A, which binds the Fc portion of IgG and helps the bacterium evade opsonization, is a cell wall–associated component of which organism?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Protein A is a hallmark virulence factor of Staphylococcus aureus. By binding the Fc region of IgG, it orients antibodies incorrectly on the bacterial surface, reducing opsonization and phagocytosis. Detection of Protein A contributes to rapid identification in clinical laboratories. Given Data / Assumptions: Protein A is a surface-anchored protein (via sortase-mediated LPXTG motif linkage). It is characteristic of S. aureus, not broadly present in CoNS. Protein A contributes to immune evasion and virulence. Concept / Approach: Because Protein A binds IgG Fc, it interferes with complement activation and Fc receptor–mediated phagocytosis. Diagnostic latex agglutination kits often detect clumping factor and Protein A together to identify S. aureus rapidly from colonies. Step-by-Step Solution: Recall organism-specific virulence repertoire.Match Protein A with S. aureus cell wall localization.Select “Staphylococcus aureus.” Verification / Alternative check: Phenotypic tests (coagulase, clumping factor, Protein A) cluster with S. aureus identity; genomic analyses (spa gene) encode Protein A. Why Other Options Are Wrong: CoNS and micrococci lack canonical Protein A expression. “None” is incorrect because S. aureus is a definitive source. Enterococcus species are unrelated Gram-positive cocci lacking Protein A. Common Pitfalls: Assuming all staphylococci share identical virulence determinants; Protein A is a distinguishing factor of S. aureus. Final Answer: Staphylococcus aureus.

Question 7

Clinical microbiology screening: Which Staphylococcus species is known to ferment mannitol under anaerobic conditions (a property exploited on mannitol salt agar to differentiate pathogenic staphylococci)?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Differentiating staphylococci in the laboratory often relies on carbohydrate fermentation patterns and enzyme tests. Mannitol fermentation, especially under high salt conditions, is a classic screening step. This question targets recognition of the species most consistently able to ferment mannitol anaerobically. Given Data / Assumptions: Comparison is among common staphylococcal species encountered in clinical labs. Fermentation refers to anaerobic metabolism of mannitol with acid production. Mannitol salt agar (with 7.5% NaCl) is a standard differential medium. Concept / Approach: Staphylococcus aureus typically ferments mannitol, producing acid that turns indicator media yellow. This trait is useful for preliminary separation of S. aureus from coagulase-negative staphylococci such as S. epidermidis, which usually does not ferment mannitol. S. saprophyticus can be variable, but is not the canonical mannitol-fermenting staphylococcus used for routine screening. Step-by-Step Solution: Recall the differential principle of mannitol salt agar: salt selects for staphylococci; mannitol fermentation differentiates species. Identify the species most consistently positive for mannitol fermentation: S. aureus. Recognize that the test can be observed aerobically and anaerobically; fermentation indicates anaerobic acid production. Select “Staphylococcus aureus.” Verification / Alternative check: Clinical algorithms combine mannitol fermentation with catalase and coagulase testing. Coagulase-positive, mannitol-fermenting isolates are highly suggestive of S. aureus. Why Other Options Are Wrong: S epidermidis: Classically mannitol-negative; colonies keep the medium pink/red. S saprophyticus: Variable; not the prototypical mannitol fermenter used for differentiation. None of these: Incorrect because S. aureus does ferment mannitol. Common Pitfalls: Overreliance on a single plate reading; always confirm with coagulase and additional biochemical tests. Some atypical strains exist. Final Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

