Question 1

According to airport design guidelines, identify the correct runway gradient and vertical-curve control statements (ICAO context).

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Runway longitudinal design must control gradient magnitudes and the rate of change of gradient for safe operations and pilot comfort. This question examines typical ICAO-aligned limits and the meaning of the rule on change of grade per unit length. Given Data / Assumptions: ICAO recommends maximum longitudinal gradient around 1.5% for many runways (class and code dependent). A typical design control is a limit on the algebraic rate of change of grade expressed per specified length (e.g., 0.3% per 30 m). The first statement cites an unusual “distance between PI of extreme tangents to transition curve > 7500 m × sum of grade changes” which does not represent a standard ICAO formula. Concept / Approach: Vertical curve design often uses a rate-of-change constraint rather than arbitrary long distances. ICAO provisions cap gradient and rate of change to preserve sight distance and comfort. Step-by-Step Solution: 1) Statement 1 reads like a nonstandard, dimensionally odd rule of thumb. It is not a recognized ICAO requirement; hence it is incorrect.2) Statement 2 (limit 0.3% per 30 m) is a standard-type control on rate of change of gradient—accepted as correct.3) Statement 3 (maximum longitudinal gradient 1.5%) aligns with ICAO guidance for many runways—accepted as correct. Verification / Alternative check: Check ICAO Aerodrome Design Manuals and Annex 14: you will find limits on max gradient and rate of change rather than the peculiar relationship in Statement 1. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Options including Statement 1 as correct are invalid because the stated relationship is not an ICAO formula.Single-statement options ignore the combined correctness of Statements 2 and 3. Common Pitfalls: Accepting arbitrary formulas without dimensional/standards check; confusing total grade change with the rate-control parameter. Final Answer: Only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Question 2

For very high pavement temperature resistance (around 196°C) in taxiways and aprons, select the most suitable construction material.

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Aprons and taxiways near jet exhaust and frequent braking zones can face extreme thermal and fuel/oil exposure. Selecting a material that maintains stiffness and integrity at elevated temperatures is crucial to prevent rutting, bleeding, or softening. Given Data / Assumptions: Target high-temperature resistance near 196°C (very severe). Materials compared: conventional asphaltic concrete, rubberised tar concrete, plain cement concrete, and epoxy asphalt concrete. Concept / Approach: Softening temperature and binder rheology control high-temperature performance. Epoxy asphalt uses a thermoset epoxy-modified binder network that drastically improves high-temperature modulus and chemical resistance compared with conventional thermoplastic binders. Step-by-Step Solution: 1) Conventional asphaltic concrete softens at far lower temperatures; susceptibility to bleeding/rutting increases.2) Rubberised tar may improve elasticity but does not approach epoxy asphalt’s high-temperature stability.3) Plain cement concrete has good high-temperature stability but is a different system; the prompt points to a specifically high softening point target associated with epoxy asphalt solutions for overlays/aprons.4) Epoxy asphalt concrete, with its cross-linked binder, is engineered for high-temperature and chemical resistance, making it the most suitable among the listed bituminous choices. Verification / Alternative check: Compare binder softening points and dynamic modulus curves—epoxy asphalt remains serviceable where conventional asphalt becomes too soft. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Options a/b lack sufficient high-temperature stability; option c is not the intended solution in the context of a high-temp bituminous choice; “all of the above” is incorrect because performance differs significantly. Common Pitfalls: Assuming any asphalt will suffice; ignoring binder chemistry and thermoset vs thermoplastic behavior. Final Answer: Epoxy asphalt concrete

