Question 1

Checkpoint focus — In the normal eukaryotic cell cycle, which boundary is the principal checkpoint that integrates growth signals and DNA integrity before genome replication?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Cells commit to DNA replication only after assessing growth factors, nutrient status, and DNA damage. The key decision point is the G1–S boundary, often called the restriction point (mammals) or Start (yeast). Correctly identifying this checkpoint underpins understanding of cancer biology and therapeutics. Given Data / Assumptions: Mitogens and nutrients drive cyclin D–CDK4/6 and cyclin E–CDK2 activity. DNA damage checkpoints can block S-phase entry by activating p53/p21 pathways. Once past the restriction point, the cell is largely committed to complete a cycle. Concept / Approach: The G1–S checkpoint integrates external and internal cues. Passing this checkpoint initiates DNA synthesis. Other boundaries exist (S–G2, G2–M, metaphase–anaphase), but the primary commitment control is G1–S. Step-by-Step Solution: Map checkpoints onto the cycle: G1–S (restriction), G2–M (DNA damage completion), M (spindle), intra-S (replication stress).Select G1–S as the principal integration point before replication.Eliminate options that are not classic commitment points. Verification / Alternative check: CDK inhibitors that block cyclin D/E complexes specifically prevent S-phase entry, illustrating the centrality of the G1–S checkpoint. Why Other Options Are Wrong: a/b/d/e: Important transitions but not the main growth-factor-integrating checkpoint. Common Pitfalls: Assuming metaphase alignment is a growth checkpoint; it monitors spindle attachment, not growth signals. Final Answer: G1–S boundary (restriction point/start)

Question 2

Cell growth emphasis — Which phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle is considered the primary growth phase in which cells increase in size and synthesize RNAs and proteins for the next steps?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Cell growth and biosynthesis do not occur uniformly across the cycle. Understanding when mass increase, organelle biogenesis, and preparation for DNA replication occur helps interpret experimental data and tissue physiology. Given Data / Assumptions: G1 precedes DNA replication. S is DNA synthesis; G2 prepares for mitosis; M is mitosis; G0 is quiescence. Protein and RNA synthesis occur in multiple phases but are most prominent for growth in G1. Concept / Approach: During G1, cells expand, synthesize enzymes and structural proteins, and monitor environmental cues. Although G2 includes biosynthesis for mitosis, the ‘‘primary growth phase’’ label is reserved for G1. G0 represents exit from the cycle into a non-dividing state. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify each phase’s hallmark.Match ‘‘primary growth’’ to G1.Check alternatives: G2 is pre-mitotic preparation; S is replication; M is division; G0 is quiescence. Verification / Alternative check: Flow cytometry and pulse-chase labeling show mass accumulation in G1 before DNA content doubles in S. Why Other Options Are Wrong: b: G2 growth is secondary and focused on mitotic readiness. c: M is segregation, not growth. d: G0 is non-cycling; many differentiated cells reside here. e: S is DNA synthesis, not bulk growth emphasis. Common Pitfalls: Confusing general biosynthesis across phases with the specific designation of ‘‘primary growth’’ for G1. Final Answer: G1

Question 3

Quiescence concept — In multicellular animals, what is the best description of the G0 phase of the cell cycle?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Cells in adult tissues often are not actively dividing. Understanding G0 clarifies how tissues maintain function, how wounds heal when cells reenter the cycle, and why some neurons or muscle cells rarely divide. Given Data / Assumptions: G0 is outside the cycling states G1, S, G2, and M. Many differentiated cells (e.g., hepatocytes) can dwell in G0 yet reenter upon stimulation. Some cells (e.g., most neurons) remain in G0 for life. Concept / Approach: G0 is a quiescent, non-proliferative state characterized by low CDK activity and specialized function. It is not synonymous with interphase and is not universally permanent for all cell types. Cytokines and growth factors can cue some G0 cells to reenter G1 and proceed to S phase. Step-by-Step Solution: Clarify what G0 is (non-cycling state).Assess permanence: varies by tissue; not an absolute.Select the description emphasizing quiescence of most cells with possible reentry upon signaling. Verification / Alternative check: Classic examples include liver regeneration (hepatocytes reentering cycle) versus neurons (largely permanent G0), illustrating the nuanced definition. Why Other Options Are Wrong: a: Overly absolute; not all cells are permanently out of cycle. c: Incorrect; interphase comprises G1, S, and G2, not G0. d/e: Do not describe true G0; option e confuses a mitotic checkpoint with quiescence. Common Pitfalls: Thinking G0 equals senescence or cell death; G0 cells are usually functional and metabolically active. Final Answer: A quiescent state of most differentiated cells in the animal body; cells can remain long-term and may reenter the cycle if signaled.

