A beam of span L is pin-supported at both ends and subjected to a pure bending couple of magnitude M applied at mid-span. What is the maximum bending moment in the beam?

Difficulty: Medium

Correct Answer: M/2

Explanation:


Introduction / Context:
Beams under applied moments (couples) behave differently from beams under transverse loads. Understanding how a concentrated couple influences reactions, shear, and bending moment is key to correct analysis.



Given Data / Assumptions:

  • Simply supported (pin–pin) beam of length L.
  • A pure couple of magnitude M applied at mid-span.
  • Linear elastic behavior.



Concept / Approach:
A couple has no net force; the end reactions must form an equal and opposite couple to maintain equilibrium. Let left reaction be +R and right reaction be −R so that ΣF = 0 and the couple R*L balances M.



Step-by-Step Solution:
Global moment balance → R * L = M → R = M / L.Left span shear V = +R; right span shear V = −R.Bending moment for 0 < x < L/2: M(x) = R x → at x = L/2: M = (M/L)*(L/2) = M/2.Across the applied couple, internal M has a jump of magnitude M; immediately to the right of mid-span, M = M/2 − M = −M/2.Thus the maximum absolute bending moment in the beam is M/2.



Verification / Alternative check:
Shear is piecewise constant, so M(x) is linear on each side, peaking in magnitude at mid-span with value ±M/2.



Why Other Options Are Wrong:

  • M: would require zero reactions or fixed ends; not applicable here.
  • M/3, ML/2: do not satisfy equilibrium with pin supports under a mid-span couple.



Common Pitfalls:

  • Assuming a couple creates zero internal moments everywhere; it induces linear M with a jump at the application point.



Final Answer:
M/2

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