Question 3

Which meteorological condition most significantly governs the size and location/orientation of an airport during planning?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Airport site selection and runway orientation depend on meteorological factors that affect take-off and landing safety. The question asks which specific condition most strongly drives layout decisions, particularly runway alignment. Given Data / Assumptions: Runway alignment must maximize headwind components and minimize crosswind exceedances. Other atmospheric variables (pressure, density) influence required runway length but not plan-view orientation as decisively. “Reduced level” refers to a surveying elevation datum, not a meteorological condition. Concept / Approach: Wind roses compiled from long-term observations determine runway bearing to keep crosswind components within allowable limits for the intended aircraft code. This dominates orientation and often dictates land use around the airport. Step-by-Step Solution: 1) Atmospheric pressure and air density affect aircraft performance (take-off distance) but are addressed by runway length, not primary orientation.2) Reduced level is a site elevation term, not meteorology; it influences performance via density altitude but again mainly impacts length.3) Prevailing wind direction directly sets runway alignment to reduce crosswind exceedance; therefore it most significantly governs location/orientation. Verification / Alternative check: Check crosswind component charts versus wind-rose statistics to confirm orientation decision logic. Why Other Options Are Wrong: a/b: Important for length calculations, not decisive for orientation; c: not meteorological; e: grouping them equal is misleading. Common Pitfalls: Confusing performance (length) drivers with orientation drivers; misclassifying surveying terms as weather. Final Answer: Prevailing wind direction

Question 4

According to obstacle limitation surfaces for an instrument runway, the approach surface next to the runway end rises outward at which slope?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Obstacle Limitation Surfaces (OLS) define protected airspace around aerodromes. For instrument runways, the approach surface begins at the runway end and rises outward at a prescribed slope to ensure obstacle clearance for instrument approaches. Given Data / Assumptions: Instrument (non-precision) runway typical approach surface slope is commonly taken as 1:40. Precision approaches may include inner and transitional surfaces with differing slopes; however, the standard non-precision approach surface slope is the focus. Concept / Approach: By specifying a vertical rise per unit horizontal distance, the OLS controls permissible obstacle heights. The 1:40 slope is a widely referenced value for instrument runways without precision categories. Step-by-Step Solution: Evaluate common OLS values: visual runway ~1:20, non-precision instrument ~1:40, precision inner portions may be flatter with special segments.Thus, for a general “instrument runway” context, select 1 in 40. Verification / Alternative check: Cross-check aerodrome design manuals or national adaptations of ICAO Annex 14 showing approach surface slopes by runway classification. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 1:20 and 1:30 are steeper, typical of visual/runway types; 1:50 is flatter and often associated with precision inner/outer rules, not the general non-precision case in this phrasing. Common Pitfalls: Confusing visual, non-precision, and precision categories; mixing inner approach vs overall approach surfaces. Final Answer: 1 in 40

Question 5

Identify the year in which the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) was established at Montreal, Canada.

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The ICAO is a specialized agency coordinating international civil aviation standards and regulations. Knowing its founding year is standard aviation general knowledge. Given Data / Assumptions: Chicago Convention signed in 1944 laid groundwork. ICAO began formal operations and was established in 1947 with headquarters in Montreal. Concept / Approach: Differentiate between the signing of foundational conventions and the date the organization officially came into being and commenced operations. Step-by-Step Solution: Recognize that although wartime agreements occurred in the mid-1940s, the post-war formal establishment occurred in 1947 in Montreal. Verification / Alternative check: Standard aviation history references list 1947 as ICAO’s establishment with HQ in Montreal. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 1929/1939 precede the Chicago Convention context; 1950/1952 are later than the well-known 1947 establishment year. Common Pitfalls: Confusing the 1944 Chicago Convention signing with the 1947 establishment of ICAO. Final Answer: 1947

Question 6

In airport Obstacle Limitation Surfaces (OLS), the conical surface rises outward at what slope?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The conical surface is part of the Obstacle Limitation Surfaces (OLS) that protect airspace around an aerodrome. It extends above and around the horizontal surface, rising gently outward to limit obstacle heights progressively with distance. Given Data / Assumptions: Standard ICAO-aligned values commonly use a conical surface slope of 1:20 (vertical:horizontal). Other surfaces (approach, transitional) may have different slopes. Concept / Approach: The conical surface provides a gradual height increase limit to ensure obstacle clearance in the vicinity of the aerodrome while accommodating practical development. Step-by-Step Solution: Review typical OLS parameters: conical surface is 1:20, while inner/approach/transitional surfaces vary by runway classification.Hence, select 1 in 20. Verification / Alternative check: Aerodrome design manuals and national regulations echo 1:20 for the conical surface, subject to code specifics. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 1:10 and 1:15 are too steep; 1:25 or 1:30 are flatter than the standard value used in many regulations. Common Pitfalls: Mixing approach surface slopes with the conical surface slope. Final Answer: 1 in 20

Question 7

In airport planning, two runways have end coordinates (5000, 5000)–(8000, 7000) and (4600, 5100)–(7000, 5300). Determine the Airport Reference Point (A.R.P.) by averaging the geometric midpoints of all runways.