Question 4

Cell signaling in wound repair: Which factor released from a blood clot specifically stimulates surrounding cells to grow and proliferate during the healing process?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: After tissue injury, blood clotting is rapidly followed by a complex cascade of cell signaling events that promote wound healing. Platelets trapped in the clot release an array of growth factors. Understanding which factor directly stimulates neighboring cells to proliferate is fundamental in cell biology and medical physiology. Given Data / Assumptions: A blood clot contains activated platelets. Platelets secrete multiple growth factors stored in alpha granules. Question asks for the factor that stimulates cell growth during healing. Concept / Approach: PDGF (platelet-derived growth factor) is a potent mitogen released from platelets within the clot. It binds PDGF receptors (RTKs) on fibroblasts, smooth muscle cells, and other mesenchymal cells to activate downstream signaling (for example, Ras → MAPK and PI3K → Akt), driving cell cycle entry and proliferation, which are essential for granulation tissue formation and matrix deposition. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify the source: platelets in a clot are the primary producers of PDGF.Match function to factor: PDGF is a classic mitogen for connective-tissue cells.Eliminate similarly named but context-mismatched factors (e.g., MPF is a cell-cycle complex, not a secreted growth factor).Select PDGF as the factor that stimulates proliferation around the wound. Verification / Alternative check: Histologic wound-healing phases show early fibroblast chemotaxis and proliferation coinciding with PDGF and TGF-β release; PDGF is specifically highlighted as a mitogen and chemoattractant for fibroblasts. Why Other Options Are Wrong: EGF: Mitogenic but not the hallmark platelet factor from a clot context.MPF: Intracellular cyclin-Cdk complex, not a secreted clot-derived factor.NGF: Neurotrophic factor for neurons; not the primary wound mitogen from a clot.TPO: Regulates platelet production in bone marrow, not local wound mitogenesis. Common Pitfalls: Confusing any growth factor with the specific clot-derived mitogen. Remember that the keyword is “from a blood clot,” pointing to platelet products and thus PDGF. Final Answer: PDGF (platelet-derived growth factor).

Question 5

During cell division, which structure forms a dynamic network of protein cables that organizes chromosome movement?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Cell division requires precise segregation of genetic material. A specialized, microtubule-based structure organizes and drives chromosome movement. Knowing the names and roles of related structures helps distinguish the components of mitosis and meiosis. Given Data / Assumptions: The structure is a network of protein cables. It forms during cell division. Its role is to organize chromosome movement and segregation. Concept / Approach: The mitotic spindle is composed of microtubules and associated motor proteins. It arises from centrosomes (in many animal cells) and attaches to chromosomes via kinetochores. By polymerization/depolymerization and motor activity, it positions and separates sister chromatids to daughter cells. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify “network of protein cables” → microtubule arrays.Name of the whole apparatus that moves chromosomes → spindle.Differentiate spindle from accessory structures (aster, kinetochore).Choose “Spindle (mitotic spindle).” Verification / Alternative check: Fluorescent microscopy during mitosis shows bipolar spindle fibers attaching to kinetochores and pulling chromatids apart at anaphase. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Aster: Star-shaped microtubules radiating from centrosomes; not the full network coordinating segregation.Kinetochore: Protein complex on centromeres; a docking site for spindle microtubules, not the entire network.Chromatid: One of the duplicated DNA molecules; not a microtubule structure.Centrosome: Microtubule-organizing center; not the cable network itself. Common Pitfalls: Equating any mitotic structure with the spindle. The spindle is the complete bipolar microtubule array plus motors; asters and kinetochores are parts within this system. Final Answer: Spindle (mitotic spindle).

