Question 1

In heat transfer, the rate of energy loss or gain by thermal radiation from a body mainly depends on which combination of factors?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Heat can be transferred by conduction, convection, and radiation. Radiation is the process by which energy is emitted in the form of electromagnetic waves, and it can occur even through a vacuum. Understanding which factors affect radiative heat transfer is important in physics, engineering, climate science, and everyday applications such as thermal insulation and solar energy. This question asks you to identify the main factors that determine heat transfer by radiation from a body. Given Data / Assumptions: The focus is on heat transfer by thermal radiation, not conduction or convection. The body is at some temperature above absolute zero and may be surrounded by an environment at a different temperature. Options mention surface type and area, temperature, and nature of the body. We assume standard physics results such as the Stefan Boltzmann law and emissivity concepts. Concept / Approach: According to the Stefan Boltzmann law, the power radiated by a body is proportional to its surface area, its emissivity, and the fourth power of its absolute temperature. The emissivity depends on the nature and texture of the surface, such as whether it is rough, polished, dark, or shiny. The net radiative heat exchange between a body and its surroundings also depends on the temperature difference between them. Therefore, all three aspects mentioned in the options kind and extent of surface, temperature, and nature or emissivity of the body influence heat transfer by radiation, and the correct choice is the option that includes all of them. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the simplified Stefan Boltzmann law for a body: P is proportional to e * A * T^4, where P is radiated power, e is emissivity, A is area, and T is absolute temperature. Step 2: Recognise that the factor A shows that the total surface area directly affects how much energy is radiated or absorbed. Step 3: Notice that e, the emissivity, depends on the nature of the surface, such as whether it is black, white, rough, or polished, which determines how effectively it radiates energy. Step 4: Understand that the T^4 dependence indicates a very strong influence of temperature; hotter bodies radiate much more power than cooler ones. Step 5: Conclude that heat transfer by radiation depends simultaneously on surface characteristics, area, temperature, and material nature, so the combined answer that includes all these factors is correct. Verification / Alternative check: Everyday examples support this reasoning. A large hot metal plate radiates more heat than a small plate at the same temperature because it has greater area. A blackened surface on a solar cooker absorbs and emits radiation more effectively than a shiny polished one, illustrating the role of surface nature and emissivity. When an object is heated to higher temperatures, it glows red then white hot, demonstrating the strong dependence on temperature. These observations match the theoretical law and confirm that all listed factors influence radiative heat transfer. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The kind of surface and the total area of the surface: This is partially correct but ignores the strong influence of temperature and the detailed nature of the material. The absolute temperature of the body and its surroundings: Temperature is crucial but does not by itself determine radiative transfer without considering surface area and emissivity. The nature and emissivity of the material of the body: Important, but incomplete, since even a perfect radiator would emit more from a larger or hotter surface. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes focus only on temperature, thinking a hotter object must always radiate more, regardless of its size or surface properties. Others may think that colour alone determines radiation, ignoring area and temperature. To avoid these mistakes, remember the full dependence in the Stefan Boltzmann law, which combines area, emissivity, and temperature. Net heat exchange also considers the temperature of the surroundings, not just the object itself. Final Answer: Heat transfer by radiation mainly depends on all of the above factors acting together, including surface area, surface nature, and temperature of the body and its surroundings.

Question 2

In the human eye, change in focal length of the eye lens during accommodation (focusing on near and distant objects) is brought about by the action of which part?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The human eye is a remarkable optical instrument that can focus on objects at various distances. This ability, called accommodation, relies on changing the focal length of the eye lens so that images form sharply on the retina. Different parts of the eye contribute to vision, but only one structure actively changes the shape of the lens. This question checks whether you know which part of the eye is responsible for altering the focal length during accommodation. Given Data / Assumptions: The question concerns normal human eye anatomy. We focus on the process of accommodation, where the eye changes focus from distant to near objects and vice versa. Parts mentioned are ciliary muscles, iris, pupil, and retina. We assume standard school level knowledge of how the eye forms images. Concept / Approach: Accommodation involves changing the curvature of the flexible eye lens to adjust its focal length. This is achieved by the ciliary muscles, which form a ring around the lens and are attached to it via suspensory ligaments. When the ciliary muscles contract or relax, they alter the tension on these ligaments, causing the lens to become thicker or thinner. The iris controls the amount of light entering the eye by changing pupil size, but it does not change focal length. The retina is the light sensitive layer where images form, and the pupil is simply the opening through which light enters. Therefore, only the ciliary muscles directly change the focal length of the lens. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that to see near objects clearly, the eye must increase the curvature of the lens so that its focal length decreases. Step 2: To see distant objects, the lens becomes thinner and flatter, which increases its focal length. Step 3: The structure that physically changes the shape of the lens is the ring of smooth muscle called ciliary muscles, connected to the lens by suspensory ligaments. Step 4: When ciliary muscles contract, the tension on the ligaments decreases, allowing the lens to become thicker and more curved for near vision. Step 5: When ciliary muscles relax, the ligaments pull the lens flatter for distant vision, again changing the focal length, so the correct answer is the ciliary muscles. Verification / Alternative check: Diagrams and descriptions of the eye in biology and physics textbooks consistently link accommodation with the action of ciliary muscles. Medical conditions such as presbyopia, where near vision worsens with age, are described as resulting from reduced flexibility of the lens and weaker ciliary muscle action. The iris and pupil are discussed mainly in relation to light intensity control, and the retina is discussed as the site of photoreceptor cells that convert light into nerve signals. This separation of roles supports the conclusion that only the ciliary muscles control focal length. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Iris controlling the pupil opening: The iris changes the diameter of the pupil to regulate light entry but does not alter lens curvature or focal length. Pupil at the centre of the iris: The pupil is an aperture, not a muscular structure, and cannot change the shape of the lens. Retina lining the back of the eye: The retina receives the focused image and converts it into nerve impulses; it does not participate in adjusting focus. Common Pitfalls: Students often confuse the roles of iris and ciliary muscles because both are muscular structures near the front of the eye. It is important to remember that the iris changes the amount of light entering the eye, while the ciliary muscles change the shape of the lens. Another confusion is to think that the retina adjusts focus because it is involved in image formation; however, the retina is fixed in position and only receives the image, so it cannot change focal length. Final Answer: Change in focal length of the eye lens during accommodation is produced by the action of the ciliary muscles surrounding the lens.