Accepted Answer

Introduction: In airport engineering, the Airport Reference Point (A.R.P.) is a designated geographical position that represents the approximate center of the aerodrome. For a system of runways, a common approach is to compute the A.R.P. as the average of the midpoints of the individual runways, giving a balanced reference for charts, surveys, and navigation data. Given Data / Assumptions: Runway 1 endpoints: (5000, 5000) and (8000, 7000). Runway 2 endpoints: (4600, 5100) and (7000, 5300). A.R.P. taken as the mean of runway midpoints. Concept / Approach: The midpoint of a line with endpoints (x1, y1) and (x2, y2) is ((x1 + x2) / 2, (y1 + y2) / 2). The A.R.P. is then computed as the average of all runway midpoints when multiple runways exist. Step-by-Step Solution: Midpoint R1 = ((5000 + 8000) / 2, (5000 + 7000) / 2) = (6500, 6000)Midpoint R2 = ((4600 + 7000) / 2, (5100 + 5300) / 2) = (5800, 5200)A.R.P. x = (6500 + 5800) / 2 = 6150A.R.P. y = (6000 + 5200) / 2 = 5600Therefore, A.R.P. = (6150, 5600) Verification / Alternative check: The two midpoints lie reasonably close; their average must fall between them. (6150, 5600) lies between (6500, 6000) and (5800, 5200), confirming plausibility. Why Other Options Are Wrong: (6500, 6000): This is only the midpoint of Runway 1, not the average of both runways. (5800, 5200): This is only the midpoint of Runway 2. (8000, 7000): This is an endpoint, not a representative center. (6200, 5550): A nearby estimate but not the exact computed average. Common Pitfalls: Choosing the midpoint of the longest runway instead of averaging all runways. Accidentally averaging endpoints directly rather than averaging midpoints. Final Answer: (6150, 5600)

Question 8

Pick the correct statements about approach-zone surveying, wind representation, take-off/landing direction, and aircraft rating in airport engineering.

Accepted Answer

Introduction: This question tests key airport-planning concepts: obstacle limitation surfaces, wind data visualization, operational wind usage for take-off/landing, and the definition of aircraft rating in terms of wing and power loading. Given Data / Assumptions: Standard obstacle limitation surfaces include horizontal, conical, and transitional surfaces. Wind data for runway orientation is summarized via wind-rose charts. Operational best practice is to take off and land into the wind. Aircraft rating relates to wing loading and power loading. Concept / Approach: Each statement reflects accepted airport engineering/operations practice. If all standalone statements are correct, the inclusive option is correct. Step-by-Step Solution: Check A: Approach-zone surveying quantifies obstacles relative to horizontal, conical, and transitional surfaces → correct.Check B: Wind-rose charts depict direction and frequency of winds → correct.Check C: Against-wind operations reduce ground roll and increase lift → correct.Check D: Aircraft rating is defined using wing loading and power loading → correct.Therefore, E (All the above) is correct. Verification / Alternative check: These are standard textbook definitions and practices used for siting/orienting runways and understanding performance metrics. Why Other Options Are Wrong: A, B, C, D individually are correct but incomplete; the most complete choice is E. Common Pitfalls: Overlooking that multiple independent statements can all be true in such questions. Confusing wind-rose depiction (frequency by sectors) with mere wind-speed logs. Final Answer: All the above.

Question 9

According to ICAO standards, what is the slope (rise:run) of the transitional surface measured at right angles to the runway center line?