Question 6

Prokaryotic cell division: Just before cytokinesis, the two daughter genomes in bacteria are found attached side by side to which cellular structure?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Unlike eukaryotes, prokaryotes lack a nucleus and mitotic spindle. Their chromosomes replicate and segregate using mechanisms coordinated with the cell membrane and cytoskeleton. Understanding where DNA is anchored helps explain bacterial chromosome segregation before division. Given Data / Assumptions: Organism: prokaryote (bacterium). Stage: just before cell division. Two daughter genomes are positioned side by side. Concept / Approach: Bacterial replication initiates at the origin (oriC). Newly replicated origins are tethered to the cell membrane/inner surface at midcell or quarter positions via protein assemblies, coordinating with septum formation. Membrane growth and cytoskeletal elements (e.g., FtsZ ring) help segregate nucleoids as the cell elongates and constricts. Step-by-Step Solution: Recognize absence of centromeres/spindle in bacteria.Recall origin-region anchoring to the plasma membrane.Connect segregation with membrane-associated division machinery.Select “Cell membrane (plasma membrane at midcell).” Verification / Alternative check: Classical models and imaging show oriC–membrane interactions and the Z-ring guiding septum assembly at the membrane. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Replication origin only: the attachment is to membrane; origin is a DNA site, not a structure.Centromeres: Eukaryote-specific chromosomal loci.Equatorial plate: Eukaryotic metaphase arrangement, not bacterial.Nuclear envelope: Bacteria lack a nucleus. Common Pitfalls: Transferring eukaryotic vocabulary (centromere, equatorial plate) to bacteria. Prokaryotes use membrane- and cytoskeleton-coordinated segregation instead. Final Answer: Cell membrane (plasma membrane at midcell).

Question 7

Cell cycle fundamentals: In which overall phase of the cell cycle are chromosomes replicated to produce two sister chromatids per chromosome?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Each chromosome must be duplicated before cell division to ensure both daughter cells receive complete genetic information. This duplication produces sister chromatids that remain paired until they separate during mitosis or meiosis. The question targets identification of when this duplication occurs within the cell cycle framework. Given Data / Assumptions: Chromosome replication produces sister chromatids. Cell cycle phases: G1, S, G2 (collectively interphase) and M phase. The query uses the broad phase name rather than the sub-phase. Concept / Approach: DNA synthesis happens during S phase, which is part of interphase. Therefore, in the broad categorization, replication occurs in interphase. During M phase (mitosis), the already replicated sister chromatids are separated, not synthesized. Step-by-Step Solution: Link “replication” to “S phase.”Recognize S phase belongs to interphase (G1 + S + G2).Among provided choices, choose the umbrella term “Interphase.”Confirm that anaphase/metaphase/prophase are segregation/condensation steps, not replication. Verification / Alternative check: Cell cycle diagrams universally place DNA synthesis in S phase within interphase; microscopy shows condensed chromosomes only in M phase. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Anaphase: Separation of sister chromatids.Metaphase: Alignment of chromosomes.Prophase: Chromosome condensation and spindle assembly begin.Telophase: Reformation of nuclei; not replication. Common Pitfalls: Confusing “when chromatids appear” with “when they are made.” They appear visibly in M phase but are synthesized earlier during S phase of interphase. Final Answer: Interphase.

Question 8

By the end of which cell-cycle phase does each human chromosome consist of two sister chromatids?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Chromosome duplication produces sister chromatids that remain paired until anaphase. Knowing exactly when, within the interphase subdivisions, this duplicated state is reached is crucial for understanding checkpoints and the timing of DNA repair. Given Data / Assumptions: Interphase includes G1, S, and G2. S phase is dedicated to DNA synthesis. The phrase “by the end of” asks for the earliest phase completion after which two chromatids per chromosome are present. Concept / Approach: As replication proceeds during S phase, each chromosome becomes two sister chromatids. At the end of S phase, all chromosomes have been duplicated. They remain as two chromatids through G2 and into early M phase until separation at anaphase. The earliest correct phase boundary is therefore S phase. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify the synthesis phase → S phase.Interpret “by the end of” → immediately after S finishes, two chromatids exist per chromosome.Confirm that during G2 the duplicated state persists, but S phase is the earliest correct answer. Verification / Alternative check: Flow cytometry shows DNA content doubling (from 2C to 4C) during S phase; G2 cells maintain 4C content until mitosis. Why Other Options Are Wrong: G2: True that chromatids are present, but the question targets the phase whose completion establishes this state.M: Separation occurs here; the duplicated state arises earlier.C phase: Not a standard phase designation.G0: Quiescent state without replication. Common Pitfalls: Answering G2 because chromatids are still present then; however, the earliest correct transition point is the end of S. Final Answer: S phase.