Question 8

Staphylococcal hemolysins and leukotoxicity: Which hemolysin produced by Staphylococcus lacks leukocidal (leukocyte-killing) activity?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Staphylococcus aureus elaborates several cytolysins (α, β, γ, δ) and leukocidins that contribute to tissue injury and immune evasion. Understanding their targets helps interpret pathogenic mechanisms and lab observations such as hemolysis patterns. Given Data / Assumptions: Leukocidal activity refers specifically to toxins that kill or strongly damage leukocytes. Hemolysins differ in substrate specificity and mechanisms (pore forming vs enzymatic). Panton–Valentine leukocidin (PVL) is a separate bicomponent leukotoxin (not among the four hemolysins listed), but γ hemolysin is related and leukotoxic. Concept / Approach: α hemolysin is a pore-forming toxin with broad cytotoxicity, including effects on leukocytes and platelets. γ hemolysin forms bicomponent pores and exhibits leukocidal activity. δ hemolysin is a surfactant-like cytolysin with broad, albeit weaker, cell membrane activity. β hemolysin (sphingomyelinase C) is a hot–cold hemolysin acting enzymatically on membrane lipids and is not characteristically leukocidal. Step-by-Step Solution: List hemolysins and their key properties. Associate leukocidal effects with α and γ (and PVL, though not listed). Recognize β hemolysin as sphingomyelinase lacking specific leukocyte-killing activity. Select “β haemolysin.” Verification / Alternative check: Hot–cold hemolysis due to β hemolysin on sheep blood agar exemplifies its enzymatic nature rather than leukocyte-specific cytotoxicity. Why Other Options Are Wrong: α haemolysin: pore-forming, leukotoxic among other effects. γ haemolysin: bicomponent leukocidal toxin. δ haemolysin: broad surfactant cytolysin; while not strongly leukocidal, it does exhibit general cytotoxicity; β is the recognized non-leukocidal hemolysin. Common Pitfalls: Confusing PVL (a distinct leukocidin) with γ hemolysin; both are leukotoxic, but β hemolysin is the enzymatic hemolysin without primary leukocidal action. Final Answer: β haemolysin

Question 9

Rapid identification of bound coagulase (clumping factor): Which laboratory test is specifically used to detect the clumping factor on the surface of Staphylococcus aureus?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Coagulase testing helps distinguish Staphylococcus aureus from coagulase-negative staphylococci. There are two forms: free coagulase (requires plasma factor) and bound coagulase (clumping factor) tethered to the cell wall. Knowing which assay detects which factor is essential in diagnostic workflows. Given Data / Assumptions: Bound coagulase agglutinates fibrinogen-coated particles or plasma directly on a slide. Free coagulase reacts with a plasma cofactor to form staphylothrombin in a tube. Precipitation tests are for soluble antigen–antibody interactions, not clumping factor. Concept / Approach: The slide coagulase test detects clumping factor by mixing a colony with plasma on a slide and observing rapid visible clumping within seconds to minutes. The tube coagulase test detects free coagulase by clot formation in plasma after incubation, which requires a coagulase-reacting factor present in plasma. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify the analyte: bound coagulase (clumping factor). Map assay to analyte: slide coagulase is designed for clumping factor. Rule out tube coagulase (free coagulase) and precipitation (not applicable). Select “slide coagulase test.” Verification / Alternative check: Latex agglutination kits using fibrinogen-coated particles also detect clumping factor rapidly, mirroring slide test principles. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Tube coagulase test: targets free coagulase; requires incubation. Precipitation test: unrelated to coagulase detection. None: incorrect because a standard slide method exists. Common Pitfalls: Misinterpreting autoagglutinating strains; always include a saline control to rule out false positives. Final Answer: slide coagulase test

Question 10

Toxin-mediated skin disease: Which specific Staphylococcus aureus toxin is responsible for the scalded skin syndrome (Ritter disease) characterized by widespread epidermal peeling?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS) is a toxin-mediated illness predominantly affecting infants and young children. Identifying the responsible toxin aids in understanding disease pathophysiology and in distinguishing it from toxin-independent skin infections. Given Data / Assumptions: Clinical picture: tender erythema with superficial epidermal splitting and desquamation. Causative agent: toxigenic S. aureus strains. Toxin targets desmosomal proteins in the superficial epidermis. Concept / Approach: Epidermolytic (exfoliative) toxins ETA and ETB are serine proteases that cleave desmoglein 1, disrupting keratinocyte cell–cell adhesion in the stratum granulosum. Enterotoxins cause food poisoning; leukocidins target leukocytes; hemolysins lyse red cells. Therefore, the toxin producing the scalded skin phenotype is the epidermolytic toxin. Step-by-Step Solution: Associate SSSS with toxin-mediated epidermal cleavage. Recall that exfoliative toxins specifically cleave desmoglein 1. Exclude enterotoxin (GI symptoms), leucocidin (WBC lysis), hemolysin (RBC lysis). Select “Epidermolytic toxin.” Verification / Alternative check: Histology shows a cleavage plane within the superficial epidermis without abundant bacteria, consistent with a circulating toxin rather than direct tissue invasion. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Enterotoxin: emesis and diarrhea from food poisoning, not epidermal peeling. Leucocidin: neutrophil lysis (e.g., PVL) leading to pus and necrosis, not SSSS. Haemolysin: erythrocyte lysis; not the cause of SSSS. Common Pitfalls: Confusing toxic shock syndrome (superantigen-mediated) with SSSS; different toxins and clinical pictures. Final Answer: Epidermolytic toxin