Question 3

The transverse nature of electromagnetic waves is most clearly demonstrated by which phenomenon of light?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Electromagnetic waves, such as light, radio waves, and X rays, are known to be transverse waves. In a transverse wave, the oscillations of the electric and magnetic fields are perpendicular to the direction of propagation. Several optical phenomena demonstrate wave behaviour, but one particular effect provides strong evidence that these oscillations are transverse rather than longitudinal. This question asks which phenomenon clearly reveals the transverse nature of electromagnetic waves. Given Data / Assumptions: We are considering basic wave phenomena: reflection, polarisation, interference, and diffraction. Electromagnetic waves travel through vacuum and media with electric and magnetic field components perpendicular to the direction of propagation. The question focuses on distinguishing transverse and longitudinal waves. We assume school level understanding of these phenomena. Concept / Approach: Polarisation is the phenomenon in which the vibrations of a transverse wave are restricted to a single direction or plane. Only transverse waves can be polarised because they have a set of possible vibration directions perpendicular to propagation. Longitudinal waves, like sound in air, have oscillations only along the direction of propagation, so there is no meaningful way to restrict vibrations to one direction. Reflection, interference, and diffraction occur for both transverse and longitudinal waves and do not by themselves prove the transverse nature. Therefore, the observation and control of polarisation in light strongly supports the conclusion that electromagnetic waves are transverse. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the definition of a transverse wave: the oscillations are perpendicular to the direction of travel. Step 2: Understand that polarisation involves selecting waves with vibrations only in one direction, for example, vertical or horizontal, within the plane perpendicular to propagation. Step 3: Recognise that only a wave with multiple possible vibration directions perpendicular to propagation can be filtered this way, which is characteristic of transverse waves. Step 4: Note that experiments with polarising filters show that two polarising sheets crossed at 90 degrees can block almost all light, demonstrating that the oscillations have directional orientation. Step 5: Conclude that because light can be polarised, it must be a transverse wave, and therefore polarisation is the phenomenon that evidences its transverse nature. Verification / Alternative check: Consider sound waves in air, which are longitudinal. They show reflection, interference, and diffraction, but they cannot be polarised in the same sense as light. All displacements are along the line of travel, so there is no transverse direction to select. In contrast, electromagnetic waves can be linearly, circularly, or elliptically polarised, and many optical devices such as sunglasses and liquid crystal displays rely on this property. This difference between light and sound confirms that polarisation is the unique phenomenon that reveals the transverse nature of electromagnetic waves. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Reflection of light from a mirror: Reflection is a general wave phenomenon that does not distinguish between transverse and longitudinal waves. Interference of coherent light beams: Interference patterns arise whenever coherent waves superpose; both sound and water waves exhibit interference, so it does not by itself prove transversality. Diffraction of light at narrow openings: Diffraction occurs for many types of waves and also does not uniquely indicate whether a wave is transverse or longitudinal. Common Pitfalls: Learners sometimes think that any wave phenomenon involving light automatically reveals its full nature. However, only polarisation directly requires oscillations to have a direction perpendicular to propagation. It is important to separate the idea of wave behaviour in general from the specific question of whether the wave is transverse or longitudinal. Remember that interference and diffraction tell you that light is a wave, whereas polarisation tells you what kind of wave it is. Final Answer: The transverse nature of electromagnetic waves is most clearly demonstrated by the polarisation of light waves.

Question 4

In an electron microscope, to properly resolve a very small object, how must the de Broglie wavelength of the electrons compare with the diameter of the object?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Electron microscopes achieve very high resolving power by using electrons instead of visible light to form images of extremely small objects such as viruses, cell organelles, and crystal lattices. The resolving power of any microscope is fundamentally limited by the wavelength of the radiation or particles used to probe the specimen. This question asks how the de Broglie wavelength of electrons should compare to the size of the object in order to resolve it clearly. Given Data / Assumptions: We are dealing with an electron microscope that uses accelerated electrons having a certain de Broglie wavelength. The goal is to resolve a small object of a given diameter, meaning to see it distinctly. Resolution in wave based imaging systems is related to the wavelength used. We assume standard wave optics ideas and de Broglie wave behaviour of electrons. Concept / Approach: In microscopy and wave optics, the Rayleigh criterion states that the minimum resolvable distance between two points is of the order of the wavelength used divided by a numerical factor involving the numerical aperture. To resolve details of size d, the wavelength lambda of the probing radiation or particles should be smaller than or at least comparable to d. If the wavelength is much larger than the object, diffraction effects smear out the image, and fine details cannot be distinguished. For electron microscopes, electrons are accelerated to high energies to reduce their de Broglie wavelength to well below the dimensions of the structures being studied, thereby increasing resolution. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that the resolving power of a microscope improves as the wavelength of the radiation used decreases. Step 2: Understand that the de Broglie wavelength of an electron is given by lambda = h / p, where h is Planck constant and p is momentum. Increasing electron speed increases momentum and reduces wavelength. Step 3: For an object of diameter d, meaningful resolution requires lambda to be smaller than or at least comparable to d so that diffraction does not blur the object beyond recognition. Step 4: If lambda is much greater than d, the wave cannot resolve features of that size, similar to trying to see tiny details with very long wavelength radio waves. Step 5: Therefore, to resolve an object in an electron microscope, the electron wavelength should be smaller than or comparable to the object diameter, not larger. Verification / Alternative check: Consider visible light with wavelengths around 500 nanometres. Optical microscopes using such light cannot resolve objects much smaller than roughly 200 nanometres due to the diffraction limit. Electron microscopes achieve resolutions down to nanometres or even angstroms because electrons accelerated to high voltages can have de Broglie wavelengths of the order of 0.1 nanometres or less, which is much smaller than the typical features examined. This direct correlation between shorter wavelength and higher resolution confirms that the electron wavelength must be small compared to object dimensions for good resolving power. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The electron wavelength should be much greater than the diameter of the object: This would severely limit resolution, making it impossible to see fine details of the object. The electron wavelength should be exactly equal to the diameter of the object: There is no strict requirement of exact equality; the key idea is that wavelength should not exceed the feature size by a large factor and is preferably smaller. Resolution does not depend on the electron wavelength at all: This contradicts fundamental wave optics principles, which show that wavelength is a primary factor in resolving power. Common Pitfalls: A common error is to ignore wave behaviour and think only in terms of particle impacts, forgetting that electrons behave as waves at microscopic scales. Another mistake is to assume that using any electrons, regardless of their energy and wavelength, will always give better resolution than light. In reality, only high energy electrons with short de Broglie wavelengths provide superior resolving power. To avoid confusion, always connect resolution to the effective wavelength of the probing radiation or particles. Final Answer: To resolve a small object in an electron microscope, the electron wavelength should be smaller than or comparable to the diameter of the object so that fine details can be distinguished.

Question 5

In the kinetic theory of matter, the statement that forces of attraction most strongly limit the motion of particles in solids is:

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The kinetic theory of matter explains the different physical states of substances solid, liquid, and gas in terms of particle motion and intermolecular forces. In solids, liquids, and gases, particles have different degrees of freedom to move because the attractive forces between them differ in strength. This question asks you to judge whether the statement that forces of attraction limit particle motion most strongly in solids is correct according to kinetic theory. Given Data / Assumptions: We consider the three common states of matter: solid, liquid, and gas. Particles in each state experience forces of attraction that can be strong, moderate, or weak. We use the simple kinetic particle model taught at school level. The statement claims that attractive forces limit motion most in solids. Concept / Approach: In solids, particles are closely packed in fixed positions, usually in a regular lattice, and can only vibrate about these mean positions. This is because intermolecular forces are very strong and hold the particles firmly together. In liquids, the forces of attraction are still present but weaker, allowing particles to move past each other while remaining relatively close. In gases, intermolecular forces are very weak and particles move freely over large distances. Therefore, it is correct to say that the motion of particles is most restricted by attractive forces in solids compared with liquids and gases. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that in a solid, particles are tightly packed and arranged in an ordered structure with very little free space. Step 2: Understand that these particles cannot move freely from place to place; they mainly vibrate about fixed positions due to strong intermolecular forces. Step 3: Compare with a liquid, where particles are close but not fixed; attractive forces are moderate, so particles can slide past each other. Step 4: Compare with a gas, where particles are far apart and attractive forces are very weak, so motion is least restrained. Step 5: Conclude that forces of attraction indeed limit motion of particles most strongly in solids, so the statement is correct. Verification / Alternative check: Everyday observations support this theoretical picture. Solids have fixed shape and volume, indicating that their particles cannot rearrange easily. Liquids take the shape of their container but have a fixed volume, suggesting some freedom of motion but not complete. Gases have neither fixed shape nor fixed volume and expand to fill their container, showing that particle motion is least restricted. Heating a solid eventually leads to melting into a liquid and then boiling into a gas as energy overcomes attractive forces, again confirming that solids have the strongest particle binding and therefore the most limited motion. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The statement is incorrect: This is wrong because kinetic theory and observations both show that solids have the most restricted particle motion due to strong attractions. True only for liquids but not for solids: Liquids have less restriction than solids; they are intermediate between solids and gases, so this contradicts the model. True only for gases at high pressure: Even at high pressure, gas particles are more free to move than particles in a solid lattice, so gases do not have the most limited motion. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse arrangement and motion, thinking that because solids appear rigid, particles might not move at all. In reality, particles in solids vibrate but do not move past each other easily. Another mistake is to think that liquids have stronger attractive forces than solids because they flow, but it is actually the reduced structure and moderate forces that allow flow. To avoid confusion, focus on how free the particles are to move and how strong the attractive forces are in each state of matter. Final Answer: According to the kinetic theory of matter, the statement is correct: forces of attraction limit the motion of particles most strongly in solids.