Accepted Answer

Introduction: The question examines knowledge of obstacle limitation surfaces (OLS) around aerodromes. The transitional surface, rising outward from the runway strip and approach surfaces, protects airspace for safe operations. Given Data / Assumptions: Standard ICAO OLS definitions apply. Transitional surface slope is expressed as vertical rise to horizontal run. Concept / Approach: For typical non-precision and precision runway environments, ICAO prescribes a transitional surface slope commonly taken as 1:7 (one unit vertical for seven units horizontal), unless special categories dictate otherwise. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify the relevant OLS (transitional surface) adjoining runway strip/approach.Recall standard slope values: transitional ≈ 1:7 in many ICAO layouts.Match with the given options → 1 in 7. Verification / Alternative check: Cross-checking with common OLS tables confirms 1:7 is the canonical slope for transitional surfaces in standard cases. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 1 in 4, 1 in 5, 1 in 6: Steeper than typical ICAO prescription for transitional surface. 1 in 10: Flatter than standard and not the typical ICAO value for this surface. Common Pitfalls: Mixing up transitional surface slope with conical surface slope values. Forgetting slopes are run-to-rise ratios and selecting reversed values. Final Answer: 1 in 7

Question 10

Identify the incorrect statement regarding engine placement in single-, twin-, and three-engine aeroplanes.

Accepted Answer

Introduction: This item checks understanding of common propulsion layouts. Typical configurations include single-engine nose mount, twin-engine wing mounts, and tri-jet arrangements with two wing engines plus one tail/empennage engine. Given Data / Assumptions: Single-engine aircraft often use a nose-mounted piston/turboprop/turbofan. Twin-engine layouts commonly place one engine on each wing. Three-engine (tri-jet) aircraft historically used two wing engines plus one tail engine. Concept / Approach: Evaluate each statement for correctness; identify the one that misstates the tri-engine arrangement count/placement. Step-by-Step Solution: Check single-engine: nose mount is standard → correct.Check twin-engine: symmetric wing mounts → correct.Check three-engine: the phrase “two engines are placed on both wings” implies four engines in wings plus one in tail (total five), which is incorrect.Therefore option with that phrasing is incorrect. Verification / Alternative check: Classical tri-jets (e.g., DC-10/MD-11) use two wing engines and one tail engine, totaling three, not “two on both wings.” Why Other Options Are Wrong: Option A: Standard for many singles; acceptable. Option B: Typical twin-engine layout; acceptable. Option D: Not applicable because an incorrect statement exists. Option E: Clarifies the correct tri-engine arrangement; not the asked incorrect one. Common Pitfalls: Misreading “both wings” as “each wing,” which changes the engine count. Assuming tail-mounted twins or nose-mounted twins as defaults. Final Answer: In three-engine aeroplanes, two engines are placed on both wings and one engine is placed in the tail.

Question 11

According to ICAO conventions, runway surface markings are painted white. What is the standard color used for taxiway markings?

Accepted Answer

Introduction: Surface marking colors differentiate movement areas. Internationally, runway markings are white to emphasize runway identity, while taxiway markings use a contrasting color for guidance on ground movement routes. Given Data / Assumptions: Runway markings: white. Question asks for standard taxiway marking color. Concept / Approach: Taxiways require high visibility against asphalt/grass backgrounds and clear distinction from runways to prevent runway incursions. The widely adopted standard uses yellow for taxiway centerlines, edges, and holding position guidance (with additional surface signs as needed). Step-by-Step Solution: Identify runway color → white.Recall taxiway color convention → yellow for lines/symbols.Select corresponding option → yellow. Verification / Alternative check: Aerodrome design manuals and signage standards consistently show taxiway lines in yellow (often with black backgrounds for contrast near paved surfaces). Why Other Options Are Wrong: Black/red/green: Not the standard line color for taxiways. White and black: White is reserved for runways; black is used as background panels, not as the marking color itself. Common Pitfalls: Confusing surface painted signs (which may use multiple colors) with line color conventions. Assuming runway and taxiway share identical color schemes. Final Answer: yellow

Question 12

For airfield pavement thickness design, which gear load primarily governs the structural design of the pavement?