Question 11

Taxonomy check: Which genus or genera are classified within the family Micrococcaceae in classical bacteriology references?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Understanding family-level relationships helps in predicting phenotypic traits and ecological niches. The family Micrococcaceae, in traditional classifications, includes several Gram-positive coccoid genera with shared features. Given Data / Assumptions: We consider classical microbiology groupings commonly cited in medical and environmental texts. Genera listed are Gram-positive cocci frequently encountered in lab practice. Modern taxonomy evolves, but the exam context uses conventional groupings. Concept / Approach: The family Micrococcaceae has historically comprised Micrococcus, Staphylococcus, and Planococcus among others, reflecting similarities in cell morphology and biochemical behavior (catalase-positive, aerobic/facultative traits). Therefore, choosing the inclusive option best captures the traditional family composition. Step-by-Step Solution: List the candidate genera and recall their classical placement. Recognize that all three have been included in Micrococcaceae. Select the comprehensive answer “All of these.” Note that subfamily reassignments in newer systems do not change the intent of the question. Verification / Alternative check: Standard manuals have long grouped these genera together based on shared Gram stain and catalase-positive status, supporting the answer in conventional curricula. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Any single-genus choice would omit other valid members and thus be incomplete. Common Pitfalls: Over-focusing on recent phylogenetic splits; many exam questions rely on the classical framework. Final Answer: All of these

Question 12

Bench identification: Which bacterium is oxidase-negative yet catalase-positive—a combination characteristic that helps differentiate Gram-positive cocci in routine clinical labs?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Simple spot tests—catalase and oxidase—are often the first-line tools in bacterial identification. Recognizing typical result patterns streamlines workflows before more specific assays are performed. Given Data / Assumptions: Catalase test distinguishes staphylococci (positive) from streptococci (negative) using hydrogen peroxide bubbling. Oxidase test detects cytochrome c oxidase activity (positive in many Gram-negative aerobes). We compare common clinical genera. Concept / Approach: Staphylococcus species are catalase-positive and oxidase-negative. Streptococcus are catalase-negative. Neisseria and Pseudomonas are oxidase-positive Gram-negative organisms. Thus, the oxidase-negative/catalase-positive signature points to staphylococci. Step-by-Step Solution: Recall catalase: staphylococci bubble; streptococci do not. Recall oxidase: many Gram-negative aerobes (e.g., Neisseria, Pseudomonas) are positive; staphylococci are negative. Combine results: oxidase-negative + catalase-positive = Staphylococcus. Select “Staphylococcus.” Verification / Alternative check: Follow-up tests (coagulase, mannitol fermentation, novobiocin susceptibility) further speciate within the staphylococci, confirming the initial genus-level call. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Streptococcus: Catalase-negative. Neisseria/Pseudomonas: Oxidase-positive; also Gram-negative rods (Pseudomonas) or diplococci (Neisseria). Common Pitfalls: Using metal loops with catalase tests (false positives due to catalase-like metal activity). Use wooden sticks or plastic loops. Final Answer: Staphylococcus

