The difference of the squares of two consecutive odd integers is divisible by
Aptitude
Number System
Difficulty: Medium
Choose an option
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A3
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B6
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C7
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D8
Answer
Correct Answer: 8
Explanation
### Concept & Formula
The difference between the squares of any two consecutive odd integers is always a multiple of 8.
We can prove this algebraically. Any odd integer can be written in the form $(2n + 1)$, where $n$ is an integer.
Therefore, two consecutive odd integers can be represented as $(2n - 1)$ and $(2n + 1)$.
### Step-by-Step Solution
* **Step 1:** Formulate the equation for the difference of their squares.
$$ (2n + 1)^2 - (2n - 1)^2 $$
* **Step 2:** Expand the squares using the algebraic identities $(a+b)^2$ and $(a-b)^2$.
$$ (4n^2 + 4n + 1) - (4n^2 - 4n + 1) $$
* **Step 3:** Simplify the expression.
$$ 4n^2 + 4n + 1 - 4n^2 + 4n - 1 = 8n $$
* **Step 4:** Analyze the result.
The resulting expression is $8n$. Since $n$ is an integer, $8n$ is always perfectly divisible by 8.
### Exam Strategy & Shortcut
For property-based questions like this, the fastest method under time pressure is **Value Substitution**.
Pick the smallest positive consecutive odd integers: $1$ and $3$.
Their squares are $1^2 = 1$ and $3^2 = 9$.
Difference: $9 - 1 = 8$.
8 is divisible by 8.
To be absolutely certain, test the next pair: $3$ and $5$.
Squares: $9$ and $25$.
Difference: $25 - 9 = 16$.
16 is also divisible by 8.
### Common Pitfall
Students often confuse "odd integers" with general integers and use $n$ and $(n+1)$. This would yield $(n+1)^2 - n^2 = 2n + 1$, which is always odd, leading to confusion when checking the even options provided. Always map "odd" explicitly to $(2n+1)$ or test using actual odd numbers.
### Final Answer
**Therefore, the correct answer is 8.**