Question 6

In geology, which condition must be true for metamorphism of rocks to occur?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Metamorphism is a key process in the rock cycle, transforming existing rocks into new metamorphic rocks under the influence of heat, pressure, and chemically active fluids. Unlike melting and solidification, metamorphism usually occurs without the rock becoming liquid. This question asks you to identify which condition is essential for metamorphism to occur, distinguishing it from other geological processes such as igneous activity or weathering. Given Data / Assumptions: We are dealing with the geological concept of metamorphism, not melting or erosion. The rock that undergoes metamorphism is called the parent rock or protolith. Options mention grain size, being underwater, solid state, and rock type. We assume typical conditions of regional and contact metamorphism within the Earth crust. Concept / Approach: Metamorphism is defined as the mineralogical, chemical, and structural adjustment of solid rocks to physical and chemical conditions that differ from those under which the rocks originally formed. Crucially, the rock remains in the solid state; if it melts completely, the process becomes igneous, leading to magma and later igneous rocks. Metamorphism can affect igneous, sedimentary, or earlier metamorphic rocks, so the parent rock need not be igneous. Grain size may increase or decrease depending on conditions, and metamorphism can happen deep underground, not only underwater. Therefore, the essential condition is that the parent rock is solid during metamorphism. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the standard definition of metamorphism as the solid state transformation of rocks under changing temperature, pressure, and fluid conditions. Step 2: Note that if the rock melts, it becomes magma and any subsequent cooling produces igneous rock, not metamorphic rock. Step 3: Understand that metamorphism can affect a wide variety of parent rocks, including sedimentary rocks such as limestone and igneous rocks such as basalt or granite. Step 4: Recognise that grain size may grow through recrystallisation or, in some cases, may become finer; there is no single requirement that grains always become smaller. Step 5: Conclude that the one necessary condition is that the parent rock remains in solid form, making option about the solid state the correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Geology textbooks describe regional metamorphism in mountain building zones, where enormous pressures and high temperatures act on rocks deep in the crust, but the rocks do not melt fully. Instead, minerals rearrange, and new minerals form in solid state. Contact metamorphism occurs when rocks are heated by nearby magma intrusions, again without complete melting of the host rock. Metamorphic textures such as foliation and banding are produced by solid state recrystallisation, not by crystallisation from a melt. These examples confirm that the solid state condition is central to metamorphism. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The grain size of the rock must always become smaller: In many metamorphic rocks such as schist and gneiss, grains actually grow larger through recrystallisation, so grain size need not always decrease. The entire process must take place underwater: Metamorphism commonly occurs deep underground under high pressure and temperature; it does not require being underwater at the surface. The parent rock must originally be an igneous rock: Sedimentary rocks like shale can metamorphose into slate or schist, showing that the parent rock can be sedimentary as well. Common Pitfalls: Students often confuse metamorphism with simple heating or melting. It is important to remember that metamorphism is a solid state process and that melting marks the boundary to igneous processes. Another common misconception is that only igneous rocks can undergo metamorphism, when in fact all rock types can be transformed given the right conditions. Keeping the definition of metamorphism in mind helps avoid such misunderstandings in exam questions. Final Answer: Metamorphism requires that the parent rock remain in the solid state during change, so the parent rock must be in solid form.

Question 7

A tennis ball machine serves a ball vertically upward from a height of 2 feet with an initial speed of 110 feet per second. Neglecting air resistance and taking g ≈ 32 ft/s^2 downward, after how many seconds does the ball reach its maximum height?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Vertical motion under gravity is a standard application of one dimensional kinematics. When a ball is thrown straight upward, its speed decreases due to the constant downward acceleration of gravity until it reaches maximum height where its instantaneous velocity becomes zero. This question asks you to determine the time taken for a tennis ball, served by a machine with a given initial speed, to reach its highest point. Understanding how to use basic equations of motion is essential for solving such problems. Given Data / Assumptions: Initial height above ground h0 = 2 ft (this does not affect the time to reach the top, only the total height). Initial upward speed v0 = 110 ft/s. Acceleration due to gravity g ≈ 32 ft/s^2 downward. Air resistance is neglected, and motion is purely vertical. We need the time when the ball attains maximum height, that is, when its velocity becomes zero. Concept / Approach: For vertical motion with constant acceleration, we use the kinematic relation v = v0 + a * t, where v is velocity at time t, v0 is initial velocity, and a is acceleration. At maximum height, vertical velocity becomes zero, so we set v = 0 and solve for t. Here, initial velocity is upward and positive, while acceleration due to gravity is downward and taken as negative. The initial height does not enter this particular calculation because time to reach the top depends only on the change in velocity under constant acceleration. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Choose upward as the positive direction. Then v0 = +110 ft/s and acceleration a = -32 ft/s^2. Step 2: At maximum height, the vertical velocity v becomes zero. Use the equation v = v0 + a * t. Step 3: Set v = 0 and substitute values: 0 = 110 + (-32) * t. Step 4: Rearrange to solve for t: -32 * t = -110, so t = 110 / 32. Step 5: Compute 110 / 32 = 3.4375 s, which rounds to approximately 3.44 s. Therefore, the ball reaches maximum height after about 3.44 seconds. Verification / Alternative check: We can cross check by using the symmetry of projectile motion. The time to rise to maximum height equals the time to fall back from maximum height to the same level if starting and ending speeds in magnitude are equal. The rise time is v0 / g in magnitude, which here is 110 / 32 ≈ 3.44 s. Another check is to estimate: if the speed were 96 ft/s, the time would be exactly 3 s (since 96 / 32 = 3). With a slightly higher speed of 110 ft/s, a rise time slightly above 3 s is expected, and 3.44 s fits this reasoning. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 2.87 s: This corresponds to a smaller initial speed than given and does not satisfy the equation 0 = 110 - 32 * t. 4.65 s: This would imply v0 ≈ 149 ft/s if v0 = g * t, which is much larger than 110 ft/s, so it is inconsistent with the data. 5.41 s: This is even larger and would require an even higher initial speed to reach the maximum height after this time under the same acceleration. Common Pitfalls: One common mistake is to include the initial height in the time calculation, even though it influences only the maximum height, not the time to reach the top. Another error is to use the wrong sign for acceleration, which can lead to negative time or double counting. Some students also try to use the displacement equation unnecessarily, making the algebra more complex. To avoid these issues, remember that the simplest relation for time to maximum height is v = v0 + a * t with v set to zero. Final Answer: The tennis ball attains its maximum height after approximately 3.44 s from the moment it is served upward.

