Evaluate the product (log tan 1°) (log tan 2°) … (log tan 50°).

Difficulty: Easy

Correct Answer: 0

Explanation:


Introduction / Context:
Among well-known trigonometric values, tan 45° = 1, so log(tan 45°) = log 1 = 0 (for any base). Because the product explicitly includes the factor with 45°, the entire product collapses to zero.


Given Data / Assumptions:

  • Sequence runs from 1° up to 50°; thus it includes 45°.
  • All logs share the same base.


Concept / Approach:

  • Multiplying any finite product by 0 yields 0.
  • No other special pairing is required, though identities like tan θ · tan(90° − θ) = 1 can explain complementary behavior.


Step-by-Step Reasoning:

tan 45° = 1 ⇒ log(tan 45°) = log 1 = 0Product contains a 0 factor ⇒ total product = 0


Verification / Alternative check:
Countrate the terms: 1°, 2°, …, 45°, …, 50° includes 45°; hence result is immediate.


Why Other Options Are Wrong:

  • 1, 2, −1 ignore the zero factor.


Common Pitfalls:

  • Confusing “product of logs” with “log of product”. Here we are literally multiplying log values.


Final Answer:
0

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