If $\frac{p}{a} + \frac{q}{b} + \frac{r}{c} = 1$ and $\frac{a}{p} + \frac{b}{q} + \frac{c}{r} = 0$ where $a, b, c, p, q, r$ are non-zero real numbers, then $\frac{p^2}{a^2} + \frac{q^2}{b^2} + \frac{r^2}{c^2}$ is equal to
Aptitude
Simplification
Difficulty: Medium
Choose an option
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A0
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B1
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C3
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D9
Answer
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation
### Concept & Formula
This problem is a disguised application of the algebraic identity for the square of a trinomial:
$$(X + Y + Z)^2 = X^2 + Y^2 + Z^2 + 2(XY + YZ + ZX)$$
### Step-by-Step Solution
* To make the problem visually simpler, substitute the fractions with capital variables:
Let $X = \frac{p}{a}$, $Y = \frac{q}{b}$, and $Z = \frac{r}{c}$.
* The first given equation becomes:
$$X + Y + Z = 1$$
* The second given equation represents their reciprocals:
$$\frac{1}{X} + \frac{1}{Y} + \frac{1}{Z} = 0$$
* Combine the reciprocal equation into a single fraction by finding a common denominator ($XYZ$):
$$\frac{YZ + XZ + XY}{XYZ} = 0$$
* Since the fraction equals zero, its numerator must be zero:
$$XY + YZ + ZX = 0$$
* Now we need to find the value of $\frac{p^2}{a^2} + \frac{q^2}{b^2} + \frac{r^2}{c^2}$, which translates to finding $X^2 + Y^2 + Z^2$.
* Use the trinomial square identity:
$$(X + Y + Z)^2 = X^2 + Y^2 + Z^2 + 2(XY + YZ + ZX)$$
* Substitute the known values ($X+Y+Z=1$ and $XY+YZ+ZX=0$):
$$1^2 = X^2 + Y^2 + Z^2 + 2(0)$$
$$1 = X^2 + Y^2 + Z^2$$
### Exam Strategy & Shortcut
By using the substitution variable method (changing complex fractions into $X, Y, Z$), you reduce visual clutter, which drastically decreases the cognitive load and prevents transcription errors under exam pressure.
### Common Pitfall
A standard error is misinterpreting $\frac{a}{p} + \frac{b}{q} + \frac{c}{r} = 0$ and wrongly assuming it implies the original fractions square to 0. Always combine reciprocal sums properly to find the pairwise product sum.
### Final Answer
Therefore, the correct answer is **1**.