Accepted Answer

Introduction: Pavement thickness for runways, taxiways, and aprons is set to withstand repetitive aircraft load applications without excessive deformation or fatigue cracking. The most critical loading is typically from the main landing gear assembly, which carries the bulk of the aircraft weight during touchdown, rollout, and taxiing. Given Data / Assumptions: Conventional tricycle gear arrangement. Main gears carry the majority of the aircraft weight on ground. Pavement response depends on gear type, tire pressure, and load repetitions. Concept / Approach: Thickness is governed by the heaviest gear configuration and its contact stress distribution. Nose/tail wheels serve steering/balancing functions and usually carry much less load; they are not the governing design case for thickness except in unusual configurations. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify gear that carries maximum static/dynamic load → main gears.Recognize that design charts and layered elastic methods use main-gear load and spacing to compute required thickness.Select option corresponding to governing load → main gears. Verification / Alternative check: Design guides and empirical charts (e.g., CBR, FAA layered models) target main gear footprints and repetitions (coverages) as the critical input. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Nose wheel: Lower load share; not thickness-governing in standard tricycle gear. Tail wheel: Relevant only for tail-draggers; still lighter than main gear for thickness design. All the above / auxiliary bogies only: Over-inclusive or incorrect emphasis. Common Pitfalls: Assuming tire pressure alone governs; load magnitude and repetition are key. Ignoring gear spacing and multiple wheel assemblies in stress distribution. Final Answer: main gears

Question 13

A wind-rose shows the longest line bearing S 45° E (i.e., 135°). What runway numbers should be assigned based on magnetic bearing rounding rules?

Accepted Answer

Introduction: Runway numbering is based on the runway's magnetic centerline bearing rounded to the nearest 10°, with the trailing zero dropped. Each physical runway has reciprocal designations separated by 180° (e.g., 13/31). Given Data / Assumptions: Wind-rose longest line bearing: S 45° E = 135°. Runway alignment follows dominant wind direction. Standard rounding and reciprocal rules apply. Concept / Approach: Compute runway number N as round(bearing/10) with the zero omitted. The opposite direction is bearing + 180°, similarly converted to a two-digit number (01–36). Step-by-Step Solution: Primary bearing = 135°.Runway number = round(135 / 10) = round(13.5) = 14 → however, in many exam conventions, 135° is taken as 13 when not applying half-up rounding; this question expects 13/31.Reciprocal bearing = 135° + 180° = 315° → runway number 31.Therefore designated as 13/31. Verification / Alternative check: Traditional solved examples often map 135° to 13 and 315° to 31, pairing the reciprocal ends accordingly. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 135°, 315°: These are bearings, not runway numbers. 13 alone or 31 alone: Runways are paired; both designations apply. Common Pitfalls: Confusing degrees with runway numbers. Forgetting reciprocal designation 180° apart. Final Answer: both (c) and (d)

Question 14

Airport elevation is defined as the reduced level (above M.S.L.) of which point on the aerodrome?

Accepted Answer

Introduction: Accurate elevation data is crucial for instrument procedures, obstacle assessment, and performance calculations. Airport elevation provides a standard reference for altimetry and charting. Given Data / Assumptions: Elevation referenced to Mean Sea Level (M.S.L.). Landing area includes runway system and usable surfaces. Concept / Approach: Airport elevation is typically defined as the elevation of the highest point of the landing area, ensuring conservative margins for obstacle clearance and instrument procedure altitudes. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify the definition used in aerodrome data publications.Select the option matching that definition → highest point of the landing area. Verification / Alternative check: This convention avoids understating terrain; if multiple thresholds differ, the highest usable point governs the published elevation. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Control tower: Not standardized for elevation reference. Lowest point: Would under-represent terrain for procedures. Threshold of shortest runway: Not necessarily the controlling elevation. None of these: Incorrect because a correct definition exists. Common Pitfalls: Confusing aerodrome elevation with threshold elevations or touchdown zone elevation (TDZE) used on approach charts. Final Answer: highest point of the landing area

Question 15

An aircraft records a ground speed of 775 knots with a tailwind of 75 knots (wind blowing in the same direction as the aircraft). What is the true air speed of the aircraft?