Question 8

In nuclear physics, beta (β) decay of a typical radioactive nucleus results in the emission of which type of particle?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Radioactive decay is a process in which unstable atomic nuclei transform into more stable configurations by emitting particles or electromagnetic radiation. The main types of decay are alpha, beta, and gamma. Beta decay is especially important in nuclear physics and particle physics because it involves changes in the atomic number without major changes in mass number. This question asks you to identify which particle is emitted in a typical beta decay process as taught at school level. Given Data / Assumptions: The focus is on standard beta minus (β minus) decay commonly discussed in basic nuclear physics. We are not considering advanced cases such as beta plus decay unless explicitly stated. Options list electron, proton, neutron, and all of the above. We assume a typical neutron rich nucleus undergoing beta decay. Concept / Approach: In beta minus decay, a neutron in the nucleus transforms into a proton, an electron, and an antineutrino. The proton remains in the nucleus, increasing the atomic number by one, while the electron and antineutrino are emitted. The emitted electron is called a beta minus particle or simply beta particle. Thus, from the point of view of what leaves the nucleus as observable charged radiation, beta decay is characterised by the emission of high energy electrons. Protons and neutrons are involved in internal transformations but are not emitted in typical beta minus decay at this level of discussion. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall the basic reaction for beta minus decay: neutron transforms into proton plus electron plus antineutrino. Step 2: Recognise that the proton produced stays inside the nucleus, so the element changes to the next higher atomic number. Step 3: Understand that the electron produced is ejected from the nucleus at high speed and is detected as beta radiation. Step 4: Note that no free neutron is emitted in typical beta minus decay; the neutron is the particle that changes internally. Step 5: Conclude that the characteristic emitted particle in beta decay is an electron, known as a beta minus particle. Verification / Alternative check: Historical experiments on beta radiation showed that beta rays are deflected by electric and magnetic fields in the same way as high speed electrons, confirming that they consist of electrons. Alpha radiation was found to be helium nuclei, while gamma radiation is electromagnetic. Nuclear notation for beta decay also uses the symbol 0 -1 e to represent the emitted electron. In more advanced treatments, beta plus decay involves emission of a positron, but at basic level, when the term beta decay is used without qualification, it usually refers to beta minus decay with electron emission. Why Other Options Are Wrong: A proton: In beta minus decay, a proton is formed inside the nucleus but is not emitted; the nucleus retains it, leading to a new element with higher atomic number. A neutron: Beta decay starts from a neutron rich nucleus; free neutrons are not typically emitted in this process in basic examples. All of the above simultaneously: The nucleus does not emit all these particles at once in standard beta minus decay, so this option is incorrect. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes mix up what happens inside the nucleus with what comes out, leading to confusion between internal transformations and emitted radiation. It is helpful to think of the neutron changing identity inside the nucleus and ejecting only the electron and neutrino. Another confusion arises between alpha and beta decay; alpha decay emits heavy helium nuclei, whereas beta decay emits light electrons or positrons. Keeping these differences clear helps in answering nuclear physics questions correctly. Final Answer: In typical beta (β minus) decay, the nucleus emits an electron, known as a beta minus particle.

Question 9

A machine that is driven or powered by rotating blades to convert fluid flow or wind into useful mechanical or electrical energy is called a:

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Many modern energy systems use devices with rotating blades to capture energy from moving fluids such as water, steam, or air. These devices convert the kinetic or potential energy of the fluid into mechanical rotation, which can then be used to generate electricity or drive machinery. This question asks you to identify the correct technical term for a machine that is powered by rotating blades in this way. Given Data / Assumptions: The machine operates with rotating blades driven by a fluid such as water, steam, gas, or wind. The context includes hydroelectric, steam, gas, and wind power applications. Options include fumarole, turbine, solar panel, and none of the above. We assume standard definitions of energy conversion devices. Concept / Approach: A turbine is a machine with a rotor and blades designed so that a moving fluid imparts torque, causing rotation. This rotation can directly drive mechanical loads or be coupled to an electric generator to produce electricity. Different types include steam turbines in power plants, gas turbines in jet engines, water turbines in hydroelectric dams, and wind turbines that convert wind energy into electrical power. A fumarole is a natural steam vent in volcanic areas, not a machine. A solar panel converts sunlight into electricity using photovoltaic cells and has no rotating blades. Therefore, the correct term for a machine powered by rotating blades is turbine. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Identify the key features in the description: a machine, rotating blades, and conversion of flow energy into useful output. Step 2: Recall that a turbine is specifically designed to extract energy from a fluid stream using blades fixed to a rotor. Step 3: Connect common examples such as wind turbines, steam turbines, and water turbines, all of which fit the description given. Step 4: Compare this with a solar panel, which relies on semiconductor materials and sunlight, not rotating blades or fluids. Step 5: Conclude that the machine described is most accurately called a turbine. Verification / Alternative check: Descriptions of power plants frequently mention steam turbines driven by high pressure steam from boilers, gas turbines driven by burning fuel and compressed air, and water turbines turned by flowing water in dams. Wind farms are built with many large wind turbines whose blades are rotated by the wind to generate electricity. In each case, the term turbine is used for the blade based machine. Fumaroles are recorded in geology texts as natural volcanic vents, and solar panels appear in renewable energy discussions as flat modules, confirming that neither of these matches the rotating blade description. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Fumarole: A fumarole is a natural opening in the Earth crust that emits steam and gases; it is not a man made machine with blades. Solar panel: A solar panel converts sunlight directly into electricity using photovoltaic cells and has no rotating blades or fluid driven rotors. None of the above: Incorrect because turbine precisely fits the description of a machine powered by rotating blades. Common Pitfalls: Students may sometimes confuse different renewable energy devices if they focus only on the power source, such as sun or wind, and not on how the energy is converted. Remember that turbines always involve rotating blades and a moving fluid, whereas solar panels are static devices relying on light and semiconductors. Keeping these physical differences in mind helps in identifying the correct terminology in exam questions. Final Answer: A machine powered by rotating blades to convert fluid or wind energy into useful output is called a turbine.

Question 10

Hot springs at the Earth surface are heated geothermally by which material lying beneath the ground?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Hot springs are natural outlets where heated groundwater emerges at the Earth surface, often at temperatures significantly above the surrounding environment. These features are common in volcanic and tectonically active regions and are important for geothermal energy, tourism, and ecology. This question asks you to identify what actually heats the water in hot springs beneath the surface. Given Data / Assumptions: We are talking about geothermally heated hot springs, not artificially heated pools. The heating source lies underground. Options include groundwater, magma, an undefined term mitula, and air. We assume basic knowledge of Earth internal structure with crust, mantle, and molten regions. Concept / Approach: Geothermal heat originates from radioactive decay and residual heat from Earth formation. In volcanic and tectonically active areas, magma chambers and hot rock lie relatively close to the surface. Groundwater circulating through fractures in the rock comes into contact with these hot regions, absorbs heat, and then rises back to the surface as hot springs or geysers. The immediate heating source is hot rock or molten magma, not the cool groundwater itself or surface air. Strange terms like mitula do not correspond to recognised geological materials, so they are incorrect. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that geothermal regions often coincide with volcanic belts, where magma is present beneath the crust. Step 2: Understand that rainwater and surface water can percolate down through cracks and fractures in the rocks to deeper, hotter layers. Step 3: As this water approaches hot rocks or magma bodies, it absorbs heat and its temperature rises well above normal groundwater temperatures. Step 4: Heated water is less dense, so it tends to rise back towards the surface, where it can emerge as hot springs or, in more extreme cases, geysers. Step 5: Therefore, the direct underground heat source that warms the water is underlying magma or hot rock associated with it. Verification / Alternative check: Geological surveys show that many famous hot spring regions, such as those in Iceland, Yellowstone, and New Zealand, are located near active or dormant volcanic systems. Measurements of subsurface temperature gradients reveal very high temperatures at relatively shallow depths in these areas, consistent with the presence of magma or recently solidified hot intrusive bodies. These observations confirm that magma and hot rock are the primary geothermal heat sources for hot springs, not air or some unknown material. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Cool groundwater only: Groundwater is initially cool and becomes hot only after contact with deeper hot rock; it is not itself the original heat source. Mitula, a non existent material: This term does not correspond to any recognised geological substance and appears incorrect in this context. Ordinary surface air: Air at the surface can influence water temperature slightly, but it cannot heat water to the high temperatures observed in geothermal hot springs. Common Pitfalls: Some learners mistakenly think that hot springs are warmed simply by deep burial or by tropical climate. While depth and climate can influence temperature slightly, the high temperatures and constant warmth of geothermal springs usually require a much stronger heat source. Another confusion is between magma and lava; magma is molten rock underground, while lava is magma that has reached the surface. In this context, it is the underground magma or very hot rock that heats the groundwater. Final Answer: Hot springs are geothermally heated by underlying magma or hot molten rock beneath the Earth surface.

