Puneet buys 240 articles and labels each with the same marked price. He sells 160 articles initially at 20% discount on the labelled price. Then he sells rest articles at an additional discount of 25% on the discounted price. Thus, he gets total of ₹Z, and makes profit of 10%. When he offered no discount find its profit %.
Aptitude
Profit and Loss
Difficulty: Medium
Choose an option
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A50%
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B25%
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C20%
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D33%
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ENone of these
Answer
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation
### Concept & Profit Calculation
The core concept involves relating Cost Price (CP), Selling Price (SP), and Marked Price (MP).
Profit percentage is always calculated on the base Cost Price:
$$ \text{Profit } \% = \frac{\text{SP} - \text{CP}}{\text{CP}} \times 100 $$
### Step-by-Step Solution
* Let the Cost Price (CP) of 1 article be $1$ unit. Total CP for 240 articles = $240$.
* Let the Marked Price (MP) of each article be $M$.
* The total Selling Price (SP) is ₹Z. Since there is an overall profit of 10%, the total SP must be $110\%$ of the total CP:
$\text{Total SP} = 240 \times 1.10 = 264$ units.
* Now, let's calculate the SP based on the discounts:
* First 160 articles are sold at a 20% discount on MP.
$\text{SP}_1 = 160 \times (M \times (1 - 0.20)) = 160 \times 0.8M = 128M$
* The remaining 80 articles are sold at an *additional* 25% discount on the *already discounted* price ($0.8M$).
$\text{New Discounted Price} = 0.8M \times (1 - 0.25) = 0.8M \times 0.75 = 0.6M$
$\text{SP}_2 = 80 \times 0.6M = 48M$
* Total SP in terms of M = $128M + 48M = 176M$.
* Equate the two total SP values:
$176M = 264$
$M = \frac{264}{176} = 1.5$ units.
* The Marked Price (MP) is $1.5$ per article, while the Cost Price (CP) is $1$ per article.
* If no discount is offered, the new SP equals the MP ($1.5$).
* Profit = $1.5 - 1 = 0.5$.
* Profit % = $(\frac{0.5}{1}) \times 100\% = 50\%$.
### Exam Strategy & Shortcut
Assume the CP of one article is 100 to avoid decimals. Total CP = 24000. Total SP = 26400 (10% profit).
Equating the sales: $(160 \times 80\% \times M) + (80 \times 60\% \times M) = 26400 \implies 128M + 48M = 26400 \implies 176M = 26400 \implies M = 150$.
If CP is 100 and MP is 150, the profit percentage without discount is simply 50%.
### Common Pitfall
A common error is applying the second 25% discount to the original marked price rather than the already discounted price (successive discount). "Additional discount on the discounted price" means it compounds on the 80% value, becoming 60% overall.
### Final Answer
Therefore, the correct answer is **50%**.