Correct Answer: if neither I nor II is implicit.
Explanation:
I is not implicit because it implies that value-based voting still prevails, though it does not have too long a future. But the statement clearly suggests that value-based voting is absent. What about Assumption II, which talks of the potential of value-based voting? Well, the only potential the speaker has in mind is that it's a step in the positive direction. But can it undo what has been done ? we don't know.
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