Question 11

In the context of human relations, the irritation threshold is best described as which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: In everyday life and in human relations training, the term irritation threshold is used to describe how tolerant a person is before becoming annoyed by certain behaviours, noises, or situations. Understanding this concept can help people manage conflicts, improve communication, and maintain healthier relationships. This question asks you to identify the most accurate description of irritation threshold among several similar sounding options. Given Data / Assumptions: The context is interpersonal behaviour and emotional response. Irritation threshold refers to a psychological point or level, not a physical quantity. Options mention length of time, specific action, frequency, and a point where annoyance starts. We assume common usage of the term in human relations and counselling literature. Concept / Approach: The irritation threshold is essentially the level of stimulus at which a person shifts from not being bothered to actually feeling annoyed. It is about the point of onset of irritation, not about the total duration or total number of events after irritation has already started. For some people, the threshold is low, and they become annoyed quickly; for others, the threshold is higher, and they tolerate more before reacting. Therefore, the best description focuses on the moment or point when a person first notices the behaviour and starts to feel irritation, not the entire history of the behaviour. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Note that the word threshold usually means a starting level or boundary at which something begins to happen. Step 2: Apply this to irritation: the threshold is the level of noise, frequency, or behaviour intensity at which a person first feels annoyed. Step 3: Distinguish between the beginning of irritation and the ongoing pattern of behaviour that may later worsen the annoyance. Step 4: Among the options, identify the one that describes a point in time when a person notices something and becomes annoyed, rather than total duration or frequency. Step 5: Conclude that the definition focusing on the point at which a person first notices and becomes annoyed is the correct description of irritation threshold. Verification / Alternative check: Human relations and communication training materials often describe irritation threshold as the personal limit beyond which a behaviour becomes bothersome. For example, one person may tolerate background chatter for a long time before feeling irritated, while another might become annoyed almost immediately. In both cases, the threshold is the moment when they cross from neutral to irritated. The concept is not defined as the total time the noise continues or the total count of events, but as the entry point into annoyance. This supports the answer that emphasises the point when annoyance begins. Why Other Options Are Wrong: The total length of time an annoying behaviour continues: This describes duration, not the starting point at which irritation is first felt. The specific action that first causes an annoyance: The action may be a trigger, but the threshold refers to the internal level or point of response, not simply the external event. The frequency with which an annoying behaviour is repeated: Frequency can influence when the threshold is reached, but it is not itself the definition of threshold. Common Pitfalls: Students may confuse causes of irritation with the internal psychological limit at which irritation begins. For example, loud music is the cause, but the irritation threshold is the volume level or duration at which a person personally starts to feel annoyed. Another mistake is to think that threshold describes how long someone stays irritated; in fact, it only marks the beginning. Remember that threshold language in psychology usually refers to the onset of a response, not its ongoing intensity or duration. Final Answer: In human relations, the irritation threshold is the point at which a person first notices something and begins to feel annoyed.

Question 12

In structural geology, tensional forces that pull rocks apart normally result in the formation of which type of fault?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Faults are fractures in the Earth crust along which blocks of rock have moved relative to each other. The type of fault that develops depends largely on the dominant stress regime in the region, such as tension, compression, or shear. Understanding which stresses produce which faults is important in geology, earthquake studies, and resource exploration. This question focuses on tensional forces, which pull rocks apart, and asks which kind of fault is normally produced under such conditions. Given Data / Assumptions: The setting involves tectonic forces acting on rock masses. Tensional forces act to stretch and pull rocks apart, increasing crustal length. Fault types listed include normal, strike slip, thrust, and reverse faults. We assume standard textbook definitions of these fault types. Concept / Approach: In a normal fault, the hanging wall block moves downward relative to the footwall block along a steeply dipping fault plane. This movement is associated with crustal extension and tensional stress, which pulls the blocks apart and allows the upper block to drop. In contrast, reverse and thrust faults are associated with compressional forces that shorten and thicken the crust, causing the hanging wall to move upward. Strike slip faults accommodate horizontal shear motion without significant vertical displacement. Therefore, tensional forces are most closely linked with normal fault formation. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that tensional stress tends to pull rock masses away from each other, creating an extensional environment. Step 2: In such an environment, blocks of crust can move downward along steep fractures as the region stretches and subsides. Step 3: A normal fault is defined by downward movement of the hanging wall relative to the footwall, and it typically forms where the crust is being extended. Step 4: Reverse and thrust faults, by contrast, form where the crust is under compression, pushing blocks together rather than pulling them apart. Step 5: Strike slip faults involve mostly horizontal motion due to shear stress, not tensional stress that increases crust length. Verification / Alternative check: Geological maps of rift valleys, mid ocean ridges, and extensional basins show numerous normal faults bounding blocks that have dropped down to form grabens. These settings are known to be dominated by tensional forces as tectonic plates move apart. In contrast, mountain ranges formed by plate collisions display many reverse and thrust faults, consistent with compressional regimes. Major strike slip faults such as the San Andreas fault in California are associated with horizontal shear motion, reinforcing the connection between different stress types and fault geometries. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Strike slip faults with horizontal movement: These primarily result from shear stress where two blocks slide past each other horizontally, not from pure tension. Thrust faults with shallow angle compression: Thrust faults are a type of reverse fault formed by strong compression that shortens the crust, opposite of tensional extension. Reverse faults with hanging wall moving upward: Reverse faults also form in compressional environments where rocks are pushed together, not pulled apart. Common Pitfalls: Students may confuse the names normal and reverse, thinking that normal means common or typical and reverse is strange, without linking them to stress regimes. A more reliable approach is to remember that normal faults involve extension and downward movement of the hanging wall, while reverse and thrust faults involve compression and upward movement. Drawing simple block diagrams and arrows for tension and compression can help reinforce these connections for exam questions. Final Answer: Tensional forces that pull rocks apart normally cause normal faults where the hanging wall moves downward relative to the footwall.