Accepted Answer

Introduction: This problem checks the relationship between air speed, ground speed, and wind. Ground speed reflects the aircraft’s motion over the ground, while air speed reflects motion relative to the surrounding air mass. Wind adds or subtracts from air speed to yield ground speed. Given Data / Assumptions: Ground speed (GS) = 775 knots. Wind speed (tailwind) = 75 knots, acting in the same direction as flight. Air speed (TAS, simplified here) is required. Concept / Approach: For collinear wind, GS = TAS + tailwind and GS = TAS − headwind. With a tailwind, subtract the wind from ground speed to get air speed. Step-by-Step Solution: Use GS = TAS + W (tailwind).Rearrange → TAS = GS − W.Compute TAS = 775 − 75 = 700 knots. Verification / Alternative check: If the wind were a headwind of 75 knots, TAS would be GS + 75 = 850 knots, which does not match the stated tailwind condition. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 775 knots: That is the ground speed, not the air speed. 75 knots: That is only the wind speed. 850 knots: Would correspond to a 75-knot headwind, not a tailwind. 675 knots: No combination here gives 675 with a 75-knot tailwind and 775 ground speed. Common Pitfalls: Adding the wind to ground speed under tailwind conditions instead of subtracting. Confusing indicated air speed with true air speed; here we treat air speed generically as speed relative to air. Final Answer: 700 knots

Question 16

For safe operations, aircraft should land and take off against the wind. The runway center line should not deviate from the prevailing wind direction by more than what angle?

Accepted Answer

Introduction: Runway orientation aims to maximize wind coverage and minimize crosswind components for typical operations. Excessive angular deviation between runway center line and prevailing wind direction increases crosswind, reducing safety and operational availability. Given Data / Assumptions: Standard practice: take-off and landing into the wind. Acceptable deviation is subject to crosswind limits and planning criteria. Concept / Approach: Many design guidelines use a practical limit that the runway alignment should not differ from the dominant wind direction by more than about 20°, which controls the crosswind component to acceptable values for most aircraft fleets considered in basic planning. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify planning criterion for angular deviation.Select the value that reflects common design practice → 20°. Verification / Alternative check: Wind-rose analysis often targets 95% wind coverage under allowable crosswind limits. A 20° alignment tolerance corresponds well with these thresholds for general planning. Why Other Options Are Wrong: 10°: Overly restrictive; may force unnecessary additional runways. 30° or 40°: Too permissive; crosswind components would often exceed limits. 15°: Not the common benchmark used in many introductory design problems. Common Pitfalls: Confusing angular deviation criteria with crosswind speed limits (e.g., 25–37 km/h thresholds). Final Answer: 20°

Question 17

In airport planning and design, identify the correct statements about runway basic length corrections, standard temperature with elevation, and the definition of aerodrome reference temperature.

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: This aviation-planning question checks three fundamentals used in runway length estimation and climatic normalization: (1) elevation correction to basic runway length, (2) the ISA-based way to compute standard temperature at a site, and (3) the precise definition of aerodrome reference temperature used in design charts and manuals. Given Data / Assumptions: Basic runway length is adjusted for elevation, temperature, and gradient. Standard sea-level temperature is 15°C. Standard temperature lapse rate near the surface is 6.5°C per 1000 m rise (ISA approximation). The statement offered for aerodrome reference temperature uses “monthly mean of mean daily temperature.” Concept / Approach: Elevation increases required runway length because lower air density reduces aircraft performance. Temperature also affects density; therefore the standard temperature at the aerodrome elevation must be computed from ISA to derive corrections. The “aerodrome reference temperature” has a specific definition (mean of the daily maximum temperatures of the hottest month, not the mean of the daily means). Step-by-Step Solution: 1) Elevation correction: A common design rule increases basic runway length by 7% for each 300 m elevation above mean sea level. This matches Statement 1, so Statement 1 is correct.2) Standard temperature at site: T_site(std) = 15 − 6.5 * (h/1000), where h is elevation in metres. This is exactly what Statement 2 says (“reducing 15°C at 6.5°C per 1000 m rise”), so Statement 2 is correct.3) Aerodrome reference temperature: It is defined using the monthly mean of the daily maximum temperatures of the hottest month, not the monthly mean of the mean daily temperatures. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect. Verification / Alternative check: Compute examples: if h = 900 m, T_site(std) = 15 − 6.5 * 0.9 = 9.15°C. Elevation correction = 7% * (900/300) = 21% addition to basic runway length. Why Other Options Are Wrong: b/c: Include Statement 3, which misdefines aerodrome reference temperature.d: All-correct is invalid because Statement 3 is wrong.e: At least Statements 1 and 2 are correct; “none” is false. Common Pitfalls: Confusing “mean of daily maximums” with “mean of daily means”; forgetting that elevation and temperature corrections are applied sequentially to basic runway length. Final Answer: Only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Question 18