Question 13

Typical features of Staphylococcus aureus on routine media: Most strains of S. aureus demonstrate which combination of laboratory characteristics?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Recognizing hallmark traits of Staphylococcus aureus supports rapid presumptive identification before definitive tests return. Pigmentation, enzyme production, and hemolysis collectively paint a characteristic laboratory picture. Given Data / Assumptions: Observation is on standard media such as sheep blood agar. “Most strains” implies common but not absolute traits. We consider phosphatase activity, golden pigment, and β-hemolysis. Concept / Approach: S. aureus often produces a golden carotenoid pigment (staphyloxanthin), shows β-hemolysis on sheep blood agar (though intensity can vary), and produces phosphatase. Taken together, these features are frequently present and help distinguish it from coagulase-negative staphylococci. Step-by-Step Solution: Assess pigment: golden-yellow colonies are typical of S. aureus. Assess hemolysis: many strains exhibit β-hemolysis. Assess enzymes: phosphatase production is common. Therefore, select the inclusive option “all of the above.” Verification / Alternative check: Parallel coagulase positivity strongly supports S. aureus when combined with these traits; MALDI-TOF or molecular assays can confirm. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Each single-feature option is incomplete; multiple typical features coexist in most strains. Common Pitfalls: Expecting every isolate to be strongly β-hemolytic or deeply pigmented; expression can vary with medium and incubation conditions. Final Answer: all of the above

Question 14

Selective effect of crystal violet: On blood agar containing crystal violet at 1:500,000, which group of bacteria is predominantly inhibited, a property used to facilitate isolation of streptococci?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Selective agents in culture media suppress certain flora to highlight target organisms. Crystal violet is one such agent that differentially affects Gram-positive cocci, aiding in the observation of streptococcal hemolysis. Given Data / Assumptions: Blood agar is supplemented with crystal violet at a dilution of 1:500,000. Goal is to reduce background growth of competing Gram-positive cocci. We evaluate inhibition patterns for streptococci versus staphylococci. Concept / Approach: Crystal violet inhibits the growth of many Staphylococcus species more than that of streptococci, thereby facilitating detection of streptococcal hemolysis. Thus, the medium is used when we want to see β-hemolytic streptococci without heavy overgrowth by staphylococci. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify the selective agent: crystal violet. Recall its effect: greater suppression of staphylococci. Choose the group predominantly inhibited: staphylococci. Confirm that streptococci remain relatively less affected, improving isolation. Verification / Alternative check: Many laboratory protocols specify crystal violet blood agar or colistin–nalidixic acid media to favor recovery of streptococci by limiting staphylococcal growth. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Streptococci: not the main group inhibited at this concentration. Both/None: do not reflect the selective purpose of the additive. Common Pitfalls: Assuming crystal violet equally inhibits all Gram-positives; its selectivity is leveraged intentionally to favor streptococci. Final Answer: Staphylococci

Question 15

Free coagulase detection: For which assay is the plasma coagulase-reacting factor (CRF) required to demonstrate Staphylococcus aureus coagulase activity?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Coagulase exists in two forms: bound (clumping factor) and free coagulase. Understanding the role of the plasma cofactor—coagulase-reacting factor (CRF)—is essential for selecting the appropriate diagnostic test in the lab. Given Data / Assumptions: Slide test detects clumping factor directly on the bacterial surface. Tube test detects free coagulase requiring CRF in plasma to form staphylothrombin. Precipitation tests are not designed for coagulase detection. Concept / Approach: In the tube coagulase test, free coagulase reacts with CRF present in plasma to convert fibrinogen to fibrin, forming a clot. The slide test bypasses CRF because it measures surface-bound clumping factor that directly agglutinates fibrinogen. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify which form of coagulase needs CRF: free coagulase. Match to assay: tube coagulase detects free coagulase via clotting. Exclude slide coagulase (bound coagulase) and unrelated precipitation tests. Select “tube coagulase test.” Verification / Alternative check: Failure to clot in the tube test with rabbit plasma suggests absence of free coagulase or technical issues; repeating with fresh plasma confirms CRF availability. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Slide test: independent of CRF; detects clumping factor. Precipitation/None: not applicable to coagulase mechanisms. Common Pitfalls: Reading tube tests too early and missing delayed clot formation; incubate and recheck up to 24 hours if clinically necessary. Final Answer: tube coagulase test

Staplylococcus Questions