Question 13

When a neutral atom loses an electron from its outer shell, it becomes which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Atoms are made up of positively charged protons and neutral neutrons in the nucleus, surrounded by negatively charged electrons. In a neutral atom, the number of protons equals the number of electrons, so the net charge is zero. When atoms lose or gain electrons, they become ions with a net positive or negative charge. This question asks you to identify what happens when a neutral atom loses an electron from its outer shell. Given Data / Assumptions: Initially, the atom is neutral, so total positive charge equals total negative charge. One or more electrons are removed from the atom. The nucleus, containing protons and neutrons, remains unchanged in this process. We assume basic atomic structure knowledge from school chemistry or physics. Concept / Approach: The total charge of an atom is determined by the balance between positively charged protons and negatively charged electrons. Removing an electron decreases the amount of negative charge while leaving the positive charge unchanged. As a result, there is an excess of positive charge, and the atom becomes a positively charged ion, known as a cation. If an atom were to gain an electron instead, it would become a negatively charged ion, called an anion. Neutrons are uncharged and do not directly affect the net charge when electrons are lost or gained. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Start from a neutral atom where the number of protons equals the number of electrons, making the net charge zero. Step 2: Consider the effect of losing one electron. The number of electrons decreases by one, so the negative charge decreases. Step 3: The nucleus still contains the same number of protons, so the total positive charge is unchanged. Step 4: With fewer electrons than protons, the net charge becomes positive, and the atom is now a positively charged ion. Step 5: Such positively charged ions are called cations, so the correct answer is that the atom becomes a positive ion. Verification / Alternative check: Consider a simple example such as a sodium atom with 11 protons and 11 electrons. In neutral form, its net charge is zero. If it loses one electron during a chemical reaction, it now has 11 protons and 10 electrons, giving a net charge of +1. This species is written as Na^+ and is called a sodium ion, a classic example of a cation formed by electron loss. Similar reasoning applies to many metals in ionic compounds, confirming that losing electrons produces positive ions. Why Other Options Are Wrong: A neutron: A neutron is a neutral particle inside the nucleus; losing an electron does not convert the atom into a neutron. A negative ion: A negative ion or anion forms when an atom gains electrons, not when it loses them. An unchanged neutral atom: Removing an electron changes the balance of charges, so the atom can no longer remain neutral. Common Pitfalls: Some learners get confused between losing and gaining electrons, reversing the sign of the resulting ion. A helpful tip is to recall that electrons are negative; losing negative charge leaves the atom with more positive charge, while gaining electrons adds negative charge. Another mistake is to think that changing electrons changes the element itself; in fact, the element identity is determined by protons, and only the ionisation state changes when electrons are added or removed. Final Answer: When a neutral atom loses an electron, it becomes a positive ion, also called a cation.

Question 14

In meteorology, air is said to be saturated when which of the following conditions is reached?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The concepts of humidity and saturation are important in weather forecasting, cloud formation, and the study of climate. When air cannot hold any more water vapour at a given temperature and pressure, it is described as saturated. This condition is closely associated with dew point, condensation, and the formation of fog or clouds. This question asks you to identify the correct definition of saturated air among several options. Given Data / Assumptions: We are dealing with atmospheric air that contains varying amounts of water vapour. Temperature plays a major role in how much water vapour air can hold. Options suggest pressure, maximum water vapour content, air thickness, and barren land as possible conditions. We assume standard meteorological definitions of saturation and humidity. Concept / Approach: At a given temperature, there is a maximum partial pressure of water vapour that air can sustain in equilibrium with liquid water. When this limit is reached, the air is saturated and relative humidity is 100 percent. Any further cooling or addition of water vapour will lead to condensation. Saturation is not defined by minimum total air pressure, thickness of the air column, or the type of land over which the air is moving. It is specifically about the maximum content of water vapour the air can hold at that temperature and pressure. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that warm air can hold more water vapour than cold air; the saturation level depends strongly on temperature. Step 2: Understand that saturation occurs when the rate of water molecules entering the air from evaporation equals the rate condensing back to liquid, establishing equilibrium. Step 3: At this equilibrium, the air contains the maximum possible water vapour for that temperature, and relative humidity becomes 100 percent. Step 4: Recognise that total air pressure and the nature of the surface (barren or vegetated) can influence humidity but do not define saturation. Step 5: Conclude that air is said to be saturated when it contains the maximum possible amount of water vapour at the prevailing temperature. Verification / Alternative check: Weather reports often mention dew point, which is the temperature to which air must be cooled for saturation to occur. At dew point, air can no longer hold additional water vapour and condensation begins, forming dew, fog, or clouds. Relative humidity is defined as the ratio of current water vapour content to the maximum possible at that temperature, expressed as a percentage. When this ratio reaches 100 percent, the air is saturated. These standard definitions confirm that saturation refers to maximum water vapour content, not to minimum pressure or other unrelated factors. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Its pressure is at the minimum possible value: Air pressure can be low or high regardless of saturation; saturation concerns water vapour content, not total pressure alone. Its thickness above the ground is at a maximum: The vertical thickness of the atmosphere is not how meteorologists define saturation. It is blowing over completely barren land: While surface conditions affect evaporation rates, they do not by themselves determine whether air is saturated. Common Pitfalls: Learners may confuse saturation with high humidity in general, thinking that air is saturated whenever it feels very humid. In reality, saturation is a precise condition where relative humidity reaches 100 percent. Another confusion is between total air pressure and water vapour pressure; only the latter directly relates to saturation. Remember that saturation means the air is holding as much water vapour as it can at that temperature, and any further cooling will cause condensation. Final Answer: Air is said to be saturated when it contains the maximum possible amount of water vapour at that temperature.

Question 15

In the context of motion and collisions, the force of impact is best described as the force that acts:

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: When two objects collide, such as a moving car hitting a barrier or a hammer striking a nail, they exert very large forces on each other for a very short time. These forces are often referred to as forces of impact. Understanding what creates the force of impact and when it acts is important in physics, engineering design, and safety analysis. This question asks you to choose the best description of the force of impact from several possibilities. Given Data / Assumptions: We are considering collisions between objects, not steady motion. Impact involves a rapid change in momentum during a short time interval. Options mention weight, speed, collision moment, and absence of contact. We assume Newton laws of motion and the impulse momentum concept. Concept / Approach: Force of impact arises during a collision when the momentum of the objects changes abruptly. According to Newton second law in impulse form, the average impact force is related to the change in momentum divided by the short time over which the collision occurs. The weight of the objects and their speed contribute to the momentum, but the impact force itself is associated specifically with the contact interaction during collision. It does not act before contact or without contact. Therefore, the best description is the one that emphasises the force acting when the objects meet and experience a rapid change in momentum. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that momentum p is defined as mass times velocity, p = m * v. Step 2: During a collision, the velocity of each object changes significantly in a very short time, producing a large change in momentum. Step 3: The average impact force F during the collision can be described by F = Δp / Δt, where Δp is the change in momentum and Δt is the short contact time. Step 4: This force is present only while the objects are in contact or interacting strongly, that is, at the moment they meet and collide. Step 5: Conclude that the force of impact is properly described as the force that acts when the objects meet, causing a rapid change in momentum. Verification / Alternative check: Consider a car crash scenario. Before impact, the car has weight and speed, but the large destructive forces appear only when the car hits another object and its momentum changes sharply. Similarly, a hammer held stationary above a nail exerts only its weight, but when it is swung and strikes the nail, the sudden deceleration of the hammer creates a large impact force that drives the nail in. These examples illustrate that weight and speed are contributing factors, but the force of impact is specifically associated with the collision event itself. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Due only to the weight of the objects before they move: Weight is a force due to gravity acting continuously, not the short, intense force of impact during a collision. Due only to the speed of the object without any collision: High speed alone does not create an impact force; the force arises when speed changes rapidly due to collision. Only when no contact occurs between the objects: This directly contradicts the idea of impact, which requires contact or strong interaction between bodies. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes think that impact force is simply the weight multiplied by speed or some similar combination, rather than understanding it as related to the rate of change of momentum. Another confusion is failing to distinguish between forces acting continuously (like weight) and transient forces that occur only during a collision. To avoid mistakes, remember that impact is linked to a short time interval, large change in velocity, and the corresponding large force predicted by Newton laws. Final Answer: The force of impact is the force that acts at the instant when the objects meet and collide, causing a rapid change in momentum.