Question 9

Core control of the cell cycle: At the center of regulation is Cdk (cyclin-dependent kinase), a protein that primarily does what?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Progression through the cell cycle is driven by cyclin-dependent kinases (Cdks). These enzymes require association with cyclins to become active and to target appropriate substrates. Understanding this partnership is essential for interpreting checkpoints and anti-cancer drug mechanisms. Given Data / Assumptions: Cdk proteins are constitutively expressed at relatively stable levels. Cyclin levels oscillate, defining cell-cycle phases. Activation also involves regulatory phosphorylation and dephosphorylation. Concept / Approach: Cdk catalytic subunits are activated by binding specific cyclins (for example, G1, S, or M cyclins). This binding changes kinase conformation, enabling substrate recognition and activity. Additional control includes phosphorylation by CAK, inhibitory phosphorylation (e.g., Wee1), and phosphatase reversal (e.g., Cdc25), but cyclin binding is the central, defining requirement. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify key dependency → Cdk requires cyclin binding.Note additional layers (phosphorylation) but not sufficient alone.Eliminate options that misstate timing or function.Select binding to different cyclins as the primary property. Verification / Alternative check: Biochemical reconstitution shows inactive Cdk becomes active kinase only upon cyclin association and proper phosphorylation, with substrate specificity dictated by the cyclin partner. Why Other Options Are Wrong: a) Phosphorylation is necessary but not sufficient without cyclin.c) Cdk activity is phase-specific across the cycle, not only mitosis.d) Cdks are kinases, not secretory growth factor factories.e) DNA helicases are distinct enzymes; Cdks regulate but do not unwind DNA. Common Pitfalls: Assuming phosphorylation alone activates Cdks; cyclin binding is the defining activation step. Final Answer: Binds to different cyclins to gain substrate specificity and activity.

Question 10

Interphase review: Which event does NOT occur during interphase of the eukaryotic cell cycle?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Interphase is the period of growth and preparation between divisions. It comprises G1, S, and G2 phases. Discriminating interphase events from mitotic events clarifies how cells prepare for accurate division. Given Data / Assumptions: Interphase includes intense biosynthesis and duplication of DNA and organelles. Chromosome condensation into clearly visible structures is characteristic of prophase in M phase. The question seeks the event that does not belong to interphase. Concept / Approach: During interphase, chromatin is generally decondensed (euchromatic) to permit transcription and replication. Visible, highly condensed chromosomes appear at the onset of mitosis. Thus, “chromatin condenses” (into classic X-shaped forms) is excluded from interphase. Step-by-Step Solution: List interphase processes: biomass accumulation, DNA synthesis (S phase), organelle duplication, checkpoint control.Contrast with mitosis: condensation, spindle formation, and chromosome segregation.Select the non-interphase event: chromatin condensation. Verification / Alternative check: Microscopy shows diffuse nuclei in interphase and distinct condensed chromosomes only during prophase to metaphase. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Protein synthesis: robust in G1/G2.Organelle replication: occurs to equip daughter cells.DNA replication: hallmark of S phase within interphase.Cyclin accumulation: interphase preparation for checkpoints. Common Pitfalls: Assuming visible chromosomes throughout the cycle; they are fully condensed only during mitosis, not interphase. Final Answer: Chromatin condensation into visibly distinct chromosomes.

Question 11

Cdks gain enzymatic function by binding to which regulatory proteins?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Cyclin-dependent kinases (Cdks) are central to cell-cycle regulation. On their own, Cdks are inactive; they require specific regulatory partners that fluctuate throughout the cycle to provide timing and substrate specificity. Given Data / Assumptions: Cdks are protein kinases. Activation requires a regulatory subunit. The question asks for the binding partner enabling enzymatic activity. Concept / Approach: Cyclins are phase-specific proteins that bind Cdks, activating them and directing phosphorylation of key substrates (for example, RB, lamins, replication factors). The Cdk–cyclin complex is sometimes historically called MPF when referring to the mitotic form, but MPF is a complex, not the regulator the Cdk binds to. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify the regulatory partner of Cdks → cyclins.Note that “MPF” refers to the Cdk–cyclin complex, not a separate binding partner.Exclude unrelated proteins (histones, p53, Ras). Verification / Alternative check: Biochemical assays demonstrate Cdk kinase activity increases sharply upon cyclin binding and appropriate phosphorylation. Why Other Options Are Wrong: MPF: Name for the active M-phase Cdk–cyclin complex, not the regulator.Histones: Substrates for kinases, not activators of Cdks.p53 and Ras: Signaling and checkpoint proteins; do not directly activate Cdks by binding. Common Pitfalls: Confusing terminology where the complex name (MPF) is mistaken as a separate regulator instead of the Cdk–cyclin complex itself. Final Answer: Cyclins.