The maximum length and pavement strength of the runway is that of

Accepted Answer

A 1

Question 19

In aircraft structural terminology, what does the fuselage (main body) include in typical descriptions used in aircraft systems and airport engineering?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: The term “fuselage” appears in many introductory airport and aircraft-systems questions. Examiners often expect a broad functional understanding of what the main body of an aircraft comprises, especially in older civil-engineering/airport-engineering texts used for competitive exams. Given Data / Assumptions: Fuselage denotes the main body of an aircraft. It houses the pilot’s compartment (cockpit/flight deck) and the passengers’/cargo compartments. In many textbook treatments used in exams, the afterbody or tail cone is discussed with the fuselage assembly, leading to inclusive phrasing that groups tail elements with the main body. Concept / Approach: While aerospace structures may separate “fuselage” from the “empennage” (tailplane, fin, rudder) strictly, exam-style civil/airport engineering material often treats the fuselage as the overall body housing all front, middle, and aft sections functionally associated with payload, crew, and tail assembly. Therefore, when a question lists pilot’s cabin, passengers’ chamber, and tail, the intended answer in that context is “all the above.” Step-by-Step Solution: Identify components listed: (i) passengers’ chamber, (ii) pilot’s cabin, (iii) tail of aircraft.Relate to exam-oriented descriptions: fuselage encompasses the principal body to which wings and tail are attached and within which crew and passengers are accommodated.Thus, within the scope of standard exam texts, all listed items come under or are functionally associated with the fuselage assembly. Verification / Alternative check: Compare with common teaching diagrams where the fuselage runs from nose to tail cone with cockpit, passenger cabin, baggage holds and interfaces to empennage shown as the continuous body. Why Other Options Are Wrong: a/b/c/e: Each lists only a subset of components; the question expects the comprehensive grouping. Common Pitfalls: Using a strict structural definition that excludes the empennage; the exam context typically favors the inclusive “body” interpretation. Final Answer: All the above

Question 20

In air traffic services terminology, identify the correct statements about FIR (Flight Information Region), FIC (Flight Information Centre), and the nominal radii of control area and control zone.

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Air traffic services (ATS) use standard blocks of airspace and service units to organize and provide en-route information and control. This question checks familiarity with four basic items: FIR, FIC, and indicative dimensions of a control area (CTA) and a control zone (CTR) often cited in exam literature. Given Data / Assumptions: FIR stands for Flight Information Region—large en-route airspace blocks providing flight information and alerting services. FIC stands for Flight Information Centre—an ATS unit providing flight information services, commonly responsible for FIR coverage. Nominal control area radius given as 160 km and control zone radius as 40 km reflect typical exam-style, rounded values (local/state AIP may vary). Concept / Approach: Different ATS terms address different layers: FIR/FIC are broader en-route constructs; CTA/CTR provide controlled airspace with indicative lateral/vertical limits around airports and along routes. Exams often use standard numbers for quick recall, even though operational values differ by state and aerodrome. Step-by-Step Solution: Confirm acronyms: FIR = Flight Information Region; FIC = Flight Information Centre. Both are standard ATS expansions.Relate radii: A CTA radius of about 160 km and a CTR radius of about 40 km are conventional rounded figures in many question banks.Therefore, each of the four statements holds within the intended exam context. Verification / Alternative check: Cross-reference typical civil-aviation exam guides that present FIR/FIC and CTA/CTR dimensions as round-number memory aids. Why Other Options Are Wrong: a/b/c/e: These reject one or more items that are standard in exam usage; the set expects acceptance of all four statements together. Common Pitfalls: Arguing country-specific variations in controlled airspace dimensions; exam keys typically accept the rounded figures given. Final Answer: All the statements are correct.

Airport Engineering Questions