Question 16

When an unbalanced (net) force acts on an object, which of the following statements about the object motion is correct?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Newton laws of motion describe how forces affect the motion of objects. An important distinction is between balanced forces, which cancel each other and produce no change in motion, and unbalanced forces, which lead to acceleration. Understanding the effects of an unbalanced or net force on an object is fundamental to analysing everyday situations such as pushing a cart, braking a car, or changing direction while running. This question asks which description of the effect of an unbalanced force is correct. Given Data / Assumptions: An unbalanced force means the net force on the object is not zero. Newton second law applies: net force equals mass times acceleration, F net = m * a. Options discuss change in motion, change in speed and direction, starting motion, and all of these. We assume a classical mechanics context without relativistic effects. Concept / Approach: According to Newton first law, an object at rest remains at rest and an object in motion continues in a straight line at constant speed unless acted upon by a net external force. Newton second law quantifies this by stating that an unbalanced force produces acceleration, which is any change in velocity. Velocity includes both speed and direction, so acceleration can mean speeding up, slowing down, or changing direction. Therefore, an unbalanced force can cause an object to start moving, speed up, slow down, or change direction. All of the individual effects listed in the options are possible outcomes of a net force, so the most complete statement is that all of the above can occur. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Note that an unbalanced force implies F net is not zero, so there is a non zero acceleration a = F net / m. Step 2: Recognise that acceleration means a change in velocity, which covers changes in speed, direction, or both at once. Step 3: For an object initially at rest, a net force will produce a non zero acceleration, causing it to start moving. Step 4: For an object already in motion, a net force in the direction of motion will increase its speed, while a net force opposite to the motion will decrease its speed. Step 5: A net force at an angle to the current motion can change the direction of motion, as in circular motion where centripetal force keeps changing direction while speed remains nearly constant. Verification / Alternative check: Everyday examples confirm these principles. A stationary football starts moving when kicked because a net force acts on it. A moving car speeds up when the driver presses the accelerator, slows down when brakes are applied, and changes direction when the steering wheel is turned; all of these manoeuvres involve unbalanced forces. A planet in orbit around the Sun constantly changes direction due to gravitational force, even if its speed is nearly constant, illustrating change in velocity due to net force. These observations match the idea that an unbalanced force always causes some form of change in motion. Why Other Options Are Wrong (individually incomplete): It causes a change in the motion of the object: This is correct but general; it does not highlight the specific ways in which motion can change. It changes the speed and or direction of the object: Also correct, but still only part of the full description that includes starting motion from rest. It can cause an object at rest to start moving: Correct, but does not mention effects on objects already in motion. Common Pitfalls: Some learners think force is needed to keep an object moving at constant speed, which contradicts Newton first law. In fact, continuous force is only needed to overcome other forces like friction. Another mistake is to focus only on changes in speed and ignore changes in direction as real acceleration. Remember that any change in velocity, including direction only, indicates that an unbalanced force is acting. Therefore, the answer that includes all types of motion changes is the most accurate. Final Answer: When an unbalanced force acts on an object, all of the above effects can occur: it can change the object motion, alter its speed or direction, and even start motion from rest.

Question 17

A voltaic cell (or galvanic cell) primarily converts which form of energy into electrical energy?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Voltaic cells, also known as galvanic cells, are the basic building blocks of batteries. They are widely used in everyday devices such as phones, flashlights, and cars. Understanding what kind of energy conversion takes place inside a voltaic cell is fundamental in chemistry and physics. This question asks you to identify the form of energy that is produced by a voltaic cell from the energy stored in chemical substances. Given Data / Assumptions: A voltaic cell contains two different electrodes and an electrolyte. Spontaneous redox reactions occur at the electrodes. Energy stored in chemical bonds is released during these reactions. We are asked which form of energy is generated as the useful output. Concept / Approach: In a voltaic cell, chemical energy is converted into electrical energy by spontaneous oxidation reduction reactions. At one electrode, oxidation releases electrons; at the other, reduction consumes electrons. The movement of electrons through an external circuit constitutes an electric current, and the potential difference between the electrodes drives charges around the circuit. While some heat may be generated as a side effect, the primary useful form of energy output is electrical energy. Mechanical or light energy are not directly produced in a simple voltaic cell; they may be produced by devices powered by the cell, such as motors or lamps, but not by the cell itself. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recognise that the driving force in a voltaic cell is a spontaneous chemical reaction between substances at the electrodes. Step 2: Understand that during this reaction, electrons are released at the anode and flow through the external circuit to the cathode. Step 3: This flow of electrons, along with ion movement in the electrolyte, constitutes an electric current and establishes a measurable voltage across the cell terminals. Step 4: The energy released from chemical bonds is thus converted into electrical energy that can power external devices. Step 5: Conclude that the primary energy conversion in a voltaic cell is from chemical energy to electrical energy. Verification / Alternative check: Consider a simple zinc copper cell. Zinc atoms at the anode lose electrons and go into solution as zinc ions, while copper ions at the cathode gain electrons and plate out as copper metal. The difference in electrode potentials leads to a cell voltage. When the electrodes are connected through a wire and a device such as a bulb, the electrical energy delivered to the bulb comes directly from the chemical reactions taking place in the cell. Over time, as the reactants are consumed, the cell voltage drops and the battery is said to be discharged, confirming that the energy source was chemical in nature and the useful output was electrical. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Heat energy: Some heat may be produced due to inefficiencies, but the main useful output of a voltaic cell is electrical energy, not heat. Mechanical energy: Mechanical energy is produced by motors or mechanical devices powered by batteries, not directly by the electrochemical cell itself. Light energy: Light is produced by lamps or LEDs that use electrical energy from the cell; it is not the primary energy form generated in the cell. Common Pitfalls: Students sometimes confuse the final application of the energy with the form generated inside the device. For example, a battery powered torch produces light, but the battery itself generates electrical energy, which the bulb then converts into light and heat. To answer questions correctly, separate the internal energy conversion in the cell from the energy conversions in external devices. In a voltaic cell, the key conversion is always from chemical energy stored in reactants to electrical energy in the external circuit. Final Answer: A voltaic cell converts chemical energy stored in reactants into electrical energy that can be used to power external devices.

