A salesman's commission is 5% on all sales up to ₹ 10000 and 4% of all sales exceeding this amount. He remits ₹ 31100 to the parent company after deducting his commission. His sales were worth
Aptitude
Percentage
Difficulty: Hard
Choose an option
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A₹ 32500
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B₹ 35000
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C₹ 35100
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D₹ 36100
Answer
Correct Answer: ₹ 32500
Explanation
### Concept & Equation
The total sales amount is divided into two tiers for commission calculation. The remittance to the parent company is strictly the total sales minus the total commission earned.
$$\text{Remittance} = \text{Total Sales} - \text{Total Commission}$$
### Step-by-Step Solution
* Let the total sales be $S$.
* The commission on the first ₹ 10000 is 5%:
$$C_1 = 0.05 \times 10000 = 500$$
* The commission on sales exceeding ₹ 10000 is 4%:
$$C_2 = 0.04 \times (S - 10000)$$
* Set up the remittance equation based on total sales minus total commission:
$$31100 = S - [500 + 0.04(S - 10000)]$$
* Distribute and simplify the equation:
$$31100 = S - 500 - 0.04S + 400$$
$$31100 = 0.96S - 100$$
* Solve for $S$:
$$31200 = 0.96S$$
$$S = \frac{31200}{0.96} = \frac{3120000}{96} = 32500$$
### Exam Strategy & Shortcut
Instead of heavy algebra, logically shift the commission rate. If the salesman earned a flat 4% on *all* sales, his commission on the first ₹ 10000 would drop by 1% (from 5% to 4%).
1% of 10000 = ₹ 100.
If his commission drops by ₹ 100, his remittance to the company must increase by ₹ 100.
New theoretical remittance = $31100 + 100 = 31200$.
Since the company now gets 96% of total sales:
$$0.96S = 31200 \implies S = 32500$$.
This mental shift avoids expanding brackets entirely.
### Common Pitfall
A major error is formulating the commission on the remaining amount as just $0.04S$ instead of $0.04(S - 10000)$. This double-counts the first ₹ 10000 and heavily skews the final algebraic result.
### Final Answer
**Therefore, the correct answer is ₹ 32500.**