Let E be the set of all integers whose unit (ones) digit is 1. If a number is chosen uniformly at random from {2, 3, 4, …, 50}, what is the probability it belongs to E?

Difficulty: Easy

Correct Answer: 4/49

Explanation:


Introduction / Context:
This question checks counting with simple modular (last-digit) patterns over a finite range. We pick uniformly from consecutive integers and count those ending with 1.


Given Data / Assumptions:

  • Set S = {2, 3, 4, …, 50} has 49 numbers.
  • Event E: unit digit = 1.


Concept / Approach:

  • Within any block of ten consecutive integers, exactly one ends with digit 1.
  • Enumerate within the given finite range.


Step-by-Step Solution:

Eligible numbers in S ending with 1: 11, 21, 31, 41Count(E) = 4; Count(S) = 50 − 2 + 1 = 49Probability = 4 / 49


Verification / Alternative check:
Check endpoints: 1 is not included; 51 is outside the range; thus exactly four hits (every ten steps) remain: 11, 21, 31, 41.


Why Other Options Are Wrong:

  • 5/49, 3/49, 2/49 miscount how many candidates end with 1.
  • “None of these” is false because 4/49 is attainable.


Common Pitfalls:

  • Accidentally including 1 or 51 which are outside the closed interval.


Final Answer:
4/49

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