Question 18

Which of the following measurements correctly represents the pressure of a gas?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Gas properties are often described by variables such as pressure, temperature, and density. Each property has its own appropriate units. Being able to recognise which units correspond to which physical quantity is crucial when working with gas laws like Boyle law and Charles law. This question asks you to identify which of the given measurements represents the pressure of a gas, as opposed to its temperature or density. Given Data / Assumptions: We are considering standard physical quantities: pressure, temperature, and density. Units given include millimetres of mercury (mm Hg), kelvin (K), and grams per cubic centimetre (g/cm^3). We assume familiarity with common units used in gas law problems. We look for the unit that is traditionally used for pressure. Concept / Approach: Pressure is defined as force per unit area and in the context of gases is often measured in units such as pascals (Pa), atmospheres (atm), bar, or millimetres of mercury (mm Hg). Temperature is measured in degrees Celsius or kelvin (K), and density is measured as mass per unit volume, for example in g/cm^3 or kg/m^3. Therefore, among the given units, mm Hg is the one that corresponds to pressure, K to temperature, and g/cm^3 to density. The correct measurement for gas pressure among the options is the one expressed in mm Hg. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that pressure in gas law problems is often given in atmospheres, kilopascals, or millimetres of mercury. Step 2: Recognise that 1 atmosphere is equal to 760 mm Hg at standard conditions, establishing mm Hg as a pressure unit. Step 3: Identify that kelvin (K) is the SI unit of absolute temperature, not pressure. Step 4: Recognise that grams per cubic centimetre (g/cm^3) measures mass per unit volume, which is density, not pressure. Step 5: Therefore, the measurement 450 mm Hg represents gas pressure, while the other values represent different physical quantities. Verification / Alternative check: Practical examples include blood pressure readings, which are often given in mm Hg (for example, 120/80 mm Hg), and barometer readings reporting atmospheric pressure in mm Hg. Gas law calculations in chemistry often convert between atm and mm Hg using the relation 1 atm = 760 mm Hg. Temperature in kelvin appears in the ideal gas law PV = nRT, but here K clearly labels temperature. Density units like g/cm^3 are used in discussions of mass and volume relationships, confirming that these units do not represent pressure. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 315 K: Kelvin is a unit of temperature and is used to measure how hot or cold a gas is, not how much force it exerts per unit area. 251 g/cm^3: Grams per cubic centimetre is a unit of density, describing how much mass is contained in a given volume. None of the above: This would be correct only if none of the choices represented pressure, but 450 mm Hg clearly does, so this option is wrong. Common Pitfalls: Students may sometimes rely on the magnitude of the number rather than the unit, thinking a large number always indicates pressure or energy. Always focus on the units, not just the numerical value. Another common confusion is between atmosphere as a physical environment and atmosphere as a unit of pressure. Remember that millimetres of mercury were historically used in barometers to measure atmospheric pressure, which helps connect the unit mm Hg with the concept of gas pressure. Final Answer: The measurement that describes the pressure of a gas is 450 mm Hg.

Question 19

In electrical engineering, the standard SI derived unit used to measure electric power is the:

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Electric power is the rate at which electrical energy is transferred or converted per unit time. It is an important quantity when describing the performance of electrical devices such as bulbs, motors, and heaters. Each physical quantity has an associated SI unit, and knowing the correct unit for power helps in interpreting ratings like 60 W lamps or 2 kW heaters. This question asks you to identify the correct SI derived unit used specifically for electric power. Given Data / Assumptions: The focus is on electric power, not on energy, voltage, or angle. Options include steradian, watt, joule, and volt. We assume the standard relation P = V * I for power, where P is power, V is voltage, and I is current. We also recall the relationship between power and energy: energy equals power multiplied by time. Concept / Approach: In the SI system, power is measured in watts, symbol W. One watt is defined as one joule of energy transferred per second, W = J/s. Electric power is often calculated as P = V * I, the product of potential difference and current. Joule is the SI unit of energy, not power, and volt is the SI unit of electric potential difference. Steradian is the SI unit of solid angle. Therefore, among the given choices, only watt correctly represents the unit of electric power. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that power is defined as energy transferred per unit time, mathematically P = E / t. Step 2: In SI units, energy E is measured in joules (J) and time t in seconds (s), so power P is measured in joules per second, J/s. Step 3: The derived SI unit representing one joule per second is called the watt, symbol W. Step 4: In electric circuits, power is also expressed as P = V * I, and the result is still measured in watts. Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is watt, not joule, volt, or steradian. Verification / Alternative check: Look at common electrical appliance ratings. A typical light bulb might be rated 60 W, a microwave oven 800 W, and a room heater 2000 W or 2 kW. Energy bills often show consumption in kilowatt hours (kWh), which is power in kilowatts multiplied by time in hours. This reinforces the idea that watt is the unit of power while energy is often measured in joules or kilowatt hours. Volt appears in voltage ratings such as 230 V mains supply, and joule appears in mechanical and electrical energy calculations, confirming their different roles. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Steradian: This is the SI unit of solid angle used in geometry and radiometry, not related to electric power. Joule: Joule is the SI unit of energy, not the rate at which energy is used or produced. Volt: Volt is the SI unit of electric potential difference, appearing in formulas for power but not itself a unit of power. Common Pitfalls: A common mistake is to confuse energy and power, using joule and watt interchangeably. Remember that energy tells you how much work is done, while power tells you how fast that work is done. Another confusion arises from kilowatt hour appearing on electricity bills; students may think it is a unit of power because it contains watt, but in fact it is a unit of energy. Keeping the definitions P = E / t and W = J/s in mind will help you choose the correct unit in exam questions. Final Answer: The standard SI derived unit for measuring electric power is the watt (symbol W).

Question 20

In an ordinary passenger car, which type of mirror is used as the external rear view mirror and why is that type preferred for drivers?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Rear view mirrors in cars are a very common safety feature, yet many learners are not fully aware of the type of mirror used and the reason for choosing that particular type. This question tests basic understanding of image formation by spherical mirrors in geometrical optics and connects it directly to a real life application in road safety and driving comfort. Given Data / Assumptions: We are talking about the external rear view mirrors fitted on the sides of ordinary passenger cars. The driver needs to see vehicles and objects behind and to the side of the car. The mirror should provide a reasonably large field of view so that blind spots are reduced. The options include convex mirror, concave mirror, plane mirror and parabolic mirror. Concept / Approach: In geometrical optics, different types of mirrors form images with different characteristics. A convex mirror forms a virtual, erect and diminished image of objects placed in front of it and also provides a wider field of view. A concave mirror may form magnified or inverted images depending on the object position and has a narrow useful field of view for distant objects. A plane mirror gives images of the same size as the object and offers a moderate field of view. For safety, a driver wants to see a large area behind the vehicle even if the images are slightly smaller. Therefore, convex mirrors are preferred for car rear view mirrors because they give a wide angle view with all images erect, even though the objects appear smaller and farther than they actually are. Step-by-Step Solution: Step 1: Recall that a convex mirror always forms virtual, erect and diminished images of objects placed in front of it. Step 2: Note that a convex mirror has the property of covering a larger field of view compared to a plane mirror of the same size. Step 3: For a driver, a larger field of view is more important than exact image size, because it helps in seeing more vehicles behind and to the side. Step 4: Concave mirrors may produce inverted images for distant objects and are not suitable when an erect image is required over a large range of distances. Step 5: Plane mirrors give correct sized images but cover a smaller field of view, which is not ideal for minimising blind spots. Step 6: Parabolic mirrors are mainly used in applications like headlights and searchlights to produce parallel beams and are not typically used as car rear view mirrors. Step 7: Therefore, the external rear view mirrors of cars are designed as convex mirrors. Verification / Alternative check: If you look carefully at a typical car rear view mirror, you will notice that the image appears slightly smaller and that much more of the road behind is visible compared to looking through a flat glass. Many mirrors even have a printed warning such as Objects in mirror are closer than they appear, which directly indicates that the image is diminished in size, a characteristic of convex mirrors. Concave and plane mirrors would not give this combination of wide viewing angle and diminished but erect images. This real world observation confirms that convex mirrors are used. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Concave mirror is unsuitable because it can form inverted images for distant objects and has a narrow effective field of view for traffic behind the car. Plane mirror produces images of the same size as the object but covers a smaller field of view, which leaves larger blind spots compared to a convex mirror. Parabolic mirror is primarily used for concentrating or projecting light in devices like headlights and is not the standard choice for rear view mirrors in passenger cars. Common Pitfalls: A common misconception is that plane mirrors are used everywhere in daily life. While plane mirrors are standard in bathrooms, automotive designers select mirror shapes based on safety needs. Learners also sometimes confuse concave and convex mirrors because both are curved. An easy memory aid is that the outer bulging surface of a spoon acts like a convex mirror and shows a smaller, upright image, similar to a car rear view mirror. Remembering that safety mirrors in parking lots and at road intersections are also convex helps reinforce this concept. Final Answer: In an ordinary passenger car, the external rear view mirrors are convex mirrors, because they provide a wide field of view with erect but diminished images for better safety.

Physics Questions