Question 12

Genome duplication timing: In the eukaryotic cell cycle, replication of the entire genome occurs during which phase?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Accurate duplication of DNA is a key prerequisite for successful cell division. The cell cycle divides this task into distinct phases to ensure high fidelity and enable repair before segregation. Given Data / Assumptions: Cell cycle phases are G1, S, G2, and M. DNA synthesis must be temporally segregated from chromosome segregation. Question asks for the phase in which genome replication occurs. Concept / Approach: S phase (synthesis phase) is dedicated to replication of the entire genome. Replication origins fire in an organized program, replication forks progress, and checkpoints monitor integrity. G1 prepares for S, G2 prepares for mitosis, and M segregates the already duplicated chromosomes. Step-by-Step Solution: List phase functions: G1 (growth), S (DNA synthesis), G2 (prep and repair), M (segregation).Match “replication of the genome” → S phase.Exclude other phases accordingly. Verification / Alternative check: DNA content measurements by flow cytometry show a doubling during S phase from 2C to 4C content. Why Other Options Are Wrong: G1: Pre-replication licensing occurs, but synthesis has not begun.G2: Post-replication period for repair and preparation.M: Segregation of already duplicated DNA.G0: Non-dividing resting state. Common Pitfalls: Confusing replication licensing (G1) with actual DNA synthesis (S). Final Answer: S phase.

Question 13

Cell-cycle checkpoints: The commitment to begin DNA replication is primarily controlled at which checkpoint stage?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Cell-cycle checkpoints ensure that each stage proceeds only when prerequisites are met. The decision to enter S phase and replicate DNA is tightly regulated to prevent genome instability. Identifying the checkpoint controlling this commitment is central to understanding how cells maintain integrity and how cancer can arise. Given Data / Assumptions: S-phase entry is a controlled transition. Checkpoints exist in G1, G2, and M; intra-S surveillance also occurs. Question asks which checkpoint primarily governs initiation of DNA replication. Concept / Approach: The G1 checkpoint (restriction point in mammals; Start in yeast) integrates growth signals, nutrients, DNA damage status, and cell size. Passage through this point commits the cell to S phase. If conditions are unfavorable, cells delay S-phase entry or enter G0. While an intra-S checkpoint monitors ongoing replication and responds to damage or stalled forks, the initial go/no-go decision is made at G1. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify the commit point to DNA replication → G1 restriction point.Differentiate surveillance during replication (intra-S) from permission to start replication.Select G1 checkpoint as the primary control. Verification / Alternative check: Pathways involving cyclin D/Cdk4-6 and RB phosphorylation regulate E2F activity at G1; RB inactivation permits transcription of S-phase genes and origin firing. Why Other Options Are Wrong: G2: Checks completion of replication and DNA damage before mitosis.M: Ensures chromosomes are properly attached to the spindle before anaphase.S-phase checkpoint: Monitors replication stress after initiation, not the initial commitment decision.Cytokinesis checkpoint: Not the control point for starting DNA replication. Common Pitfalls: Confusing the monitoring of replication quality (S checkpoint) with the gatekeeper decision to begin replication (G1 restriction point). Final Answer: G1 checkpoint (restriction point/start).

