A beam of span L is pin-supported at both ends and subjected to a pure bending couple of magnitude M applied at mid-span. What is the maximum bending moment in the beam?
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AM/2
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BM
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CM/3
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DML/2
Answer
Correct Answer: M/2
Explanation
Introduction / Context:Beams under applied moments (couples) behave differently from beams under transverse loads. Understanding how a concentrated couple influences reactions, shear, and bending moment is key to correct analysis.
Given Data / Assumptions:
- Simply supported (pin–pin) beam of length L.
- A pure couple of magnitude M applied at mid-span.
- Linear elastic behavior.
Concept / Approach:A couple has no net force; the end reactions must form an equal and opposite couple to maintain equilibrium. Let left reaction be +R and right reaction be −R so that ΣF = 0 and the couple R*L balances M.
Step-by-Step Solution:Global moment balance → R * L = M → R = M / L.Left span shear V = +R; right span shear V = −R.Bending moment for 0 < x < L/2: M(x) = R x → at x = L/2: M = (M/L)*(L/2) = M/2.Across the applied couple, internal M has a jump of magnitude M; immediately to the right of mid-span, M = M/2 − M = −M/2.Thus the maximum absolute bending moment in the beam is M/2.
Verification / Alternative check:Shear is piecewise constant, so M(x) is linear on each side, peaking in magnitude at mid-span with value ±M/2.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
- M: would require zero reactions or fixed ends; not applicable here.
- M/3, ML/2: do not satisfy equilibrium with pin supports under a mid-span couple.
Common Pitfalls:
- Assuming a couple creates zero internal moments everywhere; it induces linear M with a jump at the application point.
Final Answer:M/2