A sum of money lent at compound interest for 2 years at 20% per annum would fetch ₹ 482 more, if the interest was payable half-yearly than if it was payable annually. The sum is :
Aptitude
Compound Interest
Difficulty: Medium
Choose an option
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A₹ 10,000
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B₹ 20,000
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C₹ 40,000
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D₹ 50,000
Answer
Correct Answer: ₹ 20,000
Explanation
### Concept & Compound Interest Frequency
The effective interest earned changes based on compounding frequency. Compounding more frequently yields higher total interest.
$$Amount = P\left(1 + \frac{R}{n \times 100}\right)^{n \times T}$$
where $n$ is the number of compounding periods per year.
### Step-by-Step Solution
1. Let the principal sum be $P$.
2. **Case 1: Annually**
Amount after 2 years = $P\left(1 + \frac{20}{100}\right)^2 = P(1.2)^2 = 1.44P$
Compound Interest (CIA) = $1.44P - P = 0.44P$
3. **Case 2: Half-Yearly**
Rate per half-year = $\frac{20\%}{2} = 10\%$. Number of periods = $2 \times 2 = 4$.
Amount after 2 years = $P\left(1 + \frac{10}{100}\right)^4 = P(1.1)^4 = 1.4641P$
Compound Interest (CIH) = $1.4641P - P = 0.4641P$
4. **Difference**
Given difference = ₹ 482
$0.4641P - 0.44P = 482$
$0.0241P = 482$
$P = \frac{482}{0.0241} = 20,000$
### Exam Strategy & Shortcut
For 20% over 2 years: Annual effective CI is 44%.
For 10% over 4 periods: Effective CI is 46.41% (memorizing Pascal's triangle or successive percentage changes helps: 10% twice is 21%, 21% twice is $21 + 21 + 4.41 = 46.41\%$).
Difference = 2.41%.
$2.41\% \text{ of } P = 482 \implies 1\% \text{ of } P = 200 \implies 100\% = 20,000$.
### Common Pitfall
A common mistake is forgetting to adjust both the rate and the time period when switching from annual to half-yearly compounding.
### Final Answer
Therefore, the correct answer is **₹ 20,000**.