Question 14

Cell division fundamentals — phase associated with nuclear envelope re-formation During mitosis, at which stage does the nuclear envelope reappear around separated sets of chromosomes?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Mitosis is a precisely ordered process that ensures equal distribution of duplicated chromosomes into two daughter nuclei. A common exam concept is identifying at which stage specific structural events occur, such as chromosome condensation, spindle attachment, chromatid separation, and nuclear envelope dynamics. This question targets recognition of the stage when the nuclear envelope reforms. Given Data / Assumptions: Eukaryotic cell undergoing mitosis (not meiosis). Standard sequence of phases: prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, followed by cytokinesis. Nuclear envelope breaks down early and reassembles later in the cycle. Concept / Approach: The nuclear envelope disassembles during prometaphase to permit spindle microtubules to attach kinetochores on condensed chromosomes. After sister chromatids separate in anaphase and migrate to opposite poles, the cell must re-establish two nuclei. Reassembly of the nuclear envelope around each set of chromosomes is a hallmark of telophase, accompanied by chromosome decondensation and restoration of nucleoli. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify when sister chromatids have completed poleward movement: late anaphase.Recognize that envelope re-formation follows chromosome segregation to create two nuclei.Match this event to telophase, the stage of nuclear envelope reassembly and chromatin decondensation. Verification / Alternative check: Microscopy textbooks and atlases consistently illustrate vesicle-mediated reassembly of nuclear membranes around the chromatid masses during telophase, often concurrent with initiation of cytokinesis (cleavage furrow or cell plate). Why Other Options Are Wrong: Prophase: chromosomes condense; envelope still intact until prometaphase. Metaphase: chromosomes align at the equator; envelope is absent. Anaphase: chromatids separate and move; envelope has not yet re-formed. Cytokinesis: cytoplasmic division; nuclear envelope re-formation is already underway from telophase. Common Pitfalls: Confusing late anaphase with telophase; remember that envelope reassembly and chromatin decondensation signify entry into telophase. Final Answer: Telophase

Question 15

Centromere vs. kinetochore — precise definition in chromosome structure Which description best characterizes a centromere in eukaryotic chromosomes?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: Clear understanding of chromosome architecture is essential in cell biology and genetics. Students often conflate the terms centromere and kinetochore. This question probes the precise definition of the centromere and its relationship to spindle attachment during mitosis and meiosis. Given Data / Assumptions: We are discussing eukaryotic chromosomes observed during cell division. Spindle microtubules must attach to specialized protein complexes on each chromatid. A visible constriction is present on condensed chromosomes under the light microscope. Concept / Approach: The centromere is the DNA region (primary constriction) of a chromosome. On this DNA, a large multiprotein complex known as the kinetochore assembles, and it is the kinetochore that directly binds spindle microtubules. Thus, centromere ≠ kinetochore; one is a DNA domain, the other a proteinaceous structure built upon it. Step-by-Step Solution: Identify that the centromere is the chromosomal DNA locus (primary constriction).Recall that the kinetochore is the protein disk/plate assembled on the centromere.Conclude that the most accurate statement is the chromosome constriction where a disk-like kinetochore assembles. Verification / Alternative check: Standard cytology distinguishes primary (centromere) from secondary constrictions; immunostaining for kinetochore proteins (e.g., CENP family) shows protein plates over centromeric chromatin. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Another name for kinetochore: incorrect; not synonyms. Protein structure to which microtubules attach: this defines the kinetochore, not the centromere DNA per se. All of the above: cannot be true because (a) and (b) are incorrect for centromere. Secondary constriction: refers to NOR regions, not the centromere. Common Pitfalls: Using centromere and kinetochore interchangeably; keep DNA region vs. protein complex distinct. Final Answer: A primary constriction on the chromosome DNA where a disk-like kinetochore assembles

Question 16

Re-establishment of nuclei in mitosis Around which mitotic phase does a nuclear envelope form around each set of sister chromatids?

Accepted Answer

Introduction / Context: A hallmark of mitotic exit is the reconstruction of fully functional nuclei. Mastering the timeline of mitotic events helps interpret micrographs and troubleshoot cell cycle experiments. This item asks when separate nuclear envelopes encapsulate segregated chromatids. Given Data / Assumptions: Standard eukaryotic mitosis sequence. Chromatids have already separated by the time the envelope reforms. Chromosome decondensation accompanies nuclear re-formation. Concept / Approach: Microtubule attachments and motion occur while the nuclear envelope is disassembled (prometaphase through metaphase and anaphase). Once chromatids reach the poles, the cell rebuilds the envelope using ER-derived membranes and lamins, which is the defining feature of telophase, followed by cytokinesis. Step-by-Step Solution: Note that anaphase accomplishes sister chromatid segregation.Recognize telophase as nuclear envelope reassembly and chromatin relaxation.Choose telophase as the correct phase. Verification / Alternative check: Live-cell imaging with fluorescent lamins or nuclear pore components shows recruitment to chromatid masses specifically in telophase. Why Other Options Are Wrong: Anaphase: movement, not envelope re-formation. Metaphase: alignment on the plate with envelope absent. Prophase/prometaphase: envelope breakdown begins; opposite of re-formation. Common Pitfalls: Equating late anaphase with telophase; use the envelope reassembly as the telophase marker. Final Answer: Telophase

Cell Cycle Questions